Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cancer Care > Haem Key Conditions > Flashcards

Haem Key Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What is neutrophillia? Cause?

A

Increased neutrophils
Infection, inflammation, bleeding, smoking, CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is neutropenia?Causes?

A

Decreased neutrophils
Infection, drugs eg chemo, immune related eg Feltys syndrome, bone marrow failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is lymphocytosis? Causes?

A

Increase in white blood cells
Infection, leukaemia, low grade lymphoma, trauma, splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is lymphopenia? Causes?

A

Low white blood cells
Hodgkin’s lymphoma, chemo, anorexia, aplastic anaemia, renal/liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is eosinophilia? Causes?

A

High eosinophils
Allergic conditions - asthma, hay fever, parasites eg hookworm, drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define leukaemia

A

Group of disorders characterised by accumulation of malignant white cells in bone marrow and peripheral blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is pancytopenia?Causes?

A

Decreased red cells, white cells and platelets
Acute leukaemia, Aplastic anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is polycythemia Vera?

A

Increased red blood cells, makes blood more viscous.
Rare type of blood cancer affecting bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Polycythemia Vera symptoms

A

Fatigue, headaches, dizziness
Blurred vision, peripheral tingling
HTN
Mucosal cyanosis, petechiae
Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Polycythemia Vera causes

A

JAK 2 gene mutation
Secondary can be caused by smoking, sleep apnoea, steroids + COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Polycythemia Vera treatment

A

Phlebotomy
Increase fluid intake
Aspirin
Myelosuppressive agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Polycythemia Vera complications

A

Blood clots resulting in MI, Stroke, PE, retinal artery blockage and subsequent blindness
Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Polycythemia Vera investigation

A

JAK2 screen
Erythropoietin level
FBC, U+E, LFT, bone profile
Blood film
Bone marrow biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Polycythemia Vera risk factors

A

Age over 60
History of bud-chiari syndrome
FH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Type of blood cancer affecting lymphocytes. Has reed-sternberg cells on microscopy - B lymphocytes that have become cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma symptoms

A

Painless swelling of lymph nodes - commonly in neck, axilla and groin
Night sweats
Unexplained fever
Weightloss (10% 6 months)
Itching
SoB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma investigation

A

FBC, U+E,LFT, Bone profile
Blood film
Lymph node biopsy
CT chest abdo pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma risk factors

A

Age 20-40 or over 75
Male
Immunosuppressants or HIV
Smoking
Previous EBV exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma staging

A

Stage 1 = 1 group of lymph nodes on 1 side of diaphragm
Stage 2 = multiple groups of lymph nodes on one side of diaphragm
Stage 3= multiple groups of lymph nodes on either side of diaphragm
Stage 4 = spread beyond lymph system, cancer present in organs or bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma treatment

A

Discussed at MDT
Chemo
Corticosteroids
Radiotherapy (stage 1 or 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma complications

A

Weakened immune system
Infertility
Second cancers - breast, lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is essential thrombocytosis

A

Increased platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why can ET predispose to gout

A

High cell turnover causes increased Uris acid levels, which predisposes to gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Causes of ET

A

JAK2 mutation, CALR mutation
Secondary causes - iron deficiency, infection, splenectomy, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ET complications

A

Thrombosis
Malignant transformation to AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ET treatment

A

Interferon
Hydroxyurea
Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is CML

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Myeloproliferative disorder with increased neutrophil proliferation
Affects mature cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Philadelphia chromosome

A

Translocation of chromosome 9 and 22
Found in 90% CML cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cells on CML blood smear

A

Blast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Symptoms of CML

A

Usually asymptomatic at diagnosis
Splenomegaly- early satiety + LUQ pain
Fatigue, fever, weightloss, itchiness, priapism
Tenderness over sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CML blood results

A

Inc WBC (neutrophils)
Inc basophils
Dec RBC
Dec platelets
% blast cells on bone marrow biopsy determines phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CML treatment

A

Imantinib - tyrosine kinase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is multiple myeloma

A

Proliferative disorder of plasma cells - uncontrolled replication of plasma cells and secretion of immunoglobulin proteins IgG and IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Multiple myeloma signs and symptoms

A

CRAB

Hypercalcaemia
Renal insufficiency
Anaemia (normocytic)
Bone leisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What symptoms does hypercalcaemia cause?

A

Renal stones
Constipation
Neurological symptoms- depression
Bone fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why do you get renal insufficiency in multiple myeloma

A

Monoclonal protein nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bone lesions in multiple myeloma causes and symptoms

A

Increased osteoclast activity
Back pain, spinal cord compressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

RF multiple myeloma

A

Chromosome abnormalities (translocation chromosome 14)
Older age
Obese
Alcohol
Chemical exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Multiple myeloma Ivx

A

Bloods - FBC (pancytopenia), bone profile, U+E,
Skeletal survey
Urine/serum electrophoresis
Bone marrow aspirate

40
Q

What is needed to diagnose multiple myeloma

A

> 10% clonal bone marrow plasma cells or plasmamocytomas
Plus a myeloma defining event (CRAB)

41
Q

Multiple myeloma treatment

A

Hypercalcaemia- iv fluids, bisphosphonates
Spinal involvement- surgery, radiotherapy

Dexamethasone, thalidomide + protease inhibitor
Chemo
Monoclonal antibodies
Stem cell transplant

42
Q

What is CLL

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Proliferation of mature lymphocytes (involves monoclonal B cells)

Slow growing, incurable but can be managed with treatment

43
Q

CLL symptoms

A

Usually asymptomatic
Weightloss
Swollen glands
Recurrent infections
Petechiae
Fever
Night sweats

44
Q

RF CLL

A

Older age
Male
FH

45
Q

CLL treatment

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
B cell lymphocyte inhibitor
Immunotherapy
Watch and wait

46
Q

Polycythemia complications

A

Risk of transformation to AML or Myelofibrosis

47
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome

A

Metabolic disturbances rising from the rapid breakdown of malignant cells, following treatment initiation

48
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome bloods

A

Hyperkalaemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hyperuriceamia
Hypocalcemia

49
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome complications

A

Arrythmia
Seizure
Sudden death
AKI

50
Q

Malignancy high risk for tumour lysis syndrome

A

ALL, AML, Burkitt lymphoma, other NHL

51
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome symptoms

A

Lethargy
N+V
Diarrhoea
Anorexia
Muscle aches
Syncope
Pruritis

52
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome signs

A

Fluid overload
Haematuria
Tetany, parathesia
Bronchospasm

53
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome clinical dx

A

Serum creatinine >1.5x upper limit
Arrythmia/ sudden death
Seizure

54
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome prophylaxis

A

Hypouricaemic agents - rasburicase or allopurinol

55
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome mx

A

Fluids
Calcium gluconate + insulin/dextrose infusion (hyperkalaemia)
Phosphate binders (hyperphosphataemia)
Rasburicase (hyperuricaemia)

56
Q

Indication for transfusion

A

Acute severe bleed
Hb <70
Hb <80 + symptomatic
Chronic anaemia - patients have individual thresholds

57
Q

What does group and save do

A

Check ABO group, rhesus D and look for red cell antibodies

58
Q

What does cross match do

A

Mix pt plasma with donor blood- looks for agglutination

59
Q

Who needs CMV negative blood

A

Pregnant women
Neonates

60
Q

Who needs irradiated blood

A

Hx of Hodgkin’s
Neonates
Certain chemos
Stem cell transplant

61
Q

ABO Haemolysis symptoms

A

Impending doom
Nausea + vomiting
Loin pain
Fever + chills
Tachycardia
Tachypnoenia
AKI
DIC

62
Q

What is used as fibrinogen replacement

A

Cryoprecipitate

63
Q

What do you give if rhesus - mother is sensitised

A

Anti D

64
Q

How to you check if enough anti D has been given

A

Kleinhauer test

65
Q

What is TACO

A

transfusion associated circulatory overload
Typically causes HTN and pulmonary oedema
Most common cause of transfusion related death

66
Q

Causes of TACO

A

Excessive rate of transfusion
Pre-existing heart or renal failure

67
Q

TACO management

A

Stop transfusion
IV furosemide
O2

68
Q

What is TRALI

A

Transfusion related acute lung injury
Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema secondary to increased vascular permeability

69
Q

TRALI features

A

Hypoxia, pulmonary infiltrates on X-ray
Fever, hypotension

70
Q

TRALI management

A

Stop transfusion
O2
Supportive care

71
Q

Why does an acute haemolytic reaction occur in transfusion

A

ABO incompatible blood, usually secondary to human error

72
Q

Acute haemolytic reaction features

A

Fever
Abdo + chest pain
Hypotension
Agitation
Symptoms begin within minutes of transfusion starting

73
Q

Acute haemolytic reaction management

A

Stop transfusion
Fluid resus
Inform lab- send blood for repeat crossmatch and Coombs test

74
Q

Acute haemolytic reaction complications

A

Death
DIC
renal failure

75
Q

What causes non haemolytic febrile reaction

A

White blood cell HLA antibodies
Usually result of sensitisation in pregnancy or previous transfusion

76
Q

Non haemolytic febrile reaction management

A

Slow/ pause transfusion
Paracetamol
Monitor

77
Q

Minor allergic reaction in transfusion management

A

Pause transfusion
Antihistamine
Monitor

78
Q

Minor allergic reaction in transfusion symptoms

A

Pruritus
Urticaria

79
Q

Anaphylaxis symptoms (transfusion)

A

Hypotension
Dyspnoea
Wheeze
Angiooedema

80
Q

What is NHL

A

Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Cancer of the lymphatic system

81
Q

NHL symptoms

A

Painless swelling or lump in axilla, groin, neck
B symptoms- night sweats, weightloss, unexplained fever, unexplained itching
Hepatosplenomegaly

82
Q

NHL IVX

A

Lymph node biopsy
CXR
CT CAP
FBC - anaemia , lymphocytosis
LDH

83
Q

Low grade v high grade NHL

A

Low grade - slow growing follicular is most common

High grade - fast growing, aggressive diffuse large B cell most common

84
Q

NHL treatment

A

Low grade - watch + wait, rituximab, chemo
High grade - rituximab, intensive chemo (R-CHOP)

85
Q

NHL RF

A

Age 75+
Immunosupression
H pylori, EBV, HIV
Coeliac disease
FH
Previous cancer + treatment

86
Q

What is AML

A

Malignant neoplasticdisease affecting WBC

87
Q

AML aetiology

A

Uncontrolled growth along myeloid cell line, causing proliferation of immature non-functional WBC

88
Q

AML RF

A

Pre-existing haematological disorder- PRV,myelodysplastic syndrome
Down’s syndrome
Prevchemo

89
Q

AML Symptoms

A

Anaemia - fatigue, weakness, pallor, SoB, palpitations
Thrombocytopenia- easy bruising, epistaxis
Neutropenia - recurrent infections
Hepatosplenomegaly

90
Q

AML IVX

A

FBC - anaemia, thrombocytopenia
Peripheral blood smear - Auer rods
LDH
Coagulation profile
Bone marrow biopsy
Flow cytometry

91
Q

AML management

A

Chemo
Bone marrow transplant
Transfusion
Anti microbial prophylaxis

92
Q

AML Complications

A

Leukostasis - resp or neuro distress
Tumour lysis syndrome
DIC

93
Q

ALL symptoms

A

Fatigue + weakness
Easy bruising + bleeding
Pale
Recurrent infections
Fever
Swollen glands

94
Q

ALL RF

A

Children + young adults
Down’s syndrome
Previous chemo or radiotherapy
Immunosupression- HIV

95
Q

ALL IVX

A

Bloods
Bone marrow biopsy

96
Q

What is MGUS

A

Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
Non-cancerous condition where body makes an abnormal paraprotein
Inc risk myeloma

97
Q

MGUS management

A

Active monitoring
- regular blood tests

Cancer Care (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions