Haem Ix Mx Flashcards

1
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome (blood clots -> miscarriages)

A

Ix = anticardiolipin ab’s (+ anti-beta2GPI)
lupus anticoagulant
thrombocytopenia
prolonged APTT

Mx:

Primary thromboprophylaxis = low-dose aspirin

Secondary thromboprophylaxis

Initial VTE/arterial thrombosis = lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3

Pregnancy = aspirin + LMWH

Recurrent VTE = lifelong warfarin; if occurred whilst taking warfarin then + low-dose aspirin, increase target INR to 3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

Ix: bloods and clotting time

↓ platelets
↓ fibrinogen
↑ PT & APTT (because platelets are used up)
↑ fibrinogen degradation products
schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (E.coli damages vessel wall -> microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia)

A

Ix: Triad of MAHA, thrombocytopenia and renal failure

FBC - MAHA (Hb<8 g/dL) + thrombocytopenia + negative Coomb’s test

U&E - acute kidney injury

Blood film: schistocytes and helmet cells

PCR for E.coli Shiga toxins

Mx:

treatment is supportive e.g. Fluids, blood transfusion and dialysis if required

No role for antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Haemophilia

A

Ix = Blood tests

prolonged APTT (deficient in f.8 in intrinsic pathway) haemophili-eight

bleeding time, thrombin time, prothrombin time normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) (ab’s against GP IIb/IIIa)

A

Ix: FBC = an isolated thrombocytopenia

antiplatelet autoantibodies (usually IgG)

bone marrow aspiration shows megakaryocytes in the marrow. This should be carried out prior to the commencement of steroids in order to rule out leukaemia

Mx = usually, no treatment is required, it resolves in around 80% of children with 6 months, with or without treatment

1st = oral pred (80% of patients respond)

splenectomy if platelets < 30 after 3 months of steroid therapy

IV immunoglobulins

immunosuppressive drugs e.g. cyclophosphamide

avoid trauma sports
If platlets are v low (e.g. < 10 * 109/L) then steroids, ig’s and platelet transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Multiple myeloma (Calcium, Renal issues, Anaemia, Bone pain)

NSAIDs can precipitate renal failure in patients with multiple myeloma

A

Ix:

FBC = anaemia (+ commonly leucopenia)
peripheral blood film = rouleaux formation
urea and electrolytes = renal failure
bone profile = hypercalcaemia

Protein electrophoresis = monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum. In the urine, they are known as Bence Jones proteins

Bone marrow aspiration
confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised (30%)

Imaging

Whole body MRI
skull X-Ray = ‘rain-drop skull’ (likened to the pattern rain forms after hitting a surface and splashing, where it leaves a random pattern of dark spots). Note that a very similar, but subtly different finding is found in primary hyperparathyroidism - ‘pepperpot skull’

Mx:

Thalidomide*/Bort + dexamethasone
+ bisphos for bones

IV saline to treat the acute effects of hypercalcaemia and stabilise the pt!

*Crabs have thalidomide hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Myelofibrosis

differentiator between myelofibrosis and aplastic anaemia?

A

Ix: hypermetabolic symptoms - weight loss, night sweats

Lab;

  1. ‘tear-drop’ poikilocytes on blood film
  2. Dry tap (trephine biopsy needed)
  3. High urate and LDH (reflect increased cell turnover)

Also, anaemia and a high WBC and platelet count early in the disease

Mx = Hydroxycarbamide

Differentiator = Myelofibrosis has MASSIVE SPLENOMEGALY!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Polycythaemia

A

Ix = JAK2 mutations

Mx = aspirin, venesection, chemo

chemotherapy (hydroxyurea/phosphorus-32)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sickle cell disease

Admit all people with clinical features of a sickle cell crisis to hospital unless they are:

A well adult who only has mild or moderate pain and has a temperature of 38°C or less.

A well child who only has mild or moderate pain and does not have an increased temperature.

A

Ix = haemoglobin electrophoresis + Blood film*

Mx:

Crisis management = Analgesia,
+ fluids + oxygen. ab’s if theres an infection

Longer-term management = hydroxyurea + Pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years

Hydroxyurea (aka hydroxycarbamide)- increases the HbF levels and is used in the prophylactic management of sickle cell anaemia to prevent painful episodes

*Sodium metabisulphite can be added to blood smears to mimic
accelerated deoxygenation. RBCs with high haemoglobin S concentrations
undergo sickling in a reduced oxygen environment. Further investigation
would be needed to differentiate homozygous and heterozygous sickle cell disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Thalassaemia

A

Ix = Hb electrophoresis

Mx = Repeat transfusion + iron chelation (desferoxamine to prevent iron overload)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vitamin B12 & Folate deficiency

A

Ix:

Sore tongue and mouth
Neurological symptoms
Dorsal column is usually affected first (joint position, vibration) prior to distal paraesthesia
neuropsychiatric symptoms: e.g. mood disturbances

Mx:

No neuro involvement = 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin (B12)

(3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months)

If pt is also deficient in folic acid => It is important to treat the B12 deficiency 1st! to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord

Then can give oral folic acid to replenish stores

Pt > 60 who present with IDA should be investigated for colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Von Willebrand’s disease

bleeding test abnormality?

A

Von Willebrand factor is important in platelet adhesion and Factor VIII

Patient’s therefore have normal PT and platelet counts but bleeding time
and PTT are abnormal!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CML

A

Ix: Philidelphia chromosone for (t.9:22), PCR for BCR-ABL gene, BM shows lots of immature myelocytes

To differentiate from AML;
granulocytes are different stages of maturation shown by immature band forms and mature neutrophils. Also the platelet count may also be raised

Mx:

1st = Imatinib (inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect)

2nd = hydroxyurea, INF-alpha

3rd = BM transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CLL

A

Ix: FBC (lymphocytosis)

Anaemia* + thrombocytopenia:

blood film: smudge/smear clls

Gold standard = immunophenotyping ab’s for CD5, CD19, CD20 and CD23

*Associated with warm haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Epistaxis

A

Mx: to be edited

If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures. This involves:
Asking the patient to sit with their torso forward and their mouth open and avoid lying down unless they feel faint

This decreases blood flow to the nasopharynx and allows the patient to spit out any blood in their mouth
it also reduces the risk of aspirating blood

Pinch the cartilaginous (soft) area of the nose firmly
this should be done for at least 20 minutes
also ask the patient to breathe through their mouth.

If first aid measures are successful
consider using a topical antiseptic such as Naseptin (chlorhexidine and neomycin) to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis

cautions to this include patients that have peanut, soy or neomycin allergies

Mupirocin is a viable alternative
admission and follow up care may be considered in patients under if a comorbidity (e.g. coronary artery disease, or severe hypertension) is present, an underlying cause is suspected
they are aged under 2 years (as underlying causes such as haemophilia or leukaemia are more likely in this age group)

self-care advice involves reducing the risk of re-bleeding
patients should be informed that blowing or picking the nose, heavy lifting, exercise, lying flat, drinking alcohol or hot drinks should be avoided

If bleeding does not stop after 10-15 minutes of continuous pressure on the nose consider cautery or packing

cautery should be used initially if the source of the bleed is visible and cautery is tolerated
it is not so well-tolerated in younger children!
ask the patient to blow their nose in order to remove any clots. Be wary that bleeding may resume.
use a topical local anaesthetic spray (e.g. Co-phenylcaine) and wait 3-4 minutes for it to take effect
identify the bleeding point and apply the silver nitrate stick for 3-10 seconds until it becomes grey-white. Avoid touching areas which do not require treatment, and only cauterise one side of the septum as there is a risk of perforation.
dab the area clean with a cotton bud and apply Naseptin or Muciprocin
packing may be used if cautery is not viable or the bleeding point cannot be visualised
anaesthetise with topical local anaesthetic spray (e.g. Co-phenylcaine) and wait for 3-4 minutes
pack the patient’s nose while they are sitting with their head forward, following the manufacturer’s instructions
pressure on the cartilage around the nostril can cause cosmetic changes and this should be reviewed after inserting the pack.
examine the patient’s mouth and throat for any continuing bleeding, and consider packing the other nostril as this increases pressure on the septum and offending vessel.
patients should be admitted to hospital for observation and review, and to ENT if available

Patients that are haemodynamically unstable or compromised = admit to the emergency department and control bleeding with first aid measures in the interim

patients with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source (i.e. the bleeding site cannot be located on speculum, bleeding from both nostrils or profuse) should be admitted to hospital.

Epistaxis that has failed all emergency management
may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is factor v leiden

A

Factor V Leiden
is a mutation of factor V which makes it resistant to the action of protein
C (it gets degraded 10x more slowly!)

The increased presence of factor V therefore creates a procoagulant
state predisposing to pathology such as DVTs.

Factor V Leiden is one of
the most common causes of an inherited procoagulant state!! Present in approximately 5 per cent of the Caucasian population

17
Q

Differentiator between folic acid deficiency and b12 deficiency?

A

Similar sx but neurological symptoms are not as prominent and patients tend
to have a history of malnutrition in folic acid deficiency

Folate deficiency is commonly associated with alcohol disease as it is required to metabolize alcohol, poor diet and skin disease

Hypersegmented
neutrophils can be associated with B12 or folic acid deficiency

18
Q

How to tell the difference between TRALI, TACO, non-febrile haemolytic reaction, ABO incompatibility

A

Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction occurs due to white cell antibodies reacting with the leukocytes present in the blood transfusion

Patients usually have a history of blood transfusions or pregnancy. Patients usually present with fever, rigors and discomfort.

TACO = oedema/fluid overload + HF (raised JVP and preexisiting htn), S3 present, afebrile

TRALI = Hypotension + pyrexia + no change in JVP. mx = oxygen, fluids, escalate!

The hypertensive TACO and the burnign hot TRAIL!

ABO incompatibility is within minutes/hours

19
Q

How do you differentiate between ALL and AML?

A

Sudan Black stain

20
Q

Whats the EPO and MCV for Polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Since polycythaemia rubra vera is a point mutation abnormality, the bone
marrow produces excess myeloid lineage cells.

This feeds back negatively
upon erythropoietin production from the renal cells, such that a raised red
cell mass but low erythropoietin level

21
Q

Waldenstroms

A

Seen in older men. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein

Features
systemic upset: weight loss, lethargy
hyperviscosity syndrome e.g. visual disturbance
the pentameric configuration of IgM increases serum viscosity
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
cryoglobulinaemia e.g. Raynaud’s

Investigations

monoclonal IgM paraproteinaemia
bone marrow biopsy is diagnostic
infiltration of the bone marrow with lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma cells

Mx = rituximab-based combination chemotherapy

22
Q

3 drugs CI in G6PD deficiency?

A

Some drugs causing haemolysis

anti-malarials: primaquine

ciprofloxacin

sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas (Glipizide)

23
Q

Criteria for platelet transfusion? what platelt count qualifies someone to get a platelet transfusion

A

Offer transfusion if pt is Active bleeding and pt count is = <30 x 10 9

No active bleeding = threshold of 10 x 109

Pre-surgery;

Aim for plt levels of:
> 50×109/L = most patients

50-75×109/L = pt has a high risk of bleeding

> 100×109/L = if the surgery is at a critical site

Do not offer platelets where platelet transfusion is contraindicated or there are alternative treatments for their condition

For example, do not perform platelet transfusion for any of the following conditions:

Chronic bone marrow failure
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, or
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.

24
Q

Mx for acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be treated with generous fluid resuscitation and termination of the transfusion.

25
Q

What kind of blood is used in BM transplants and why?

A

Irradiated blood products are used as they are depleted in T-lymphocytes and therefore reduce the chance of graft vs host disease