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Oishi's 5th year flashcards > Haem hard to recall > Flashcards

Haem hard to recall Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important cell in the initiation of normal haemostasis?

A

Endothelial cell

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2
Q

What is the main component involved in stabilising the primary haemostatic plug?

A

fibrin

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3
Q

Which protease assists in the break down of blood clots by binding to the clot and localising agents which break it down?

A

Tissue plasminogen-activator (t-PA)

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4
Q

Name a potent inhibitor of plasmin in the blood

A

a2 macroglobulin

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5
Q

Which product of the cyclic endoperoxides induces platelet aggregation?

A

Thromboxane A2

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6
Q

What does an increase in both APTT and PT suggest?

A

Vit K deficiency

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7
Q

Which inherited disease has a raised APTT and bleeding time but a normal PT?

A

Von Willebrand deficiency

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8
Q

What would you expect to find on blood film of ITP?

A

Megakaryocytes

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9
Q

Which protein, important in haemostasis, is vitamin K dependent but is not a serine protease?

A

Protein S

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10
Q

What synthesises tissue factor, vWF, prostacyclin, plasminogen activator, antithrombin III and thrombomodulin?

A

Vascular endothelium

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11
Q

Which key clotting factor activates both factors V and VIII, and also activates protein C?

A

Thrombin

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12
Q

Symptoms of osler-webu-rendu syndrome? AKA hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

A

Recurrent nose bleeds
Anaemia symptoms
Menorrhagia

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13
Q

What would a purple rash on bottom and lower legs be pathognomonic of?
What are some other symptoms associated with it

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpura
Abdo pain
Joint pain

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14
Q

What drug potentiates antithrombin III. Usually given subcutaneously. Can cause osteoporosis and hyperkalaemia?

A

Dalteparin (LMWH)

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15
Q

What type of heparin is reversible?

A

Unfractionated

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16
Q

What is used to monitor patients undergoing warfarin therapy?

A

PT

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17
Q

What is used to monitor patients undergoing unfractionated heparin therapy?

A

APTT

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18
Q

What Reflects the amount and activity of fibrinogen?

A

Thrombin time

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19
Q

In patients with cancer and acute venous thromboembolism, the most effective drug at reducing the risk of recurrent VTE is?

A

LMWH dalteparin

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20
Q

Which anticoagulant drug most likely to cause thrombocytopaenia with paradoxical thrombosis?

A

Unfractionated heparin

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21
Q

What drug is given as thrombotic prophylaxis in DIC?

A

LMWH dalteparin

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22
Q

BM features of Chronic Myelomonocytic Anaemia?

A

Ring sideroblasts
High monocyte count
Auer rods

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23
Q

What does Refractory Anaemia with excess Blasts in Transformation predispose you to?

A

AML

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24
Q

Bone marrow findings of 5q syndrome?

A

Hyperplasia of hypolobulated micromegakaryocytes

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25
Q

What treatment does 5q syndrome respond well to?

A

Lenalidomide

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26
Q

Blood film features of Refractory Anaemia with excess Blasts?

A

Pelger-Huet neutrophils

Blast cells

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27
Q

What would you expect to see on blood film of someone with myelofibrosis?

A

Tear drop poikilocytes

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28
Q

What is imatinib used to treat?

A

BCR-ABL positive CML

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29
Q

What do auer rods indicate?

A

AML

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30
Q

Describe Richter’s transformation

A

CLL converts to diffuse large B cell lymphoma

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31
Q

What cancer is bcr-abl involved in?

A

CML

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32
Q

Patients with which inherited disorder have an increased risk of developing acute leukaemia?

A

Down’s

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33
Q

What is the commonest adult leukaemia?

A

CLL

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34
Q

Why might CML present with a painful toe?

A

Increased mass of turning-over cells generates urate

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35
Q

Dykeratosis congenita triad?

A

Nail dystrophy
Leukoplakia
Cutaneous manifestations e.g. areas of hyperpigmentation

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36
Q

What test is used for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?

A

Ham’s test (positive)

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37
Q

A 19 year old Jewish male presenting with multiple pathological fractures and hypersplenism. What condition do they have?

A

Gaucher’s disease

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38
Q

In which condition might a Donath-Landsteiner be positive?

A

Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria

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39
Q

Dapsone is used to treat dermatitis herpetiformis. Dapsone is known to cause haemolysis in which patients?

A

G6PD deficient patients

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40
Q

What characterises delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)?

A

Manifests days to weeks after transfusion
Falling Hb
Jaundice
Haemoglobinuria

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41
Q

Infection with which virus may result in a false positive Paul Bunnell test?

A

parvovirus B19

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42
Q

What infection are patients with sickle cell disease at risk of causing aplastic crisis in?
Bone marrow findings?

A

parvovirus B19

Red cell aplasia

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43
Q

What is a cause of anaphylaxis to blood transfusion?

A

IgA deficiency

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44
Q

What is Found in patients with Myeloma with low serum albumin and oedema?

A

Amyloid

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45
Q

Which monoclonal immunoglobulin appears as a dense narrow band (M band) on electrophoresis?

A

Paraprotein

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46
Q

What is stimulated by IL-6 secreted by cells in the vicinity of the myeloma cells. Produces radiological changes resembling those of generalized osteoporosis?

A

Osteoclasts

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47
Q

Misfolded protein deposited in myeloma-associated amyloidosis?

A

AL amyloid

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48
Q

A condition involving a low level of paraprotein in the blood in usually asymptomatic elderly patients?

A

MGUS

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49
Q

Induction chemotherapy regimen with the best evidence pre autologous stem cell transplant in multiple myeloma

A

Lenalidomide + low dose dexamethasone

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50
Q

Monoclonal immunoglobulin raised in macroglobinaemia?

A

IgM

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51
Q

Factor(s) associated with a very poor prognosis in multiple myeloma?

A

Anaemia & renal failure

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52
Q

Proteasome inhibitor drug which is active in myeloma?

A

Bortezomib

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53
Q

Tx regimen with the best evidence in multiple myeloma if not suitable for autologous SCT

A

Melphalan + Pred + Thalidomide = first line

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54
Q

3 diagnostic criteria for MM?

A
  1. Presence of a serum or urine monoclonal protein. No minimum value.
  2. Presence of clonal plasma cells in bone marrow >10%
  3. Presence of end organ damage due to the plasma cell dyscrasia: CRAB
    Note - second it’s symptomatic it’s myeloma
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55
Q

2 diagnostic criteria for smouldering myeloma?

A
  1. Serum monoclonal protein >=30g/L and/or marrow plasma cells >=10%
  2. AND No CRAB
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56
Q

3 diagnostic criteria for MGUS?

A
  1. Serum monoclonal protein present but <30g/L
  2. Marrow plasma cells <10%
  3. AND No CRAB
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57
Q

Which paraprotein is most commonly raised in patients with multiple myeloma?

A

IgG

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58
Q

Which cytokine is an important growth factor in the development of myeloma?

A

IL-6

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59
Q

Elevated levels of what imply a poor prognosis in myeloma patients?

A

Beta2 microglobulin

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60
Q

What is Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia?
What do the cells secrete and what is their appearance?
Who is it seen in?
Median survival?

A

Low grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Lymphoplasmacytoid in appearance and secrete IgM
Elderly men
3-5 years

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61
Q

A 43 year old man presents to his GP with concerns over a tender lump on the left side of his abdomen. Investigation showed a normal haemoglobin but a mildly raised white-cell count (13.2 x 109/l). On the blood film these cells were mainly small mononuclear cells resembling lymphocytes. These cells stained positively for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.

A

Hairy Cell Leukaemia

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62
Q

Best Tx for corticosteroid refractory haemolytic anaemia?

A

Splenectomy

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63
Q

Best Tx for CLL?

A

Cyclophosphamide, fludarabine and rituximab

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64
Q

Best Tx for CML?

A

Imatinib

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65
Q

What operation are DiGeorge children ineligible for?

A

Thymectomy

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66
Q

What drug is used in solid organ transplantation, multiple sclerosis, NHL. Depletes lymphocytes? Side effects include ITP and Graves disease.

A

Campath (anti CD52, alemtuzumab)

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67
Q

Anti-proliferative used in polycythaemia rubra vera and essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Hydroxyurea

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68
Q

What drug Reduces platelet count in thrombocythaemia but causes palpitations, tachycardia, fluid retention?

A

Anagrelide

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69
Q

Which Rescue drug after high dose methotrexate is used for gestational trophoblastic disease or intrathecal ALL?

A

Leucovorin (Folinic acid, Formyl tetrahydrofolate)

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70
Q

Advanced Hodgkins disease should be treated with?

A

Combination chemo

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71
Q

Pathological stage IA or IIA Hodgkins disease may be treated with?

A

ABVD combination chemotherapy + radiotherapy if required

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72
Q

A classical but rare constitutional symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Pel-Ebstein fever

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73
Q

An 81 year old man with known prostatic carcinoma presents to his GP with severe bone pain. Blood tests reveal a mild anaemia and peripheral blood film shows nucleated red blood cells and immature myeloid cells. What are these haematological features collectively known as?

A

Leucoerythroblastic anaemia

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74
Q

A 21 year old student recently returning from India complains to his GP of cough, headache and diarrhoea. He is febrile and rose spots are present on his chest. Blood culture reveals salmonella typhi. Which immune cells out of the list are most likely to be raised?

A

Monocytes

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75
Q

Anaemia and neutropenia are more common in which of the above autoimmune disease?

A

SLE

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76
Q

What infection could cause a Monocytosis but with a normal neutrophil count?

A

Brucella infection

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77
Q

What could cause a neutrophilia with visible toxic granulation and vacuoles on the blood film? The monocyte count is normal.

A

Acute fungal infection

78
Q

A 22 year old female who has recently undergone surgery presents with difficulties breathing and swelling of the face, hands and feet. She also complains of severe abdominal pains. She has experienced similar problems in the past. Diagnosis?

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency

79
Q

What is C1 inhibitor deficiency associated with?

A

malignant B-cell lymphoma

80
Q

Difference between VWD and Haemophilia in terms of APTT, PT and bleeding time?

A

Haemophilia: prolonged APTT, NORMAL PT and bleeding time
VWD: prolonged APTT and bleeding time, normal PT

81
Q

A 3 month old boy, of Greek origin is brought to A&E by his mother straight from his christening. On examination, he is crying and appears jaundiced. Mild splenomegaly is felt in his abdomen. His mother says he has a fever and she notes that his urine was very dark when she changed his nappy. Investigation of his blood film reveals polychromatic macrocytes and irregularly shaped red blood cells. You also note his “special christening clothes” that his mother proudly tells you have been in the family for generations, they smell strongly of moth balls. Assay for G6PD reveals a normal level. Dx?

A

G6PD deficiency

82
Q

A 6 year old boy from Greece presents to paediatric outpatients with severe anaemia. On examination he is anaemic and has enlarged maxilla and prominent frontal and parietal bones and hepatosplenomegaly. A skull X-ray reveals expansion of the medullary cavity giving rise to a ‘hair on end’ appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Beta thalassaemia

83
Q

You are asked to see a neonate who while being treated for a urinary tract infection with Nitrofurantoin has developed jaundice. The blood film shows Heinz bodies, “bite cells” and polychromasia. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

G6PD deficiency

84
Q

Who does nitrofurantoin Tx typically cause a jaundice in?

A

Patients with G6PD deficiency

85
Q

What proteins are mutated in hereditary spherocytosis?

86
Q

What blood test is used clinically to measure the activity of the extrinsic and common clotting pathways?

87
Q

What first line small molecule inhibitor is used in the treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

88
Q

An 18 year old presents to their GP with a neck lump.
It is approximately 3.5cm, mobile and untethered in the posterior triangle of the neck. On further questioning, he reports weight loss and drenching night sweats.
A blood film showed the presence of multinucleated and reactive lymphocytes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

89
Q

What abnormality is commonly seen on a full blood count of patients with fanconi anaemia?

A

Pancytopenia

90
Q

What blood test is a measure of fibrin degredation products and may reflect activity of the body’s anticoagulant system?

91
Q

What are inclusions of clusters of nuclear DNA within erythrocytes commonly called when seen in a peripheral blood film?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

92
Q

What stereotypical description relating to erythrocytes can be seen on a blood film with a patient with myelofibrosis?

A

Dacrocyte (tear drop)

93
Q

A bone marrow biopsy for a patient suspected of having multiple myeloma shows 15% clonal plasma cells in the bone marrow. She does not have any symptoms of end organ damage.
What is the diagnosis?

A

Smouldering myeloma

94
Q

A GP suspects a clotting disorder and orders a panel of bloods, including inflammatory markers and a clotting screen. Given the most likely diagnosis, what blood test would you expect to be elevated?

A

APTT (most likely a haemophilia)

95
Q

What description is given to red blood cells which are typically polychromatic and stain heavily for the presence of RNA?

A

Reticulocyte

96
Q

What is the most common immunoglobulin produced by plasma cells in multiple myeloma?

97
Q

What molecule binds free haemoglobin in the bloodstream and may be used in the investigation of haemolysis?

A

Haptoglobin

98
Q

What is the M3 subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukaemia and what drug can it be treated effectively with?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

All Trans Retinoic Acid

99
Q

A patient has a normocytic anaemia, an elevated unconjugated bilirubin, elevated LDH and low haptoglobin. A peripheral blood film reveals spherocytes. Direct Coomb’s test is negative. Dx and what investigation will confirm the diagnosis?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Eosin-5-maleimide test

100
Q

What is the classical finding on a full blood count for a patient suspected of dyskeratosis congenita?

A

Pancytopenia

101
Q

Which chemical ion is required to convert Factor IX to Factor X in the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and Factor VII to Factor X in the extrinsic pathway of the clotting disorder?

102
Q

A 63 year old man is admitted to hospital with severe pain in his right flank which comes and goes in waves. He cannot remain still while the pain is at its worst.
He has had similar episodes in the past which resolved without him seeing a doctor. He has no other past medical history of note.
Blood tests reveal an elevated calcium (3.1, NR 2.2-2.6); a normocytic anaemia (Hb 90, NR >120); and an elevated urea and creatinine.
After further questioning, he reports pain in his back and his legs which has progressively been worsening.
What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Multiple myeloma

103
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

104
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary elliptocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

105
Q

Which haemoglobin chain is mutated in sickle cell disease?

A

Beta globin

106
Q

Symptoms of Diamond-Blackfan anaemia?

A

Present in infancy
Bloods - Anaemia, low reticulocytes and elevated fetal haemoglobin
Bone marrow biopsy - decreased erythroid precursors
Craniofacial malformations e.g. cleft palate
Cardiac defects

107
Q

First line Tx in polycythaemia?

A

Phlebotomy

108
Q

What blood film finding may be found in multiple myeloma and is reflective of a paraproteinaemia? What else does it cause

A

Rouleaux

Causes raised ESR

109
Q

What are inclusions of denatured haemoglobin within erythrocytes commonly called when seen in a peripheral blood film?

A

Heinz body

110
Q

What protein is typically defective in hereditary elliptocytosis?

111
Q

The myeloproliferative syndromes, which include essential thrombocytosis, all carry a risk of transformation to what malignancy?

112
Q

Which clotting factor is prevented from being degraded through binding with Von Willebrand Factor in circulation?

A

Factor VIII

113
Q

What is the most common cause of B12 deficiency in the UK?

A

Pernicious Anaemia

114
Q

What is the term given to a group of genetic condition which affect the synthesis of the haem molecule, which is vital for the function of haemoglobin, peroxidase and P450 enzymes?

115
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by warfarin and leads to a reduction in clotting factors II, VII, IX and X?

A

Vitamin K epoxide

116
Q

Which cofactor is required for synthesis of the anticoagulant proteins C and S?

117
Q

What 2 disorders does fanconi anaemia increase your risk of?

A

AML

Myelodysplastic syndrome

118
Q

Signs in Fanconi anaemia?

A

Skeletal abnormalities (abnormal thumbs)
Short stature
Cafe au lait spots
Pancytopenia

119
Q

What molecule, secreted by the liver, inhibits iron absorption from the gut by inhibiting transferrin?

120
Q

Symptoms of Shwachman Diamond syndrome?

A

Neutropenia
Pancreatic dysfunction
Short stature

121
Q

Classic triad of symptoms in Dyskeratosis Congenita?

A 
Nail dystrophy
Oral leukoplakia
Skin pigmentation
\+ associated bone marrow failure
\+ pulmonary fibrosis
122
Q

What are hypersegmented neutrophils pathognomic of?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia

123
Q

Primary causes of aplastic anaemia?

A

Fanconi anaemia

Dyskeratosis congenita

124
Q

What cytokine mediates anaemia of chronic disease and what is the mechanism?

A

IL6

Induces hepcidin production - reduces iron levels

125
Q

What is the serum iron, ferritin and TIBC in anaemic of chronic disease?

A 
Iron = low
Ferritin = high
TIBC = low
126
Q

Causes of basophilic stippling?

A

Lead poisoning

127
Q

Which antibody mediates warm AIHA?

128
Q

Which antibody mediates cold AIHA?

129
Q

Causes of warm AIHA?

A

SLE
Penicillin
CLL

130
Q

Causes of cold AIHA?

A 
Mycoplasma
EBV
CLL
Lymphoma
Idiopathic
131
Q

Blood film of G6PD?

A

Bite cells

Heinz bodies

132
Q

G6PD precipitants of oxidative crises?

A 
Primaquine
Sulphonamides
Aspirin
Fava beans
Henna
133
Q

Features of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria? Remember PNH

A

pancytopenia with aplastic anaemiaintravascular
New thrombus - thrombophilia
haemolytic anaemia - haematuria (esp at night)

134
Q

Causes of anisocytosis?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia (most common)
Thalassaemia
Megaloblastic anaemia
Sideroblastic anaemia

135
Q

Causes of howell-jolly bodies?

A

Splenectomy

Sickle cell disease

136
Q

What are Cabot rings and what causes them?

A

Looped structures within RBCs

Caused by megaloblastic anaemia (B12 deficiency, pernicious anaemia, lead poisoning)

137
Q

What causes target cells?

A

Thalassaemia
Asplenia
Liver disease

138
Q

What are pappenheimer bodies and what causes them?

A

Granules of iron within RBCs
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemia
Haaemolytic anaemia

139
Q

Presenting features of TTP?

A 
MAHA
Renal failure
Thrombocytopenia
Fever
Neurological signs - stroke/headache
140
Q

A mutation in which gene allows formation of VWF multimers to cause platelet thrombi and organ damage in TTP?

141
Q

2 roles of vWF?

A

Platelet adhesion

Factor 8 production

142
Q

Which cofactors has low activity in vWD?

A

Low ristocetin cofactor activity

Poor ristocetin aggregration

143
Q

What mutation occurs in Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?

A

GlpIIb-IIIa

144
Q

What mutation occurs in bernard-soulier syndrome

145
Q

Which thrombophilia is caused by a substitution mutation?

A

prothrombin g20210a

146
Q

Which thrombophilia is associated with impaired degradation of factor Va and VIIIa?

A

Protein S deficiency

147
Q

Which factors does antithrombin inhibit?

A

Factor 10a

Thrombin

148
Q

Symptoms of GVHD following blood transfusion?

A

Diarrhoea
Maculopapular rash
Skin necrosis

149
Q

What reaction can occur following a blood transfusion in someone with IgA deficiency?

A

Anaphylaxis

150
Q

Which tumour cells express tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase?

A

Hairy cell leukaemia

151
Q

What cell markers do hairy cell leukaemias express

A

CD25

CD11c

152
Q

Cell markers on AML immunophenotyping?

A

CD13
CD33
CD34

153
Q

The nuclei of which cancer cells has a characteristic cloverleaf appearance?

A

Adult T cell leukaemia

154
Q

Mutation in acute promyelocytic leukaemia?

A

PML-RARA fusion gene

155
Q

Mutation in Burkitt’s and what disease is associated?

A

EBV

Translocation of c-myc on chromosome 8

156
Q

What is Pel-Ebstein fever and what is it associated with?

A

Intermittent fever every 2 weeks

Hodgkin’s

157
Q

MAntle cell leukaemia mutation and overproduction of which protein?

A

Chromosome 11 and 14 translocation

Cyclin D1

158
Q

Follicular lymphoma mutation and overproduction of which protein?

A

Chromosome 14 and 18 translocation

BCL-2

159
Q

Blood findings in sarcoidosis?

A

Monocytosis

160
Q

Main feature of TRALI?

A

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (no fluid overload)

161
Q

Histology of trali?

A

massive pulmonary oedema

granulocyte aggregation within pulmonary microvasculature

162
Q

Most severe ABO incompatibility?

163
Q

Features of febrile haemolytic transfusion reactions?

Mx?

A

Less than 24 hours after transfusion
Fever
Slow transfusion +

164
Q

What condition are pigment gallstones associated with?

A

hereditary spherocytosis

any haemolytic anaemia tbh

165
Q

What conditions do you see pencil cells in?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Thalassaemia
Pyruvate kinase

166
Q

What conditions do you see target cells in? 3Hs

A

Hepatic failure
Hyposplenism
Haemoglobinopathies

167
Q

What conditions do you see acanthocytes in (spiky RBCs)

A

Hyposplenism
alphabetalipoproteinaemia
Chronic liver disease
alpha-thal trait

168
Q

Conditions where splenectomy may be beneficial? The PIIES

A 
Thalassaemia
Pyruvate Kinase deficiency
Immune haemolytic anaemia
ITP
Elliptocytosis
Spherocytosis
169
Q

Prophylaxis post splenectomy?

A

Penicillin V
Pneumococcal vaccine
Meningococcal vaccine
Hib vaccine

170
Q

3Cs of aplastic anaemia?

A

Cytotoxics
Carbamazepine
Chloramphenicol

171
Q

Cause of chondrocalcinosis?

A

Haemochromatosis

172
Q

What conditions can cause an ESR >100?

A

Myeloma
Leukaemia
Aortic aneurysm
Malignant prostate cancer

173
Q

What is combined polycythaemia?

A

Increased RBC mass

Decreased plasma volume

174
Q

What happens to red cell mass when someone is dehydrated?

A

It stays the same

175
Q

Another name for non-classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

What is its unique feature?

A

Nodular lymphocytic HL

Popcorn cells - weird Reed Sternberg cells - lymphocytic and histiocytic cell

176
Q

Clinical features of G6PD?

A

Jaundice
Tiredness
Haematuria

177
Q

CML translocation important to remember?

178
Q

How can mild vWD be treated?

A

Desmopressin

179
Q

What drugs precipitates renal failure in MM?

180
Q

How to differentiate between TACO and TRALI?

A

TRALI is differentiated from TACO by the presence of hypotension in TRALI vs hypertension in TACO

181
Q

What are pappenheimer bodies associated with?

A

Hyposplenism

182
Q

Gold standard test for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?

A

Flow cytometry for CD59 and CD55

183
Q

What are Aschoff bodies?

A

granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever

184
Q

Venetoclax is a BCL2 inhibitor used for B-cell CLL. Which cellular process does this act on?

185
Q 
A 55 year old man attends his GP with severe fatigue and back pain. Investigations:
Creatinine 635 (high)
IgG 3.5 (low)
IgM 0.3 (low)
Serum protein electrophoresis – no paraprotein
Kappa light chains 0.9 (low)
Lambda light chain 1970 (very high)
K/L ratio 0.0005 (low)
What is the cause of the renal failure?
A

B cell leukaemia

186
Q

CAR-T cells against CD19 treat haematological malignancy of what cell type?

187
Q

Cause of left shift and toxic granulation on blood film?

A

reactive neutrophilia

188
Q

A bleeding patient has a prolonged aPTT and PT, but normal platelets and fibrinogen. Which blood component should they be given?

189
Q

A 75 y/o woman develops neutropenic sepsis secondary to myelodysplasia. Her FBC is significantly worse than 6 weeks prior, with marked pancytopenia. Blood film shows numerous large cells of primitive appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Progression to acute myeloid leukaemia

190
Q 
55 y/o male smoker on furosemide has the following test results:
Hb 178 (high)
Hct 51% (high
Red cell mass 25 (low end of normal)
Plasma volume 26 (low)
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A

Relative polycythaemia

191
Q

A 61 year old lady complains to her GP of morning stiffness and aching in her hips. She also suffers from anorexia, fatigue and occasional night sweats. She is found to have a raised ESR. Of note she has had giant cell arterititis in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis from the list above

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

Oishi's 5th year flashcards (8 decks)

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