Haem Flashcards

1
Q

DLBCL

A

30-40% of NHL (most common form on NHL among adults)
Middle-aged and elderly patients with lymphadenopathy
Rf: H Pylori and Coxiella Brunetti are known to cause DLBCL.
High grade lymphoma - large lymphoid cells, prominent nucleoli , high mitotic figures, produce
sheets of large lymphoid cells.
Arise from germinal centre post germinal centre at extra nodal sites ( GC - CD10 BCL 6. ) can also be secondary to richter transformation of CLL/SLL/MZL.
Lymph node is effaced so follicles and germinal centres cannot be identified
Good prognosis – germinal centre phenotype
Poor prognosis – p53-positive and high proliferation fraction, age >60, high LDH, any extra nodal states
Mx: R- CHOP (for aggressive NHL) (Rituximab, Cyclophosphamide, Adriamycin, Vincristine, Prednisolone) curative in 50% and autologous SCT salvage 25% of patients

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2
Q

T cell lymphoma

A

Middle-aged and elderly patients with lymphadenopathy
NOTE: these are aggressive

Histology: Very heterogeneous you see Large T lymphocytes (CD3, CD5) and associated reactive cell population (especially eosinophils)
Types:
1. Adult T cell leukaemia/lymphoma – HTLV1 (Japan, Caribbean) (hyerlobated nuclei -> flower cells) associated with hypercalcaemia due to lymphoma stimulating osteoclasts and zidovudine interferon alpha (AZT-IFN) therapy has good sucess.

2.Enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma EATL– due to Coeliac disease
Mature T cells
Very aggressive clinical course
Present with pain obstruction, GI bleeding, malabsorption
Respond poorly to chemo and generally fatal

  1. Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (manifests as mycosis fungoides)
  2. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
    Children and young adults with lymphadenopathy
    Large epithelioid lymphocytes, variably sized nuclei (some elongated, kidney, oval etc)
    T cell or null phenotype (anaplastic)
    CD30 typicall, but can be absent.
    2;5 translocation and Alk-1 protein expression – BETTER prognosis
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3
Q

Burkitt’s

A
Rapidly growing tumour of NHL, Germinal Cell tumour. “most aggressive tumour that affects humans”
There are three forms:
1. Endemic form 
Jaw mass in young adults
EBV implicated in all cases
2. Sporadic
Common in the west
Presents with abdominal mass 
EBV in 10% cases
Rf: Solid organ transplant
3. Immunodeficient aka HIV-related
EBV in ⅓  cases

Ix: Arises from germinal centre cells,
Starry sky appearance (the vacuoles create a starry sky appearance. These are vacuoles of macrophages which engulf the debris of dead apoptotic material. The sky is the background of tumour cells- they are tightly packed, dark chromatin nuclei, high mitotic figures. The stars are macrophages.
FISH: c-Myc translocation (8;14, 2;8 or 8;22) or myc
CD: Cells look blastic on film but surface Ig +ve and Tdt-ve (markers of maturity)
Mx: Chemotherapy (rituximab (anti CD20 - found on B cells) & leukaemia protocol) or SCT

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4
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma

A

(Mantle is the crescent shape around the GC inside the follicle)
PC: Typically affects middle-aged males, it often present with disseminated disease
Start in the mantel zones of lymph nodes, but can also appear in extranodal sites e.g. GI tract
Ix: Pre-GC cell with aberrant CD5 and cyclin D1 expression*. 11;14 translocation results in the cyclin d1 overexpression.
Prog: poor, median survival = 3-5 years
*(Cyclin D1 drives from M stage in cell division to G1) Cyclin D1 also phosphorylates Rb, which removes Rb from e2f. When e2f is liberated, it goes to act as TF-> increase transcription. The phosphorylated Rb which drives cell cycle

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5
Q

MZL

A

Arise from post-germinal centre memory B cells. They are mature cells that are non-circulating and reside in the marginal zone of the spleen (Splenic MZL) but also in other places such as peyer’s patch (MALT), tonsils (MALT) and lymph nodes (Nodal MZL). Relatively indolent (slow growing).
PC: Manifest mainly in extranodal sites (e.g. gut, spleen), epigastric pain, ulcer, bleeding
Classified as stage I e (e- extra nodal, 1 - single sight of involvement)
Aetiology: Thought to arise due to chronic antigenic stimulation
Ix: Histology- lymphomatous cells infiltrate and destroy normal epithelium of that location e.g. glandular epithelium of the gastrum.
Mx: Low-grade disease can be treated by non-chemotherapeutic methods (e.g. H. pylori eradication) may cure 75% of pts. 25% might need cure.

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6
Q

MZL Aetiology

A

Chronic H Pylori increases the incidence of gastric MALT 6 fold and only 5-10% of gastric MALT lymphoma lack it. The addition of t(11;18) mutation results in an aggressive lymphoma characterised by the formation of BIRC3-MALT1 fusion gene and causes BCL10 dysregulation. Gastric lymphomas with this translocation are refractory to H Pylori eradication.
Mechanism:
1. Gastric mucosa antigens cause Polyclonal B cells to proliferate in Chronic gastritis
2. Further genetic events (e.g. hypermethylation of CDKN2B) lead to the emergence of antigen dependent lymphoma
3. Further genetic events e.g. t(1;14) or t(14;18) lead to emergency of antigen independent lymphoma
4. Further genetic events e.g. mutation of TP53 lead to high grade transformation.
Other causes of MALT are
Borrelia burdorferi in causing primary cutaneous MALT,
hep C and Sjögren syndrome causing salivary gland MALT.
Campylobacter jejuni is a bacterium, that is known to cause intestinal malt lymphoma IPSID, (immunoproliferative small intestinal disease).
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Pyothroax-associated lymphoma)
Chlamydophila psittaci (ocular adnexal MALT lymphoma)

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7
Q

SLL

A

PC: middle-aged or elderly patients, Lymphadenopathy (SLL) or high blood lymphocyte count (CLL)
Histology:Sheets of Small, uniformed lymphocytes. They replace the entire lymph node so that you can no longer identify follicles or T cell areas
Arise form naïve B cells or post-germinal centre memory B cells
Ix: Cells are CD5 (should never be seen in b cell) and CD23 positive
Cx: Richter transformation (>DLBCL)

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8
Q

Follicular Lymphoma

A

⅓ of NHL
PC: Lymphadenopathy in middle-aged or elderly patients. Indolent disease, incurable, 12-15 years
Aetiology: FISH will show 14;18 translocation involving Bcl2 gene (normal follicles shouldn’t have bcl2) (results in an over expression of antiapoptotic protein BCL2 under influence Ig promoter)
Ix:
Cells have a germinal centre cell origin (positive staining for CD10 and Bcl6)
Histology: Follicular pattern – the follicles are neoplastic and spread from the node into
adjacent tissues
Cx: Usually indolent but can transform into a high-grade lymphoma
Mx: will require 2-3 different chemotherapy schedules. Monitor patients, only treat if clinically indicated e.g. painful LN, nodal compression, recurrent infections. E.g. year 5 give one chemo regiment, wait for relapse etc. Duration of each remission is shorter. Treatment is with R-COP or bendamustine. Not curative.

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9
Q

WHO Grading system and interpretation of it

A

LOW=
Follicular lymphoma
Small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL)
Marginal (MALT)

High=
Very Aggressive: Burkitt, T or B cell lymphoblastic leukaemia/lymphoma (treated like acute leukaemia)
Aggressive: Diffuse large B cell lymphoma, Mantle Cell (R-CHOP)

The more aggressive lymphomas have median survival of weeks compared to 10+ without chemo.
However, the aggressive ones tend to be curable in the long term should the pt survive the chemo regimen, compared to the low grade which are generally not curable.

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10
Q

Classical Hodgkings Lymphoma (PC + Background)

A

PC: Young and middle-aged patients with only a single group of lymph nodes involved. Painless LNs, may cause obstructive symptoms and signs e.g. stridor, jaundice. Constitutional symptoms: fever, drenching night sweats, unexplained weight loss 10% in 6 months (the b symptoms) and pruritus may be present. Rarely alcohol induced pain.

Background: Associated with EBV. Spread continguously. Arise from germinal centre or post-germinal centre cells. Bimodal: One peak 20-30 other peak is 50-60 yo.
Types:
1. Nodular sclerosis (peak in 20-29, M>F, presenting with cervical & mediastinal lymphadenopathy) (most common and best prognosis)
2. Mixed cellularity population of Reed-Sternberg cells - good prognosis
3. Lymphocyte rich (rare) - good prognosis
4. Lymphocyte depleted (rare) - POOR prognosis

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11
Q

cHL Ix

A

Histology: Lymphoma cells are few in number and are scattered around Eosinophils, large prominent nucleoli, often binucleate (RS cells)
CD15, CD30, BUT negative for CD20
FDG-PET/CT scan for staging ad consider biopsy if metastasised

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12
Q

cHL Mx

A

Combination therapy (chemo + Radio); Ab against cd30 (brentuximab)
ABVD: Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vincristine, Dacarbazine chemotherapy is needed by all pts (4-wkly intervals for 2-6 cycles.) and fertility is preserved! Woo!
Interim PET/CT after 2 cycles and end of treatment will be needed and this will guide the need for radiotherapy.*
Relapse treatment
10-20% relapse after remission and ⅓ of these will respond to ‘salvage chemotherapy’ (high dose chemotherapy and autologous PB SCT)
If they relapse after the salvage chemotherapy, you can try brentuximab vedotin (cd30 is expressed on RS cells. Cd30 is conjugated to cytotoxic agent which is internalised upon binding)
Nivolumab - PD1 checkpoint inhibitor

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13
Q

cHL Complications and prognosis

A

Cx:
Radiation can cause collateral damage to surrounding tissues such as pulmonary fibrosis and cardiomyopathy, secondary breast cancer

NOTE: intensifying chemotherapy will lead to an increased cure rate but it will also lead to an increase in secondary cancers

Prognosis: Chance of cure for stage I and II >80% and Stage IV>40%. Of those who aren’t cured, 10% die in first 10 years due to HL. After 10 years, they are more likely to die from secondary condition related e.g. cardio or secondary malignancy.

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14
Q

Why do we use PET/CT to guide the use of radiotherapy?

A

HL responds well to radiotherapy but it doesn’t prevent haematogenous spread. Therefore chemotherapy is first line for every HL patient. We only radiotherapy the affected area. It is very good at killing HL in the field, it doesn’t kill any HL outside the field and results in a lot of bystander damage. There is a higher risk of secondary malignancy as breast carcinoma, lung/skin cancer and leukaemia/MDS. Combination therapy - really increases the risk of secondary malignancy

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15
Q

The other type of HL?

A

Nodular/lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma.
5% of HL.
Disorder of the elderly (multiple recurrences)
Isolated lymphadenopathy
NO association with EBV
Histo: B cell rich nodules, Scattered around L&H cells, Reactive population in the background consisting of small lymphocytes, NO eosinophils and macrophages
CD: CD20+. Negative = CD15, CD30 (unlike classical Hodgkin lymphoma)
Cx: Indolent but can transform to high grade b cell lymphoma

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16
Q

CLL prognostic factors

A

Binet:
A: < 3 lymphoid areas + good BM
B: >3 Lymphoid areas + good BM
C: Hb <100 and platelets <100
Rai
IgH gene status (by sequencing the variable region of Ig)- is it unmutated? (i.e. hasn’t undergone somatic hypermutation and therefore is pre GC or vise versa) Unmutated has much worse prognosis (8 vs 25 year median survival)
P53 deletion or 17p deletion is very bad prognosis

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17
Q

CLL complications

A
  1. Increased risk of infection, recurrent sinopulmonary infection with normal organisms
  2. BM failure -> ANT
  3. peripheral lymphocytes circulate to node and spleen causing lymphocytosis and splenomegaly
  4. Unstable poulation of lymphocytes are suscptible to further mutations -> further mutations can add to the utagenic burden of the clone -> transform to high grade lymphoma (DLBCL subtype - called Richter’s transformation, 1% per year and treat as high grade lymphoma)
  5. Disease of immune cells -> AIHA
  6. Incurable (indolent)
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18
Q

CLL

A

TREAT ONLY IF NEEDED
C: Vaccination, anti-infective prophylaxis and treatment
(aciclovir for zoster, Septrin for PCP, IVIG for hypogammaglobulinaemia, Immunisation for pneumococcus and seasoal flu, void live vaccine (herpes zoster main vaccination is live))
M: Treat if
- Progressive lymphocytosis (doubles in less than 6 months)
- Marrow failure (ANT)
- Massive lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly
- B symptoms
Most intense: combo (Ritux and fludrabine cyclophosphaid)
Medium : Obinutuzumab (anti cd20) + chlorambucil
Less: supportive care only e.g. abx
High risk cases or relapse patient won’t benefit from more chemo so give them Ibrutinib (bruton TKI) or venetoclax (anti BCL2 oral agent, TLS risk)

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19
Q

Lymphoma investigations

A
Histopathological diagnosis - Biopsy is gold standard. There are three types of biopsy FNA, Core NA or excision bipsy.
FNA (individual small cells that are smeared out on slide) - useless for lymphoma, better for infectious causes.
Excision biopsy (take out whole LN, analyse architecture etc.)
CT/PET- analyse the extent of the disease as you cannot palpate more proximal LN e.g. mediastinal. BM biopsy and LP can also be checked for the presence of malignant cells. (Important to check for CNS involvement as most chemotherapy drugs don’t pass BBB and won’t treat CNS involvement)
Blood test, LDH/B2 microglobulin - give marker of severity and cell turnover; albumin and kidney function tests to see how fit and well the patient is for aggressive chemo; chronic infection screen (HIV &amp; Hep B serology) as these reduce T cell function and can predispose to lymphoma
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20
Q

Physiogloical haematological changes in pregnancy

A
  1. Mild anaemia
    net dilution due to increased plasma volume
    red cell mass rises too just not as much as the plasma
    This occurs by 2nd trimester
  2. High MCV
    Physiological macrocytosis
    Be aware of B12 and folate deficiency)
  3. High neutrophils
4. Low platelets
10% decline after 28 weeks 
Increased turnover
Increased clearance
Younger platelets are larger and therefore there is an increase in platelet size
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21
Q

HL staging

A

Staging (Ann-Arbor)
Stage 1 – one LN region (LN region can include spleen)
Stage 2 – two or more LN regions on the same side of the diaphragm
Stage 3 – two or more LN regions on opposite sides of the diaphragm
Stage 4 – extranodal sites (liver, BM)

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22
Q

Iron and folate requirements in pregnancy

A

WHO recommends 60 mg iron & 400 µg folic acid
RCOG recommends 400 µg folic acid (before conception to 12 weeks GA) NO routine iron supplementation but may be given on an individual basis to those at high risk

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23
Q

The different causes of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy and how we can differentiate between them.

A

GIT, ITP, Pre-eclampsia and other causes of TP.
GIT
- Platelet count rises d2-d5 in pregnancy
- Tends to occur later in pregnancy
- Doesn’t affect the baby
- 81% of pts with counts <150 are due to GT but 44% of pts with counts <100 are due to GT
- Mechanism is poorly defined but thought to be due to dilution and increase consumption

Pre-eclampsia:

  • 50% of pre-eclampsia pts can get thrombocytopenia e.g. due to DIC
  • These patients can have a normal PT and APTT at the start of the DIC due to raised clotting factors.
  • Remits following delivery

ITP:
- EARLY onset
- 5% of thrombocytopenia pts
- CAN affect baby:
Unpredictable affect (not related to severity) but rare (only 5% have plt <20)
- During birth take care and minimise head trauma. Don’t use ventouse or FBS.
- After birth, make sure you check cord blood and if low then check baby blood count daily as NADIT AT D5
- Mx: Only treat <20: IVIg (blocks splenic macrophage receptors from engulfing plts in the spleen), steroids

Microangiopathic Syndromes:
Characterised by Schistocytes

All other causes: DIC, hypersplenism, leukaemia, BM failure etc.

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24
Q

Causes of microangiopathic syndromes that would give rise to thrombocytopenia in pregnancy

A

Pre-eclampsia, HELLP, TTP (needs PEX, not helped by delivery), HUS, APS, SLE, AFLP (acute fatty liver)

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25
Q

Changes to clotting factors in pregnancy

A

Factor 8 and vWF – increase 3-5 fold
Fibrinogen – increase 2 fold
Factor 7 – increase 0.5 fold
Protein S – falls by 0.5
PAI-1 – increase 5 fold (fibrinolysis inhibitors produced by EC)
PAI-2 – produced by the placenta
All of these changes lead to a procoagulant state (hypercoagulable and hypofibrinolytic) due to the need of rapid control of bleeding from the placental site at time of delivery 700ml/min.

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26
Q

What is the clinical impication of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy

A

There is a risk a risk of spinal haematoma with an epidural anaesthesia, (70 is required for epidural but for delivery 50 is okay). Spinal haematoma can cause paraplegia etc.
- During birth take care and minimise head trauma. Don’t use ventouse or FBS.

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27
Q

VTE in pregnancy

When is the risk highest and how do we investigate and manage it

A

10 fold higher risk than gen pop. Blood is hypercoaguable, reduced venouse return and vessel wall changes (all three of virchows triad)
Highest risk is 40-46 weeks. But the second highest period is the first trimester.
Rf: Obesity, FHx of VTE, air travel, OHS, hyperemesis/dehydration, Preeclampsia, older age (>35), Csection has higher risk, as does instrumental. After 4 pregnancies, risk rises.
Ix: Doppler ultrasound scan & VQ scan (D-dimer is often elevated in pregnancy anyway)
Mx: Ideally identify those at risk! Prophylactic (heparin + TED stockings, Mobilise early, Ensure good hydration) LMWH (as is used in non-pregnant people) (barely any side effects, more inconvenience, slightly osteopenia risk very small.) After first trimester, monitor anti-Xa. Stop LMWH during labour/planned delivery time and don’t do epidural until free of LMWH normal for 24 hours or 12 hours if prophylactic dose. Warfarin crosses the placenta and has teratogenic effects (between weeks 6-12), only consider in those with mechanical heart valves after 1st trimester.

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28
Q

Complication of thrombophilia in pregnancy

A
IUGR
Rec misscrriage
Late fetal loss etc
PLacental abruption 
NOTE: there is a hypothesis that thrombosis tendency in pregnancy is associated with impaired placental circulation
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29
Q

APS

A

Recurrent miscarriage, DVT/PE, Thrombocytopaenia
Ix: Lupus anticoagulant and/or Anticardiolipin antibodies + recurrent miscarriages
Poor prognostic factors: 3 or more miscarriages <10 weeks, 1 or more morphologically normal foetal losses after 10 weeks or 1 or more preterm births < 34 weeks owing to placental disease
Mx: Aspirin and heparin
NB: there are a lot of FVL polymorphisms that do not result in any clinical manifestations.

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30
Q

Complications of SCD in pregnancy

A
Consequences:
More frequent vaso-occlusive crises
Foetal growth restriction
Miscarriage
Preterm labour
Pre-eclampsia
Venous thrombosis
Manage:
Red cell transfusion
Prophylactic transfusion
Becareful of Alloimmunisation and make sure you test for all antibodies as they have a higher rate.
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31
Q

NAIT

A

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia, (NAIT) is caused by maternal antibodies raised against alloantigens carried on fetal platelets. Although many cases are mild, NAIT is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in newborns and is the most common cause of intracranial haemorrhage in full-term infants.

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32
Q

MM clinical presentation

A

Osteolytic bone lesion due to stimulatory soluble factors produced by the MM cells. As a result these activate osteoclasts, which then in turn produce cytokines which further activate MM cells. Manifests as BACK PAIN (gets worse rapidly). Severe, paralysis - cord compression.
Anaemia - myeloma cells replace cells of the bone marrow and also causes a ACD(?), fatigue, SOB
Hypogammaglobulinaemia - infections e.g. pneumonia
Rarer nowadays: kidney failure (paraproteins clogging up kidneys, hypercalcaemia damaging kidneys or infection causing dehydration)
Stroke

Cause of MM: Unknown but suspected by chronic inflammation can be a risk factor eg. rheum arthritis and viral HHVI/HIV.

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33
Q

MGUS vs Smouldering

A

MGUS - premalignant condition (5% of those above 70)- as we age, we increase clonal haematopoiesis. <30g/L serum monoclonal protein and plasma cells take up less than 10% of bone marrow. 1-2% annual progression risk.

Smouldering Myeloma >30g/L serum monoclonal protein, >10% BM plasma cells, annual risk of progression to MM 10%.

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34
Q

MM background and epidemiology

A

Quite common, 1% of all cancers, 2nd most common haematopoietic malignancy (after B cell lymphomas)
Myeloma is debilitating and incurable with median survival of 4-7 years. 6-10 if fit for intensive treatment. Even if caught early- still incurable.
More common in black people than white people.
Median age of diagnosis 65-70Y,

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35
Q

Plasma cell ultrastructure

A

Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi body. This is where immunoglobulins are assembled, folded and modified before secretion. NOTE: plasma cells are the most secretory cells in the body (10,000
immunoglobulin per second)

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36
Q

Pathogenesis of MM

A

Translocations at 14q32 (50%) or deletion of chromosome 13 bring proto-oncogenes under the control of B cell promoters for immunoglobulin expression. As this is a plasma cell, the promoter genes are switched on and oncogene proteins are upregulated. This drives the clonal expansion of a particular plasma cell.
Along the way, these cells pick up additional mutations e.g. K-ras, N-ras (these are quite generic cancer mutations)
Also, infection/inflammation can be involved in the aetiology

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37
Q

MM investigations

A
  • BM aspirate needed for diagnosis - myeloma cells seen in the aspirate with large golgi (which makes cytoplasm bigger and creates a paler halo around nucleus)
  • Immunophenotype: CD38, CD138 and CD58/56, cytoplasmic Ig (only plasma cells have cytoplasmic Ig, B cells only have surface Ig) (monotypic cytoplasmic Ig), LC restricted. Negative for CD19/20- this means we can’t treat using rituximab (anticd20) but can use daratummacb (anti cd38)
  • EM of B cells which show enlarged ER and golgi app (Takes 7 days to reach full enlargement)
  • Monoclonal gammopathy (electrophoresis all the B cells will show a range of antibodies resulting in a smear, but in - MM there will be a concentration of a specific type of antibody causing a peak). The most common type of heavy chain produced in myeloma is IgG, followed by IgA and then IgD.
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38
Q

MM treatment strategies

A
  1. Classical cytostatic drugs
  2. DNA alkylating agents
    Melphalan (prevents dna replication by adding alkylating agent) autologous hsct in under 65:
  • 6 months of induction therapy with steroids, PI, imid- this reduces myeloma load by 90%
  • Remove pt’s stem cells from their blood (as a safety net rescue)
  • One high dose melphalan to kill myeloma which wipes out haematopoiesis
  • Reinfuse stem cells (which takes ~10d to synthesise BM cells again)
  1. Steroids (dexa, prendnis) - this works in all leuk/lymph
  2. IMIDs (thalidomide)
    Modulates immune system to fight myeloma cells better
    They lead to the enhanced degradation of TF that are required for b cell development
  3. MoAbs (Daratumumab- CD38)
  4. Proteasome inhibitors
    Old proteins that aren’t needed anymore are ubiquinated (tagged) which signals that they can be destroyed by the proteasome (molecular shredder) which produce amino acids that can be recycled.
    It is really important that these proteins are destroyed because dead proteins can accumulate, precipitate and block cellular function. Furthermore, myeloma cells really rely on this pathway because they need their dead proteins to be recycled in order to get amino acids to make new proteins.
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39
Q

Causes of the different types of polycythaemia

A

Pseudo
Low plasma volume
Alcoholics, Obesity, Diuretics

True (increased red cell mass and unchanged plsama volume):

  1. Primary/Malignant - Polycythaemia Vera
  2. Secondary (non-malignant), responding to too much EPO. Raised EPO can be appropriate (high altitude, hypoxic lung disease, cyanotic heart disease, high affinity haemoglobin) or inappropriate (doping, renal disease/tumour, uterine myoma, other tumours .e.g liver, cerebellar)
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40
Q

Investigations in polycythaemia

A

plasma volume, Hct (cells/volume), Hb (g/l), Dilutional studies: 51-Cr labelled RBC to measure red cell mass or 131-I labeled albumin to measure plasma volume.

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41
Q

What are the myeloproliferative disorders?

A

The myeloproliferative disorders are a unique group of hematopoietic stem cell disorders that share in common mutations which continuously activate JAK2 (Janus kinase 2), an enzyme that normally stimulates the production of they myeloid lineage (RBC, WBC, plt, not lymphocytes). JAK2 is normally only activated when additional blood cell production is needed. Because the blood cells in the myeloproliferative disrders are usually normal in appearance, these disorders mimic clinically benign or reactive blood conditions in which blood production is increased because of stimuli such as hypoxia, inflammation or infection as well as certain blood malignancies such as chronic myelogenous leukemia and myelodysplasia.

  • > PCV (most common)
  • > Essential Thrombocytosis (most indolent)
  • > Primary Myelofibrosis (most aggressive but rarest)
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42
Q

How MPN present and how do we investigate?

A

PC: Splenomegaly
Ix: FBC ± BM biopsy, EPO level, mutation testing

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43
Q

PCV

A

PC: Incidental, due to viscosity (e.g. lightheaded ness, visual disturbances, stroke) or due to inceased histamine release (aquagenic pruritus or peptic ulceration)
Ix: JAK2 V617F testing (present in 99% cases)
Mx: aim to reduce HCT (target <45%) and aim to reduce risk of thrombosis:
venesection is 1st line unless elderly/poor veins in which case there is gentle, oral chemotherapy (hydroxycarbamide)
Aspirin, keep plts <400

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44
Q

ET

A

Chronic MPN involving mainly the megakaryocytic lineage
MAO bimodal at 30 (F=M) and 55 (F>M)

PC: thrombosis (Arterial or venous, DVT, TIA, PE etc) in some, plts are not functional + PC: bleeding (mucous membrane and cutanoues)
Ix: plts >600
Mx: aspirin, hydroxycarbamide, anagrelide (specific inhibitor of plt but has s/e of palpitations and flushing
Prog: Good but risk of palpitations

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45
Q

Primary myelofibrosis

A

Clonal MPN with associated BM fibrosis causes extramedullary haematopoiesis
PCV & ET can > to PMF
Presents 70+
PC: incidental, cytopenia or thrombocytosis, splenomegaly can be MASSIVE (Budd Chiari syndrome), hepatomegaly, hypermetabolic state (weight loss, fatigue, night sweats, hyperuricaemia). Extramedullary haematopoiesis in liver spleen.
Ix: Leukoerythroblastic blood film, dacrocytes (fibrosis), giant plts /circulating megas, BM aspirate will be ‘dry tap’ and trephine will show increased reticulin / collagen fibrosis, mega hyperplasia
Mx: Supportive (RBC/plt transfusion), Cytoreducive (hydroxycarbamide for thrombocytosis but may worsen anaemi), Ruxolotinib (JAK2i), SCT, splenectomy for sx relief
Prognosis is poor, 3-5 year survival. Poor sx ANT, massive splenomegaly

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46
Q

CML PC and Ix

A

CAB. Chronic phase <10%, A- 10-19% B 20 =

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47
Q

CML Mx

A

Imatinib - ABL TK inhibitors (blocks ATP pocket in protein binding site and so downstream TK are not phosphorylated and is active towards highly proliferating cells)
(ibrutinib is not specific to malignant cells as all b cells express BK)
If fail to get response switch to 2nd gen (Dasatinib) or 3rd gen (Bosutinib).
If fail again, alloSCT.

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48
Q

CML Prognosis

A

Prognosis: Imatinib allows better predictors of prognosis. After 18 months, if complete cytogenetic response is not achieved (i.e. number of translocations is less than 5%), this is an accurate predictor of slightly worse prognosis i.e. at 6 years is 85% survival as opposed to 98%+ for those who did achieve cytogenetic response

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49
Q

Types of remission after imatinib CML

A

Haematological response - <10 x 10^9 WBC
Cytogenetic response 0% Ph positive of 20 cells in meteaphases (1-35% +ve is partial resp.)
Molecular response - Look at 10,000 cells and see how many generate BCR-ABL transcripts from RQ-PCR. <0.1% of those 10,000 cells geerate BCR-ABL = MMR major molecular response

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50
Q

Why aren’t TKI a panacea?

A

Not every pt will respond
Non-compliance
Side effects (fluid retention, pleural effusion)
MMR loss (can get point mutation leading to blast crisis)

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51
Q

Features of MDS syndromes

A

Recurrent genetic abnormalities;
Increased risk of transforming to acute myeloid malignancies;
Dysplasia in one or more lineages;
Ineffective haematopoiesis Increased apoptosis > cells die inside the BM space, before they enter the blood stream resulting in cytopenias (in contrast to cytopenias, the underlying bone marrow is hyperactive hypercellular);
Cytopenias

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52
Q

Presentation and blood film signs of MDS

A

PC: General marrow failure
Epi: Tends to be of the elderly
Ix: Dysplastic cells: Pelger Huet anomaly (hypolobated neutrophils e.g. bilobed), RBC nuclear bridging, micromegakaryocytes, increased proportion of blasts, abnormal granulations (e.g. 2-3 instead of loads), if you stain for iron it would show accumulation of iron in mitochondria (ringed sideroblast - blue), auer rods

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53
Q

MDS subtypes

A
  1. R Unilineage cytopenia (<15% ringed sideros in BM)
  2. R. Cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) in BM
  3. R Anaemia RS (RARS) (>15% ringed siders in BM)
    The above have no blasts in periphery
  4. R Anaemiea with EB1, <5% no auers
  5. R Anaemia with EB2, >5-19%, auers
  6. MDS associated with del5q (hypolobated megas in the BM)
  7. Unclassified MDS
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54
Q

MDS prognosis

A

IPSS-R is a scoring system to help with prognosis and it takes into account blood count findings, karyotype findings and % BM blasts.
⅓ die from infection, ⅓ die from bleeding and ⅓ acute leukaemia

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55
Q

MDS Mx

A

AlloSCT - donor (donor that isn’t them)
Intensive chemotherapy
Neither of the above is suitable for elderly people.
Supportive care: Blood product support, antimicrobial therapy, growth factors (EPO, G-CSF)
Immunosuppressive therapy: Hypomethylating agents (azacytidine) and lenalidomide (IMIDS)
Oral Chemotherapy with hydroxyurea/carbamide

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56
Q

Primary Bone Marrow Failure Syndromes

A

Fanconi Anaemia (cf Fanconi Syndrome = renal) (AR)
- Pancytopenia
- Presents at 5-10yrs
- Skeletal abnormalities (radii, thumbs), renal malformations, microopthalmia, short stature,
skin pigmentation
- MDS (~30%), AML risk (10% progress)

Dyskeratosis Congenita (XL)
􏰀 Chromosome instability (telomere shortening)
􏰀 Skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy, oral leukoplakia (triad) + BM failure 
Schwachman-Diamond Syndrome (AR)
􏰀 Primarily neutrophilia +/- others
􏰀 Skeletal abnormalities, endocrine and pancreatic dysfunction, hepatic impairment, short
stature
􏰀 AML risk

Diamond-Blackfan Syndrome
􏰀 Pure red-cell aplasia; normal WCC and platelets
􏰀 Presents at 1yr/neonatal
􏰀 Dysmorphology

Kostmann’s (AR)
Severe, congenital neutropenia disorder characterized by a lack of mature neutrophils associated with frequent, recurrent bacterial infections (e.g. otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis, urinary tract infections, abscesses )

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57
Q

Secondary BM failure causes

A
Haematological: Marrow infiltration
Non-haematological 
- Radiation
- Drugs
- Cytotoxic drugs (dose dependent)
- Abx (sulphonamide, chloramphenicol)
- Thiazides
- Carbimazole
- Chemical (benzene)
- Autoimmune
- Infection (parovirus, viral hepatitis)
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58
Q

Management of bone marrow failure

A

Immunosuppressive therapy for Aplastic Anaemia (steroids, eltrombopag, cyclosporine A)
Drugs to promote marrow recovery (TPORAs, GCSF, oxymetholone- steroid)
SCT if under 35
In refractory cases - alemtuzumab, antiCD52, high dose cyclophosphamide

59
Q

Neutrophilia causes and how to differentiate between them

A

Corticosteroids (due to demargination)
Underlying neoplasia
Tissue inflammation (e.g. colitis, pancreatitis)
Myeloproliferative/leukaemia disorder
Infection
Pregnancy (also undergo left shift - increased band neutrophils)

Reactive picture tend to be neutrophilia only, toxic granulation, where as proliferative disease tends to be multi-lineage e.g. basophilia also

60
Q

Eosinophilia causes

A

Reactive
Parasitic infection
Allergy (e.g. asthma, rheumatoid arthritis)
Underlying neoplasms (e.g. Hodgkin’s lymphoma, T cell lymphoma, NHL)
Drug reaction (e.g. erythema multiforme)

Chronic eosinophilic leukaemia

61
Q

Consequences of VTE

A

Death (5%)
Recurrence (20% in first 2 years)
Pulmonary HTN (fatal disorder, clot isn’t cleared from lungs properly and results in vascular remodelling)
Thrombophlebitic syndrome (recurrent pain, swelling and ulcers)

62
Q

what are the natural anticoagulants?

A

AT- inhibits thrombin and FXa
TFPI - FVIIa/TF complex
PC and PS - FVa and FVIIIa

63
Q

How is the blood vessel wall normally anticoagulant? When and how is this disturbed?

A
•	Expresses anticoagulant molecules:
o	Thrombomodulin
o	Endothelial protein C receptor 
o	Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
o	Heparans
•	Does NOT express tissue factor
•	Secretes antiplatelet factors 
o	Prostacyclin
o	NO
Infection, malignancy, vasculitis and trauma distrub this by:
•	Anticoagulant molecules are down-regulated
•	Adhesion molecules are upregulated 
•	TF may be expressed 
•	Prostacyclin production decreased
64
Q

How do platelets bind to endothelium? What is the role of aspirin in this?

A

DIRECTLY – via GlpIa
INDIRECTLY – via binding of GlpIb to vWF (this is MORE IMPORTANT)
he adhesion of platelets to the exposed subendothelial structures is followed by release of various mediators such as ADP** and thromboxane A2*. These promote platelet aggregation
(Platelets attach to each other via GlpIIb/IIIa (aka fibrinogen receptor- Fibrinogen also binds to this receptor)
* Aspirin irrevvesibly blocks this step via COX
**ADP is blocked by clopidogrel

65
Q

Types of anticoagulant therapy

A
o	IMMEDIATE
•	Heparin 
•	Unfractionated (IV)
•	LMWH (SC)
•	Pentasaccharide (SC) 
•	Works by increasing anticoagulant activity (potentiating anti-thrombin) 
•	Disadvantages:
•	Administered by injection 
•	Risk of osteoporosis
•	Variable renal dependence 
•	Direct-acting anti-Xa and anti-Iia
o	DELAYED
•	Warfarin (vitamin K antagonist)  (has a half life of 2-3d)
•	Works by reducing procoagulant activity
66
Q

What is heparing therapy and how do we monitor heparin therapy?

A

LMWH- ANTITHROMBIN CO FACTOR
Reliable pharmacokinetics (so does NOT usually need monitoring)
Anti-Xa assays can be used in Renal failure or Extremes of weight or risk

Unfractionated Heparin
o Variable kinetics
o Variable dose-response
o ALWAYS monitor therapeutic levels with APTT or anti-Xa

Reverse with PROTAMINE. ONLY ANTICOAGULANT PROVEN SAFE IN PREGNANCY.

67
Q

DOACs

A
Anti-Xa
o	Rivaroxaban
o	Apixaban
o	Edoxaban
Anti-IIa
o	Dabigatran
Properties:
o	Oral administration
o	Immediate action (peak = 3-4 hours)
o	Useful in long-term
o	Short half-life 
o	NO monitoring 
No reversal agent created yet. No data about pregnancy so avoid.
68
Q

Warfarin

A

Reduces levels of procoagulant factors 2, 7, 9 and 10 (doesn’t INHIBIT it REDUCES production)
Levels of anticoagulant protein C and protein S also fall
Reversible - by giving vitamin K (takes 12 hours) or giving the factors 2, 7, 9 and 10 (immediate)
Monitoring
o ESSENTIAL
o Measure INR (derived from prothrombin time)
o Difficult because there are lots of variables at play:
• Dietary vitamin K intake
• Variable absorption
• Interactions with other drugs
• Teratogenic

69
Q

Risk factors for VTE

A
PATIENT:
Old >60, Fat >30, 
previous VTE
active cancer or infection
lung disease, heart disease
lower limb paralysis 
PROCEDURE:
surgery >30 min
plaster cast/ immobilisation
Orthopedic surgery
hip fracture
knee/hip replacement
70
Q

Treatment for DVT/VTE

A

Start LMWH e.g. tinzaparin175u/kg + warfarin
Stop LMWH when INR >2 for 2days
Continue warfarin for 3-6 mnths

Thrombolysis is only used for life-threatening PE or limb-threatening DVT

71
Q

Recurrence after first VTE

A

• VERY LOW after surgical precipitant
o NO need for long-term anticoagulation
• HIGH after idiopathic VTE
o Consider long-term VTE
• After minor precipitants (COCP, trauma, flights)
o Usually 3 months is adequate
o Longer duration may be indicated by presence of other thrombotic or haemorrhagic risk factors

72
Q

Affects of thrombin

A

o Activates fibrinogen
o Activates platelets
o Activates pro-cofactors (Factor 5 and Factor 8)
o Activates zymogens (Factor 7, 11 and 13)
o These will all link together to form a prothrombinase complex which results in the activation of prothrombin to thrombin

73
Q

Amplification phase of coagulation

What allows the stabilisation of the fibrin clot?

A

o The activate platelet with factors 5, 8 and 9 will recruit Factor 10a (prothrombinase complex)
o This will then result in the generation of large amounts of thrombin (THROMBIN BURST)
o The high levels of thrombin will convert fibrinogen to FIBRIN
o This enables the formation of a stable fibrin clot

74
Q

Initation phase of coagulation

A

Prior to the occurrence of the activated platelet, thrombin generation can be achieved by trace amounts of thrombin being produced by FXa/FVa complex which convertes prothrombin -> thrombin and doesn’t need a platelet surface to do so.
How does this happen?
Exposed tissue factor converts 7 > 7a
TF-7a complex activates Factor 9 and Factor 10
Factor 10a is now free to join Fva in producing trace amounts of thrombin

75
Q

What is the point of the trace amounts of thrombin?

A

Trace amount of thrombin is enough to activate:
1) platelets
2) Factors 5 and 8
3) Also activates Factor 11 which @ Factor 9
Activated 5 and 8 and 9 form the prothrombinase complex. Activated 9a recruits 10 which is activated. F5a recruits prothrombin to be conveted.
Thrombin burst ….
But the whole point of all of this is that large amounts of thrombin convert fibrinogen to fibrin

76
Q

Vit K deficiency causes

A

• NOTE: bacteria are important for the production of vitamin K, so taking antibiotics and harming your gut flora can reduce your vitamin K absorption
o Similarly, vitamin K is fat soluble so you need bile to be able to absorb vitamin K (if you have an obstruction of the biliary tree, it can cause vitamin K deficiency)
• Most common cause of vitamin K deficiency = WARFARIN

77
Q

How is the fibrin clot lysed? and how is this inhibited

A

Plasmin! Cuts Fibrin -> FDP.
Where does plasmin come from? Plasminogen. Factor 11a, 12a, Kalkrien, urokinase tissue plasminogen activator convert it. TPA-1 and 2 inhibit tpa.
TAFI also inhibits the Fibrin -> FDP. TAFI is activated by thrombin.

78
Q

How does antihrombin work?

A
  • Antithrombins will bind to thrombin on a 1:1 ratio and it will then be excreted in the urine
  • There are FIVE types of antithrombin but the most active is antithrombin-III
  • The lack or deficiency of antithrombin is the MOST THROMBOGENIC condition
  • Clinical Relevance: heparin augments the effect of antithrombin-III
79
Q

How does Protein C work?

A
  • The trace amounts of thrombin generated at the start of the cascade will activate thrombomodulin (transmembrane receptor)
  • Activation of thrombomodulin will open up the receptor for thrombomodulin to bind to Protein C through endothelial protein C receptor (EPCR)
  • Once this is formed, this is known as activated protein C (APC)
  • Activated protein C, in the presence of protein S (acting as a non-enzymatic co-factor) will fully activate protein C
  • The fully activated protein C will inactivated Factor 5a and Factor 8a -> stop the thrombin burst
80
Q

FVL

A
  • In Factor V Leiden, FV will be restistance to @ PC
  • This means that the factor 5a in people with Factor V Leiden, will be resistant to breakdown by activated protein C
  • This results in a prothrombotic state
  • TWO causes of activated protein C resistance:
  • Mutated Factor 5 (e.g. factor V leiden)
  • High levels of Factors 8
81
Q

TFPI

A
  • The first step of the coagulation cascade is the release of tissue factor and the activation of factor 7
  • As soon as this occurs, tissue factor pathway inhibitor is activated to neutralise the TF-factor 7a complex
  • The tissue factor-factor 7a complex is NOT needed for very long - it is only needed to activate factor 10 and factor 9
  • Once it has done this, it is neutralised by TFPI
82
Q

pseudothrombocytopaenia

A

o It is important to look at platelets under the microscope because you could get pseudothrombocytopaenia where the platelets clump together creating an erroneously low platelet count
o Microscopy also allows you to see other abnormalities such as Grey Platelet Syndrome (you see large platelets)

83
Q

Haemophilia features

A

XLR, A more common
Features:
o Haemarthroses (MOST COMMON)
o Soft tissue haematomas (e.g. muscle atrophy, shortened tendons)
o Other sites of bleeding (e.g. urinary tract, CNS, neck)
o Prolonged bleeding after surgery or dental extractions
o NOTE: haemophilia A and B are clinical indistinguishable

84
Q

Types of VWD

A

o Type 1 - PARTIAL quantitative deficiency
o Type 2 - QUALITATIVE deficiency
o Type 3 - TOTAL quantitative deficiency
• NOTE: this is very similar to haemophilia A because there is a strong relationship between vWF and factor 8
• Binding of factor 8 to vWF protects factor 8 from being destroyed in the circulation

85
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency due to Warfarin Overdose

A

Management is INR dependent:
INR 3-5- omit warfarin until INR improves
INR 5-9 - give Vitamin K 2-4mg
INR >9 no bleeding -> 3-5mg of Vitamin K repeat as necessary
Serious bleeding -> Vit K 10mg IV slow infusion (repeat every 12 hours), FFP or PCC dependent on urgency (PCC contains all the vit k factors)
Life threatening bleeding -> give PCC and vit K

86
Q

Aplastic Anaemia background + types +ddx

A
Background: VERY rare, Can affect all age groups (peak 15-24 and 60+), Most are idiopathic (70%) or inherited. Classified into severe (SAA) and non-severe (NSAA). Severe requires:
<1% Reticulocytes in PB*
<0.5 Neutrophils in PB
<20 plts in PB
BM < 25% cellularity
Primary: Dysekeratosis congenita, Fanconi A, Shwachmann Diamond
Secondary causes (10-15%) – due to malignant infiltration, radiation, drugs incl. chemo, chlormphoenicol and NSAIDS, viruses e.g. Hep,  AI e.g. SLE

DDx: Hypoplastic MDS, Hairy Cell Leukaemia, anorexia nervosa (bone marrow necrosis), ITP

87
Q

Manamgent of bone marrow failure

A

• Supportive:
o Blood/platelet transfusions (leucodepleted, CMV negative and irradiated)
o Antibiotics
o Iron chelation therapy
• NOTE: ferritin is the best measure of the patient’s iron stores
• Immunosuppressive therapy (anti-thymocyte globulin, steroids, eltrombopag, cyclosporine A)
• Drugs to promote marrow recovery (oxymethone, TPO receptor agonists (eltrombopag))
• Stem cell transplantation
• Other treatments in refractory cases (e.g. alemtuzumab)

88
Q

Fanconi Anaemia

A

Background: Most common form of inherited aplastia anaemia, AR or X-Linked, Polygenic inheritance resulting in increased chromosomal fragility
PC: short stature, cafe au lait, short thumbs, hypogonadism, d/delay, no abnormalities in 30%, most have AA, and some develop in leukaemia

89
Q

Dyskeratosis Congenita

A

Triad of skin pigementation, nail dystrophy and leukoplakia (white plaques on mucous)
Due to telomere abnormality that impair their function (telomeres prevent chromosome fusion during chromosom replication) (short telomeres are not specific to DC and appear in a lot of BM failure syndromes)
Can be XLR, AR or AD.
Marrow failure in 90%
X-linked recessive (MOST COMMON)- Mutant DKC1 gene leads to defective telomere functioning
Autosomal dominant - Mutant TERC gene - encodes the RNA component of telomerase
Autosomal recessive- Mutant gene has NOT been identified

90
Q

Why is ABO more severe than rhesus haemolysis?

A

ABO incompatibility causes intravascular haemolysis that is potentially fatal. Anti-ABO Antibodies (which are IgM) of pt plasma bind to RBC antigen and triggers classical complement cascade resulting in MAC formation and cell lysis, as well as inflammation. Only one IgM is needed to trigger this (IgM is a pentamer)
RhD is another blood group antigen. RhD -ve pts can make anti-D antibodies but these are IgG and do not cause direct agglutination of RBCs (as they cannot cross link) and so present with delayed haemolytic transfusion
Duffy and Kidd also cause delayed reaction.

91
Q

What is group and save/screen?

A

This is how we process samples.
Use A REAGENTS and B reagents against the antibodies in the patient’s plasma (IgG) + then add te IAT reagent to cross link them -> see if result is positive.
(These reagents are a mixture of red blood cells that contain all the important antigens)
This has to be done every time before every transfusion.
If atypical antibodies are present the
laboratory will do additional work to identify them.

92
Q

What is cross matching?

A

Cross match - A crossmatch is when the laboratory actually provides red cells products for the patient.
Patient plasma with DONOR red cells at 37 degrees for 30-40 minutes and add antihuman globulin reagent (IAT). (there is a 5 minute version of this which identifies ABO incompatibility only).
- Electronic Issue avoids cross matching and is done via IT system.
- If group and save showed no antibodies, cross match isn’t needed.

93
Q

What is on the blood bag

A

ABO and D type, Kell and other Rh antigens as well as date bled.

94
Q

Special blood transfusion requirements

A
  • CMV negative blood for intrauterine, neonatal and maternal transfusions
  • Irradiated blood for severely immunosuppressed as these pts can’t fight donor lymphocytes so we irradiate the blood to prevent graft vs host disease
  • Washed blood to pts who have severe allergic reaction to donor plasma proteins or those with IgA def
  • Post-op cell savage (collect blood loss post op into wound drain, filter and reinufse -done with mostly ortho).
95
Q

How much is one unit of plts?

How do we cross match platelets?

A

One unit raises plt count by 30-40
Platelets do NOT need to be crossmatched because the antigens are weakly expressed
o If a patient develops a temperature whilst receiving platelets, stop the platelets and take cultures to check whether the patient is septic
o The platelets should then be sent back to the lab for microbiological testing
o A reaction with plasma is more likely to be allergic because plasma is frozen and so is unlikely to be contaminated by microbes

96
Q

FFP indications and features

A

Indications:
Blood Loss >150ml/min
DIC with bleeding
Liver disease + risk (PT>1.5x normal)

All clotting factors
Adult dose is 15ml/kg
1 unit of FFP is 250ml
Not the treatment of choice to reverse warfarin

97
Q

How much is 1 unit of RBC?

A

1 unit RBC should cause a 10 g/L increase in Hb in a 70-80 kg patient

98
Q

Indications for blood transfusion?

A

Major blood loss (if >30% of blood loss)
Peri-op or (<70g/L, <100 plts) or critical care <80g/L
Post chemo (Hb<80 )
Symptomatic anaemia e.g. IHD
Active bleeding (if plt dysfunction) (acute)

99
Q

Indication for platelet transfusions?

A
  1. Massive transfusion (aim for plts >75)
  2. PRevent bleeding post chemo (If <10 or if septic and <20)
  3. Prevent bleeding in surgery <50 unless critical site <100 eg CNS or eye
  4. Active bleeding (stop any known cause eg aspirin clopi)

CI: TTP, HITT

100
Q

How to pick up a transfusion reaction early?

A

o Baseline temperature, pulse, RR , BP before transfusion
o Repeat after 15 mins (most reactions will start within 15 mins)
o Repeat hourly and at the end of the transfusion

101
Q

Differentiating between acute transfusion reactions

A
  1. Acute haemolytic (ABO)
    - within 15 min
    - Repeat cross match and do DAT
    - IgM mediated
    - Low BP and fever , can have chest pain
  2. Allergic
    - within min
    - allergy to a plasma protein in the donor, so esp common with PLASMA
    - IV antihistamines to treat and prevent
    - Can be pretty asap and is esp in those with IgA def
    - IgE mediated (mast cell degranulation)
    - wheezey wheezey
  3. Infection
    - Bacterial infection from donor/processing causes endotoxin release
    - Prevention with questionnaire
    - Most likely with Platelets>Red Cell > FFP
  4. Febrile non haemolytic
    - rise in temperature by around 1 degree, chills and rigors
    - Was common before blood transfusions were
    leukodepleted
    - Slow/stop transfusion and treat with PARACETAMOL
    - Due to release of CKs of WCC in storage
  5. Resp TACO, TRALI- have HIGH BP low o2 sats
    - TACO is most common
    results in pulmonary oedema. Rf are HF, Renal failure, hypoalbuminaemia, very young/old. CXR will show fluid overload. RAISED JVP. Will respond to furosemide.
    - TRALI - bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. JVP NOT RAISED. won’t respond to furosemide. Neutrophils get stuck in pulmonary capillaries and release proteolytic enzymes and degrade lung tissue.
102
Q

Delayed Reactions

A
  1. Delayed HTR
    - pt has sensitising event, then has blood transfusion and IgG antibody attacks this Ag causing extravascular haemolysis in the spleeny
    - takes 5-10d and presents with High bilirubin, anaemia, reticulocytes, Haemoglobinuria over a few days. As they stop haemolysing the urine will clear. Test U&E because it can cause renal failure
  2. Infections
    o Malaria
    o Viral infections e.g. CMV (bad in immunocomp people so we leukodeplete that shit for them)
    o Variant CJD
    Symptoms may occur months or years after the transfusion
  3. TA-GVHD
    - Super rare
    - Always fatal
    - irradiate blood components for very immunocompromised patients or have HLA-matched components
  4. PTPurpura
    Give IVIG
  5. Iron overload
    - Give chelators e.g. exjadge with transfusiosns once ferritin >1000
103
Q

Anti D prophylaxis doses

A

o At least 250 iu - for events < 20 weeks gestation
o At least 500 iu - for events > 20 weeks gestation
o Sometimes a larger does is needed for larger bleeds
(Kleihauer test) done to see if more is needed
routine anti-D prophylaxis can be given in the 3rd trimester ~ 1500 iu anti-D Ig at 28-30 weeks

104
Q

How are other antibodies different to anti D in HDN

A

o Anti-c and anti-Kell can cause severe HDN
o This is usually less severe than anti-D
o Kell causes reticulocytopaenia in a foetus as well as haemolysis

105
Q

Post transufsion purpura

A
  • Appears 7-10 days after transfusion of blood or platelets
  • Usually resolves in 1-4 weeks but can cause life-threatening bleeding
  • Affects HPA-1a negative patients who have previously ben immunised via pregnancy or transfusion
  • Exact mechanism is unknown
  • Treatment: IVIG
106
Q

TA GvHD pathogenesis

A

• Donor’s blood will contain some lymphocytes that are able to divide
• Normally, the patient’s immune system will recognises these donor lymphocytes as foreign and destroy them
• In susceptible patients (very immunosuppressed), these lymphocytes are NOT destroyed
• Lymphocytes recognise the patient’s tissue HLA antigens as foreign, so attack the patient’s gut, liver, skin and bone marrow
• Consequences:
o Diarrhoea
o Liver failure
o Skin desquamation
o Bone marrow failure
o DEATH - weeks to months after transfusion
• Prevention: irradiate blood components for very immunocompromised patients or have HLA-matched components

107
Q

Myeloid stains

A

Sudan Black
MPO
Non specific esterases

108
Q

What is a key difference in the origin of B-lineage

A

and T-lineage ALL?
B-lineage starts in the bone marrow
T-lineage can start in the thymus (which may be enlarged)

109
Q

Intravascular Haemolysis markers

A

haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinaemia and low hpatoglobins

Haptoglobins are proteins in the bloodstream that bind to and remove free haemoglobin from the bloodstream
Low haptoglobins suggests that there is a lot of free
haemoglobin in the bloodstream i.e. haemolytic anaemia

haemosiderinaemia can be seen by:
Perl’s stain
Prussian blue stain

110
Q

hereditary spherocytosis

A

75% family history (autosomal dominant)
25% de novo mutations
NOTE: this is the most common defect of the red cell cytoskeleton
Caused by defect in membrane protein resulting a loss of the biconcave shape (proteins that link the lipid bilayer to the cytoskeleton (band 3, protein 4.2, Ankyrin, beta spectrin))

Ix:
Osmotic fragility – red cells show increases sensitivity to lysis in hypotonic saline
Reduced binding to eosin 5-maleimide (dye), shown by flow cytometry

111
Q

Heinz body

A

Denatured haemoglobin (sits in clump in a corner)
Suggestive of oxidative haemolysis
use mehytlviolent staining (blue one)

112
Q

Hereditary eliptocytosis

A

The red cells are elliptical but there is no polychromasia and the blood count is likely to be normal because there is little haemolysis

113
Q

G6PD cells blood film signs

A

Contracted cells
Nucleated red cells
Bite cells (abnormal haemoglobin removed)
Hemighosts (Hb retracted to one side of the cell)

114
Q

Pyruvate Kinase deficiency blood film

A

Echniocytes (or burr cells) (the ones that look like hedgehogs)

115
Q

What is haemoglobin hammersmith?

A

Severe unstable haemoglobin variant that produces a Heinz body haemolytic anaemia

116
Q

Types of mutation anomalies

A

Type 1 Abnormalities
o Promote proliferation and survival (anti-apoptosis)

Type 2 Abnormalities
o Block differentiation (which would normally be followed by apoptosis)
o This leads to an accumulation of blast cells

117
Q

ALL vs AML

A

Features:
Not really differentiatable. Lymphadenopathy is more common in ALL and thymic enlargement only occurs in T-ALL (starts in thymus then moves to bone marrow). Gum infilitration is usually monocytic AML.

Both have supportive treatment of transfusions, prophylaxis for PCP, Al(OH)3 for hyperphosphataemia, hydration for hyperuricaemia.

AML: 
o Combination chemotherapy is ALWAYS used because:
o	Different mechanisms of action 
o	Synergy 
o	Non-overlapping toxicity 
o	Drugs are mainly cell-cycle specific 
o	Given in 4-5 courses 
o	Remission induction x 2 
o	Consolidation x 2-3
o	Treatment goes on for around 6 months 
o	Consider transplantation if poor prognosis 
Gemtuzumab ozogamicin - cytotoxic antibiotic linked to an antiCD33 antibody

ALL:
Systemic chemotherapy e.g. with cytarabine
• 2-3 years of therapy (induction and consolidation)
• Boys need to be treated for longer because the testes are a site of accumulation of lymphoblasts
CNS-directed therapy (e.g. intrathecal)
- done in ALL patients even if initial LP is negative (6-8 treatments)
- can also be done by giving high-dose chemotherapy so that it penetrates the BBB

118
Q

Consequences of poorly treatted thalassemia major

A

Anaemia -> HF, growth retardation
Erythrpoietic drive -> hepatosplenomegaly, bone expansion
Iron overload -> HF, gonadal failure

119
Q

How are haemoglobinopathis different in children?

A

BM ?isn’t fully formed yet and so is more susceptible to infarction. This can cause hand and foot syndrome. (1-2 years).
Stroke (1-10 years) in cerebral arteries. Monitor cerebral arteries and give exchange transfusions in those at risk.
Spleen (is still functioning) and therefore splenic sequestration can occur (massive splenomegaly, can cause hypotension and death)- educate parents to abdominal palpation.
This leads to bacteramiea being more prevalent when child is infant (but also probably due to immunological immaturity)
Later, spleen can become fibrotic and progressively non-functioning. Therefore give vaccination against pneumococcus, haemophilus and meningococcus as well as prophylactic penicillin.
Children tend to get parvovirus infection also as not immune to it yet (erythropoiesis is switched off for a week, SCA RBC 20days life time)
Folic acid is needed as child is still growing to prevent megaloblastic anaemia but also because higher turnover of RBC.

120
Q

APML

A

T15;17 PML RARA - stop in differentiation and large proliferation of promyelocytes resulting in large amounts of TF produced presenting with DIC
Medical emergency, good prognosis if survived
Morphology: blast cells, auer rods clusters (faggot cells); inv 16 (eosinophil precursor cells with chunky granules)
Mx: ATRA and A2O3 (all-transretinoic acid).

121
Q

Allo vs Auto SCT

A

Autologous SCT
Remove pts stem cells
Chemo the fuck out of them
Put their stem cells back in

Allogeneic Transplant:
Someone else’s
Increase intensity of chemo + immunosuppression
Give BM or peripheral blood stem cells

122
Q

Who receives BMT?

A

Unlikely to respond unlikely to standard treatment
They need to be in some sort of transient remission before the BMT is attempted
Identify donor and collect stem cells (HLA identical)
Collecting - give pt G-CSF and collect SC from peripheral blood via leukapheresis
Give patient myeloablative therapy
Infuse stem cells (IV)
Continue immunosuppression and support pt through cytopenia

123
Q

How to choose bmt donor

A
Chromosome 6 - HLA gene locus. HLA class I is expressed on CD8 lymphocytes and class II on CD4.
Serological matching - see if antibodies can match the antigens on the surface of lympohcytes that are expressed from the HLA alleles. (NB even if it matches- this doesn’t mean there is 1 subtype, there are many subtypes but they would just be similar enough to match with an antibody. This is just screening - one then needs to do molecular/DNA
124
Q

Complications of bmt

A
  • infection
  • failure of graft
  • relapse of leukaemia
  • gvhd
125
Q

BMT assoicated infections

A

Infections - neutrophil count of 0, can die from graft -ve septicaemia e.g. from picc line, breakdown of protective barriers
Early in the transplant - Aspergillosis, high mortality,
CMV - due to lack of T cell function (apparently 20-30% of our circulating T cells have CMV specificity). CMV pneumonia was a common cause of death. Ideally, donor will have the same CMV immune state as the recipient. Measure weekly CMV viral load of blood via PCR. If there is a rising titre, treat high dose gangcliclovir.

126
Q

GvHD for BMT

A

Donor cells (mostly T cells) recognise pt as foreign months after establishment and donor system proliferates and doesn’t recognise pt
Acute:
Skin - desquamating
GIT - blood-stained diarrhoea, perforation
Liver - intrahepatic cholestasis, failure
Chronic:
Dry skin, thickening skin of joints
Lungs liver, eyes, joints

Acute GvHD Riskfactors:
HLA Disparity, Age, R/D gender combination

GvHD Tx:
Immunosuppression: Corticosteroids, cyclosporin A, MMF, monoclonal antibodies
T-cell deplete the transplant (this reduced mortality <100d but higher cases of leukaemia relapse)
NB- In autolgous SCT you kill all the leukaemia and re-infuse SCT. In allo, you aren’t able to kill all the leukaemia and so then you introduce a donor and rely on donor-recipient disparity killing the recipient leukaemic clone.

127
Q

CART

A

Principles are to modify T cells to retain their function of killing leukemic clone but without the side effects of GvHD
Activated T Cells will bind to forgein antigen and cause death of that cell via Fas ligand injection
Autologous SCT - collect stem cells from pt, take T cells, infect T cells with foreign DNA, T cell receptor is now modified

128
Q

SLL vs CLL

A

CLL is characterized by peripheral blood B-cell lymphocytosis as well as lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, cytopenias, and systemic symptoms. CLL cells have a distinctive immunophenotype, and the disease has a characteristic pattern of histological infiltration in the lymph node and bone marrow.
The clinical course of CLL is heterogeneous, with some patients presenting with very indolent disease and other patients having a more aggressive malignancy.
Some patients may present solely with lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, and presence of infiltrating monoclonal B cells with the same immunophenotype as CLL cells, but lacking peripheral blood lymphocytosis. This disease is called small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) and has been considered for almost 2 decades to be the tissue equivalent of CLL.
Both CLL and SLL are currently considered different manifestations of the same entity by the fourth edition of the World Health Organization

129
Q

When is HPLC helpful?

A

In diagnosing Beta thal (raised HbA2)
Not helpful in diagnosing Alpha thal* as everything will be low (↓HbA, ↓HbA2 and ↓HbF)

*Neonatal HPLC may show some Hb Bart’s due to gamma-globin excess forming tetramers in alpha thal - this shows up as a tall, sharp peak right at the start of the HPLC graph

130
Q

How do we categorise alpha vs beta thal?

A

Alpha thal trait (loss of 1 or 2 genes) (remember loss of alpha 2 in a+ heterozygous manner is quite mild because the other gene on each chromosome is upregulated)
HbH
Hb Bart’s

Beta:
Beta thal trait
Beta thal intermedia
Beta thal major

131
Q

HbH

A
  • Loss of three alpha genes: this is compound heterozygosity for a+ and a0.
  • Excess B-chains form tetramers = HbH. (high O2 affinity)
  • Gamma tetramers also form (Hb Bart’s – also high O2 affinity)
  • Clinical picture: similar to B-thal, ↓MCV ↓MCH ↓MCHC ↓RBC ↓Hb – differentiate by checking HbA2%
  • Film: reticulocytosis because the BM is making new RBCs to try and compensate for anaemia; golf ball cells where B-globin has precipitated
132
Q

How is the mechanism of anaemia different in alpha vs beta thal?

A

In alpha thal, the mechanism of anaemia is different to B-thal. In Alpha thal, there is an anaemia from the decreased globin production and also an anaemia from the excess beta chains forming tetramers, as they have a higher O2 affinity. These tetramers can cause RBC membrane damage leading to haemolysis → Can get jaundice gallstones etc,
BUT BM erythropoiesis is normal so we don’t see nucleated RBCs in peripheral blood.
1. In beta thal, the excess alpha chains do not form tetramers and they precipitate and do so in the erythroblastic stage in the BM -> INEFFECTIVE ERYTHROPOIESIS as cells can’t mature properly. This manifests as reticulocytes in PB and as extramedullary haematopoiesis.
2. Reduced globin synthesis as well
3. Any RBC who do make it out can also lyse intravascuarly causing the jaundice etc.
4. Pulmonary HTN: there free Hb leads to NO depletion (scavenging) causing vasoconstriction
5. Haemochromatoisis from infusions.

TLDR; BETA THAL INTERMEDIA IS MUCH WORSE THAN ALPHA THAL TRAIT

133
Q

Hb Barts

A

• Loss of all four alpha genes, which can only be acquired if both parents have a chromosome with no alpha genes, as in:
o a0 heterozygosity
o HbH disease
• The baby can be:
o ao homozygote: –SEA/–SEA, or –MED/–MED
o ao compound heterozygote: –SEA/–MED
• Complete lack of a-globin synthesis means that the only haemoglobin that can form in foetus are:
o gamma tetramers– this is Hb Bart’s

134
Q

Beta thal and sickle cell

A

B-thal/HbS
• If BO, no HbA is produces, only HbS – this is like SCD, but slightly less severe because there is a lower MCH so the cell is slightly less prone to sickling and haemolysis
• If B+, there is some HbA produced

135
Q

What is the biological cost of a diverse antibody set?

A
  • Recombination allows point mutations
  • Rapid GC proliferation allows rapid response to infection but increases the risk of replication errors in DNA
  • Ability to eliminate antibodies that are too specific or not specific enough means there is a high dependence apoptosis (90% of lymphocytes die in GC) and so acquired DNA mutation that blocks apoptosis is VERY vulnerable to proliferation here
136
Q

Types of recombination?

A
  1. VDJ - Occurs in bone marrow
    V, D and J refer to exons in the heavy chain gene locus
    Cuts, removes and recombines certain exons in each segment (V segment, D segment and J segment)
    Under the influence of enzyme RAG1+2.
    (NB recombination is when DNA molecules are cut, recombined and undergo deliberate mutations (somatic hypermutation) to generate immunoglobulin and T cell receptor diversity.)
  2. Class switch
    Occurs in GC
    Process by which a B cell changes from producing IgM -> IgG antibody (or any other class switch) under the influence of the enzyme AID (adenosine induced deaminase)
    The heavy chain of the molecule is changed
    B cells are trained to respond to these class switches and have very sensitive promoter genes upstream of the IgG heavy chain gene.
    Should the gene for the heavy chain be swapped for anything else. It will be then amplified due to the strong promoter.
    Should an intact oncogene be brought close to the Ig promoter then this will proliferate anti-apoptotic proteins.
    E.g. of oncogenes: bcl2, bcl6, Myc, cyclinD1
137
Q

What are some patient signs that are present in specific anaemias?

A

Koilonychia - spoon nails, present in IDA
Glossitis - inflamed tongue, B12 deficiency
Jaundice - haemolysis

138
Q

When is reticulocytosis absent in anaemia?

A

Acute haemorrhage (Takes 6hrs to respond)
Bone marrow failure e.g. infiltration
Deficiency of a number of vitamins and minerals required for normal erythropoiesis (haematinics) is associated with anaemia. Deficiency of iron, B12 and folate (the most common haematinics) are the most prevalent forms

139
Q

IDA sigs on blood film

A
  1. Pencil cells
    1. Anisocytosis
    2. Poilkilocytosis
    3. Hypochromic
140
Q
6 week history of nose bleeds and fatigue in this 60 yaer old male. FBC:
Hb 60 g/dl	(135-175g/l)
WBC 0.1 x 109/l (2-10.5 x 109/l)
Platelets 4 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
Next investigations?
A

Blood film
Folate and B12 levels
Bone marrow biopsy

141
Q

Pancytopenia DDxs

A
Aplastic anaemia
Leukemia
Infiltration e.g.Lymphoma, carcinoma 
Drugs e.g. chemotherapy 
B12/folate deficiency
142
Q

Causes of a low platelet count

A

NOT MAKING PLATELETS

- drugs e.g. chemotherapy, thiazides,
- bone marrow disorders e.g. leukemia, aplastic, myelodysplasia, myeloma, infiltration with carcinoma

PREMATURE DESTRUCTION OF PLTS

- ITP (auto-immune)
- Disseminated intravascular coagulation
- heparin
143
Q

Normal INR range

A

<1.1 in normal people

2-3 for warfarin people

144
Q

Haemophilia vs Von Willebrand

A

Bleeding symptoms may be similar, although patients with VWD tend to have more mucosal bleeding symptoms.

By family history, VWD is inherited in an autosomal pattern and haemophilia in an X-linked pattern.

However, because of the high mutation rate in haemophilia A and because of variable expressivity in VWD, a positive family history may be absent in both.

In haemophilia, the APTT is usually prolonged (unless super mild haemophilia). In VWF, APTT shouldn’t be prolonged (only in very severe cases - as factor 8 needs to be less than 35% of normal range to start to effect APTT).

Patients with haemophilia A have decreased factor VIII but normal VWF antigen and activity. For VWD all 3 are decreased. Special binding studies or DNA analysis is required to distinguish type 2N VWD from haemophilia A.