Haem Flashcards

1
Q

What drug should be given urgently to a patient on LMWH therapy who has significant, life threatening bleeding?

A

Protamine sulfate

Heparin works by increasing the action of antithrombin III.

Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin and factors IX, X and XI.

There are two main types in clinical practice - low molecular weight heparin - LMWH- (does not require monitoring) and unfractionated heparin (requires APTT monitoring).

Heparins predominantly affects the intrinsic pathway of clotting. Heparins

In severe bleeding an antidote, protamine sulfate, may be given. It doesn’t completely reverse LMWH, however.

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2
Q

What molecule, secreted by the liver, inhibits iron absorption from the gut by inhibiting transferrin?

A

Hepcidin

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3
Q

A recently immigrated 5 year old girl is seen in secondary care after concerns from her GP about an undiagnosed congenital condition.

She is short (below 5% percentile for age), has malformed fingers and flat, pigmented birthmarks all over her body.

Blood tests show a pancytopenia.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Fanconi anaemia

Fanconi anaemia is the most common type of inherited primary bone marrow failure. It presents between the ages of 5-9 with skeletal abnormalities (abnormal thumbs), short stature, cafe au lait spots and pancytopenia.

The disease is due to dysfunctioning DNA repair genes such as FANCA.

There is a high risk of developing acute myeloid leukaemia, approximately 10% of patients diagnosed with fanconi anaemia will develop this. 30% will develop some myelodysplastic syndrome.

Please note this is different to Fanconi syndrome, which is a renal disease

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4
Q

Which cell type has a giant nucleus taking up most of the cell?

A

Lymphocyte

How to differentiate leukocytes on a peripheral blood smear - look at the nucleus, size and granules.

Neutrophil

Very common. 3x larger than erythrocytes. Multisegmented nucleus (2-5 lobes). Nucleus looks “speckly”/ isn’t solidly stained because chromatin is condensed.

Monocyte

Relatively common. >3x larger than erythrocytes. Large, kidney bean shaped nucleus.

Basophil

Rare. 3x large than erythrocytes. Deep blue (basic) granules. Bilobed nucleus

Eosinophil

Rare. 3x larger than erythrocytes. Reddish purple (acidic) granules. Bilobed nucleus

Lymphocyte

About the same size as erythrocytes (so, small). Giant nucleus taking up most of the cell. No granules. Nucleus is not kidney shaped.

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5
Q

What score is used to aid clinical decision making with respect to DVT risk?

A

Well’s Score

The Well’s score (two versions exist - one for DVT and one for PE) allows a physician to classify the risk of DVT/PE.

It uses factors such as active cancer, mobility status etc. and produces a numerical value which guides further treatment

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6
Q

What dysfunctional gene is common to myelofibrosis, essential thrombocytosis and polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

JAK2

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7
Q

Which cofactor is required for synthesis of the anticoagulant proteins C and S?

A

Vitamin K

Vitamin K dependent clotting factors

The vitamin K dependent clotting factors are factors 2, 7, 9 and 10. In addition, the anticoagulants protein C and S also rely on vitamin K.

Warfarin inhibits the enzyme Vitamin K epoxide and prevents recycling of vitamin K - leading to a net reduction in levels of vitamin K dependent clotting factors.

If initiating warfarin treatment, for the first few days there is a PRO-coagulant effect. This is due to the different half lifes of the anticoagulants protein C + S relative to the clotting factors. Protein C and S have a shorter half life, so these anticoagulant proteins disappear - leaving normal levels of the other clotting factors. This means there is a net procoagulant effect.

Typically, people are bridged with low molecular weight heparin for the first few days of warfarin treatment.

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8
Q

What is the term given to describe spherical erythrocytes which may be congenital or due to autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Spherocyte

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9
Q

What protein is typically defective in hereditary elliptocytosis?

A

Spectrin

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10
Q

What drug inhibits the fusion protein BCR-ABL and is used in the treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia?

A

Imatinib

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)

CML is the overlap point between full blown leukaemias and the other myeloproliferative diseases.

The median age of diagnosis is around 50 years old.

Often, CML is diagnosed incidentally. Classically it causes massive splenomegaly due to splenic infiltration of myeloid cells.

A white cell count will show an elevated neutrophil count. If CML is suspected, genetic testing for the philadelphia chromosome (9;22 translocation) or the BCR-ABL fusion gene should be performed.

A rationally designed small molecule inhibitor, imatinib (when BCR-ABL is present) can induce remission in nearly every case in the chronic phase of the disease.

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11
Q

What are inclusions of denatured haemoglobin within erythrocytes commonly called when seen in a peripheral blood film?

A

Heinz bodies

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12
Q

What blood film finding may be found in multiple myeloma and is reflective of a paraproteinaemia?

A

Rouleaux

Multiple Myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells.

It is differentiated from the related conditions MGUS and Smouldering Myeloma by the presence of end organ damage, the so called “CRAB” symptoms. Calcium (elevated), Renal failure, Anaemia and Bone lesions. MGUS has <10% plasma cells in the bone marrow on biopsy, where as SM and multiple myeloma have >10%.

Most commonly, the plasma cells will produce large amount of defective immunoglobulins - mostly IgG (less commonly IgA). These may be detected by serum electrophoresis - producing a graph of the molecular weights of proteins in the blood. There will be a large, single, spike. Urinary bence jones proteins are also used in the diagnosis of MM - these are the light chains of immunoglobulins which may be secreted in urine - but not always.

Other diagnostic factors include: an elevated ESR and rouleaux formation on a blood film (both due to the increased protein [immunoglobulin] concentration in the blood).

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13
Q

What condition is stereotypically associated with a “dry tap” on bone marrow biopsy?

A

Myelofibrosis

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14
Q

A 1 month old child is investigated for the cause of a macrocytic anaemia, identified during routine workup for surgery for treatment of her cleft palate. She is noted to be quite underweight. Her brother has suffered from similar issues.

Vitamin B12 and folate levels were normal. Haemoglobin electrophoresis showed elevated fetal haemoglobin, but no other abnormalities. Her reticulocyte count was low.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Diamond-Blackfan anaemia

Diamond-Blackfan anaemia is a congenital disorder affecting haematological stem cells.

Typically, only red blood cells are affected rather than other blood cell lineages.

Symptoms are usually detected in infancy and diagnosis is made off the results of blood tests (showing anaemia, low reticulocytes and elevated fetal haemoglobin). A bone marrow biopsy would also reveal decreased erythroid precursors.

Other features which may be present include craniofacial malformations, such as cleft palate or cardiac defects.

Please note, this syndrome is different from Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, which predominantly affects neutrophils.

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15
Q

What is the classical finding on a full blood count for a patient suspected of dyskeratosis congenita?

A

Pancytopenia

To differentiate the commonest primary bone marrow failures on blood film, here is a helpful table:

Fanconi anaemia Pancytopenia Most common
Diamond-Blackfan anaemia Red cells only
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome Neutropenia
Dyskeratosis congenita Pancytopenia

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16
Q

A patient has a normocytic anaemia, an elevated unconjugated bilirubin, elevated LDH and low haptoglobin.

A peripheral blood film reveals spherocytes. Direct Coomb’s test is negative.

What investigation will confirm the diagnosis?

A

Eosin-5-maleimide test

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17
Q

What is the collective term for the following collection of symptoms:

Drenching Night Sweats
Fever
Weight loss
A

B symptoms

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (HL) [20% of lymphomas]

Typically occurs in two groups of people - young adults and elderly patients. Men are disproportionately affected.

A key precipitating factor is prior infection with Epstein Barr Virus (EBV). Malignant cells are predominantly mature B cells from a lymph node’s germinal centre. It is staged using the Ann-Arbor system.

Often, it is symptomless until the development of “B” symptoms - fever, drenching night sweats and weight loss. There will be asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, usually in the neck. Classically, there is lymph node pain after alcohol - though this is very rare. There is also the risk of developing SVC syndrome if left untreated.

For diagnosis, clinical suspicion and CT-PET followed by lymph node biopsy is used. A blood film may show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

There are multiple subtypes of HL, the most common of which is the nodular sclerosing subtype (good prognosis).

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18
Q

A 6 year old boy is seen by his GP.

His dentist said that he should have his blood tested.

At his most recent dentist appointment, gentle manipulation of the patient’s gums caused bleeding disproportionate to the injury and took a long time to stop.

Blood tests arranged by the GP show a normal INR, prolonged APTT, normal PT, normal number of platelets, normal factor IX but low Factor VIII. Bleeding time is prolonged.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Von Willebrand’s Disease

Von Willebrand’s Disease

Von Willebrand’s disease is a disorder of platelet function caused by a reduction in function or number of Von Willebrand Factor (vWF). Normally, vWF is responsible for binding to other proteins, notably factor VIII, collagen and platelets directly. By binding these three things together, it stabilises the platelet plug and increases the strength of the initial platelet plug in primary haemostasis.

Factor VIII is normally bound to vWF in circulation. If vWF is not present, then Factor VIII is rapidly degraded. Hence, Von Willebrand’s disease will also decrease the function of the intrinsic clotting pathway due to reduced levels of Factor VIII.

Most Von Willebrand’s disease is mild and many people do not realise they have it. If they are symptomatic, then usually it will present as easy bruising and nosebleeds. Women may experience heavy periods.

Blood tests will reveal a prolonged bleeding time (as this measures platelet function directly) and a prolonged APTT (due to increased degradation of Factor VIII).

Platelet count, PT and INR will be normal. Haemophillia does not affect the bleeding time

Levels of vWF may be normal OR low - depending if the issue is with the function of vWF or if the issue is with a lack of production of vWF

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19
Q

A bone marrow biopsy for a patient suspected of having multiple myeloma shows 15% clonal plasma cells in the bone marrow. She does not have any symptoms of end organ damage.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Smouldering Multiple Myeloma

Multiple Myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells.

It is differentiated from the related conditions MGUS and Smouldering Myeloma by the presence of end organ damage, the so called “CRAB” symptoms. Calcium (elevated), Renal failure, Anaemia and Bone lesions. MGUS has <10% plasma cells in the bone marrow on biopsy, where as SM and multiple myeloma have >10%.

Most commonly, the plasma cells will produce large amount of defective immunoglobulins - mostly IgG (less commonly IgA). These may be detected by serum electrophoresis - producing a graph of the molecular weights of proteins in the blood. There will be a large, single, spike. Urinary bence jones proteins are also used in the diagnosis of MM - these are the light chains of immunoglobulins which may be secreted in urine - but not always.

Other diagnostic factors include: an elevated ESR and rouleaux formation on a blood film (both due to the increased protein [immunoglobulin] concentration in the blood).

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20
Q

What stereotypical description relating to erythrocytes can be seen on a blood film with a patient with myelofibrosis?

A

Dacrocyte

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21
Q

A long term alcoholic presents to their GP for a review.

The doctor orders a panel of blood tests.

A FBC reveals a normocytic anaemia.

The results of Iron Studies are below.
Serum iron	Elevated
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)	Normal
Ferritin	Elevated
C Reactive Protein	3 (NR 2-8)

A blood film is ordered and reveals the presence of immature red blood cells with inclusions of iron deposits in a ring formation.

What type of anaemia does this patient have?

A

Sideroblastic anaemia

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22
Q

A 71 year old woman is seen by her GP due to progressive tiredness. She also thinks she has been losing weight.

On examination, there was cervical lymphadenopathy.

A full blood count showed a low haemoglobin and an elevated white cell count, predominantly lymphocytes.

A blood film was performed and did not show any immature cells.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

Chronic Lymphocyte Leukaemia (CLL)

CLL is a slow lymphoproliferative disease, typically presenting in elderly men. Often asymptomatic and only detected incidentally on blood tests.

Symptoms include Bone Marrow Failure (anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia) in the end stages, however typically the only symptoms will be generalised lymphadenopathy with weight loss, fever and night sweats.

Richter’s transformation may occur, where a low-grade CLL converts to a high grade, aggressive Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma.

Blood tests will show a high WCC with elevated (mature) lymphocytes. A blood film may show smudge cells.

Watchful waiting is usually the management of choice for early-moderate disease. Ibrutinib (a tyrosine kinase inhibitor) may be used for advanced or symptomatic cases.

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23
Q

A 3 year old child is seen by her GP.

Her mother has been concerned about her gums bleeding often recently. She has also been suffering from nosebleeds and her mother says that she is not acting her normal self.

The GP sends off a panel of bloods including full blood count and a clotting screen.

The full blood count revealed an elevated white cell count (predominantly lymphocytes) and low platelets 76 (NR: 150 - 450). A blood film showed the presence of blast cells.

A clotting screen was normal, however bleeding time was prolonged.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)

ALL mainly affects children - aide memoire: “ALL children get sick”

Symptoms are similar to AML - Bone Marrow Failure (Anaemia, Thrombocytopenia and Neutropenia) with organ infiltration are common.

ALL has a preponderance to cause generalised lymphadenopathy and often has CNS involvement. CNS involvement is a bad prognostic factor.

A white cell count will show an elevated white cell count, mainly blasts, with a large number of lymphocytes. Immunostaining techniques can be used to further identify the subset of lymphocytes involved.

Treatment is with chemotherapy or stem cell transplanation. There is a high risk of developing tumour lysis syndrome while undergoing chemotherapy.

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24
Q

What are inclusions of clusters of nuclear DNA within erythrocytes commonly called when seen in a peripheral blood film?
This finding is often associated with Sickle Cell Disease in adults.

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

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25
Q

A doctor suspects that their patient may be anaemic.

The doctor orders a panel of blood tests.

A FBC reveals a microcytic anaemia.

The results of Iron Studies are below.

Serum iron Low
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) Elevated
Ferritin Low
C Reactive Protein 3 (NR 2-8)

What is the cause of this patient’s microcytic anaemia?

A

Iron Deficiency Anaemia

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26
Q

What blood test is a measure of fibrin degredation products and may reflect activity of the body’s anticoagulant system?

A

D Dimer

D Dimer is a measure of fibrin degradation products and hence is a proxy measure of how much “clot” is being broken down by the body.

It is not a very specific measure - it may be elevated for a large number of reasons that aren’t necessarily related to clotting. However, severely elevated levels (>1000) in the context of a patient with a clotting abnormality are suggestive of clot breakdown.

Examples of conditions with elevated D dimers include PEs, DVTs and DIC.

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27
Q

What abnormality is commonly seen on a full blood count of patients with fanconi anaemia?

A

Pancytopenia

To differentiate the commonest primary bone marrow failures on blood film, here is a helpful table:
Fanconi anaemia	Pancytopenia	Most common
Diamond-Blackfan anaemia	Red cells only	
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome	Neutropenia	
Dyskeratosis congenita	Pancytopenia
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28
Q

An 18 year old presents to their GP with a neck lump.

It is approximately 3.5cm, mobile and untethered in the posterior triangle of the neck.

On further questioning, he reports weight loss and drenching night sweats.

A blood film showed the presence of multinucleated and reactive lymphocytes.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (HL) [20% of lymphomas]

Typically occurs in two groups of people - young adults and elderly patients. Men are disproportionately affected.

A key precipitating factor is prior infection with Epstein Barr Virus (EBV). Malignant cells are predominantly mature B cells from a lymph node’s germinal centre. It is staged using the Ann-Arbor system.

Often, it is symptomless until the development of “B” symptoms - fever, drenching night sweats and weight loss. There will be asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, usually in the neck. Classically, there is lymph node pain after alcohol - though this is very rare. There is also the risk of developing SVC syndrome if left untreated.

For diagnosis, clinical suspicion and CT-PET followed by lymph node biopsy is used. A blood film may show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

There are multiple subtypes of HL, the most common of which is the nodular sclerosing subtype (good prognosis).

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29
Q

What first line small molecule inhibitor is used in the treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

Ibrutinib

Chronic Lymphocyte Leukaemia (CLL)

CLL is a slow lymphoproliferative disease, typically presenting in elderly men. Often asymptomatic and only detected incidentally on blood tests.

Symptoms include Bone Marrow Failure (anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia) in the end stages, however typically the only symptoms will be generalised lymphadenopathy with weight loss, fever and night sweats.

Richter’s transformation may occur, where a low-grade CLL converts to a high grade, aggressive Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma.

Blood tests will show a high WCC with elevated (mature) lymphocytes. A blood film may show smudge cells.

Watchful waiting is usually the management of choice for early-moderate disease. Ibrutinib (a tyrosine kinase inhibitor) may be used for advanced or symptomatic cases.

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30
Q

What is the term given to the blood film finding of erythrocytes stacked on top of each other?

A

Rouleaux Formation

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31
Q

What blood test is used clinically to measure the activity of the extrinsic and common clotting pathways?

A

Prothrombin Time

Intrinsic and Extrinsic Pathways of the Clotting Cascade

The clotting cascade fundamentally exists to turn a small action into a larger action. There are two main pathways - the intrinsic and extrinsic, which converge and join the common pathway.

Fun fact: The “a” after clotting factors e.g. Xa stands for “activated”.

The intrinsic pathway starts when the vascular endothelium is disrupted, exposing collagen. This exposed collagen then sets off a chain reaction resulting in factor X being converted to Xa. Intrinsic pathway = the injury pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the APPT.

The extrinsic pathway is much more sensitive. Heat, trauma, sepsi, chemicals and many other stimuli can begin this part of the clotting cascade. Extrinsic pathway = the “everything else” pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the PT.

Both pathways need calcium (factor IV) in order for clotting to occur.

Both pathways then converge at the common pathway with the production of factor Xa from Factor X.

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32
Q

What proteins are mutated in hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Spectrin

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33
Q

What infectious organism is associated with malignancy of germinal centre B lymphocytes?

A

Epstein Barr Virus

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (HL) [20% of lymphomas]

Typically occurs in two groups of people - young adults and elderly patients. Men are disproportionately affected.

A key precipitating factor is prior infection with Epstein Barr Virus (EBV). Malignant cells are predominantly mature B cells from a lymph node’s germinal centre. It is staged using the Ann-Arbor system.

Often, it is symptomless until the development of “B” symptoms - fever, drenching night sweats and weight loss. There will be asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, usually in the neck. Classically, there is lymph node pain after alcohol - though this is very rare. There is also the risk of developing SVC syndrome if left untreated.

For diagnosis, clinical suspicion and CT-PET followed by lymph node biopsy is used. A blood film may show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

There are multiple subtypes of HL, the most common of which is the nodular sclerosing subtype (good prognosis).

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34
Q

A 1 year old has been experiencing excessive sleepiness over the last month. She now sleeps for 18 hours a day and before that her parents noticed her becoming slower and more withdrawn.

Her parents are concerned and bring her to see her GP.

On examination, there are bruises on her wrist, arms and stomach. There is palpable splenomegaly.

The GP makes an urgent safeguarding referral.

Blood tests show a low haemoglobin and low platelets. There is an elevated white cell count, reported as neutrophils. A manual differentiation reveals the presence of an abundance of myeloid precursor cells.
What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

AML typically affects two groups of people: adults (risk increases with age) and <2 year olds

The typical presentation is of bone marrow failure - anaemia and thrombocytopenia - in combination with organ infiltration - hepatomegaly, gum infiltration or in severe cases into the CNS. There are multiple subtypes of AML.

On a FBC, there will be a high white cell count with a preponderance of blast (immature) cells. A blood film may show the presence of neutrophils with auer rods.

Treatment is mainly chemotherapy, though stem cell transplantation is an option. Symptomatic treatment with blood products is often also needed.

Of note, the M3 subtype (acute promyelocytic leukaemia) can be treated specifically with all-trans retinoic acid.

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35
Q

Which haematological malignancy is most commonly associated with formation of the Philadelphia Chromosome (9;22 translocation)?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)

CML is the overlap point between full blown leukaemias and the other myeloproliferative diseases.

The median age of diagnosis is around 50 years old.

Often, CML is diagnosed incidentally. Classically it causes massive splenomegaly due to splenic infiltration of myeloid cells.

A white cell count will show an elevated neutrophil count. If CML is suspected, genetic testing for the philadelphia chromosome (9;22 translocation) or the BCR-ABL fusion gene should be performed.

A rationally designed small molecule inhibitor, imatinib (when BCR-ABL is present) can induce remission in nearly every case in the chronic phase of the disease.

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36
Q

What amino acid is glutamate substituted for in sickle cell disease?

A

Valine

37
Q

A 14 year old boy is seen by a haematologist.

He has been referred due to concerns from his GP about a clotting disorder, as he has had recent unexplained petechiae, nosebleeds, tiredness and fatigue.

Bloods from the GP showed a pancytopenia.

The haematologist performs a full physical examination and notes the presence of longitudinal ridging in the nails and areas of whitish grey discolouration in the mouth. There are fine, end inspiratory crackles at both lung bases.

The haematologist suspects a primary bone marrow disorder.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Dyskeratosis Congenita

Dyskeratosis congenita is an inherited bone marrow failure which typically presents around age 15. The classical triad is of nail dystrophy (nail loss, longitudinal ridging), oral leukoplakia (white patches in the mouth) and skin pigmentation (lace like hyperpigmentation of skin creases), although this is thought to occur less commonly than previously described.

A newer definition involves at least one of the features of the classical triad, with associated bone marrow failure (aplastic anaemia) and two other internal signs (like pulmonary fibrosis).

The condition is caused by mutations in genes which protect telomeres. Telomeres protect the ends of chromosomes from damage and are associated with aging. Essentially, this condition reflects abnormal, advanced, cellular aging.

38
Q

A 5 year old child is seen by haematolgist due to worsening neutropenia identified after a recent hospitalisation requiring ITU admission for sepsis, for which he has since recovered.

He has been under the care of the gastroenterology team for the last year, where he has been investigated for failure to thrive and diarrhoea. Coeliac and inflammatory bowel screens were negative. The gastroenterologists are treating him with CREON for pancreatic exocrine dysfunction. The gastroenterologists suspect a congenital issue, however, he had a normal chloride sweat test.

Most recent blood tests available to the haematologist show a profound neutropenia. The haematologist listens to his lung bases and notes that the chest wall appears misshapen.

What is the haematological diagnosis which explains all the patient’s symptoms?

A

Shwachman Diamond syndrome

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome is an inherited, autosomal recessive condition characterised by neutropenia and other classical features.

Generally, there is pancreatic dysfunction - resulting in fatty stools and hepatic impairment.

They also have a very short stature, with most patients being less than the fifth percentile for height and a preponderance of skeletal issues.

It is typically diagnosed in childhood and is the second most common cause of pancreatic exocrine dysfunction in children - other than cystic fibrosis.

It arises because the SBDS gene is important for ribosomal function. How this causes the phenotype seen in Shwachman-Diamond syndrome is unclear.

This syndrome is different to Diamond–Blackfan syndrome, which typically affects red blood cells only and has a different clinical presentation.

39
Q

What is the characteristic blood film finding associated with Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

40
Q

A 18 year old Greek man has just returned from a holiday to Malawi and arranges a GP appointment.

He said during the holiday he turned yellow, his urine turned brown and he felt more tired than normal.

He has no relevant past medical history, is up to date on her vaccinations and took antimalarial prophylaxis as directed.

The doctor suspects an intravascular haemolysis. Blood tests reveal a normocytic anaemia with unconjugated bilirubinemia. Levels of G6PD were normal. DAT negative.

What is the most likely reason for the intravascular haemolysis?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

Absolute levels of G6PD may be normal during an acute haemolytic crisis - to reflect an increase in RBC formation. However, the actual amount of G6PD per erythrocyte is low.

Mode of inheritance is X linked recessive. Please note - there is such a thing as X linked dominant! You must be specific that it is X linked recessive.

41
Q

A peripheral blood film from a patient with advanced myeloma shows a normocytic, normochromic anaemia.

What other blood film finding may be found in patients with advanced myeloma and reflects a high paraprotein concentration?

A

Rouleaux formation

42
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Sickle Cell Disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

43
Q

What is the classical inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?

A

X linked recessive

Absolute levels of G6PD may be normal during an acute haemolytic crisis - to reflect an increase in RBC formation. However, the actual amount of G6PD per erythrocyte is low.

Mode of inheritance is X linked recessive. Please note - there is such a thing as X linked dominant! You must be specific that it is X linked recessive.

44
Q

A 23 year old woman presents to their GP complaining of tummy pain and foul smelling stool which float. She has also lost weight over the last 2 months.

The GP performs a panel of blood tests, which reveal:

Microcytic anaemia (Hb 102) with a low ferritin, increased TIBC and low serum iron. Serum B12 and folate are normal.

Anti-TTG antibody positive, IgA antibody positive.

What is the first line management of this condition?

A

Gluten avoidance

45
Q

What inherited condition, after cystic fibrosis, is the most common cause of pancreatic exocrine dysfunction in children?

A

Shwachman Diamond syndrome

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome is an inherited, autosomal recessive condition characterised by neutropenia and other classical features.

Generally, there is pancreatic dysfunction - resulting in fatty stools and hepatic impairment.

They also have a very short stature, with most patients being less than the fifth percentile for height and a preponderance of skeletal issues.

It is typically diagnosed in childhood and is the second most common cause of pancreatic exocrine dysfunction in children - other than cystic fibrosis.

It arises because the SBDS gene is important for ribosomal function. How this causes the phenotype seen in Shwachman-Diamond syndrome is unclear.

This syndrome is different to Diamond–Blackfan syndrome, which typically affects red blood cells only and has a different clinical presentation.

46
Q

A 61 year old man undergoes the NHS Health check and has a blood test.

His cholesterol is high and his WCC is 24 (NR: 4-11) with a neutrophil level of 17 (NR: 1.5-8).

On examination, there is fullness in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen but no lymphadenopathy. He denies any recent travel.

He denies any fever, night sweats or weight loss. He does not feel unwell.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)

CML is the overlap point between full blown leukaemias and the other myeloproliferative diseases.

The median age of diagnosis is around 50 years old.

Often, CML is diagnosed incidentally. Classically it causes massive splenomegaly due to splenic infiltration of myeloid cells.

A white cell count will show an elevated neutrophil count. If CML is suspected, genetic testing for the philadelphia chromosome (9;22 translocation) or the BCR-ABL fusion gene should be performed.

A rationally designed small molecule inhibitor, imatinib (when BCR-ABL is present) can induce remission in nearly every case in the chronic phase of the disease.

47
Q

What blood test is used clinically to measure the activity of the instrincit and common clotting pathways?

A

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

Intrinsic and Extrinsic Pathways of the Clotting Cascade

The clotting cascade fundamentally exists to turn a small action into a larger action. There are two main pathways - the intrinsic and extrinsic, which converge and join the common pathway.

Fun fact: The “a” after clotting factors e.g. Xa stands for “activated”.

The intrinsic pathway starts when the vascular endothelium is disrupted, exposing collagen. This exposed collagen then sets off a chain reaction resulting in factor X being converted to Xa. Intrinsic pathway = the injury pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the APPT.

The extrinsic pathway is much more sensitive. Heat, trauma, sepsi, chemicals and many other stimuli can begin this part of the clotting cascade. Extrinsic pathway = the “everything else” pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the PT.

Both pathways need calcium (factor IV) in order for clotting to occur.

Both pathways then converge at the common pathway with the production of factor Xa from Factor X.

48
Q

A patient is investigated for tiredness.

Blood tests show a low haemoglobin.

A peripheral blood smear shows microcytosis, hypochromia and the presence of cigar cells.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Iron Deficiency Anaemia

49
Q

After myelodysplastic syndrome, which haematological malignancy does Fanconi anaemia carry an approximate 10% lifetime risk of developing?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

Fanconi anaemia is the most common type of inherited primary bone marrow failure. It presents between the ages of 5-9 with skeletal abnormalities (abnormal thumbs), short stature, cafe au lait spots and pancytopenia.

The disease is due to dysfunctioning DNA repair genes such as FANCA.

There is a high risk of developing acute myeloid leukaemia, approximately 10% of patients diagnosed with fanconi anaemia will develop this. 30% will develop some myelodysplastic syndrome.

Please note this is different to Fanconi syndrome, which is a renal disease

50
Q

What intracellular inclusion may be found in the neutrophils of a patient with acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

Auer rods

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

AML typically affects two groups of people: adults (risk increases with age) and <2 year olds

The typical presentation is of bone marrow failure - anaemia and thrombocytopenia - in combination with organ infiltration - hepatomegaly, gum infiltration or in severe cases into the CNS. There are multiple subtypes of AML.

On a FBC, there will be a high white cell count with a preponderance of blast (immature) cells. A blood film may show the presence of neutrophils with auer rods.

Treatment is mainly chemotherapy, though stem cell transplantation is an option. Symptomatic treatment with blood products is often also needed.

Of note, the M3 subtype (acute promyelocytic leukaemia) can be treated specifically with all-trans retinoic acid.

51
Q

In which organ is ferritin typically found in the body?

A

Liver

52
Q

Secretion of what hormone is responsible for the development of polycythaemia in COPD?

A

Erythropoietin

53
Q

What abnormality on a full blood count would be expected in Shwachman–Bodian–Diamond syndrome?

A

Neutropenia

To differentiate the commonest primary bone marrow failures on blood film, here is a helpful table:
Fanconi anaemia	Pancytopenia	Most common
Diamond-Blackfan anaemia	Red cells only	
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome	Neutropenia	
Dyskeratosis congenita	Pancytopenia
54
Q

A 21 year old woman with transfusion dependent beta thalassaemia normally has a transfusion every two weeks.

She has recently moved into your care and no previous blood results are available.

Pre-Transfusion bloods show a Hb of 76 (low) and a WCC of 23 (Normal Range: <11)

She is clinically well, apyrexial. She denies losing weight or night sweats. Her appetite is good.

What blood test should be ordered to further investigate the raised white cell count given her history?

A

Reticulocyte count

Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells which still have residual ribosomes.

Ribosomes are basophilic and hence stain darkly.

The number of reticulocytes in peripheral circulation approximately reflects the status of erythropoiesis - the more erythropoiesis, the more reticulocytes.

Automated white cell counts in hospitals can be confused by reticulocytes. Automated white cell counts are not (always) accurate in the presence of e.g. severe haemolytic anaemia. The automated white cell count will read reticulocytes as neutrophils. A manual differentiation (a haematologist reviewing under the microscope) or reticulocyte count can be ordered to identify the level of reticulocytosis.

55
Q

A 78 year old woman is admitted to hospital following blood tests which showed profound anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

Her abdominal exam reveals hepatosplenomegaly. A blood film shows dacrocytes and the presence of immature haematological cells.

What investigation would confirm the diagnosis?

A

Bone Marrow Biopsy

56
Q

What is clotting factor do the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways converge onto?

A

Factor X

Intrinsic and Extrinsic Pathways of the Clotting Cascade

The clotting cascade fundamentally exists to turn a small action into a larger action. There are two main pathways - the intrinsic and extrinsic, which converge and join the common pathway.

Fun fact: The “a” after clotting factors e.g. Xa stands for “activated”.

The intrinsic pathway starts when the vascular endothelium is disrupted, exposing collagen. This exposed collagen then sets off a chain reaction resulting in factor X being converted to Xa. Intrinsic pathway = the injury pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the APPT.

The extrinsic pathway is much more sensitive. Heat, trauma, sepsi, chemicals and many other stimuli can begin this part of the clotting cascade. Extrinsic pathway = the “everything else” pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the PT.

Both pathways need calcium (factor IV) in order for clotting to occur.

Both pathways then converge at the common pathway with the production of factor Xa from Factor X.

57
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by warfarin and leads to a reduction in clotting factors II, VII, IX and X?

A

Vitamin K epoxide

Vitamin K dependent clotting factors

The vitamin K dependent clotting factors are factors 2, 7, 9 and 10. In addition, the anticoagulants protein C and S also rely on vitamin K.

Warfarin inhibits the enzyme Vitamin K epoxide and prevents recycling of vitamin K - leading to a net reduction in levels of vitamin K dependent clotting factors.

If initiating warfarin treatment, for the first few days there is a PRO-coagulant effect. This is due to the different half lifes of the anticoagulants protein C + S relative to the clotting factors. Protein C and S have a shorter half life, so these anticoagulant proteins disappear - leaving normal levels of the other clotting factors. This means there is a net procoagulant effect.

Typically, people are bridged with low molecular weight heparin for the first few days of warfarin treatment.

58
Q

What is the term given to a group of genetic condition which affect the synthesis of the haem molecule, which is vital for the function of haemoglobin, peroxidase and P450 enzymes?

A

Porphyria

59
Q

A 75 year old woman is seen in A&E with severe, right sided pain. She points to her right PSIS and says the pain is worse there. Palpation does not make the pain worse. Nothing makes the pain better. It is throbbing in nature. She denies trauma and this has worsened over the last two months.

In this time, she has lost 5% of her body weight. She is anaemic and has an elevated serum corrected calcium.

Serum protein electrophoresis shows the presence of a large, monoclonal band. Urinary bence jones proteins were negative.
What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Multiple Myeloma

Multiple Myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells.

It is differentiated from the related conditions MGUS and Smouldering Myeloma by the presence of end organ damage, the so called “CRAB” symptoms. Calcium (elevated), Renal failure, Anaemia and Bone lesions. MGUS has <10% plasma cells in the bone marrow on biopsy, where as SM and multiple myeloma have >10%.

Most commonly, the plasma cells will produce large amount of defective immunoglobulins - mostly IgG (less commonly IgA). These may be detected by serum electrophoresis - producing a graph of the molecular weights of proteins in the blood. There will be a large, single, spike. Urinary bence jones proteins are also used in the diagnosis of MM - these are the light chains of immunoglobulins which may be secreted in urine - but not always.

Other diagnostic factors include: an elevated ESR and rouleaux formation on a blood film (both due to the increased protein [immunoglobulin] concentration in the blood).

60
Q

A 17 year old is seen by her GP due to menorrhagia. The GP recalls that her mother also has heavy periods.

The GP arranges for a full blood count, clotting screen and bleeding time, which gives the following results:
APTT	Increased
PT	Normal
Bleeding Time	Prolonged
Factor VIII Level	Low
Von Willebrand Factor Level	Normal
Platelet Count	Normal

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Von Willebrand’s Disease

Von Willebrand’s Disease

Von Willebrand’s disease is a disorder of platelet function caused by a reduction in function or number of Von Willebrand Factor (vWF). Normally, vWF is responsible for binding to other proteins, notably factor VIII, collagen and platelets directly. By binding these three things together, it stabilises the platelet plug and increases the strength of the initial platelet plug in primary haemostasis.

Factor VIII is normally bound to vWF in circulation. If vWF is not present, then Factor VIII is rapidly degraded. Hence, Von Willebrand’s disease will also decrease the function of the intrinsic clotting pathway due to reduced levels of Factor VIII.

Most Von Willebrand’s disease is mild and many people do not realise they have it. If they are symptomatic, then usually it will present as easy bruising and nosebleeds. Women may experience heavy periods.

Blood tests will reveal a prolonged bleeding time (as this measures platelet function directly) and a prolonged APTT (due to increased degradation of Factor VIII).

Platelet count, PT and INR will be normal. Haemophillia does not affect the bleeding time

Levels of vWF may be normal OR low - depending if the issue is with the function of vWF or if the issue is with a lack of production of vWF

61
Q

What is the most common cause of B12 deficiency in the UK?

A

Pernicious Anaemia

62
Q

Which clotting factor is prevented from being degraded through binding with Von Willebrand Factor in circulation?

A

Factor VIII

Von Willebrand’s Disease

Von Willebrand’s disease is a disorder of platelet function caused by a reduction in function or number of Von Willebrand Factor (vWF). Normally, vWF is responsible for binding to other proteins, notably factor VIII, collagen and platelets directly. By binding these three things together, it stabilises the platelet plug and increases the strength of the initial platelet plug in primary haemostasis.

Factor VIII is normally bound to vWF in circulation. If vWF is not present, then Factor VIII is rapidly degraded. Hence, Von Willebrand’s disease will also decrease the function of the intrinsic clotting pathway due to reduced levels of Factor VIII.

Most Von Willebrand’s disease is mild and many people do not realise they have it. If they are symptomatic, then usually it will present as easy bruising and nosebleeds. Women may experience heavy periods.

Blood tests will reveal a prolonged bleeding time (as this measures platelet function directly) and a prolonged APTT (due to increased degradation of Factor VIII).

Platelet count, PT and INR will be normal. Haemophillia does not affect the bleeding time

Levels of vWF may be normal OR low - depending if the issue is with the function of vWF or if the issue is with a lack of production of vWF

63
Q

The myeloproliferative syndromes, which include essential thrombocytosis, all carry a risk of transformation to what malignancy?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

64
Q

A 60 year old gentleman is easily fatigable and has exertional dyspnea. PMHx is unremarkable, with the exception of severe aortic stenosis treated with replacement with a metallic heart valve.

Blood tests reveal a normocytic anaemia with elevated bilirubin and decreased haptoglobin. A blood film shows the presence of schistocytes. DAT is negative.
What is the cause of this gentleman’s anaemia?

A

Metallic heart valve

65
Q

A doctor suspects that their patient may be anaemic.

The doctor orders a panel of blood tests and a urine dip.

The urine dip was positive for blood.

A FBC reveals a normocytic anaemia.

The results of Iron Studies are below.
Serum iron	Normal
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)	Normal
C Reactive Protein	3 (NR 2-8)
Ferritin	Normal
Bilirubin	Elevated

What type of anaemia does this patient have?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

66
Q

What condition is associated with infiltration of large numbers of megakaryocytes into bone marrow and is associated with increased stroke risk?

A

Essential thrombocytosis

67
Q

Multiple myeloma is a lymphoproliferative malignancy of what type of immune cell?

A

Plasma cells

68
Q

A 6 year old boy is seen by his GP.

His dentist said that he should have his blood tested after a recent tooth extraction took a long time to clot.

Blood tests show a normal INR, prolonged APTT, normal PT, normal level of platelets, normal levels of Von Willebrand factor, normal factor IX but low Factor VIII. Bleeding time is normal.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Haemophilia A

Haemophilias

Haemophillias are a collection of inherited, X-linked recessive disorders of clotting factors.

There are two main types:

Haemophilia A - a deficiency in clotting factor VIII

Haemophilia B (aka Christmas disease) - a deficiency in clotting factor IX

Diagnosis can be made on the basis of abnormal, spontaneous or prolonged bleeding that is often identified in childhood. Bleeding into joints (haemarthrosis) or muscles is common. A common presentation is prolonged bleeding after dental surgery.

If requested, blood tests will show an increased APTT (reflecting decreased activity of the intrinsic pathway, which factors VIII and IX are involved in), normal PT and decreased levels of whichever clotting factor is affected.

The bleeding time is typically normal - the issue here isn’t the initial platelet plug as in primary haemostasis (which does not rely on clotting factors) but rather coagulation, which is part of secondary haemostasis and is responsible for a more permanent, fibrin cross-linked clot.

69
Q

What is the specific inheritance pattern of Haemophillia A and B?

A

X linked recessive

Haemophilias

Haemophillias are a collection of inherited, X-linked recessive disorders of clotting factors.

There are two main types:

Haemophilia A - a deficiency in clotting factor VIII

Haemophilia B (aka Christmas disease) - a deficiency in clotting factor IX

Diagnosis can be made on the basis of abnormal, spontaneous or prolonged bleeding that is often identified in childhood. Bleeding into joints (haemarthrosis) or muscles is common. A common presentation is prolonged bleeding after dental surgery.

If requested, blood tests will show an increased APTT (reflecting decreased activity of the intrinsic pathway, which factors VIII and IX are involved in), normal PT and decreased levels of whichever clotting factor is affected.

The bleeding time is typically normal - the issue here isn’t the initial platelet plug as in primary haemostasis (which does not rely on clotting factors) but rather coagulation, which is part of secondary haemostasis and is responsible for a more permanent, fibrin cross-linked clot.

70
Q

A histopathologist looks at a blood film taken from a patient. She notes the presence of smudge cells.

What condition is the patient likely to have?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

Chronic Lymphocyte Leukaemia (CLL)

CLL is a slow lymphoproliferative disease, typically presenting in elderly men. Often asymptomatic and only detected incidentally on blood tests.

Symptoms include Bone Marrow Failure (anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia) in the end stages, however typically the only symptoms will be generalised lymphadenopathy with weight loss, fever and night sweats.

Richter’s transformation may occur, where a low-grade CLL converts to a high grade, aggressive Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma.

Blood tests will show a high WCC with elevated (mature) lymphocytes. A blood film may show smudge cells.

Watchful waiting is usually the management of choice for early-moderate disease. Ibrutinib (a tyrosine kinase inhibitor) may be used for advanced or symptomatic cases.

71
Q

A 48 year old female with bilateral hot, swollen and painful wrists presents to her GP.

She says she has been feeling under the weather for about a year, however in the last week her joints have become exquisitely painful. She’s also felt very tired and thinks she’s been losing weight.

A full blood count reveals a normocytic anaemia, however there is a decreased total iron binding capacity (TIBC) and elevated serum ferritin.

What type of anaemia does this patient have?

A

Anaemia of chronic disease

72
Q

What is the typical finding on a full blood count for patients with Diamond Blackfan anaemia?

A

Anaemia

Diamond-Blackfan anaemia is a congenital disorder affecting haematological stem cells.

Typically, only red blood cells are affected rather than other blood cell lineages.

Symptoms are usually detected in infancy and diagnosis is made off the results of blood tests (showing anaemia, low reticulocytes and elevated fetal haemoglobin). A bone marrow biopsy would also reveal decreased erythroid precursors.

Other features which may be present include craniofacial malformations, such as cleft palate or cardiac defects.

Please note, this syndrome is different from Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, which predominantly affects neutrophils.

73
Q

A 67 year old woman is seen by her GP.

She says she is allergic to water as after she showers, she becomes very itchy & describes the development of hives.

Examination shows a mass in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

What is the first line treatment for this condition?

A

Phlebotomy

74
Q

A 80 year old man is seen by their GP.

His wife is concerned that his gums have grown. He says when he brushes his teeth, they tend to bleed.

He has had weight loss (10% in the last 6 months) and now bruises easily.

A full blood count shows a low haemoglobin and low platelets. There is an elevated white cell count, with a large number of neutrophils.

A blood film shows the presence of myeloid blast cells.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute Myeloid leukaemia

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

AML typically affects two groups of people: adults (risk increases with age) and <2 year olds

The typical presentation is of bone marrow failure - anaemia and thrombocytopenia - in combination with organ infiltration - hepatomegaly, gum infiltration or in severe cases into the CNS. There are multiple subtypes of AML.

On a FBC, there will be a high white cell count with a preponderance of blast (immature) cells. A blood film may show the presence of neutrophils with auer rods.

Treatment is mainly chemotherapy, though stem cell transplantation is an option. Symptomatic treatment with blood products is often also needed.

Of note, the M3 subtype (acute promyelocytic leukaemia) can be treated specifically with all-trans retinoic acid.

75
Q

Which haemoglobin chain is mutated in sickle cell disease?

A

Beta Globin

76
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary elliptocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

77
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

78
Q

A 63 year old man is admitted to hospital with severe pain in his right flank which comes and goes in waves. He cannot remain still while the pain is at its worst.

He has had similar episodes in the past which resolved without him seeing a doctor. He has no other past medical history of note.

Blood tests reveal an elevated calcium (3.1, NR 2.2-2.6); a normocytic anaemia (Hb 90, NR >120); and an elevated urea and creatinine.

After further questioning, he reports pain in his back and his legs which has progressively been worsening.

What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Multiple Myeloma

Multiple Myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells.

It is differentiated from the related conditions MGUS and Smouldering Myeloma by the presence of end organ damage, the so called “CRAB” symptoms. Calcium (elevated), Renal failure, Anaemia and Bone lesions. MGUS has <10% plasma cells in the bone marrow on biopsy, where as SM and multiple myeloma have >10%.

Most commonly, the plasma cells will produce large amount of defective immunoglobulins - mostly IgG (less commonly IgA). These may be detected by serum electrophoresis - producing a graph of the molecular weights of proteins in the blood. There will be a large, single, spike. Urinary bence jones proteins are also used in the diagnosis of MM - these are the light chains of immunoglobulins which may be secreted in urine - but not always.

Other diagnostic factors include: an elevated ESR and rouleaux formation on a blood film (both due to the increased protein [immunoglobulin] concentration in the blood).

79
Q

A 34 year old woman suffered a major obstetric haemorrhage (1.5L blood loss) during delivery. She was transfused at the time and the bleeding was successfully controlled.

However, an hour later, she is now bleeding profusely and has lost a further 1L of blood. She has now developed a nosebleed and she is bleeding from her cannula insertion site.

A medical emergency (MET) call is put out along with activation of the major haemorrhage protocol.

30 minutes later, blood tests from the MET call showed the following clotting abnormalities:

Very high INR, very high APTT and a very low platelet count. Her D Dimer is very high.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is a rare, catastrophic clotting event. It is characterised by simultaneous, widespread clotting throughout the body which rapidly uses up clotting factors and fibrin. When all the clotting factors, fibrin, platelets etc are consumed, uncontrollable bleeding can occur.

This typically occurs in the context of severe, systemic injury such as widespread trauma, obstetric haemorrhage, malignancy or sepsis.

It has a very high mortality rate.

Blood tests would show elevated INR, APTT, Thrombin Time, D Dimer and Bleeding time. There would be a decrease in platelet count, fibrinogen and clotting factor levels.

80
Q

Which chemical ion is required to convert Factor IX to Factor X in the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and Factor VII to Factor X in the extrinsic pathway of the clotting disorder?

A

Calcium

Intrinsic and Extrinsic Pathways of the Clotting Cascade

The clotting cascade fundamentally exists to turn a small action into a larger action. There are two main pathways - the intrinsic and extrinsic, which converge and join the common pathway.

Fun fact: The “a” after clotting factors e.g. Xa stands for “activated”.

The intrinsic pathway starts when the vascular endothelium is disrupted, exposing collagen. This exposed collagen then sets off a chain reaction resulting in factor X being converted to Xa. Intrinsic pathway = the injury pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the APPT.

The extrinsic pathway is much more sensitive. Heat, trauma, sepsi, chemicals and many other stimuli can begin this part of the clotting cascade. Extrinsic pathway = the “everything else” pathway. The activity of this pathway is measured clinically using the PT.

Both pathways need calcium (factor IV) in order for clotting to occur.

Both pathways then converge at the common pathway with the production of factor Xa from Factor X.

81
Q

What staging system is used to stage Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Ann-Arbor staging

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (HL) [20% of lymphomas]

Typically occurs in two groups of people - young adults and elderly patients. Men are disproportionately affected.

A key precipitating factor is prior infection with Epstein Barr Virus (EBV). Malignant cells are predominantly mature B cells from a lymph node’s germinal centre. It is staged using the Ann-Arbor system.

Often, it is symptomless until the development of “B” symptoms - fever, drenching night sweats and weight loss. There will be asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, usually in the neck. Classically, there is lymph node pain after alcohol - though this is very rare. There is also the risk of developing SVC syndrome if left untreated.

For diagnosis, clinical suspicion and CT-PET followed by lymph node biopsy is used. A blood film may show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

There are multiple subtypes of HL, the most common of which is the nodular sclerosing subtype (good prognosis).

82
Q

The M3 subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukaemia can be treated effectively with which first line drug?

A

All Trans Retinoic Acid

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

AML typically affects two groups of people: adults (risk increases with age) and <2 year olds

The typical presentation is of bone marrow failure - anaemia and thrombocytopenia - in combination with organ infiltration - hepatomegaly, gum infiltration or in severe cases into the CNS. There are multiple subtypes of AML.

On a FBC, there will be a high white cell count with a preponderance of blast (immature) cells. A blood film may show the presence of neutrophils with auer rods.

Treatment is mainly chemotherapy, though stem cell transplantation is an option. Symptomatic treatment with blood products is often also needed.

Of note, the M3 subtype (acute promyelocytic leukaemia) can be treated specifically with all-trans retinoic acid.

83
Q

What molecule binds free haemoglobin in the bloodstream and may be used in the investigation of haemolysis?

A

Haptoglobin

84
Q

What is the most common immunoglobulin produced by plasma cells in multiple myeloma?

A

IgG

Multiple Myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells.

It is differentiated from the related conditions MGUS and Smouldering Myeloma by the presence of end organ damage, the so called “CRAB” symptoms. Calcium (elevated), Renal failure, Anaemia and Bone lesions. MGUS has <10% plasma cells in the bone marrow on biopsy, where as SM and multiple myeloma have >10%.

Most commonly, the plasma cells will produce large amount of defective immunoglobulins - mostly IgG (less commonly IgA). These may be detected by serum electrophoresis - producing a graph of the molecular weights of proteins in the blood. There will be a large, single, spike. Urinary bence jones proteins are also used in the diagnosis of MM - these are the light chains of immunoglobulins which may be secreted in urine - but not always.

Other diagnostic factors include: an elevated ESR and rouleaux formation on a blood film (both due to the increased protein [immunoglobulin] concentration in the blood).

85
Q

What is the term given to describe the transformation of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia into a high grade lymphoma?

A

Richter’s Transformation

Chronic Lymphocyte Leukaemia (CLL)

CLL is a slow lymphoproliferative disease, typically presenting in elderly men. Often asymptomatic and only detected incidentally on blood tests.

Symptoms include Bone Marrow Failure (anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia) in the end stages, however typically the only symptoms will be generalised lymphadenopathy with weight loss, fever and night sweats.

Richter’s transformation may occur, where a low-grade CLL converts to a high grade, aggressive Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma.

Blood tests will show a high WCC with elevated (mature) lymphocytes. A blood film may show smudge cells.

Watchful waiting is usually the management of choice for early-moderate disease. Ibrutinib (a tyrosine kinase inhibitor) may be used for advanced or symptomatic cases.

86
Q

What blood test should be monitored regularly on a patient treated with unfractionated heparin?

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time

Heparin works by increasing the action of antithrombin III.

Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin and factors IX, X and XI.

There are two main types in clinical practice - low molecular weight heparin - LMWH- (does not require monitoring) and unfractionated heparin (requires APTT monitoring).

Heparins predominantly affects the intrinsic pathway of clotting. Heparins

In severe bleeding an antidote, protamine sulfate, may be given. It doesn’t completely reverse LMWH, however.

87
Q

What description is given to red blood cells which are typically polychromatic and stain heavily for the presence of RNA?

A

Reticulocyte

88
Q

A 3 year old boy is seen by his GP after his mother noted that his right knee had swollen during the night and become painful to the touch. This has happened multiple times before in the other knee and it has resolved spontaneously. The child appears well and has no fever. He is able to weight bear. He does not appear distressed by it. His brother has had similar symptoms.

His past medical history includes recurrent epistaxis and his mother says he bruises easily.

The GP suspects this may be a clotting disorder and orders a panel of bloods, including inflammatory markers and a clotting screen.

Given the most likely diagnosis, what blood test would you expect to be elevated?

A

APTT

Haemophilias

Haemophillias are a collection of inherited, X-linked recessive disorders of clotting factors.

There are two main types:

Haemophilia A - a deficiency in clotting factor VIII

Haemophilia B (aka Christmas disease) - a deficiency in clotting factor IX

Diagnosis can be made on the basis of abnormal, spontaneous or prolonged bleeding that is often identified in childhood. Bleeding into joints (haemarthrosis) or muscles is common. A common presentation is prolonged bleeding after dental surgery.

If requested, blood tests will show an increased APTT (reflecting decreased activity of the intrinsic pathway, which factors VIII and IX are involved in), normal PT and decreased levels of whichever clotting factor is affected.

The bleeding time is typically normal - the issue here isn’t the initial platelet plug as in primary haemostasis (which does not rely on clotting factors) but rather coagulation, which is part of secondary haemostasis and is responsible for a more permanent, fibrin cross-linked clot.