HAA Part 135 Study Aide

Question 1

DISCLAIMER

Answer 1

This flash card study aide is provided to ease and assist in studying much more comprehensive material provided by Federal Regulations / FAR AIM / Applicable Letters of Agreement / Company GOM / OpSpecs. The creator of this study aide and Air Methods accepts no responsibility for inaccuracies or abbreviation of procedures. This is intended to introduce the associated material and all persons using these cards should study and reference the officially distributed material from the applicable sources. It is recommended that after referencing each card, the student should independently verify the information on that card by looking it up and learning the comprehensive information from the direct source. If any inaccuracies, misleading or typo errors are found, please notify the administrator of the study deck.

Question 2

HYPOXIC HYPOXIA

Answer 2

Hypoxic hypoxia is the most common and is caused by decreased oxygen in air or the inability to diffuse the oxygen across the lungs.

If this happens, the person has less than 100% saturation of the blood in the arteries. This can happen if you are at an altitude where the oxygen content of air is low (i.e., over 12,500 feet). Another problem would be if a person’s lungs were damaged so oxygen transfer was impaired

Question 3

HYPEMIC HYPOXIA

Answer 3

Hypemic hypoxia is caused by the reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. Anemia (low hemoglobin) can cause this. The oxygen is available, but there isn’t enough good blood to carry the oxygen. Carbon monoxide poisoning will cause this type of HYPOXIA! The blood holds on to the carbon monoxide from the exhaust leak in your engine and your capacity to carry oxygen decreases, you become hypoxic!

Question 4

HISTOTOXIC HYPOXIA

Answer 4

Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when all systems are working but the cells can’t take” the oxygen from the blood. The oxygen is available. Alcohol or cyanide poisoning can cause this.”

Question 5

STAGNANT HYPOXIA

Answer 5

Stagnant hypoxia is caused by reduced cardiac output (the pump isn’t working good enough) or by venous pooling during high G force stresses. We are all getting older and we have to remember that the function of the heart is essential for pumping the oxygenated blood.

Question 6

As a 135 crew member, can you refuse a drug test? What are the consequences if you do?

Answer 6

61.161

A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results requested by the Administrator is grounds for:

2. Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or
3. Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

Question 7

Do you have to report offenses of operating a motor vehicle under the influence of drugs or alcohol to the FAA? If so, within what time period?

Answer 7

61.151

Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC–700), PO Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, not later than 60 days after the motorvehicle action. The report must include:

i. The person’s name, address, date of birth, and airman certificate number;ii. The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the administrative action;
iii. The date of the conviction or administrative actioniv. The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative action; and
v. A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related to a previously reported motor vehicle action.
2. Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds for:
i. Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the motor vehicle action; or
ii. Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under

Question 8

When does a first and second class medical expire?

Answer 8

61.23

Question 9

If you are 135 qualified, do you need a flight review?

Answer 9

61.56(c)

Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has

(1) Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor; and
(2) A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review.
(d) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph
(c) of this section, passed a pilot proficiency check conducted by an examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege need not accomplish the flight review required by this section.

Question 10

What is considered night in regard to recent flight experience?

Answer 10

61.57

(2) (b) Night takeoff and landing experience.
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise

Question 11

What is considered careless and reckless operation?

Answer 11

91.13

No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.

Question 12

How close can you operate to another aircraft?

Answer 12

91.111(a)

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Question 13

Can you fly in formation flight?

Answer 13

91.111(b)

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight

Question 14

What aircraft has the right of way over all other aircraft?

Answer 14

91.113(c)

In distress.

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

Question 15

What should you do if you do not understand a clearance from ATC?

Answer 15

91.123(a)

When a pilot is uncertain of an ATC clearance, that pilot shall immediately request clarification from ATC

Question 16

Can you deviate from an ATC clearance

Answer 16

91.123(b)

Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction in an area in which air traffic control is exercised.

(c) Each pilot in command who, in an emergency, or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.

Question 17

What communication and transponder requirements do you need to enter class B airspace?

Answer 17

91.131(1)

The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area.

(b) Pilot requirements.
(1) No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless–
(i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate;…
(c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with–
(1) For IFR operation. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system; and
(2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area.
(d) Transponder requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment…

Question 18

Can you obtain clearance to fly through restricted airspace?

Answer 18

91.133

Restricted and prohibited areas.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area (designated in part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.

Question 19

What are the minimum fuel requirements?

Answer 19

91.151

Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.

(b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

Question 20

What are the basic VFR weather minimums?

Answer 20

91.155

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and §91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR
when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table:

(b) Class G Airspace. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface:
* *(1) Helicopter. A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds in an airport traffic pattern within 1⁄2 mile of the runway or helipad of intended landing if the flight visibility is not less than 1⁄2 statute mile.**

(2) Airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft. If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1⁄2 mile of the runway, you may operate an airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft clear of clouds.
(c) Except as provided in §91.157, no person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
(d) Except as provided in §91.157 of this part, no person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport—
(1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or

(2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.
(e) For the purpose of this section, an aircraft operating at the base altitude of a Class E airspace area is considered to be within the airspace directly below that area.

Question 21

VFR Weather Minimums

135.609

Answer 21

Question 22

FAR 135.207 is titled “VFR: Helicopter surface reference requirements.” What does this regulation relate to?

Answer 22

135.207

It sets forth the requirements for helicopter surface reference for VFR flight

No person may operate a helicopter under VFR unless that person has visual surface reference or, at night, visual surface light reference, sufficient to safely control the helicopter.

Question 23

Maintenance Flight Weather Minimums

Answer 23

• Ground runs - None
• Hovering - 300ft 1/2mi
• Flight - 1000/3

GOM 3.13.2

Question 24

What is the minimum visibility required to operate

VFR day? Night? (Part 135)

Answer 24

135.205 (b)

No person may operate a helicopter under VFR in Class G airspace at an altitude of 1,200 feet or less above the surface or within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport unless the visibility is at least

(1) During the day– 1/2 mile

(2) At night–1 mile.

Question 25

What is considered night in regards to position lights?

Answer 25

91.209

Aircraft lights.

No person may:

(a) During the period from sunset to sunrise
(1) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
(2) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft
(i) Is clearly illuminated;
(ii) Has lighted position lights; or
(iii) is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights;
(3) Anchor an aircraft unless the aircraft
(i) Has lighted anchor lights; or
(ii) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels; or
(b) Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Question 26

When can you log

NIGHT flight time

Answer 26

AIM Definitions 1.1

Night means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.

Civil Twilight times can be found at Navy’s Air Almanac

Question 27

Do you always need to have your anti collision light on what operating at night?

Answer 27

91.209(b)

Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Question 28

Is the maintenance log required to be carried aboard the aircraft?

Answer 28

135.65 (a)

Each certificate holder shall provide an aircraft maintenance log to be carried on board each aircraft for recording or deferring mechanical irregularities and their correction.

Question 29

What checklist is required to be aboard the aircraft?

Answer 29

135.83

Operating information required.

(a) The operator of an aircraft must provide the following materials, in current and appropriate form, accessible to the pilot at the pilot station, and the pilot shall use them:

(1) A cockpit checklist.

(3) Pertinent aeronautical charts.

Question 30

Who may manipulate the controls during a flight?

Answer 30

135.115

Manipulation of controls.

No pilot in command may allow any person to manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight conducted under this part, nor may any person manipulate the controls during such flight unless that person is

(a) A pilot employed by the certificate holder and qualified in the aircraft; or
(b) An authorized safety representative of the Administrator who has the permission of the pilot in command, is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations.

Question 31

What must be included in the passenger safety briefing?

Answer 31

135.117

Briefing of passengers before flight.

1. Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited
2. The use of safety belts, including instructions on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belts
3. Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits
4. Location of survival equipment
5. If the flight involves extended overwater operation, ditching procedures and the use of required flotation equipment
6. Location and operation of fire extinguishers.

(c) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be given by the pilot in command or a crewmember
(e) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must be supplemented by printed cards which must be carried in the aircraft in locations convenient for the use of each passenger.

Question 32

Can passengers drink alcoholic beverages on board the aircraft?

Answer 32

135.121

Alcoholic beverages.

(a) No person may drink any alcoholic beverage aboard an aircraft unless the certificate holder operating the aircraft has served that beverage.
(b) No certificate holder may serve any alcoholic beverage to any person aboard its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated.
(c) No certificate holder may allow any person to board any of its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated.

Question 33

When must passenger seat belts be fastened?

Pilots?

Answer 33

135.128 (a)

Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board an aircraft operated under this part shall occupy an approved seat or berth with a separate safety belt properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used by more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday.

Question 34

When must you carry a flashlight?

Answer 34

135.159(f)

For night flights

(3) A flashlight having at least two size D cells or equivalent.

Question 35

When may equipment be inoperable?

Answer 35

135.179(a)

No person may take off an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met:

(1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.
(2) The certificate-holding district office has issued the certificate holder operations specifications authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Administrator in the certificate holders operations specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the operations specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification.
(3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must: (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition.
(4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and the information required by (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to the pilot.
(5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the operations specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List.
(b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum Equipment List:
(1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions.
(2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise.
(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part.

Question 36

What are the maximum duty times and flight time requirements?

Answer 36

135.267(a)

No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of a one- or two-pilot crew if that crewmember’s total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed

(1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter.

(2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters.

(3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during any 24 consecutive hours the total flight time of the assigned flight when added to any other commercial flying by that flight crewmember may not exceed

(1) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or

(2) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified under this Part for the operation being conducted. (c) A flight crewmember’s flight time may exceed the flight time limits of paragraph (b) of this section if the assigned flight time occurs during a regularly assigned duty period of no more than 14 hours and

(1) If this duty period is immediately preceded by and followed by a required rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours of rest;

(2) If flight time is assigned during this period, that total flight time when added to any other commercial flying by the flight crewmember may not exceed

(i) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or

(ii) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots; and
(3) If the combined duty and rest periods equal 24 hours.
(d) Each assignment under paragraph (b) of this section must provide for at least 10 consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion time of the assignment.
(e) When a flight crewmember has exceeded the daily flight time limitations in this section, because of circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather conditions), that flight crewmember must have a rest period before being assigned or accepting an assignment for flight time of at least
(1) 11 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by not more than 30 minutes;
(2) 12 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 30 minutes, but not more than 60 minutes; and
(3) 16 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 60 minutes.

(f) The certificate holder must provide each flight crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter.

Question 37

After you have been cleared to land at a class B airport, you lose radio communications. What do you do?

Answer 37

Squawk 7600 and continue flight

Watch the tower for any light gun signals

Question 38

ATC LIGHT SIGNAL

STEADY GREEN

Answer 38

Question 39

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

FLASHING GREEN

Answer 39

Question 40

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

STEADY RED

Answer 40

Question 41

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

FLASHING RED

Answer 41

Question 42

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

FLASHING WHITE

Answer 42

Question 43

ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

ALTERNATING RED AND GREEN

Answer 43

Question 44

What are the different types of frontal systems? Define.

Answer 44

Cold Front:

A cold front occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air. Cold fronts move more rapidly than warm fronts, progressing at a rate of 25 to 30 m.p.h. However, extreme cold fronts have been recorded moving at speeds of up to 60 m.p.h. A typical cold front moves in a manner opposite that of a warm front; because it is so dense, it stays close to the ground and acts like a snowplow, sliding under the warmer air and forcing the less dense air aloft. The rapidly ascending air causes the temperature to decrease suddenly, forcing the creation of clouds. The type of clouds that form depends on the stability of the warmer air mass. A cold front in the Northern Hemisphere is normally oriented in a northeast to southwest manner and can be several hundred miles long, encompassing a large area of land. Prior to the passage of a typical cold front, cirriform or towering cumulus clouds are present, and cumulonimbus clouds are possible. Rain showers and hazes are possible due to the rapid development of clouds. The wind from the south-southwest helps to replace the warm temperatures with the relative colder air. A high dewpoint and falling barometric pressure are indicative of imminent cold front passage.

As the cold front passes, towering cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds continue to dominate the sky.

Depending on the intensity of the cold front, heavy rain showers form and might be accompanied by lightning, thunder, and/or hail. More severe cold fronts can also produce tornadoes. During cold front passage, the visibility will be poor, with winds variable and gusty, and the temperature and dewpoint drop rapidly. A quickly falling barometric pressure bottoms out during frontal passage, then begins a gradual increase.

After frontal passage, the towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds begin to dissipate to cumulus clouds with a corresponding decrease in the precipitation. Good visibility eventually prevails with the winds from the west-northwest. Temperatures remain cooler and the barometric pressure continues to rise.

Warm Front

A warm front occurs when a warm mass of air advances and replaces a body of colder air. Warm fronts move slowly, typically 10 to 25 miles per hour (m.p.h.).The slope of the advancing front slides over the top of the cooler air and gradually pushes it out of the area.

Warm fronts contain warm air that often has very high humidity. As the warm air is lifted, the temperature drops and condensation occurs.

Generally, prior to the passage of a warm front, cirriform or stratiform clouds, along with fog, can be expected to form along the frontal boundary. In the summer months, cumulonimbus clouds (thunderstorms) are likely to develop. Light to moderate precipitation is probable, usually in the form of rain, sleet, snow, or drizzle, punctuated by poor visibility. The wind blows from the south-southeast, and the outside temperature is cool or cold, with increasing dewpoint. Finally, as the warm front approaches, the barometric pressure continues to fall until the front passes completely.

During the passage of a warm front, stratiform clouds are visible and drizzle may be falling. The visibility is generally poor, but improves with variable winds. The temperature rises steadily from the inflow of relatively warmer air. For the most part, the dewpoint remains steady and the pressure levels off.After the passage of a warm front, stratocumulus clouds predominate and rain showers are possible. The visibility eventually improves, but hazy conditions may exist for a short period after passage. The wind blows from the south-southwest. With warming temperatures, the dewpoint rises and then levels off. There is generally a slight rise in barometric pressure, followed by a decrease of barometric pressure.

Stationary Front

Neither air mass is replacing / displacing the other

When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days.This front is called a stationary front. The weather associated with a stationary front is typically a mixture that can be found in both warm and cold fronts.

Occluded

Cold air mass catches up to warm air mass and displaces it from underneath.An occluded front occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. As the occluded front approaches, warm front weather prevails, but is immediately followed by cold front weather. There are two types of occluded fronts that can occur, and the temperatures of the colliding frontal systems play a large part in defining the type of front and the resulting weather. A cold front occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front is colder than the air ahead of the slow-moving warm front. When this occurs, the cold air replaces the cool air and forces the warm front aloft into the atmosphere. Typically, the cold front occlusion creates a mixture of weather found in both warm and cold fronts, providing the air is relatively stable. A warm front occlusion occurs when the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air of the cold front. When this is the case, the cold front rides up and over the warm front. If the air forced aloft by the warm front occlusion is unstable, the weather will be more severe than the weather found in a cold front occlusion. Embedded thunderstorms, rain, and fog are likely to occur. The warm front slopes over the prevailing cooler air and produces the warm front type weather. Prior to the passage of the typical occluded front, cirriform and stratiform clouds prevail, light to heavy precipitation is falling, visibility is poor, dewpoint is steady, and barometric pressure is falling. During the passage of the front, nimbostratus and cumulonimbus clouds predominate, and towering cumulus may also be possible. Light to heavy precipitation is falling, visibility is poor, winds are variable, and the barometric pressure is leveling off. After the passage of the front, nimbostratus and altostratus clouds are visible, precipitation is decreasing and clearing, and visibility is improving.

Question 45

What changes will you notice after crossing a front?

Answer 45

Temperature, wind speed and direction, and humidity will change rapidly over a short distance

Question 46

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

Answer 46

1. Cumulus - updrafts
2. Mature - rain starts, updrafts and downdrafts,
3. Dissipating - downdrafts

Question 47

What in-flight hazards are associated with thunderstorms?

Answer 47

1. Turbulence
2. Lightning
3. Icing
4. Hail
5. Low ceiling, low visibility
6. Wind shear
7. Microbursts

Question 48

What is wind shear?

Answer 48

A difference in wind speed and direction over a relatively short distance in the atmosphere.

Question 49

What are the types of icing?

Answer 49

1. Clear - hard and glossy
2. Rime - Brittle and frost-like
3. Mixed - mixture of Clear and Rime - hard and rough

Question 50

What are the types of fog?

Answer 50

1. Ground (radiation) - cool humid air over cool ground (no wind)
2. Steam - cold dry air passes over warm ocean water

Moisture evaporates from water surface

Happens just above water surface

3. Advection - moist air moves over colder ground or water (winds)
4. Upslope fog - moist stable air cooled as it moves up sloping terrain
5. Precipitation induced fog - warm rain falling through cool air. Evaporation from rain saturates cool air and forms fog
6. Ice fog - occurs in cold weather when the temperature is much below freezing andwater vapor freezes directly as ice crystals.

Question 51

How would you recognize wind shear?

Answer 51

• Rapid decrease in airspeed
• Rapid decrease in climb rate
• Rapid increase in sink rate
• Increase in AOA above normal range

Question 52

How would you recognize a thunderstorm?

Answer 52

Look for “anvil”, cumulus “boiling up”effect, lightning

Question 53

How would you escape wind shear problems?

Answer 53

1. Listen to PIREPS and avoid that area
2. If encountering wind shear, report as PIREP

Question 54

What are some do’s and don’ts of thunderstorm flying?

Answer 54

DON’T

Don’t land or take off in the face of a thunderstorm

Don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm

DO

Do avoid large thunderstorms by 20 miles

Do remember that vivid and frequent lightning indicates a severe thunderstorm

Question 55

What would you do if you entered a thunderstorm?

Answer 55

1. Tighten safety belt and harness
2. Plan course to take you through the storm in a minimum amount of time (and hold that course)
3. Turn on pitot heat
4. Use power settings for reduced turbulence airspeed recommended in aircraft manual.
5. Turn up cockpit lights to lessen temporary blindness caused by lightning
6. Keep eyes on instruments
7. Don’t change power settings
8. Maintain constant attitude
9. Don’t turn back once in the thunderstorm (NOTE: In Rotorcraft, consider possibility of slowing to best manuver speed and reverse course to exit ASAP. Consider which way the storm is moving)

Question 56

PROHIBITED AREA

(Define)

Answer 56

Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.

May not use.

Question 57

RESTRICTED AREA

(Define)

Answer 57

The flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited is subject to restriction. RA denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, airial gunnery, or guided missiles.May be used with permission from controlling agency.

Question 58

WARNING AREA

(Define)

Answer 58

From 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S. that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Question 59

MILITARY OPERATIONS AREA (MOA)

(Define)

Answer 59

Established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever a MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through a MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC.Operations include; air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low altitude tactics. Active MOA may contain military aircraft in excess of 250 knots (below 10K feet). May enter, but pilots should contact FSS within 100 NM to determine if MOA is active. Prior to entering MOA pilots should contact controlling agency for traffic advisories.

Question 60

ALERT AREAS

(Define)

Answer 60

Areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity.Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas.

Question 61

CONTROLLED FIRING AREA

(Define)

Answer 61

Activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. Activities are suspended immediately when spotters, radar or lookouts indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. Not charted because pilots need not change flight path.

Question 62

What common NVG malfunctions are not allowed?

(Operational Defects)

Answer 62

• Shading
• Edge Glow
• Flashing
• Flickering
• Intermittent Operation
• Veiling Glare

Question 63

If you lose your airmen certificate or medical certificate, how may you replace said document and how long is that good for?

Answer 63

• FAA by mail or online with a fee.
• Valid for 60 days.

(FAR 61.29)

Question 64

If you are injured and required to take a medication that causes drowsiness, is your medical certificate valid?

Answer 64

No
(FAR 61.53)

Question 65

If you falsify your Pilot Duty Logs, what action can be taken against you?

Answer 65

Suspension or revocation of certificate
(FAR 61.59)

Question 66

How long do you have to notify the FAA of a permanent change of address?

Answer 66

30 Days
(FAR 61.60)

Question 67

A NASA Report does not protect you in the case of what type(s) of offense(s)?

Answer 67

Accidents or criminal offenses
(FAR 91.25)

Question 68

You receive a flight that requires you to fly greater than 100 NM from your base site. What information must you obtain prior to accepting this flight?

Answer 68

• Weather
• Reports
• Forecasts
• Fuel requirements
• Alternatives
• Runways and Lengths

(FAR 91.103)

Question 69

Your route of flight will take you directly over the parking lot of a local stadium hosting the MLB All Star Game. When is a stadium TFR used?

Answer 69

Greater than 30,000 people operations are prohibited within 3NM and 3000ft AGL.

Medical Transportation operation may be excepted when warranted by the FAA administrator.

(FAR 91.145) (99.7)

Question 70

During preflight you notice the airworthiness certificate is faded, torn, and unreadable. What actions must you take? Can you legally operate the aircraft?

Answer 70

FAR 91.203

No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under §91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.

Question 71

What is the alcohol testing requirement for maintenance personnel?

Answer 71

All employees who perform safety sensitive duties are required to the Alcohol/Drug testing program.
Air Methods Anti Drug Training Manual

Question 72

You have inadvertently found yourself the cause, victim, or performer of a safety sensitive function of an aircraft that has just suffered a mishap. What are your restrictions from consuming alcohol following the mishap?

Answer 72

The employee is prohibited from consuming alcohol within 8 hours following an accident/incident or prior to conducting a post accident alcohol test, whichever comes first.
Air Methods Anti Drug Training Manual

Question 73

Give 3 examples of personnel whom the provisions of Part 135 are acceptable

Answer 73

FAR 135.1.a (2)

Personnel employed by a commuter or on-demand operations certificate holder to include

• Pilots
• Maintainers
• Crew

Question 74

Are PIC responsibilities pertaining to aircraft worthiness required to be covered in the Operations Manual?

Answer 74

FAR 135.23 (e)

GOM 1.5.13

Yes
Procedures for ensuring that the pilot in command knows that required airworthiness inspections have been made and that the aircraft has been approved for return to service in compliance with applicable maintenance requirements

Question 75

Other than required for medical concern of the patient, is Air Methods allowed to carry any Narcotic drug, depressant drug, or stimulant drug on board any aircraft it operates?

Answer 75

No

It’s a violation of FAR Part 91.19(a)
(FAR 135.41)

Question 77

While inflight you encounter a potentially hazardous meteorological condition or irregularity with a ground facility that you consider essential to the safety of flight. What is your responsibility with respect to the issue?

Answer 77

FAR 135.67

Knowledge of which the pilot considers essential to the safety of other flights, the pilot shall notify an appropriate ground radio station as soon as practicable.

Question 78

When an unsafe condition occurs at a destination, and there is no acceptable alternative but to continue to that destination, is that considered a normal operation or an emergency situation?

Answer 78

FAR 135.69

If the conditions that are a hazard to safe operations may reasonably be expected to be corrected by the estimated time of arrival, it is considered a normal operation. If there is no safer procedure, the continuation toward that airport is an emergency situation under §135.19.

Question 79

By regulation, what credential must an FAA inspector present to the PIC in order to gain access to the pilot compartment of the aircraft?

Answer 79

FAR 135.75

Aviation Safety Inspector credential, FAA Form 110A

Question 80

What current materials are Air Methods required to provide to you as the pilot?

Answer 80

FAR 135.83

For single engine VFR operations:

• A cockpit checklist.
• Pertinent aeronautical charts

For twin engine Ops:

• An emergency cockpit checklist containing the procedures required by paragraph (c) of this section, as appropriate.

For IFR Ops:

• Pertinent navigational en route, terminal area, and approach and letdown chart.
  (5) For multiengine aircraft, one-engine-inoperative climb performance data and if the aircraft is approved for use in IFR or over-the-top operations, that data must be sufficient to enable the pilot to determine compliance with

Question 81

Does Air Methods, as the certificate holder, have any limitations on using an individual who has a prohibited drug in his/her system?

Answer 81

No certificate holder may knowingly use any person to perform any function listed in FAR Part 120 while that person has a prohibited drug…in his/her system.

Question 82

What are the minimum altitudes for autopilot use in a rotorcraft?

Answer 82

135.93

Does not apply to operations conducted in rotorcraft. However, pilots must be aware of altitude restrictions found in their particular RFM or RFM supplement.

Question 83

In an unpressurized aircraft, ____ percentage of the occupants, other than the pilot, must be supplied oxygen for flights between ____ and _______ feet lasting longer than 30 minutes?

Answer 83

135.157

10% between 10,000 and 15,000 feet MSL, other than the pilot, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration

Question 84

Is there a communication equipment requirement for operations under VFR over routes navigated by pilotage?

Answer 84

135.161 (a)(1-3) Plus, (b)(1)(2) covers night

No Pilot May operate an aircraft under VFR over routes that can be navigated by pilotage unless the aircraft is equipped with the two-way radio communication equipment necessary to communicate with at least one appropriate station, communicate with appropriate ATC facilities in any surface based controlled airspace. Receive meteorological information

Question 85

Is there an exception to the shoulder harness rule requiring a shoulder harness to be worn?

Answer 85

135.171(b)

Except that the shoulder harness may be unfastened if the crewmember cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.

Question 86

What values are used to determine the current empty weight and balance at 36 month intervals?

Answer 86

135.185(a)

For multi-engine aircraft, current empty weight and center of gravity are calculated from values established by actual weighing of the aircraft.

Question 87

For carrying passengers VFR over-the-top, what must the weather reports / forecasts indicate for the point of termination and for how long?

Answer 87

135.211(a)(1) / (b)(1). Also 135.181(a)(2) / (c)(1)

VFR over-the-top carrying passengers…weather reports or forecasts…indicate that the weather at the point of termination…allows descent to beneath the ceiling under VFR and is forecast to remain so until at least 1 hour after ETA. For Multiengine aircraft, descent or continuation if critical engine fails

Question 88

What is the minimum airman certification requirement to fly VFR under Part 135?

Answer 88

135.243 (b)(1)(3) Also 135.4 (a)(2)(iii)(A)

Pilot in command of an aircraft under VFR unless…holds at least a commercial pilot certificate…for an airplane, holds an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate

Question 89

Is Air Methods authorized to assign any specific non-flying duties to an employed PIC during any required rest period?

Answer 89

135.263(b)

No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember to any duty with the certificate holder during any required rest period

Question 90

If you as a PIC are required by Air Methods to travel to a base other than your regularly assigned base for duty as a PIC, may you consider that travel time, either to or from that base, as part of a required rest period?

Answer 90

135.263(c)

Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a certificate holder requires of a flight crewmember…is not considered part of a rest

Question 91

Under “normal flight planning” is there an allowance for exceeding flight time limitations?

Answer 91

NO

135.263(d)

A flight crewmember is not considered to be assigned flight time in excess of flight time limitations if the flights to which he is assigned normally terminate within the limitations, but due to circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder or PIC (such as adverse weather)

Question 92

As a PIC for Air Methods, is your flight time limitation concerned only with flight time incurred while in the employ of Air Methods?

Answer 92

135.267(a)

For flight time as a member of a one-or two-pilot crew if that crewmember’s total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed 500 hours in any calendar quarter, or 800 hours an any two consecutive calendar quarters

Question 93

For a PIC to operate for a certificate holder under IFR, what must he/she pass every 6 months?

Answer 93

135.297(a)

A PIC of an aircraft under IFR…has passed an instrument proficiency check

Question 94

For single pilot PICs, is an autopilot check required every 6 months?

Answer 94

135.297(g)(3)

The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months.

Question 95

If a required checkride is given in the month before or after the month the checkride is due, how does that change when the next checkride is given?

Answer 95

135.301(a)

It doesn’t.

“…completes the test or flight check in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which it is required…considered to have completed the test or check in the calendar month in which it is required

Question 96

Emergency drill training is a requirement of the FARs. Name at least three of the items required to be trained?

Answer 96

135.331(b) (1-4)

Emergency training must provide the following

• Emergency assignments and procedures,
• Location, function, and operation of emergency equipment [equipment used in ditching and evacuation, first aid equipment, portable fire extinguishers],
• Instruction in the handling of emergency situations [rapid decompression, fire in flight, ditching and evacuation, illness, injury, or other abnormal situation, hijacking]
• Review of certificate holder’s previous aircraft accidents and incidents.

Question 97

What mission profile is covered by FAR 135.600?

Answer 97

135.601

Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations.

Question 98

What factors are included the definition of an Air Ambulance Operation?

Answer 98

135.601 (b)(1)(i, ii, iii)

• • (a) A flight, or sequence of flights with a patient OR medical personnel on board for the purpose of medical transportation.
• (b) Include position flights to where the patient or organ will be picked up
• (c) Position flights after completing patient or organ transport
• (d) Flights initiated to transport patients or organs that are terminated due to weather or other reasons

Question 99

What are the qualification requirements for a PIC performing HAAO in VFR conditions IAW FAR 135.603?

Answer 99

Meet the requirements of 135.243 (commercial license, 500 hours total time, 100 hours cross-country, 25 hours at night), must hold a helicopter instrument rating or an ATP with a category and class rating as required

Question 100

What are the VFR weather minimums when operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace for Non-Mountainous flights in the local area during the Day? Night?

Answer 100

• Day 800’-2 Miles
• Night (with NVG or TAWS) 800’ – 3 Miles
• Night (without NVG or TAWS) 1000’ – 3Miles

Question 101

What are the VFR weather minimums when operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace for Non-Mountainous flights outside the local area during the Day? Night?

Answer 101

• Day 800’-3 Miles
• Night (with NVIS or TAWS) 1000’ – 3 Miles
• Night (without NVIS or TAWS) 1000’ – 5 Miles

Question 102

What are the VFR weather minimums when operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace for Mountainous flights outside the local area during the Day? Night?

Answer 102

• Day 1000’ – 3 Miles
• Night (with NVIS or TAWS) 1000’ – 5 Miles
• Night (without NVIS or TAWS) 1500’ – 5 Miles

Question 103

When must cross-country weather minimums be utilized?

Answer 103

Any flight outside the local flying area is a cross-country operation. Pilots who have not passed local flying area knowledge tests within the previous 12 calendar months must use cross-country minima

Question 104

Regulatory speaking, the pilot must ensure that all terrain and obstacles along the route of flight, except for takeoff and landing, are cleared vertically by no less than ___ during the day and __at night?

Answer 104

135.615 (b)

• Day 300’
• Night 500’

Question 105

How wide is the preflight corridor?

Answer 105

There is no corridor. The only requirement to 135.615 is to identify and document the highest obstacle along the planned route of flight

Question 106

What is the purpose of determining and documenting the highest obstacle and minimum cruising altitudes IAW FAR 135.615?

Answer 106

135.615(a)(1-3)(b) & (c). GOM 3.13

• To identify the highest obstacle which will determine the minimum cruising altitude along the planned route of flight.
• Document the highest obstacle in CompleteFlight
• To determine the minimum required ceiling and visibility by applying the weather minimums appropriate to the class of airspace for the planned flight.
• To ensure terrain and obstacles are cleared by 300-feet (day), and 500feet (night) END RESULT: Pilot able to comply with VFR and know the MSA in the event of IIMC, in or out of Local Flying Area.

Question 107

How is the Certificate Holder required to identify risks associated with Helicopter Air Ambulance operations?

Answer 107

135.617(a)

• Certificate Holder must establish and document in the manual, an FAA approved Preflight Risk Analysis that includes:
  
  • 1) Flight considerations (fuel, terrain, obstacles)
  • 2) Human Factors (fatigue, life events, stressors)
  • 3) Weather (departure, enroute, destination),
  • 4) A method to determine if another operator has refused or declined a request.
  • 5) Strategies for mitigating risk, to include obtaining and documenting approval from management when risk exceeds a level predetermined by the certificate holder.

Question 108

How does AMC comply with FAR 135.617 with respect to identifying risks associated with Helicopter Air Ambulance operations?

Answer 108

CompleteFlight App with use of the Ipad

Question 109

Prior to the first leg of each HAA operation, what are the PIC preflight requirements with respect to the Air Methods approved Pre-Flight Risk Analysis?

Answer 109

• a) The PIC must complete the PFRA on CompleteFlight in the aircraft ipad, submit to OCC
• b) The PIC must receive “Approved”
• c) The PIC must present the aircraft ipad to the medical crew
• d) The medical crew must acknowledge receipt of “Approved OCC”

Question 110

What document allows you as the PIC of an Air Methods helicopter to install LOX bottles in aircraft?

Answer 110

OpSpec A005

(6002 M)

Question 111

If you wanted or needed to see the most recent list of management personnel responsible for operations under FAR Part 135, where would you look?

Answer 111

OpSpec A006

Question 112

Who at Air Methods is designated to receive Safety Alert for Operators (SAFO) and Information for Operators (INFO)?

Answer 112

OpSpec A007

Director of Maintenance

Question 113

May you as a PIC delegate operational control responsibility?

Answer 113

OpSpecs A008 (b)(2)

No, we may delegate tasks but we cannot delegate the responsibility

Question 114

As an Air Methods rotorcraft PIC, if you were required to conduct enroute IFR operations in Class G airspace, could you perform this operation, and if so, what conditions would you need to meet?

Answer 114

OpSpec A014

Yes; provided, all areas have to be authorized in B050, all operations conducted within the limits of B32, and the facilities necessary to safely conduct the operation are serviceable at the time of the operation.

Question 115

Are LASHO operations approved?

Answer 115

OpSpec A027 (c)

Fixed wing only. Helicopters prohibited

Question 116

What authorizes us to use standard average passenger weights for patients unable to be weighed or give their weights?

Answer 116

OpSpec A097

The weights come from

AC 120-27

Question 117

May we operate airplanes using a single long-range navigation system such as a Garmin 430 for class II navigation?

Answer 117

OpSpec B054

Yes

Question 118

How do you determine if you are legal to operate a specific tail number aircraft in a commercial capacity IAW FAR 135?

Answer 118

OpSpec

Identify tail number in this section

Question 119

As an Air Methods PIC, are you authorized to execute a Back-Course approach?

Answer 119

OpSpec H102

Yes, LOC BC approaches are authorized provided they have been trained

Question 120

For you performing a commercial flight as an Air Methods operator, what basic approach facility configurations are required for an airport to qualify as an alternate?

Answer 120

OpSpec H105

Airport must have at least one straight-in Non-Precision approach procedure, or straight-in Precision Approach Procedure, or Circling maneuver from an approach procedure and the field cannot be listed Alternate N/A. (H-105 requirement) NOTE: 135.221 still allows use of an airport without these facilities provided descent from MDA under VFR can be accomplished

Question 121

In order for you to file an IFR flight plan selecting a given airport as your alternate, what must the minimum ceiling and visibility be at the airport of choice?

Answer 121

OpSpec H105

200’ above the HAT or HAA for the approach to be flown, and at least the minimum visibility required for the approach to be flown, but not less than 1 statute mile

Question 122

As an Air Methods PIC operating a helicopter IFR, what is your minimum standard takeoff visibility requirement?

Answer 122

OpSpec H106

½ mile or 2400RVR if reported for the particular runway

Question 123

As an Air Methods PIC, are you authorized to conduct commercial nonscheduled IFR operations in uncontrolled airspace? If not, why; If so, under what specifications?

Answer 123

OpSpec H113

Yes, provided the departure airport is served by an instrument approach procedure, the airport has an approved source of weather, the airport has a suitable means for the PIC to obtain traffic advisories and critical airport information, and the necessary facilities for IFR operations are serviceable at the time of the operation

Question 124

While conducting HEMS operations, in order to land at an unimproved LZ at night, what lighting requirements must be met?

Answer 124

OpSpec H114 b

LZ must be marked by flares, vehicle lights, or other suitable ground based lights which will provide adequate illumination of the site and adequate markings of obstructions which may create hazards during the approach, hover, taxi, and departure operations

First responder bases listed in OpSpec H114b

Question 125

Does the above restriction apply to first responders and how do you know if your base meets “First Responder” criteria?

Answer 125

For first responders, the aircraft may be the first element on scene. Adequate lights may be aircraft lights. In all cases the PIC will determine suitability of LZ lighting and markings. The list of “First Responders” is in H-114

Question 126

As an Air Methods rotorcraft PIC executing a full ILS into an airfield with an operational Approach Lighting System, no degrading NOTAMS, and all systems operational, with an approach speed of 90KIAS, what is the lowest possible published landing minima available to you?

Answer 126

OpSpec H117

200’ above HAT, 1/4sm visibility or 1600 RVR

Question 127

What topic is covered by section A021 in the Operations Specifications?

Answer 127

Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations

Question 128

You are responding to a scene call to a mall parking lot or a major freeway. Are you authorized to land to such an LZ and why or why not?

Answer 128

OpSpec A021-b

Yes. The certificate holder is authorized to conduct off airport / off heliport takeoff and landing operations providing the site is adequate for the proposed operation

Question 129

What are your LZ lighting requirements for takeoff and landing in unimproved, off airport / off heliport operations?

Answer 129

OpSpec A021-b

Lighting sources must provide adequate illumination for takeoff and landing area and any obstructions that may create potential hazards during approach, hovering, taxiing, and departure operations

Question 130

What must flightcrew complete prior to conducting HAAO to be considered crewmembers?

Answer 130

OpSpec A021-c

The flightcrew must satisfactorily complete the certificate holder’s approved flight training program prior to commencing HAA flights

Question 131

Where can I find the description of a specific local flying area?

Answer 131

OpSpec A021-d TableOperations Specifications A021

Question 132

What is the purpose to the certificate holder to designate local flying areas under FAR 135.609 and OPSPEC A-021?

Answer 132

OpSpec A021-d

An identified local flying area allows the certificate holder to operate with lower VFR minimums IAW FAR 135.609

Question 133

In order to qualify for use of local area minimums what requirement must the pilot meet?

Answer 133

OpSpec A021-d(3)

The pilot must pass a knowledge test of the applicable local flying area within the previous 12 months

Question 134

Your medical crew has not received training or checking within the previous 24 months. What are your obligations as the pilot in command prior to conducting HAAO?

Answer 134

OpSpec A021-e

They must undergo preflight safety briefings to the extent defined by the certificate holder

Question 135

Who is responsible to notify the CHDO of accidents, incidents, or other significant events?

Answer 135

GOM Pg 1-4

Director of Operations

Question 136

How does the Chief Pilot maintain a current copy of the manual in all aircraft and on the portal?

Answer 136

GOM 1.2

Electronic transmission through the Chain-of-Command and followed up with Publication Verification Forms

Question 137

Who manages the OCC?

Answer 137

GOM 1.4 Org Chart

Director of Aviation Risk and Compliance

Question 138

Who must develop an adverse weather plan?

Answer 138

GOM 1.5.12

Base Lead Pilot

Question 139

Who maintains the responsibility for the cleanliness of the aircraft exterior and aircraft cockpit?

Answer 139

GOM 1.5.13

PIC

Question 140

What section of the GOM covers General Flight Operations?

Answer 140

Section 2

Question 141

Where is the EMI/EFI Flight Test Profile found?

Answer 141

D.O.M. must be contacted for the form

Question 142

When shall the W&B information be entered in CompleteFlight?

Answer 142

GOM 2.10

• Before takeoff as appropriate to ME or SE aircraft
• To facilitate company situational awareness, the pilot may record time, and weight-and-balance data either immediately in CompleteFlight, or on another source (for example, the Trip Sheet, as described in Section 4.3 Airplane Trip Sheet and Load Manifest), and then transfer it to CompleteFlight at a safer time, but no later than the completion of the last leg of the current flight.

Question 143

When encountering deteriorating weather enroute while VFR, what options are available in accordance with the Air Methods GOM?

Answer 143

GOM 2.13

If, while conducting VFR operations, deteriorating weather conditions are encountered, one of the following procedures is to be followed.

• Divert to an alternate airport, heliport, or other suitable area where the patients can be transferred to other means of transportation, if applicable.
• Return to the departure point, if practical.
• Land and notify dispatch or hospital personnel of the situation, and make arrangements for care of the patients, if applicable.
• If weather conditions and regulations permit, continue the flight under IFR (not applicable to VFR only operations).
• Execute the IIMC procedure in Section 2.27 Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IIMC) Recovery, if the preceding options are not available.

Question 144

What documents must be on board?

Answer 144

GOM 2.14

All Air Methods aircraft shall carry the following standardized documents on board. It is the PIC’s responsibility to verify that current versions of these documents are on board the aircraft.

1. Air Methods General Operations Manual (including Operations Specifications)
2. Aircraft Maintenance Log
3. Aircraft Registration
4. Airworthiness Certificate
5. Aircraft Status Report retrievable from CompleteFlight
6. Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual
7. Appropriate and current aeronautical charts for VFR or IFR operations
8. Cockpit Checklist (meeting the requirements of 135.83)
9. Deferred Discrepancy Report
10. Emergency Response Plan
11. Electronic Flight Bag Manual
12. FCC radio station license (when required) *
13. IIMC procedure, as applicable
14. Logbook or iPad Removed sign
15. Minimum Equipment List – Nonessential Equipment and Furnishings (if applicable)
16. Operations Hazardous Materials Manual
17. Part 133 Rotorcraft External Load Operations (if applicable) *
18. Passenger briefing card, one per seat, at a location convenient for the use of each passenger. The passenger briefing cards shall be appropriate for the aircraft configuration.
19. Pilots Maintenance and Servicing Procedures
20. Weight-and-balance information

Question 145

If a pilot declares an emergency, who shall he forward the report to?

Answer 145

GOM 2.18

In the event the certificate holder or PIC who, under emergency authority, deviates from any Code of Federal Regulation shall, upon the safe completion of the flight, write a complete report of the aircraft operation involved. He will include a description of the deviation taken and the reasons for it. He will immediately send it to the director of operations and/or chief pilot, who will forward it to the FAA no later than 10 business days after the day of the deviation.

Question 146

If a flight is going to take a pilot beyond 14 hours of duty time, how far can the pilot go?

Answer 146

GOM 2.22

No flight shall ever be planned beyond the 14 hour duty day. If the original planned completion time of the duty assignment is unable to be met due to reasons beyond the control of the certificate holder, the pilot may continue IAW the guidance in the GOM. If this requires an operation beyond 14.5 hours of duty time, then prior approval must be received from a RAD/ or designee, the Director of Aviation Compliance, the Chief Pilot, or the Director of Ops

Question 147

During hot refueling, a pilot trained for this procedure may go how far from the aircraft for the purpose of retrieving the fuel nozzle?

Answer 147

GOM 2.23.3

• Single pilot, no crewmembers, no limit specified.
• Single pilot with crewmembers, 30-feet past the rotor arc.

Question 148

Is the IIMC Procedure Template required to be posted at the respective base, available to the pilot in the aircraft, or both?

Answer 148

GOM 2.27

BOTH

Question 149

What are the steps used to maintain aircraft control during IIMC recovery?

Answer 149

GOM 2.27

• The priority and most important aspect of an IIMC procedure is to maintain aircraft control. Positive control of the aircraft with reference to instruments must take priority over all other duties.
• Attitude (level)
• Heading (turn only to avoid known obstacles)
• Power (adjust to climb power)
• Airspeed (adjust to climb airspeed)
• Climb to the minimum safe altitude to clear all obstacles in the area.
• De-goggle when safely able (if appropriate).
• Make all turns no greater than standard rate.
• Contact appropriate Approach Control/Center and declare an emergency. Squawk 7700 when able. Report location, altitude, heading, fuel status, and number of persons on board.

Question 150

When requesting assistance from ATC, what are the two requests that should be made and in what order?

Answer 150

GOM 2.27

State that you are inadvertent IMC and request assistance. In order of preference below, the pilot shall inform ATC as to how they wish to proceed:

1. Radar vectors to VMC conditions
2. Vectors to the closest approach

Question 151

Where are documents for International Operations found?

Answer 151

Flightdeck, Operations, 135 Aviation Operations, Operations Documents, International Flight Documents folder.

Question 152

What are the requirements for operating in close proximity to other aircraft in flight?

Answer 152

GOM 2.33

Air Methods pilots will not operate aircraft in formation flight; however, certain instances, such as photo flights or memorial services, may warrant operating near other aircraft. In those cases, only the pilot and necessary flight crewmembers will be on board the aircraft. In all cases, aircraft will not be operated in such a manner as to create a collision hazard. All parties involved in operations near other aircraft will only conduct the operation after an extensive briefing. Pilots will remain in communication with each other and announce intentions over a predetermined discrete radio frequency. Under no circumstances will aircraft be operated closer than five rotor discs or wing-spans. The chief pilot, director of operations, or regional aviation director must grant approval before any such operations

Question 153

Are there times trained medical personnel are responsible to ensure passengers receive a safety briefing?

Answer 153

GOM 2.36.1

No

The PIC is always responsible to conduct the briefing or ensure trained medical personnel have conducted the briefing

Question 154

To prevent runway incursions, what must every pilot do prior to hover/taxi operations?

Answer 154

GOM 2.43

Using the following procedures, though not all-inclusive, will help prevent runway incursions.

• Pilots operating aircraft without a SIC shall review airport diagrams before entry into the traffic pattern or before hover/taxi operations. Airplane pilots should have the airport diagram out for reference during all taxi operations.
• Pilots operating aircraft with an SIC will have the airport diagram out and available for reference by the pilot not flying during all taxi operations.
• Review all NOTAMs for runway/taxiway closures and construction areas.
• Request progressive taxi instructions when unsure of the taxi route.
• Turn on aircraft lights while taxiing.
• It is advisable to write down taxi instructions so as to not forget instructions and to act as a guide for reading back clearances.
• In a two-pilot crew configuration, any disagreement over taxi instructions must be resolved before beginning the taxi operation.
• All pilots shall read back all taxi and hold short of runway instructions in the order issued by ATC. Reading back instructions in the order issued by ATC will help prevent “hear back/read back” errors. Standard phraseology will be used to facilitate clear, concise communication between the flight crew and ATC.
• While taxiing, monitor instructions to other aircraft and question ATC as soon as possible if a conflict between your and another becomes apparent.
• Before taking a runway for takeoff, scan the full length of the runway and approach paths for other conflicting aircraft.
• Do not hold in position for an extended period of time on an active runway without direct communication with ATC. This is especially important at night.
• Clear the active runway on rollout as quickly as possible, and then wait for taxi instructions before further movement.
• When approaching to land, monitor ATC instructions to other aircraft to “taxi into line up and wait” for the runway you are cleared to land on. Also, be aware of other aircraft being cleared to land on the same runway you have been cleared to land on.
• At uncontrolled airports, or airports without operational control towers: - Follow standard air traffic procedures. Use AF/Ds or other similar commercial products to determine if other than standard traffic pattern procedures are dictated for the particular airport where operations are planned. - Monitor CTAF or UNICOM as recommended in the AIM. - State the name of the airport at the beginning and end of each radio transmission.

Question 155

Who must participate in shift change briefings?

Answer 155

GOM 2.48

At the change of each shift, the PIC will conduct a briefing of the duty clinicians and any others that might be appropriate.

Question 156

When shall sterile cockpit be in effect?

Answer 156

GOM 2.50

Critical phases of flight, taxi, takeoff, landing & all other ops below 10,000 except cruise flight. Pilots must engage the medical personnel in a continuous, diplomatic, educational effort to make them aware of the need to limit conversations on the ICS during critical phases of flight to topics related to the conduct of the flight

Question 157

Are AMC pilots authorized by the FAA to conduct VFR flight operations based solely on indications by the ADDS HEMS Tool?

Answer 157

GOM 2.53

No, it can only be used to support VFR flight planning. It can be used to make a No-Go decision when results conflict with authorized weather sources.

Question 158

Air methods pilots will use one or more of approved weather sources for IFR and VFR flight planning. Name them:

Answer 158

GOM 2.53

• DTN Aviation Sentry *
• DTC DUAT *
• CSC DUATS*
• Foreflight
• National Weather Service

Question 159

May helicopter pilots conduct LASHO?

Answer 159

GOM 3.5

Air Methods helicopters are not authorized to conduct land and hold short operations. When Automated Terminal Information System (ATIS) is acknowledged, PIC will advise ATC that LAHSO cannot be accepted

Question 160

While on approach or departure, obstructions should be cleared by a minimum of?

Answer 160

GOM 3.6

As a minimum, obstructions shall be cleared by 30 feet during approach and departure. When on the ground, there will be a minimum of 15 feet clearance from obstructions

Question 161

What is the maximum rate of descent below 300’ AGL during an approach other than normal approach to a clear area?

Answer 161

GOM 3.6

Rates of descent shall, when able, be kept below 300 feet per minute when less than 300 feet above the rooftop or confined landing area. Steep approach angles with a rate of descent greater than 300 feet per minute shall be avoided

Question 162

To maintain a safe environment in an LZ the aircraft state may be one of the following:

Answer 162

GOM 3.7

• Aircraft will be shut down. At any time when the security of the scene is in question, and/or no positive crowd control is actively in place, one crewmember shall remain in the vicinity of the aircraft and provide scene security until the pilot shuts down the aircraft.
• Aircraft power will be reduced to ground idle or a reduced power setting as specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual. Attitude/Auto Trim mode shall be off and SAS mode selected if appropriate. Controls will be secured in one of the following manners.
  
  • • Positively locked
  • • Force trim on
  • • Frictioned as not to move
  • • The pilot will exit the aircraft and guard the area around the aircraft. The pilot shall stay within the rotor diameter of the aircraft.
• Aircraft power will be reduced to ground idle or a reduced power setting as specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual, pilot will stay in seat in cockpit, and a trained crewmember will guard the area around the aircraft.
• Aircraft power will be reduced to ground idle or a reduced power setting as specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual, pilot will stay in seat in cockpit, and a trained crewmember will brief a first responder, such as a law enforcement officer or fireman. After being briefed, the person briefed will ensure that no one approaches the aircraft without the knowledge of the pilot.
• The contents of the briefing that the crewmember will give to the appropriate first responder is as follows:
  
  • • Stay at least 50 feet from aircraft.
  • • Do not allow anyone to approach the aircraft without permission from the pilot or a crewmember.
  • • Anyone that approaches the aircraft must be accompanied by a crewmember.
  • • Crew will assign personnel to help carry the stretcher to the aircraft.
  • • Remember to exit in the same direction from which you approached the aircraft.

Question 163

Outside of regulatory requirements, as an Air Methods pilot you are required to maintain a minimum cruise altitude of ___ when able

Answer 163

GOM 3.9

At all times, with the exception of takeoffs and landings, Air Methods pilots will operate at an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Air Methods helicopter pilots shall, when able, cruise at a minimum of 1,000 feet AGL, day or night.

Question 164

What items must pilots announce on 123.025?

Answer 164

GOM 3.10

Pilots will announce their intentions for the following operations when no established communications procedure exists.

• Approach
• At five miles from landing
• Upon landing
• Departure
• Upon takeoff
• At five miles from departure

Question 165

When making a departure from anywhere other than an airport, a turn on course will not be made until the aircraft has climbed at least

Answer 165

GOM 3.11

A turn on course will not be made until the aircraft has climbed (at a minimum) to 300 feet AGL for day operations and 500 feet AGL for night operations unless rising terrain, obstacles, or local procedures dictate.

Question 166

What are the minimum ceiling and visibility requirements for SVFR operations IAW the AMC GOM?

Answer 166

GOM 3.12

Air Methods pilots will use the following minimum cloud and visibility requirements for SVFR operations.

• Day – 700-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility
• Night – 800-foot ceiling and 3 SM visibility

Question 167

What type of airspace is required in order to be granted a SVFR clearance?

Answer 167

GOM 3.12

Pilots operating in controlled airspace designated to the surface may request an SVFR clearance for operations conducted beneath a ceiling reported as being less than 1,000 feet.

Question 168

While at the hospital, you have just written up an aircraft discrepancy eligible for deferral IAW the Air Methods MEL for your aircraft. What procedure will you use to sign off the discrepancy in the aircraft logbook?

Answer 168

GOM 5.5.2

The pilot, any certificated A&P mechanic, or FAA repair station holding the proper rating will make the following or similarly worded entry in the airframe maintenance logbook deferring the discrepancy. Date / /. ACTT________(Item) INOP. Deferred in accordance with (aircraft type) MEL, Category (A, B, C, D, or NEF) expiration date_/_/ _. (Signature) (Certificate type and number).

Question 169

Upon returning from a flight request where you had to defer an aircraft discrepancy, what are your administrative actions should the mechanic not be available?

Answer 169

GOM 5.5.5

The Deferred Discrepancy Log shall be scanned and sent, by email via AMSDMEL@airmethods.com to the Maintenance Control and Support no later than 24 hours after the corrective action. When all corrective actions of a Deferred Discrepancy Log have been completed and sent to the Maintenance Control and Support, the DDL may be discarded locally.

Question 170

Who may operate tugs and other devices to move aircraft?

Question 171

When is a wing walker required?

Answer 171

GOM 6.1

At locations that require close quarters maneuvering around other aircraft or hangar facilities, a “wing walker” shall be used. Use of a “wing walker” will help prevent “hangar rash” or more serious aircraft damage. Medical personnel may be used in this role.

Question 172

Your DME shows 1 mile. Where are you in relation to the DME station? What is your altitude?

Answer 172

AIM 1-1-7 b

Directly above the station at 6,000’ AGL

“Operating on the line−of−sight principle, DME furnishes distance information with a very high degree of accuracy. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line−of−sight altitude with an accuracy of better than 1/2 mile or 3 percent of the distance, whichever is greater. Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance.”

Question 173

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Answer 173

AIM 4-1-13 b

ATIS broadcast must be updated upon the

receipt of any official hourly and special weather. A

new recording will also be made when there is a

change in other pertinent data such as runway change,

instrument approach in use, etc

Question 174

What are the altitude and range boundaries of Terminal and Low Altitude VOR’s?

Answer 174

GOM 1-1-8

Terminal - 1,000AGL to 12,000 AGL out to 25NM.

Low - 1,000’ AGL to 18,000 AGL out to 40 NM.

Question 175

You check NOTAMs at the beginning of your shift and note that the VOR located on the field at the center of the Class B airspace under which you generally fly is going to be out of service for the next 5 hours for maintenance. You depart on ta flight and note that you hear the ID and the OBS appears to be receiving a signal. Should you use this as a source of navigation?

Answer 175

AIM 1-1-11 and 1-1-12

DO NOT attempt to fly a procedure that is NOTAM’ed out of service even if the identification is present. In certain cases, the identification may be transmitted for short periods as part of the testing

Question 176

Must your Mode-C be operable to fly above Class C airspace?

Answer 176

AIM 4-1-20 f.2(c)

Yes, up to 10,000’ MSL

Question 177

You are enroute to your destination and notice that your fuel situation has become critical (i.e. you are inside of your 20 minute reserve). ATC wants to vector you around the edge of the airspace for traffic separation. You declare “Minimum Fuel”. Does this automatically give you traffic priority?

Answer 177

AIM 5-5-15, a 4. & 5

No

In order to be given traffic priority, you must declare an emergency

Question 178

When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, what reference to the aircraft are they using; magnetic or ground track?

Answer 178

AIM 4-1-15 fig. 4-1-1 & 4-1-2

Ground Track

Question 179

You inadvertently enter a Presidential TFR. Two F-16’s appear and fly in close formation with you and it becomes painfully clear that you ar being intercepted. What frequency and transponder code should you use for the remainder of your flight?

Answer 179

AIM 5-6-2, d. 1, 2, & 3.

121.5 & 7700

Question 180

Where would you find information concerning a taxiway closure?

Answer 180

AIM 5-1-3b.d.1

NOTAM (D)

Question 181

You are on shift and, during a weather check for a pending flight request, you notice that the latest METAR shows that the wind has shifted from 230 to 350, the temperature and dew point have dropped, and the pressure has begun to rise. What has happened?

Answer 181

AC 006A, p. 65

A cold front has passed the area.

Question 182

What type of weather can you expect from moist, unstable air and very warm surface temperatures?

Answer 182

AC 00-6A Chapter 8

Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds

Question 183

You receive a call for a flight 1 hour before sunrise. It is mid-April and your weather check shows clear skies and light to no wind conditions. The visibility has reduced over the past two hours and the temp/dew point spread is nearing the 4 degree mark. What kind of conditions can you expect if you accept the flight?

Answer 183

AC 006A, p 126

Radiation fog may begin to form, especially if the winds are light.

Question 184

What are some symptoms of hypoxia?

Answer 184

AC 006A Chapter 1

Feeling of exhaustion, euphoria, impairment of judgment and vision, unconsciousness

Question 185

Feeling of exhaustion, euphoria, impairment of judgment and vision, unconsciousness

Question 186

How long is an Area Forecast valid?

Answer 186

AC00-45F (7.1.1)

VFR/MVFR for 12 hours with a 12-18 hour categorical outlook forecast for VFR, MVFR & IFR

Question 187

What are the stages and life cycle of a thunderstorm?

Answer 187

AC 006A Page 111

Cumulus stage, up drafts; Mature stage, rain begins to fall, up and down drafts; Dissipating stage, down drafts. When the rain has ended and the down drafts have abated the TRW has ended

Question 188

What causes wind?

Answer 188

AC 00-6A Chapter 4

Pressure differences

Question 189

Your local news channel has interrupted its programming to announce that a line of severe thunderstorms are moving through your area. How is this same information transmitted to aircraft in flight?

Answer 189

AIM 7-1-6 d

Via a Convective SIGMET, relayed by ATC and available on HIWAS

Question 190

How often is a convective SIGMET updated?

Answer 190

AIM 7-1-6 d

Hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are provided as needed and updated at H+55

Question 191

What type of cloud formation would indicate to you the possibility of mountainwave induced clear air turbulence (CAT)? Are these clouds always present when CAT is present?

Answer 191

AC 006A

Standing lenticular are sometimes indicators of CAT. At times the air may be too dry for clouds to form yet a mountain wave (of which standing lenticular clouds are indicators) exists

Question 192

While on final to a runway, you notice a large, transport category airplane beginning his take-off from the same runway? What are your concerns and how should you react?

Answer 192

AC-006A

Wake turbulence.

Try and land so you do not reach the mid-point of his take-off role

Question 193

What hazardous condition might you expect if virga was reported in the vicinity of your flight route?

Answer 193

AIM 7-1-26d.3

Strong down draft associated with a Microburst

Question 194

What are the two greatest hazards to aviation presented by a thunderstorm?

Answer 194

AC 006A

Turbulence & Hail

Question 195

May you turn off aircraft exterior lights during HNVGO operations?

Answer 195

GOM 3.2.2

You may turn off the anti-collision light if it presents a hazard. Position lights may not be turned off. Landing light, search light, or night sun will be used for all takeoffs & landings unless environmental conditions preclude its use; i.e. brownout / whiteout

Question 196

May you modify the aircraft external lights, by taping them for instance?

Answer 196

GOM 3.2.2

No. Air Methods is not authorized to modify external lights

Question 197

Must you utilize an aircraft landing light, search light or night sun for takeoffs and landings under HNVGOs?

Answer 197

GOM 3.2.2

Yes, unless environmental conditions preclude its use; i.e., blowing snow

Question 198

Is it acceptable to accept a flight under NVGs, that you would not accept for unaided flight, given weather?

Answer 198

GOM 3.2.2

NO

Question 199

What weather minimums are necessary for both local and cross country flights conducted as HNVGO?

Answer 199

FAR 135.609 Opspec A50

The certificate holder is authorized to use no lower than the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) weather minimums in the table below when operating in Class G Airspace for the conditions specified when conducting HNVGO

Question 200

You are provided an aircraft with a given tail number. Before performing a preflight on the aircraft, where would you look to verify that you are LEGAL to operate this aircraft in commercial operations under FAR Part 135?

Answer 200

OPSPEC D-085 Table.

• Locate tail number.
• (b) Identify Maintenance Document for Aircraft NVIS with Revision Number
• (c) RFM: Locate and identify the installed NVIS RFMS. Verify it is the correct RFMS as identified by OPSPEC D-093
• (d) RFMS: Limitations – identify the applicable class of NVGs allowed to be used on board this aircraft IAW the RFMS. Compare class of NVGs with those assigned to the base

Question 201

How low may you operate when conducting HNVGO?

Answer 201

GOM 3.2.3

Enroute 500’, Reconnaissance 500. Below 300’ operations may be conducted if the aircraft contains the appropriate STC and the pilot and at least one crewmember are trained and current for takeoffs and landings

Question 202

In order to remain recent in NVG flight, how frequently must you perform HNVGO?

Answer 202

Question 203

What is meant by the term “HNVGO”?

Answer 203

FAR 61.57(f)

A takeoff and landing, including climbout, cruise, descent, and approach phase of flight. Hovering tasks. Area departure / area arrival. Transition from aided to unaided flight

Question 204

When conducting the preflight NVG checks what guidance must be used?

Answer 204

OpSpec A050

Question 205

Discuss the procedures utilized when focusing the NVGs

Answer 205

ITT 4949 Operator’s Manual or M949 Operator’s Manual

Question 206

What is the field of view expected when utilizing NVGs?

Answer 206

40-degrees

Question 207

What type of vision do you utilize when using NVGs?

Answer 207

Photopic

Question 208

OPSPEC A050 specifies weather minimums for HNVGO operations. Are they applicable to Air Methods Pilots?

Answer 208

Yes

AMC GOM 3.2.3 specifies weather minimums listed in A050 apply to all HNVG operations. These are also the same minimums found in A050 Table

Question 209

How long can you expect it to take to re-dark adapt after utilizing NVGs?

Answer 209

LINK Training

3-5 minutes

Question 210

What are a few self-imposed stresses that might impact your ability to safely conduct operations, including night and NVG operations?

Answer 210

AMV LINK Trng

Drugs, Exhaustion, Alcohol, Tobacco, and Hypoglycemia

Question 211

Name five visual illusions that you might experience at night

Answer 211

AMV LINK Trng

• Fixation,
• Flicker Vertigo,
• False Horizons,
• Confusion with ground lights & stars (ground light misinterpretation),
• Relative motion,
• Altered planes of reference,
• Structural Illusions,
• Height Perception Illusion,
• Size/Distance Illusion,
• Crater Illusion
• Autokenisis,
• Reversible Perspective

Question 212

What might cause you to experience spatial disorientation while utilizing NVGs?

Answer 212

AMC LINK Trng

Bank angles in excess of 30 degrees, improper scanning, flicker vertigo. Many of the above listed visual illusions

Question 213

What common NVG malfunctions would render them unsuitable for operation?

Answer 213

AMC LINK Trng

• Shading,
• Edge glow,
• Flashing/Flickering/Intermittent Operation.
• Veling glare

Question 214

What common NVG malfunctions might be acceptable depending upon the severity of the problem?

Answer 214

AMC LINK Trng

• Fixed noise/Honeycombing, distortion,
• dark/black spots,
• bright spots,
• emission points,
• OBV, image disparity.

Question 215

Who may conduct Flight Training for Crew Members?

Answer 215

Any NVG qualified PIC

Question 216

What flight training must take place to qualify a Crew Member for NVG?

Answer 216

A minimum of three (3) takeoffs and landings to unimproved areas separated by an enroute phase between each landing

Question 217

What are the currency requirements for crewmembers?

Answer 217

Three HNVGOs within 180 days

Question 218

What monocular cues do we use to estimate distance and depth?

Answer 218

• Geometric Perspective:
  
  • Linear Perspective,
  • Apparent Foreshortening,
  • Vertical Positioning in the Field.
• Retinal Image Size:
  
  • Known Size of Objects, Increasing / Decreasing Size,
  • Terrestrial Association,
  • Overlapping Contours.
• Aerial Perspective:
  
  • Variation in Color or Shade (fading),
  • Loss of Texture or Detail,
  • Lights & Shadows.
• Motion Paralax: Most important of the 4.

Question 219

What is meant between Class A & Class B NVGs?

Answer 219

Classes have to do with the type of coating or “filter” (previously referred to as the “minus-blue” filter) that is applied to the NVGs in the manufacturing process. These filters block certain frequencies of light, allowing the illumination of cockpit instrumentation that would not affect the performance of NVGs. The classes of filter are broken down into three (3) classes;

A, B & C.

Question 220

What is the difference between Class A vs. Class B?

Answer 220

• NVIS radiance Class A includes the lowest wavelengths and hence has the highest gain of the available night sky luminance; Class B sensitivity turns on at a higher wavelength, so it is general less sensitive. Class A, Class B, and Class C NVDs have different applications in battlefield use.
• Class A: NVGs used primarily for helicopter operations for the US militaries, plus the majority of all goggles utilized in the USA by EMS and Law Enforcement operations. The US Army utilizes Class A for all of their helicopter aircraft. As defined above, the Class A filter has a higher gain of night sky illumination, therefore providing greater capabilities in low light environments.
• Class B: NVGs used primarily in fixed wing aircraft, due to the use of multi-function displays for weapon and flight systems, the Class B has a higher tolerance for color displays.

Question 221

How do I know what class of NVGs I’m using?

Answer 221

• (a) The Air Methods NVG Maintenance Facility in PA fixes a tag to the zipper or affixes a label to the soft case of all NVGs leaving their facility. The class of NVG is clearly printed on that tag.
• (b) When preflighting the NVG, you can also find the class of NVG in the record folder assigned to that particular binocular assembly.
• (c) Finally, you can go onto the Flight Deck – Operations – NVG Status – NVG List and find your NVG by serial number. You will see the NVG class illustrated on the portal

Question 222

You are operating a helicopter conducting HAA operations and the MK XXI EGPWS is inoperative. Are you authorized to conduct HAA operations under these conditions?

Answer 222

Air Methods MEL

Possibly, providing the defect falls within the guidelines of the aircraft MEL and Flight Manual Supplement

Question 223

Generally speaking, what systems does an HTAWS system, Honeywell MKXXI EGPWS – for example, use to provide the pilot altitude and obstacle alerting?

Answer 223

• (a) The system uses a combination of GPS position information to provide “Geometric Altitude” combined with an internal Terrain and Obstacle Database.
• (b) The system provides alerts to the pilot based on priority

Question 224

What is meant by the term

“Flat Light”?

Answer 224

(a) Flat light is an optical illusion, also known as sector or partial white-out that causes the pilot to lose depth-of-field and visual contrast. They are usually accompanied by overcast skies over snow covered areas.

Question 225

Give an example of the main hazards associated with flying in Flat Light conditions?

Answer 225

Flat light can completely obscure terrain features. Pilots are unable to properly determine distances and rates of closure. Flat light can provide the illusion that the pilot is ascending or descending when actually flying level – or assuming level flight and unknowingly changing altitude.

Question 226

What is meant by the term “White-out” as it refers to aviation?

Answer 226

When a pilot becomes engulfed in a uniformly white glow created by blowing snow, dust, mud or water. There are no shadows or horizon

Question 227

Give an example of the main hazards associated with flying in white-out conditions

Answer 227

Depth of field and orientation are lost. Flat light conditions can lead to white-out rapidly. Visual references disappear. Common occurrence during takeoff and landing. Spatial disorientation and dynamic roll-over commonly occurs in white-out conditions resulting in destruction of the aircraft

Question 228

Give an example of an acceptable technique of executing an approach in suspected white-out conditions

Answer 228

Termination to a point OGE. Terminate to a stationary OGE hover over the touchdown area. This requires OGE power and may be used for most snow landings and some sand/dust landings. Slowly lower the collective and allow the aircraft to descend. The descent may be vertical or with forward movement. The rate of descent will be determined by the rate in which the snow/sand/dust is blown from the landing point. During the descent, remain above the snow/sand/dust cloud until it dissipates and the touchdown point can be seen. All crewmembers should be focused outside the cockpit

Question 229

What is my role as a front line employee in Air Methods SMS?

Answer 229

Flightdeck

Risk Manager. PIC is the first/last line of defense. Need to be able to recognize and report hazards via the Air Methods reporting programs. Need to be able to communicate hazards to your supervisor

Question 230

What is a hazard?

Answer 230

Anything that has the potential to cause a negative impact on our ability to operate. Many are dealt with routinely every day; i.e., starting a jet engine. Possible negative impacts of starting jet engines would be over-temps, overspeeds, or explosions. We mitigate the hazard by using checklists and training to ensure we execute the proper sequence.

Question 231

What is a risk?

Answer 231

A hazard defined in terms of probability and severity. The hazards listed above in starting the jet engine. The potential of negative impact is drastically reduced by proper use of aircraft checklists and training. Therefore, we accept the “risk” of starting the engine to conduct day to day operation. The risk changes when conditions change; i.e., distraction while starting, inoperative components, etc.

Question 232

Name (optional number) of examples of reports used in the Air Methods SMS for reporting incidents and hazards and when they might be used

Answer 232

• (a) AIDMOR: Air Methods report. Mandatory report for incidents and hazards that meet the reportable criteria found on Flightdeck > Safety > AIDMOR
• (b) ASAP/MSAP: Voluntary report for safety concerns, violations to regulations, SOP, or other safetly risk related events
• (c) TAMMA: To report issues discovered on and off the mission. Post flight debrief. (d) Alert line: To report concerns related not only to safety but SarbanesOxley and human resources concerns and violations as well. This tool allows the submitter to remain completely anonymous.
• (d) Alert line: To report concerns related not only to safety but SarbanesOxley and human resources concerns and violations as well. This tool allows the submitter to remain completely anonymous.

Question 233

What are the main differences between an ASAP and a NASA ASRS report?

Answer 233

• (a) ASAP: sponsored by the air carrier, encourages voluntary reporting of safety related issues that may be precursors to incidents and accidents, actual incidents, and violations. The submitter has 24-hours to submit the report. The report will be reviewed by an Event Review Committee (ERC) consisting of a member of management, the FAA, and a representative of the union. The company may take action toward the pilot. The FAA will take no enforcement action except in cases of accidents or criminal offenses.
• (b) ASRS: Aviation Safety Reporting System: The Administrator will not use reports submitted to NASA under ASRS (or information derived there from) in any enforcement action except concerning accidents or criminal offenses. The primary function is the same. The report differs in that the pilot has 10 days to voluntarily submit to NASA ASRS and there are some differences in the scope of protections.

Question 234

What are the standard IFR takeoff minimums?

Answer 234

91.175(f)(2)(iii), H106

½ sm

Question 235

What are the takeoff minimums from your base of operations?

Answer 235

Variable

Question 236

How do you know that the minimum you gave me is in fact what is required for takeoff?

Answer 236

Standard or non-standard as indicated by the respective approach plates.

REF: Apply non-standard minimums referenced in the Terminal Procedures Publication: Other than Standard Take-off minimums and/or the (approved) NonPart 97 Obstacle Departure Procedure. Take into consideration the surface airspace and whether or not there is a published approach into the departure airport

Question 237

If there is not weather reporting at the departure point…How do you determine that you have the required visibility for the departure?

Answer 237

135.611(d)

The pilot can make his or her own observation to determine if the weather is at or above takeoff minimums

Question 238

What if the visibility at your departure point is adequate for you to depart, but it is less than the minimum visibility required for you to return to the airport should that option need to be exercised?

Answer 238

135.217

No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport where weather conditions are at or above takeoff minimums but are below authorized IFR landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within 1 hour’s flying time (at normal cruising speed, in still air) of the airport of departure.

Question 239

What enroute weather criteria would you consider to determine if this potential flight is acceptable for continued planning?

Answer 239

135.227(a)(c)(d)

Consider temperature (potential for icing), turbulence, severe wx

Question 240

What altitude will you choose for a GPS direct segment of your flight?

Answer 240

• (a) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in parts 95 and 97 of this chapter, then:
  
  • (i) In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area in part 95 of this chapter, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or
  • (ii) In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown.

Question 241

What is the weather minimum for your destination?

Answer 241

135.219, GOM 2.26.6

Check the appropriate approach minimum for the planned approach (ensure the approach is available per NOTAM)

Question 242

If your destination airport doesn’t have weather reporting, but all weather indications show that the weather is at or above VFR minimums, do you need an alternate airport?

Answer 242

135.611(a)(2)

Yes, flight planning for IFR flights conducted under this criteria must include selection of an alternate airport that meets the requirements of §§135.221 and 135.223

Question 243

Is the ceiling ever considered a minimum?

Answer 243

97.3, GOM 2.26.5

Only for takeoff, designating an alternate, and planning at the destination

Question 244

When can you descend below the published MDA or DA?

Answer 244

91. 175(c)
    (a) No pilot may operate an aircraft below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless—

• The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
• The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and
  
  • (i)The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
  • (ii) The threshold.
  • (iii) The threshold markings.
  • (iv) The threshold lights.
  • (v) The runway end identifier lights.
  • (vi) The visual glideslope indicator.
  • (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
  • (viii) The touchdown zone lights.
  • (ix) The runway or runway markings.
  • (x) The runway lights.
• (b) The lights or markings of the threshold;
• (c) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; or
• (d) The lights or markings of the touchdown zone.

Question 245

Must you conduct the procedure turn as published in the TPP overview?

Answer 245

AIM 5-4-9 (a), and 5-4-9 (b) (2)

Only if the procedure turn is depicted as a “Tear Drop”, otherwise the type of turn is left to the pilot as long as the: remain within distance, altitude restriction, and the turn is completed on the published side of the inbound

Question 246

When would you need an alternate airport?

Answer 246

135.223 or 135.613

• (a) For helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
• (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument approach procedure for the first airport of intended landing and, for at least one hour before and after the estimated time of arrival, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that—
• (1) The ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling approach MDA; or
• (2) If a circling instrument approach is not authorized for the airport, the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher; and
• (3) Visibility for that airport is forecast to be at least three miles, or two miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is the greater, for the instrument approach procedure to be used at the destination airport. (1/2/3 rule of thumb) (4) Always if planning to a destination without weather reporting

Question 247

What are the requirements for an airport to be eligible for use as an alternate?

Answer 247

135.221(b)(1)and(2), OpSpec H105

(a) The ceiling must be 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and visibility is at least 1 statute mile but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown. If, for the alternate airport, no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the FAA to the certificate holder, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the minimum enroute altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR

Question 248

Can an airport without a published instrument approach be designated as an alternate airport?

Answer 248

135.221(B)(2)

Yes

Question 249

What is the purpose of 135.611?

Answer 249

Requirements to conduct IFR operations to/from airports without weather reporting, ie.: requirement for severe weather detection equipment

Question 250

Are there any equipment requirements that must be met in order to conduct flights to or from airports that don’t have weather reporting?

Answer 250

135.611(b)

Yes, you must have (operable) severe weather detection equipment on board.

Question 251

What if you do not have severe weather detection equipment on board the aircraft? Is there any way you could legally do this flight?

Answer 251

Yes, if annual training requirement under Exemption 12556 has been completed.

Question 252

Once you have landed, will you use the remote airport’s weather information to determine your takeoff minimum?

Answer 252

135.611 (4)(d)

NO

Question 253

Upon the completion of an IFR approach, is it legal to break off from the approach procedure and transition to a hospital close by?

Answer 253

135.613

Maybe

Question 254

What are the requirements that must be met in order to make and IFR to VFR transition?

Answer 254

135.613(a)(1), (2),(3)

(a) For Point-in-Space (PinS) Copter Instrument approaches annotated with a “Proceed VFR” segment, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is 1 NM or less, flight visibility must be at least 1 statute mile and the ceiling on the approach chart applies;
(b) For all instrument approaches, including PinS when paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is 3 NM or less, the applicable VFR weather minimums are— No less than a 600-foot ceiling and 2 sm: Day Operations No less than a 600-foot ceiling and 3 sm Night Operations
(c) For all instrument approaches, including PinS, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is greater than 3 NM: VFR weather minimums as required by the class of airspace.

Question 255

If the helipad is > 3 nm from the previously flown instrument approach, what is the weather and operational requirement to “takeoff” IFR from the helipad?

Answer 255

135.613(b)

(1) The VFR weather minimums of paragraph (a) (those previously mentioned) apply if:
(i) An FAA-approved obstacle departure procedure is followed; and
(ii) An IFR clearance is obtained not more than 3 NM from the departure location.
(2) If the departure does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the VFR weather minimums required by the class of airspace apply.

Question 256

What altitude should you fly if you have a complete two way communication failure while operating IFR?

Answer 256

91.185(c)(2)

(a) Flight must be conducted at the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:
(i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
(ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in §91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or
(iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance

Question 257

What route should you fly if you have a complete two way communication failure while operating IFR?

Answer 257

(i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
91. 185(c)(1)

(ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;
(iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or
(iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.

Question 258

When should you leave a clearance limit if you have a complete two way communication failure while operating IFR?

Answer 258

91.185(c)(3)

Leave clearance limit.

(i) When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.
(ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

Question 259

For a PIC to operate for a certificate holder under IFR, what must he/she pass every 6 months?

Answer 259

135.297(a)

A PIC of an aircraft under IFR…has passed an instrument proficiency check

Question 260

For single pilot PICs, is an autopilot check required every 6 months?

Answer 260

135.297(g)(3)

Conflicting: Says 12 months during instrument proficiency check required per para (a), which says every 6 months

The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months

Question 261

You have received a flight request requiring IFR operations to an airfield that has an approved instrument approach, but does NOT have approved weather reporting available. What IFR options do you have to complete this flight request?

Answer 261

135.611 (a)(1-2)

a. Must obtain a weather report from an approved (NWS, approved by NWS, or FAA) located within 15 nautical miles from the destination airport.
b. If unable, receive an Area Forecast from NWS or FAA approved sources.
(c) Must file an IFR Alternate that meets requirements of 135.221 & 223

Question 262

You are executing an IAP to an aerodrome without approved weather reporting available. What are your regulatory airspeed considerations?

Answer 262

135.611 (a)(4)

Restricted to Category A approach speeds for the type approach being used

Question 263

You are executing an IAP to an aerodrome without approved weather reporting available. What are your aircraft equipment requirements to execute this approach?

Answer 263

135.611 (b)

Each helicopter air ambulance operated under this section must be equipped with functioning severe weather detection equipment.

Question 264

You have completed a landing at an airport which weather reporting is not available. How do you obtain weather information suitable for departure?

Answer 264

135.611 (d)

The PIC is authorized to determine if the weather meets the takeoff requirements of Part 97, or the Certificate Holder’s OPSPEC as appropriate.

Question 265

You intend to execute an IFR departure with a visual transition from Class G airspace. What weather requirements must you meet prior to departure?

Answer 265

135.611 (a)(3)

PIC must determine that the weather conditions at the departure point are at or above takeoff minimums depicted in the published ODP or VFR minimum ceilings and visibilities are IAW 135.609