HAA Part 135 Study Aide Flashcards

Question

What is considered night in regards to position lights?

Answer 1

91.209 Aircraft lights. No person may: (a) During the period from sunset to sunrise (1) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights; (2) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft (i) Is clearly illuminated; (ii) Has lighted position lights; or (iii) is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights; (3) Anchor an aircraft unless the aircraft (i) Has lighted anchor lights; or (ii) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels; or (b) Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. **However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.**

Answer 2

AIM Definitions 1.1 Night means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time. Civil Twilight times can be found at Navy's Air Almanac

Answer 3

91.209(b) ## Footnote Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Answer 4

135.65 (a) ## Footnote Each certificate holder shall provide an aircraft maintenance log to be carried on board each aircraft for recording or deferring mechanical irregularities and their correction.

Answer 5

135.83 Operating information required. (a) The operator of an aircraft must provide the following materials, in current and appropriate form, accessible to the pilot at the pilot station, and the pilot shall use them: **(1) A cockpit checklist.** **(3) Pertinent aeronautical charts.**

Answer 6

135.115 Manipulation of controls. No pilot in command may allow any person to manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight conducted under this part, nor may any person manipulate the controls during such flight unless that person is (a) A pilot employed by the certificate holder and qualified in the aircraft; or (b) An authorized safety representative of the Administrator who has the permission of the pilot in command, is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations.

Answer 7

135.117 Briefing of passengers before flight. 1. Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited 2. The use of safety belts, including instructions on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belts 3. Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits 4. Location of survival equipment 5. If the flight involves extended overwater operation, ditching procedures and the use of required flotation equipment 6. Location and operation of fire extinguishers. (c) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be given by the pilot in command or a crewmember (e) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must be supplemented by printed cards which must be carried in the aircraft in locations convenient for the use of each passenger.

Answer 8

135.121 Alcoholic beverages. (a) No person may drink any alcoholic beverage aboard an aircraft unless the certificate holder operating the aircraft has served that beverage. (b) No certificate holder may serve any alcoholic beverage to any person aboard its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated. (c) No certificate holder may allow any person to board any of its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated.

Answer 9

135.128 (a) ## Footnote Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board an aircraft operated under this part shall occupy an approved seat or berth with a separate safety belt properly secured about him or her **during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.** A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used by more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday.

Answer 10

135.159(f) For night flights (3) A flashlight having at least two size D cells **or equivalent**.

Answer 11

135.179(a) ## Footnote No person may take off an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met: (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft. (2) The certificate-holding district office has issued the certificate holder operations specifications authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Administrator in the certificate holders operations specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the operations specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification. (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must: (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition. (4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and the information required by (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to the pilot. (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the operations specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List. (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum Equipment List: (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions. (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise. (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part.

Answer 12

135.267(a) ## Footnote No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of a one- or two-pilot crew if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed **(1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter.** **(2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters.** **(3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year.** (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during any 24 consecutive hours the total flight time of the assigned flight when added to any other commercial flying by that flight crewmember may not exceed **(1) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or** (2) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified under this Part for the operation being conducted. (c) A flight crewmember's flight time may exceed the flight time limits of paragraph (b) of this section if the assigned flight time occurs during a regularly assigned duty period of no more than 14 hours and **(1) If this duty period is immediately preceded by and followed by a required rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours of rest;** (2) If flight time is assigned during this period, that total flight time when added to any other commercial flying by the flight crewmember may not exceed **(i) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or** (ii) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots; and (3) If the combined duty and rest periods equal 24 hours. (d) Each assignment under paragraph (b) of this section must provide for **at least 10 consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion time of the assignment.** (e) When a flight crewmember has exceeded the daily flight time limitations in this section, because of circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather conditions), that flight crewmember must have a rest period before being assigned or accepting an assignment for flight time of at least (1) 11 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by not more than 30 minutes; (2) 12 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 30 minutes, but not more than 60 minutes; and (3) 16 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 60 minutes. **(f) The certificate holder must provide each flight crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter.**

Answer 13

Squawk 7600 and continue flight Watch the tower for any light gun signals

Answer 14

**Cold Front:** ## Footnote A cold front occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air. Cold fronts move more rapidly than warm fronts, progressing at a rate of 25 to 30 m.p.h. However, extreme cold fronts have been recorded moving at speeds of up to 60 m.p.h. A typical cold front moves in a manner opposite that of a warm front; because it is so dense, it stays close to the ground and acts like a snowplow, sliding under the warmer air and forcing the less dense air aloft. The rapidly ascending air causes the temperature to decrease suddenly, forcing the creation of clouds. The type of clouds that form depends on the stability of the warmer air mass. A cold front in the Northern Hemisphere is normally oriented in a northeast to southwest manner and can be several hundred miles long, encompassing a large area of land. Prior to the passage of a typical cold front, cirriform or towering cumulus clouds are present, and cumulonimbus clouds are possible. Rain showers and hazes are possible due to the rapid development of clouds. The wind from the south-southwest helps to replace the warm temperatures with the relative colder air. A high dewpoint and falling barometric pressure are indicative of imminent cold front passage. As the cold front passes, towering cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds continue to dominate the sky. Depending on the intensity of the cold front, heavy rain showers form and might be accompanied by lightning, thunder, and/or hail. More severe cold fronts can also produce tornadoes. During cold front passage, the visibility will be poor, with winds variable and gusty, and the temperature and dewpoint drop rapidly. A quickly falling barometric pressure bottoms out during frontal passage, then begins a gradual increase. After frontal passage, the towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds begin to dissipate to cumulus clouds with a corresponding decrease in the precipitation. Good visibility eventually prevails with the winds from the west-northwest. Temperatures remain cooler and the barometric pressure continues to rise. **Warm Front** A warm front occurs when a warm mass of air advances and replaces a body of colder air. Warm fronts move slowly, typically 10 to 25 miles per hour (m.p.h.).The slope of the advancing front slides over the top of the cooler air and gradually pushes it out of the area. Warm fronts contain warm air that often has very high humidity. As the warm air is lifted, the temperature drops and condensation occurs. Generally, prior to the passage of a warm front, cirriform or stratiform clouds, along with fog, can be expected to form along the frontal boundary. In the summer months, cumulonimbus clouds (thunderstorms) are likely to develop. Light to moderate precipitation is probable, usually in the form of rain, sleet, snow, or drizzle, punctuated by poor visibility. The wind blows from the south-southeast, and the outside temperature is cool or cold, with increasing dewpoint. Finally, as the warm front approaches, the barometric pressure continues to fall until the front passes completely. During the passage of a warm front, stratiform clouds are visible and drizzle may be falling. The visibility is generally poor, but improves with variable winds. The temperature rises steadily from the inflow of relatively warmer air. For the most part, the dewpoint remains steady and the pressure levels off.After the passage of a warm front, stratocumulus clouds predominate and rain showers are possible. The visibility eventually improves, but hazy conditions may exist for a short period after passage. The wind blows from the south-southwest. With warming temperatures, the dewpoint rises and then levels off. There is generally a slight rise in barometric pressure, followed by a decrease of barometric pressure. **Stationary Front** Neither air mass is replacing / displacing the other When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days.This front is called a stationary front. The weather associated with a stationary front is typically a mixture that can be found in both warm and cold fronts. **Occluded** Cold air mass catches up to warm air mass and displaces it from underneath.An occluded front occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. As the occluded front approaches, warm front weather prevails, but is immediately followed by cold front weather. There are two types of occluded fronts that can occur, and the temperatures of the colliding frontal systems play a large part in defining the type of front and the resulting weather. A cold front occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front is colder than the air ahead of the slow-moving warm front. When this occurs, the cold air replaces the cool air and forces the warm front aloft into the atmosphere. Typically, the cold front occlusion creates a mixture of weather found in both warm and cold fronts, providing the air is relatively stable. A warm front occlusion occurs when the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air of the cold front. When this is the case, the cold front rides up and over the warm front. If the air forced aloft by the warm front occlusion is unstable, the weather will be more severe than the weather found in a cold front occlusion. Embedded thunderstorms, rain, and fog are likely to occur. The warm front slopes over the prevailing cooler air and produces the warm front type weather. Prior to the passage of the typical occluded front, cirriform and stratiform clouds prevail, light to heavy precipitation is falling, visibility is poor, dewpoint is steady, and barometric pressure is falling. During the passage of the front, nimbostratus and cumulonimbus clouds predominate, and towering cumulus may also be possible. Light to heavy precipitation is falling, visibility is poor, winds are variable, and the barometric pressure is leveling off. After the passage of the front, nimbostratus and altostratus clouds are visible, precipitation is decreasing and clearing, and visibility is improving.

Answer 15

Temperature, wind speed and direction, and humidity will change rapidly over a short distance

Answer 16

1. Cumulus - updrafts 2. Mature - rain starts, updrafts and downdrafts, 3. Dissipating - downdrafts

Answer 17

1. Turbulence 2. Lightning 3. Icing 4. Hail 5. Low ceiling, low visibility 6. Wind shear 7. Microbursts

Answer 18

A difference in wind speed and direction over a relatively short distance in the atmosphere.

Answer 19

1. Clear - hard and glossy 2. Rime - Brittle and frost-like 3. Mixed - mixture of Clear and Rime - hard and rough

Answer 20

1. Ground (radiation) - cool humid air over cool ground (no wind) 2. Steam - cold dry air passes over warm ocean water Moisture evaporates from water surface Happens just above water surface 3. Advection - moist air moves over colder ground or water (winds) 4. Upslope fog - moist stable air cooled as it moves up sloping terrain 5. Precipitation induced fog - warm rain falling through cool air. Evaporation from rain saturates cool air and forms fog 6. Ice fog - occurs in cold weather when the temperature is much below freezing andwater vapor freezes directly as ice crystals.

Answer 21

* Rapid decrease in airspeed * Rapid decrease in climb rate * Rapid increase in sink rate * Increase in AOA above normal range

Answer 22

Look for “anvil”, cumulus “boiling up”effect, lightning

Answer 23

1. Listen to PIREPS and avoid that area 2. If encountering wind shear, report as PIREP

Answer 24

**DON'T** Don’t land or take off in the face of a thunderstorm Don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm **DO** Do avoid large thunderstorms by 20 miles Do remember that vivid and frequent lightning indicates a severe thunderstorm

Answer 25

1. Tighten safety belt and harness 2. Plan course to take you through the storm in a minimum amount of time (and hold that course) 3. Turn on pitot heat 4. Use power settings for reduced turbulence airspeed recommended in aircraft manual. 5. Turn up cockpit lights to lessen temporary blindness caused by lightning 6. Keep eyes on instruments 7. Don’t change power settings 8. Maintain constant attitude 9. Don’t turn back once in the thunderstorm (NOTE: In Rotorcraft, consider possibility of slowing to best manuver speed and reverse course to exit ASAP. Consider which way the storm is moving)

Answer 26

Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare. **May not use.**

Answer 27

The flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited is subject to restriction. RA denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, airial gunnery, or guided missiles.May be used with permission from controlling agency.

Answer 28

From 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S. that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Answer 29

Established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever a MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through a MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC.Operations include; air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low altitude tactics. Active MOA may contain military aircraft in excess of 250 knots (below 10K feet). May enter, but pilots should contact FSS within 100 NM to determine if MOA is active. Prior to entering MOA pilots should contact controlling agency for traffic advisories.

Answer 30

Areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity.Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas.

Answer 31

Activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. Activities are suspended immediately when spotters, radar or lookouts indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. Not charted because pilots need not change flight path.

Answer 32

* Shading * Edge Glow * Flashing * Flickering * Intermittent Operation * Veiling Glare

Answer 33

* FAA by mail or online with a fee. * Valid for 60 days. (FAR 61.29)

Answer 34

No (FAR 61.53)

Answer 35

Suspension or revocation of certificate (FAR 61.59)

Answer 36

30 Days (FAR 61.60)

Answer 37

Accidents or criminal offenses (FAR 91.25)

Answer 38

* Weather * Reports * Forecasts * Fuel requirements * Alternatives * Runways and Lengths (FAR 91.103)

Answer 39

Greater than 30,000 people operations are prohibited within 3NM and 3000ft AGL. Medical Transportation operation may be excepted when warranted by the FAA administrator. (FAR 91.145) (99.7)

Answer 40

FAR 91.203 No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under §91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.

Answer 41

All employees who perform safety sensitive duties are required to the Alcohol/Drug testing program. Air Methods Anti Drug Training Manual

Answer 42

The employee is prohibited from consuming alcohol within 8 hours following an accident/incident or prior to conducting a post accident alcohol test, whichever comes first. Air Methods Anti Drug Training Manual

Answer 43

FAR 135.1.a (2) Personnel employed by a commuter or on-demand operations certificate holder to include * Pilots * Maintainers * Crew

Answer 44

FAR 135.23 (e) GOM 1.5.13 Yes Procedures for ensuring that the pilot in command knows that required airworthiness inspections have been made and that the aircraft has been approved for return to service in compliance with applicable maintenance requirements

Answer 45

No It's a violation of FAR Part 91.19(a) (FAR 135.41)

Answer 46

FAR 135.67 Knowledge of which the pilot considers essential to the safety of other flights, the pilot shall notify an appropriate ground radio station as soon as practicable.

Answer 47

FAR 135.69 If the conditions that are a hazard to safe operations may reasonably be expected to be corrected by the estimated time of arrival, it is considered a normal operation. If there is no safer procedure, the continuation toward that airport is an emergency situation under §135.19.

Answer 48

FAR 135.75 Aviation Safety Inspector credential, FAA Form 110A

Answer 49

FAR 135.83 For single engine VFR operations: * A cockpit checklist. * Pertinent aeronautical charts For twin engine Ops: * An emergency cockpit checklist containing the procedures required by paragraph (c) of this section, as appropriate. For IFR Ops: * Pertinent navigational en route, terminal area, and approach and letdown chart. (5) For multiengine aircraft, one-engine-inoperative climb performance data and if the aircraft is approved for use in IFR or over-the-top operations, that data must be sufficient to enable the pilot to determine compliance with

Answer 50

No certificate holder may knowingly use any person to perform any function listed in FAR Part 120 while that person has a prohibited drug…in his/her system.

Answer 51

135.93 Does not apply to operations conducted in rotorcraft. However, pilots must be aware of altitude restrictions found in their particular RFM or RFM supplement.

Answer 52

135.157 10% between 10,000 and 15,000 feet MSL, other than the pilot, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration

Answer 53

135.161 (a)(1-3) Plus, (b)(1)(2) covers night No Pilot May operate an aircraft under VFR over routes that can be navigated by pilotage unless the aircraft is *equipped with the two-way radio communication* equipment necessary to communicate with at least one appropriate station, communicate with appropriate ATC facilities in any surface based controlled airspace. Receive meteorological information

Answer 54

135.171(b) Except that the shoulder harness may be unfastened if the crewmember cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.

Answer 55

135.185(a) For multi-engine aircraft, current empty weight and center of gravity are calculated from values established by actual weighing of the aircraft.

Answer 56

135.211(a)(1) / (b)(1). Also 135.181(a)(2) / (c)(1) VFR over-the-top carrying passengers…weather reports or forecasts…indicate that the weather at the point of termination…allows descent to beneath the ceiling under VFR and is forecast to remain so until at least 1 hour after ETA. For Multiengine aircraft, descent or continuation if critical engine fails

Answer 57

135.243 (b)(1)(3) Also 135.4 (a)(2)(iii)(A) Pilot in command of an aircraft under VFR unless…holds at least a commercial pilot certificate…for an airplane, holds an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate

Answer 58

135.263(b) No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember to any duty with the certificate holder during any required rest period

Answer 59

135.263(c) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a certificate holder requires of a flight crewmember…is not considered part of a rest

Answer 60

NO 135.263(d) A flight crewmember is not considered to be assigned flight time in excess of flight time limitations if the flights to which he is assigned normally terminate within the limitations, but due to circumstances *beyond the control* of the certificate holder or PIC (such as adverse weather)

Answer 61

135.267(a) For flight time as a member of a one-or two-pilot crew if that crewmember’s total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed 500 hours in any calendar quarter, or 800 hours an any two consecutive calendar quarters

Answer 62

135.297(a) A PIC of an aircraft under IFR…has passed an instrument proficiency check

Answer 63

135.297(g)(3) The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months.

Answer 64

135.301(a) It doesn’t. “…completes the test or flight check in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which it is required…considered to have completed the test or check in the calendar month in which it is required

Answer 65

135.331(b) (1-4) Emergency training must provide the following * Emergency assignments and procedures, * Location, function, and operation of emergency equipment [equipment used in ditching and evacuation, first aid equipment, portable fire extinguishers], * Instruction in the handling of emergency situations [rapid decompression, fire in flight, ditching and evacuation, illness, injury, or other abnormal situation, hijacking] * Review of certificate holder’s previous aircraft accidents and incidents.

Answer 66

135.601 Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations.

Answer 67

135.601 (b)(1)(i, ii, iii) * * (a) A flight, or sequence of flights with a patient OR medical personnel on board for the purpose of medical transportation. * (b) Include position flights to where the patient or organ will be picked up * (c) Position flights after completing patient or organ transport * (d) Flights initiated to transport patients or organs that are terminated due to weather or other reasons

Answer 68

Meet the requirements of 135.243 (commercial license, 500 hours total time, 100 hours cross-country, 25 hours at night), must hold a helicopter instrument rating or an ATP with a category and class rating as required

Answer 69

* Day 800’-2 Miles * Night (with NVG or TAWS) 800’ – 3 Miles * Night (without NVG or TAWS) 1000’ – 3Miles

Answer 70

* Day 800’-3 Miles * Night (with NVIS or TAWS) 1000’ – 3 Miles * Night (without NVIS or TAWS) 1000’ – 5 Miles

Answer 71

* Day 1000’ – 3 Miles * Night (with NVIS or TAWS) 1000’ – 5 Miles * Night (without NVIS or TAWS) 1500’ – 5 Miles

Answer 72

Any flight outside the local flying area is a cross-country operation. Pilots who have not passed local flying area knowledge tests within the previous 12 calendar months must use cross-country minima

Answer 73

135.615 (b) ## Footnote * Day 300’ * Night 500’

Answer 74

There is no corridor. The only requirement to 135.615 is to identify and document the highest obstacle along the planned route of flight

Answer 75

135.615(a)(1-3)(b) & (c). GOM 3.13 * To identify the highest obstacle which will determine the minimum cruising altitude along the planned route of flight. * Document the highest obstacle in CompleteFlight * To determine the minimum required ceiling and visibility by applying the weather minimums appropriate to the class of airspace for the planned flight. * To ensure terrain and obstacles are cleared by 300-feet (day), and 500feet (night) END RESULT: Pilot able to comply with VFR and know the MSA in the event of IIMC, in or out of Local Flying Area.

Answer 76

135.617(a) * Certificate Holder must establish and document in the manual, an FAA approved Preflight Risk Analysis that includes: * 1) Flight considerations (fuel, terrain, obstacles) * 2) Human Factors (fatigue, life events, stressors) * 3) Weather (departure, enroute, destination), * 4) A method to determine if another operator has refused or declined a request. * 5) Strategies for mitigating risk, to include obtaining and documenting approval from management when risk exceeds a level predetermined by the certificate holder.

Answer 77

CompleteFlight App with use of the Ipad

Answer 78

* a) The PIC must complete the PFRA on CompleteFlight in the aircraft ipad, submit to OCC * b) The PIC must receive “Approved” * c) The PIC must present the aircraft ipad to the medical crew * d) The medical crew must acknowledge receipt of “Approved OCC”

Answer 79

OpSpec A005 (6002 M)

Answer 80

OpSpec A006

Answer 81

OpSpec A007 Director of Maintenance

Answer 82

OpSpecs A008 (b)(2) No, we may delegate tasks but we cannot delegate the responsibility

Answer 83

OpSpec A014 Yes; provided, all areas have to be authorized in B050, all operations conducted within the limits of B32, and the facilities necessary to safely conduct the operation are serviceable at the time of the operation.

Answer 84

OpSpec A027 (c) Fixed wing only. Helicopters prohibited

Answer 85

OpSpec A097 The weights come from AC 120-27

Answer 86

OpSpec B054 Yes

Answer 87

OpSpec Identify tail number in this section

Answer 88

OpSpec H102 Yes, LOC BC approaches are authorized provided they have been trained

Answer 89

OpSpec H105 Airport must have at least one straight-in Non-Precision approach procedure, or straight-in Precision Approach Procedure, or Circling maneuver from an approach procedure and the field cannot be listed Alternate N/A. (H-105 requirement) NOTE: 135.221 still allows use of an airport without these facilities provided descent from MDA under VFR can be accomplished

Answer 90

OpSpec H105 200’ above the HAT or HAA for the approach to be flown, and at least the minimum visibility required for the approach to be flown, but not less than 1 statute mile

Answer 91

OpSpec H106 ½ mile or 2400RVR if reported for the particular runway

Answer 92

OpSpec H113 Yes, provided the departure airport is served by an instrument approach procedure, the airport has an approved source of weather, the airport has a suitable means for the PIC to obtain traffic advisories and critical airport information, and the necessary facilities for IFR operations are serviceable at the time of the operation

Answer 93

OpSpec H114 b LZ must be marked by flares, vehicle lights, or other suitable ground based lights which will provide adequate illumination of the site and adequate markings of obstructions which may create hazards during the approach, hover, taxi, and departure operations

Answer 94

For first responders, the aircraft may be the first element on scene. Adequate lights may be aircraft lights. In all cases the PIC will determine suitability of LZ lighting and markings. The list of “First Responders” is in H-114

Answer 95

OpSpec H117 200’ above HAT, 1/4sm visibility or 1600 RVR

Answer 96

Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations

Answer 97

OpSpec A021-b Yes. The certificate holder is authorized to conduct off airport / off heliport takeoff and landing operations providing the site is adequate for the proposed operation

Answer 98

OpSpec A021-b Lighting sources must provide adequate illumination for takeoff and landing area and any obstructions that may create potential hazards during approach, hovering, taxiing, and departure operations

Answer 99

OpSpec A021-c The flightcrew must satisfactorily complete the certificate holder’s approved flight training program prior to commencing HAA flights

Answer 100

OpSpec A021-d TableOperations Specifications A021

Answer 101

OpSpec A021-d An identified local flying area allows the certificate holder to operate with lower VFR minimums IAW FAR 135.609

Answer 102

OpSpec A021-d(3) The pilot must pass a knowledge test of the applicable local flying area within the previous 12 months

Answer 103

OpSpec A021-e They must undergo preflight safety briefings to the extent defined by the certificate holder

Answer 104

GOM Pg 1-4 Director of Operations

Answer 105

GOM 1.2 Electronic transmission through the Chain-of-Command and followed up with Publication Verification Forms

Answer 106

GOM 1.4 Org Chart Vice President of Flight Operations (DO)

Answer 107

GOM 1.5.12 Base Lead Pilot

Answer 108

GOM 1.5.13 PIC

Answer 109

D.O.M. must be contacted for the form

Answer 110

GOM 2.10 Pg 2-14 * Before takeoff as appropriate to ME or SE aircraft * To facilitate company situational awareness, the pilot may record time, and weight-and-balance data either immediately on the DFL, or on another source (for example, the Trip Sheet, as described in Section 4.3 Airplane Trip Sheet and Load Manifest), and then transfer it to the DFL at a safer time, but no later than the completion of the last leg of the current flight.

Answer 111

GOM 2.13 If, while conducting VFR operations, deteriorating weather conditions are encountered, one of the following procedures is to be followed. * Divert to an alternate airport, heliport, or other suitable area where the patients can be transferred to other means of transportation, if applicable. * Return to the departure point, if practical. * Land and notify dispatch or hospital personnel of the situation, and make arrangements for care of the patients, if applicable. * If weather conditions and regulations permit, continue the flight under IFR (not applicable to VFR only operations). * Execute the IIMC procedure in Section 2.27 Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IIMC) Recovery, if the preceding options are not available.

Answer 112

GOM 2.14 ## Footnote All Air Methods aircraft shall carry the following standardized documents on board. It is the PIC’s responsibility to verify that current versions of these documents are on board the aircraft. 1. Air Methods General Operations Manual (including Operations Specifications) 2. Aircraft Maintenance Log 3. Aircraft Registration 4. Airworthiness Certificate 5. Aircraft Status Report retrievable from CompleteFlight 6. Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual 7. Appropriate and current aeronautical charts for VFR or IFR operations 8. Cockpit Checklist (meeting the requirements of 135.83) 9. Daily Flight Log 10. Deferred Discrepancy Report 11. Emergency Response Plan 12. Electronic Flight Bag Manual 13. FCC radio station license (when required) \* 14. IIMC procedure, as applicable 15. Logbook or iPad Removed sign 16. Minimum Equipment List – Nonessential Equipment and Furnishings (if applicable) 17. Operations Hazardous Materials Manual 18. Part 133 Rotorcraft External Load Operations (if applicable) \* 19. Passenger briefing card, one per seat, at a location convenient for the use of each passenger. The passenger briefing cards shall be appropriate for the aircraft configuration. 20. Pilots Maintenance and Servicing Procedures 21. Weight-and-balance information

Answer 113

GOM 2.18 In the event the certificate holder or PIC who, under emergency authority, deviates from any Code of Federal Regulation shall, upon the safe completion of the flight, write a complete report of the aircraft operation involved. He will include a description of the deviation taken and the reasons for it. He will immediately send it to the director of operations and/or chief pilot, who will forward it to the FAA no later than 10 business days after the day of the deviation.

Answer 114

GOM 2.22 No flight shall ever be planned beyond the 14 hour duty day. If the original planned completion time of the duty assignment is unable to be met due to reasons beyond the control of the certificate holder, the pilot may continue IAW the guidance in the GOM. If this requires an operation beyond 14.5 hours of duty time, then prior approval must be received from a RAD/ or designee, the Director of Aviation Compliance, the Chief Pilot, or the Director of Ops

Answer 115

GOM 2.23.3 * Single pilot, no crewmembers, no limit specified. * Single pilot with crewmembers, 30-feet past the rotor arc.

Answer 116

GOM 2.27 BOTH

Answer 117

GOM 2.27 * The priority and most important aspect of an IIMC procedure is to maintain aircraft control. Positive control of the aircraft with reference to instruments must take priority over all other duties. * Attitude (level) * Heading (turn only to avoid known obstacles) * Power (adjust to climb power) * Airspeed (adjust to climb airspeed) * Climb to the minimum safe altitude to clear all obstacles in the area. * De-goggle when safely able (if appropriate). * Make all turns no greater than standard rate. * Contact appropriate Approach Control/Center and declare an emergency. Squawk 7700 when able. Report location, altitude, heading, fuel status, and number of persons on board.

Answer 118

GOM 2.27 ## Footnote State that you are inadvertent IMC and request assistance. In order of preference below, the pilot shall inform ATC as to how they wish to proceed: 1. Radar vectors to VMC conditions 2. Vectors to the closest approach

Answer 119

Flightdeck, Operations, 135 Aviation Operations, Operations Documents, International Flight Documents folder.

Answer 120

GOM 2.33 ## Footnote Air Methods pilots will not operate aircraft in formation flight; however, certain instances, such as photo flights or memorial services, may warrant operating near other aircraft. In those cases, only the pilot and necessary flight crewmembers will be on board the aircraft. In all cases, aircraft will not be operated in such a manner as to create a collision hazard. All parties involved in operations near other aircraft will only conduct the operation after an extensive briefing. Pilots will remain in communication with each other and announce intentions over a predetermined discrete radio frequency. Under no circumstances will aircraft be operated closer than five rotor discs or wing-spans. The chief pilot, director of operations, or regional aviation director must grant approval before any such operations

Answer 121

GOM 2.36.1 No The PIC is always responsible to conduct the briefing or ensure trained medical personnel have conducted the briefing

Answer 122

GOM 2.43 ## Footnote Using the following procedures, though not all-inclusive, will help prevent runway incursions. * Pilots operating aircraft without a SIC shall review airport diagrams before entry into the traffic pattern or before hover/taxi operations. Airplane pilots should have the airport diagram out for reference during all taxi operations. * Pilots operating aircraft with an SIC will have the airport diagram out and available for reference by the pilot not flying during all taxi operations. * Review all NOTAMs for runway/taxiway closures and construction areas. * Request progressive taxi instructions when unsure of the taxi route. * Turn on aircraft lights while taxiing. * It is advisable to write down taxi instructions so as to not forget instructions and to act as a guide for reading back clearances. * In a two-pilot crew configuration, any disagreement over taxi instructions must be resolved before beginning the taxi operation. * All pilots shall read back all taxi and hold short of runway instructions in the order issued by ATC. Reading back instructions in the order issued by ATC will help prevent “hear back/read back” errors. Standard phraseology will be used to facilitate clear, concise communication between the flight crew and ATC. * While taxiing, monitor instructions to other aircraft and question ATC as soon as possible if a conflict between your and another becomes apparent. * Before taking a runway for takeoff, scan the full length of the runway and approach paths for other conflicting aircraft. * Do not hold in position for an extended period of time on an active runway without direct communication with ATC. This is especially important at night. * Clear the active runway on rollout as quickly as possible, and then wait for taxi instructions before further movement. * When approaching to land, monitor ATC instructions to other aircraft to “taxi into line up and wait” for the runway you are cleared to land on. Also, be aware of other aircraft being cleared to land on the same runway you have been cleared to land on. * At uncontrolled airports, or airports without operational control towers: - Follow standard air traffic procedures. Use AF/Ds or other similar commercial products to determine if other than standard traffic pattern procedures are dictated for the particular airport where operations are planned. - Monitor CTAF or UNICOM as recommended in the AIM. - State the name of the airport at the beginning and end of each radio transmission.

Answer 123

GOM 2.48 At the change of each shift, the PIC will conduct a briefing of the duty clinicians and any others that might be appropriate.

Answer 124

GOM 2.50 Critical phases of flight, taxi, takeoff, landing & all other ops below 10,000 except cruise flight. Pilots must engage the medical personnel in a continuous, diplomatic, educational effort to make them aware of the need to limit conversations on the ICS during critical phases of flight to topics related to the conduct of the flight

Answer 125

GOM 2.53 No, it can only be used to support VFR flight planning. It can be used to make a No-Go decision when results conflict with authorized weather sources.

Answer 126

GOM 2.53 * DTN Aviation Sentry \* * DTC DUAT \* * CSC DUATS\* * Foreflight * National Weather Service

Answer 127

GOM 3.5 Air Methods helicopters are not authorized to conduct land and hold short operations. When Automated Terminal Information System (ATIS) is acknowledged, PIC will advise ATC that LAHSO cannot be accepted

Answer 128

GOM 3.6 As a minimum, obstructions shall be cleared by 30 feet during approach and departure. When on the ground, there will be a minimum of 15 feet clearance from obstructions

Answer 129

GOM 3.6 Rates of descent shall, when able, be kept below 300 feet per minute when less than 300 feet above the rooftop or confined landing area. Steep approach angles with a rate of descent greater than 300 feet per minute shall be avoided

Answer 130

GOM 3.7 * Aircraft will be shut down. At any time when the security of the scene is in question, and/or no positive crowd control is actively in place, one crewmember shall remain in the vicinity of the aircraft and provide scene security until the pilot shuts down the aircraft. * Aircraft power will be reduced to ground idle or a reduced power setting as specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual. Attitude/Auto Trim mode shall be off and SAS mode selected if appropriate. Controls will be secured in one of the following manners. * - Positively locked * - Force trim on * - Frictioned as not to move * - The pilot will exit the aircraft and guard the area around the aircraft. The pilot shall stay within the rotor diameter of the aircraft. * Aircraft power will be reduced to ground idle or a reduced power setting as specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual, pilot will stay in seat in cockpit, and a trained crewmember will guard the area around the aircraft. * Aircraft power will be reduced to ground idle or a reduced power setting as specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual, pilot will stay in seat in cockpit, and a trained crewmember will brief a first responder, such as a law enforcement officer or fireman. After being briefed, the person briefed will ensure that no one approaches the aircraft without the knowledge of the pilot. * The contents of the briefing that the crewmember will give to the appropriate first responder is as follows: * - Stay at least 50 feet from aircraft. * - Do not allow anyone to approach the aircraft without permission from the pilot or a crewmember. * - Anyone that approaches the aircraft must be accompanied by a crewmember. * - Crew will assign personnel to help carry the stretcher to the aircraft. * - Remember to exit in the same direction from which you approached the aircraft.

Answer 131

GOM 3.9 At all times, with the exception of takeoffs and landings, Air Methods pilots will operate at an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Air Methods helicopter pilots shall, when able, cruise at a minimum of 1,000 feet AGL, day or night.

Answer 132

GOM 3.10 Pilots will announce their intentions for the following operations when no established communications procedure exists. * Approach * At five miles from landing * Upon landing * Departure * Upon takeoff * At five miles from departure

Answer 133

GOM 3.11 A turn on course will not be made until the aircraft has climbed (at a minimum) to 300 feet AGL for day operations and 500 feet AGL for night operations unless rising terrain, obstacles, or local procedures dictate.

Answer 134

GOM 3.12 Air Methods pilots will use the following minimum cloud and visibility requirements for SVFR operations. * Day – 700-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility * Night – 800-foot ceiling and 3 SM visibility

Answer 135

GOM 3.12 Pilots operating in controlled airspace designated to the surface may request an SVFR clearance for operations conducted beneath a ceiling reported as being less than 1,000 feet.

Answer 136

GOM 5.5.2 The pilot, any certificated A&P mechanic, or FAA repair station holding the proper rating will make the following or similarly worded entry in the airframe maintenance logbook deferring the discrepancy. Date / /. ACTT\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_(Item) INOP. Deferred in accordance with (aircraft type) MEL, Category (A, B, C, D, or NEF) expiration date\_/\_/ \_. (Signature) (Certificate type and number).

Answer 137

GOM 5.5.5 The Deferred Discrepancy Log shall be scanned and sent, by email via AMSDMEL@airmethods.com to the Maintenance Control and Support no later than 24 hours after the corrective action. When all corrective actions of a Deferred Discrepancy Log have been completed and sent to the Maintenance Control and Support, the DDL may be discarded locally.

Answer 138

GOM 6.1 At locations that require close quarters maneuvering around other aircraft or hangar facilities, a “wing walker” shall be used. Use of a “wing walker” will help prevent “hangar rash” or more serious aircraft damage. Medical personnel may be used in this role.

Answer 139

AIM 1-1-7 b Directly above the station at 6,000’ AGL "Operating on the line−of−sight principle, DME furnishes distance information with a very high degree of accuracy. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line−of−sight altitude with an accuracy of better than 1/2 mile or 3 percent of the distance, whichever is greater. Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance."

Answer 140

AIM 4-1-13 b ## Footnote ATIS broadcast must be updated upon the receipt of any official hourly and special weather. A new recording will also be made when there is a change in other pertinent data such as runway change, instrument approach in use, etc

Answer 141

GOM 1-1-8 Terminal - 1,000AGL to 12,000 AGL out to 25NM. Low - 1,000’ AGL to 18,000 AGL out to 40 NM.

Answer 142

AIM 1-1-11 and 1-1-12 DO NOT attempt to fly a procedure that is NOTAM'ed out of service even if the identification is present. In certain cases, the identification may be transmitted for short periods as part of the testing

Answer 143

AIM 4-1-20 f.2(c) Yes, up to 10,000’ MSL

Answer 144

AIM 5-5-15, a 4. & 5 No In order to be given traffic priority, you must declare an emergency

Answer 145

AIM 4-1-15 fig. 4-1-1 & 4-1-2 Ground Track

Answer 146

AIM 5-6-2, d. 1, 2, & 3. 121.5 & 7700

Answer 147

AIM 5-1-3b.d.1 NOTAM (D)

Answer 148

AC 006A, p. 65 A cold front has passed the area.

Answer 149

AC 00-6A Chapter 8 Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds

Answer 150

AC 006A, p 126 Radiation fog may begin to form, especially if the winds are light.

Answer 151

AC 006A Chapter 1 Feeling of exhaustion, euphoria, impairment of judgment and vision, unconsciousness

Answer 152

AC00-45F (7.1.1) VFR/MVFR for 12 hours with a 12-18 hour categorical outlook forecast for VFR, MVFR & IFR

Answer 153

AC 006A Page 111 Cumulus stage, up drafts; Mature stage, rain begins to fall, up and down drafts; Dissipating stage, down drafts. When the rain has ended and the down drafts have abated the TRW has ended

Answer 154

AC 00-6A Chapter 4 Pressure differences

Answer 155

AIM 7-1-6 d Via a Convective SIGMET, relayed by ATC and available on HIWAS

Answer 156

AIM 7-1-6 d Hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are provided as needed and updated at H+55

Answer 157

AC 006A Standing lenticular are sometimes indicators of CAT. At times the air may be too dry for clouds to form yet a mountain wave (of which standing lenticular clouds are indicators) exists

Answer 158

AC-006A Wake turbulence. Try and land so you do not reach the mid-point of his take-off role

Answer 159

AIM 7-1-26d.3 Strong down draft associated with a Microburst

Answer 160

AC 006A Turbulence & Hail

Answer 161

GOM 3.2.2 You may turn off the anti-collision light if it presents a hazard. Position lights may not be turned off. Landing light, search light, or night sun will be used for all takeoffs & landings unless environmental conditions preclude its use; i.e. brownout / whiteout

Answer 162

GOM 3.2.2 No. Air Methods is not authorized to modify external lights

Answer 163

GOM 3.2.2 Yes, unless environmental conditions preclude its use; i.e., blowing snow

Answer 164

GOM 3.2.2 NO

Answer 165

FAR 135.609 Opspec A50 ## Footnote The certificate holder is authorized to use no lower than the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) weather minimums in the table below when operating in Class G Airspace for the conditions specified when conducting HNVGO

Answer 166

OPSPEC D-085 Table. * Locate tail number. * (b) Identify Maintenance Document for Aircraft NVIS with Revision Number * (c) RFM: Locate and identify the installed NVIS RFMS. Verify it is the correct RFMS as identified by OPSPEC D-093 * (d) RFMS: Limitations – identify the applicable class of NVGs allowed to be used on board this aircraft IAW the RFMS. Compare class of NVGs with those assigned to the base

Answer 167

GOM 3.2.3 Enroute 500’, Reconnaissance 500. Below 300’ operations may be conducted if the aircraft contains the appropriate STC and the pilot and at least one crewmember are trained and current for takeoffs and landings

Answer 168

FAR 61.57(f) A takeoff and landing, including climbout, cruise, descent, and approach phase of flight. Hovering tasks. Area departure / area arrival. Transition from aided to unaided flight

Answer 169

OpSpec A050

Answer 170

ITT 4949 Operator’s Manual or M949 Operator’s Manual

Answer 171

40-degrees

Answer 172

Yes AMC GOM 3.2.3 specifies weather minimums listed in A050 apply to all HNVG operations. These are also the same minimums found in A050 Table

Answer 173

LINK Training 3-5 minutes

Answer 174

AMV LINK Trng Drugs, Exhaustion, Alcohol, Tobacco, and Hypoglycemia

Answer 175

AMV LINK Trng * Fixation, * Flicker Vertigo, * False Horizons, * Confusion with ground lights & stars (ground light misinterpretation), * Relative motion, * Altered planes of reference, * Structural Illusions, * Height Perception Illusion, * Size/Distance Illusion, * Autokenisis, * Reversible Perspective, * Crater Illusion

Answer 176

AMC LINK Trng Bank angles in excess of 30 degrees, improper scanning, flicker vertigo. Many of the above listed visual illusions

Answer 177

AMC LINK Trng * Shading, * Edge glow, * Flashing/Flickering/Intermittent Operation. * Veling glare

Answer 178

AMC LINK Trng * Fixed noise/Honeycombing, distortion, * dark/black spots, * bright spots, * emission points, * OBV, image disparity.

Answer 179

Any NVG qualified PIC

Answer 180

A minimum of three(3) takeoffs and landings to unimproved areas separated by an enroute phase between each landing

Answer 181

Three HNVGOs within 180 days

Answer 182

* Geometric Perspective: * Linear Perspective, * Apparent Foreshortening, * Vertical Positioning in the Field. * Retinal Image Size: * Known Size of Objects, Increasing / Decreasing Size, * Terrestrial Association, * Overlapping Contours. * Aerial Perspective: * Variation in Color or Shade (fading), * Loss of Texture or Detail, * Lights & Shadows. * **Motion Paralax: Most important of the 4.**

Answer 183

Classes have to do with the type of coating or “filter” (previously referred to as the “minus-blue” filter) that is applied to the NVGs in the manufacturing process. These filters block certain frequencies of light, allowing the illumination of cockpit instrumentation that would not affect the performance of NVGs. The classes of filter are broken down into three (3) classes; A, B & C.

Answer 184

* NVIS radiance Class A includes the lowest wavelengths and hence has the highest gain of the available night sky luminance; Class B sensitivity turns on at a higher wavelength, so it is general less sensitive. Class A, Class B, and Class C NVDs have different applications in battlefield use. * Class A: NVGs used primarily for helicopter operations for the US militaries, plus the majority of all goggles utilized in the USA by EMS and Law Enforcement operations. The US Army utilizes Class A for all of their helicopter aircraft. As defined above, the Class A filter has a higher gain of night sky illumination, therefore providing greater capabilities in low light environments. * Class B: NVGs used primarily in fixed wing aircraft, due to the use of multi-function displays for weapon and flight systems, the Class B has a higher tolerance for color displays.

Answer 185

* (a) The Air Methods NVG Maintenance Facility in PA fixes a tag to the zipper or affixes a label to the soft case of all NVGs leaving their facility. The class of NVG is clearly printed on that tag. * (b) When preflighting the NVG, you can also find the class of NVG in the record folder assigned to that particular binocular assembly. * (c) Finally, you can go onto the Flight Deck – Operations – NVG Status – NVG List and find your NVG by serial number. You will see the NVG class illustrated on the portal

Answer 186

Air Methods MEL Possibly, providing the defect falls within the guidelines of the aircraft MEL and Flight Manual Supplement

Answer 187

* (a) The system uses a combination of GPS position information to provide “Geometric Altitude” combined with an internal Terrain and Obstacle Database. * (b) The system provides alerts to the pilot based on priority

Answer 188

(a) Flat light is an optical illusion, also known as sector or partial white-out that causes the pilot to lose depth-of-field and visual contrast. They are usually accompanied by overcast skies over snow covered areas.

Answer 189

Flat light can completely obscure terrain features. Pilots are unable to properly determine distances and rates of closure. Flat light can provide the illusion that the pilot is ascending or descending when actually flying level – or assuming level flight and unknowingly changing altitude.

Answer 190

When a pilot becomes engulfed in a uniformly white glow created by blowing snow, dust, mud or water. There are no shadows or horizon

Answer 191

Depth of field and orientation are lost. Flat light conditions can lead to white-out rapidly. Visual references disappear. Common occurrence during takeoff and landing. Spatial disorientation and dynamic roll-over commonly occurs in white-out conditions resulting in destruction of the aircraft

Answer 192

Termination to a point OGE. Terminate to a stationary OGE hover over the touchdown area. This requires OGE power and may be used for most snow landings and some sand/dust landings. Slowly lower the collective and allow the aircraft to descend. The descent may be vertical or with forward movement. The rate of descent will be determined by the rate in which the snow/sand/dust is blown from the landing point. During the descent, remain above the snow/sand/dust cloud until it dissipates and the touchdown point can be seen. All crewmembers should be focused outside the cockpit

Answer 193

Flightdeck ## Footnote Risk Manager. PIC is the first/last line of defense. Need to be able to recognize and report hazards via the Air Methods reporting programs. Need to be able to communicate hazards to your supervisor

Answer 194

Anything that has the potential to cause a negative impact on our ability to operate. Many are dealt with routinely every day; i.e., starting a jet engine. Possible negative impacts of starting jet engines would be over-temps, overspeeds, or explosions. We mitigate the hazard by using checklists and training to ensure we execute the proper sequence.

Answer 195

A hazard defined in terms of probability and severity. The hazards listed above in starting the jet engine. The potential of negative impact is drastically reduced by proper use of aircraft checklists and training. Therefore, we accept the “risk” of starting the engine to conduct day to day operation. The risk changes when conditions change; i.e., distraction while starting, inoperative components, etc.

Answer 196

* (a) AIDMOR: Air Methods report. Mandatory report for incidents and hazards that meet the reportable criteria found on Flightdeck \> Safety \> AIDMOR * (b) ASAP/MSAP: Voluntary report for safety concerns, violations to regulations, SOP, or other safetly risk related events * (c) TAMMA: To report issues discovered on and off the mission. Post flight debrief. (d) Alert line: To report concerns related not only to safety but SarbanesOxley and human resources concerns and violations as well. This tool allows the submitter to remain completely anonymous. * (d) Alert line: To report concerns related not only to safety but SarbanesOxley and human resources concerns and violations as well. This tool allows the submitter to remain completely anonymous.

Answer 197

* (a) ASAP: sponsored by the air carrier, encourages voluntary reporting of safety related issues that may be precursors to incidents and accidents, actual incidents, and violations. The submitter has 24-hours to submit the report. The report will be reviewed by an Event Review Committee (ERC) consisting of a member of management, the FAA, and a representative of the union. The company may take action toward the pilot. The FAA will take no enforcement action except in cases of accidents or criminal offenses. * (b) ASRS: Aviation Safety Reporting System: The Administrator will not use reports submitted to NASA under ASRS (or information derived there from) in any enforcement action except concerning accidents or criminal offenses. The primary function is the same. The report differs in that the pilot has 10 days to voluntarily submit to NASA ASRS and there are some differences in the scope of protections.

Answer 198

91.175(f)(2)(iii), H106 ½ sm

Answer 199

Standard or non-standard as indicated by the respective approach plates. REF: Apply non-standard minimums referenced in the Terminal Procedures Publication: Other than Standard Take-off minimums and/or the (approved) NonPart 97 Obstacle Departure Procedure. Take into consideration the surface airspace and whether or not there is a published approach into the departure airport

Answer 200

135.611(d) The pilot can make his or her own observation to determine if the weather is at or above takeoff minimums

Answer 201

135.217 No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport where weather conditions are at or above takeoff minimums but are below authorized IFR landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within 1 hour's flying time (at normal cruising speed, in still air) of the airport of departure.

Answer 202

135.227(a)(c)(d) Consider temperature (potential for icing), turbulence, severe wx

Answer 203

* (a) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in parts 95 and 97 of this chapter, then: * (i) In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area in part 95 of this chapter, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or * (ii) In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown.

Answer 204

135.219, GOM 2.26.6 Check the appropriate approach minimum for the planned approach (ensure the approach is available per NOTAM)

Answer 205

135.611(a)(2) Yes, flight planning for IFR flights conducted under this criteria must include selection of an alternate airport that meets the requirements of §§135.221 and 135.223

Answer 206

97.3, GOM 2.26.5 Only for takeoff, designating an alternate, and planning at the destination

Answer 207

91. 175(c) (a) No pilot may operate an aircraft below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless— * The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing. * The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and * (i)The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. * (ii) The threshold. * (iii) The threshold markings. * (iv) The threshold lights. * (v) The runway end identifier lights. * (vi) The visual glideslope indicator. * (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. * (viii) The touchdown zone lights. * (ix) The runway or runway markings. * (x) The runway lights. * (b) The lights or markings of the threshold; * (c) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; or * (d) The lights or markings of the touchdown zone.

Answer 208

AIM 5-4-9 (a), and 5-4-9 (b) (2) Only if the procedure turn is depicted as a “Tear Drop”, otherwise the type of turn is left to the pilot as long as the: remain within distance, altitude restriction, and the turn is completed on the published side of the inbound

Answer 209

135.223 or 135.613 * (a) For helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. * (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument approach procedure for the first airport of intended landing and, for at least one hour before and after the estimated time of arrival, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that— * (1) The ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling approach MDA; or * (2) If a circling instrument approach is not authorized for the airport, the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher; and * (3) Visibility for that airport is forecast to be at least three miles, or two miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is the greater, for the instrument approach procedure to be used at the destination airport. (1/2/3 rule of thumb) (4) Always if planning to a destination without weather reporting

Answer 210

135.221(b)(1)and(2), OpSpec H105 ## Footnote (a) The ceiling must be 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and visibility is at least 1 statute mile but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown. If, for the alternate airport, no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the FAA to the certificate holder, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the minimum enroute altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR

Answer 211

135.221(B)(2) Yes

Answer 212

Requirements to conduct IFR operations to/from airports without weather reporting, ie.: requirement for severe weather detection equipment

Answer 213

135.611(b) Yes, you must have (operable) severe weather detection equipment on board.

Answer 214

Yes, if annual training requirement under Exemption 12556 has been completed.

Answer 215

135.611 (4)(d) NO

Answer 216

135.613 Maybe

Answer 217

135.613(a)(1), (2),(3) ## Footnote (a) For Point-in-Space (PinS) Copter Instrument approaches annotated with a “Proceed VFR” segment, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is 1 NM or less, flight visibility must be at least 1 statute mile and the ceiling on the approach chart applies; (b) For all instrument approaches, including PinS when paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is 3 NM or less, the applicable VFR weather minimums are— No less than a 600-foot ceiling and 2 sm: Day Operations No less than a 600-foot ceiling and 3 sm Night Operations (c) For all instrument approaches, including PinS, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is greater than 3 NM: VFR weather minimums as required by the class of airspace.

Answer 218

135.613(b) ## Footnote (1) The VFR weather minimums of paragraph (a) (those previously mentioned) apply if: (i) An FAA-approved obstacle departure procedure is followed; and (ii) An IFR clearance is obtained not more than 3 NM from the departure location. (2) If the departure does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the VFR weather minimums required by the class of airspace apply.

Answer 219

91.185(c)(2) ## Footnote (a) Flight must be conducted at the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown: (i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in §91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or (iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance

Answer 220

(i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received; 91. 185(c)(1) ## Footnote (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.

Answer 221

91.185(c)(3) Leave clearance limit. (i) When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. (ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

Answer 222

135.297(a) A PIC of an aircraft under IFR…has passed an instrument proficiency check

Answer 223

135.297(g)(3) Conflicting: Says 12 months during instrument proficiency check required per para (a), which says every 6 months The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months

Answer 224

135.611 (a)(1-2) ## Footnote a. Must obtain a weather report from an approved (NWS, approved by NWS, or FAA) located within 15 nautical miles from the destination airport. b. If unable, receive an Area Forecast from NWS or FAA approved sources. (c) Must file an IFR Alternate that meets requirements of 135.221 & 223

Answer 225

135.611 (a)(4) Restricted to Category A approach speeds for the type approach being used

Answer 226

135.611 (b) Each helicopter air ambulance operated under this section must be equipped with functioning severe weather detection equipment.

Answer 227

135.611 (d) The PIC is authorized to determine if the weather meets the takeoff requirements of Part 97, or the Certificate Holder’s OPSPEC as appropriate.

Answer 228

135.611 (a)(3) PIC must determine that the weather conditions at the departure point are at or above takeoff minimums depicted in the published ODP or VFR minimum ceilings and visibilities are IAW 135.609

HAA Part 135 Study Aide Flashcards

Air Methods and additional info for study