HA #7 and #8 Flashcards

1
Q

The Glasgow Coma Scale is a quantitative tool to assess a client’s level of consciousness. A fully alert client would have a score of?

a. ) 24
b. ) 15
c. ) 7
d. ) 12

A

b.) 15

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2
Q

The student nurse asks the client to stand with his feet together and arms at his side with his eyes closed. The client starts to sway back and forth and has to move his feet to catch his balance. The student nurse would document this finding as a(n):

a. ) ataxia
b. ) a negative Romberg sign
c. ) a positive Romberg sign.
d. ) loss of coordination

A

c.) a positive Romberg sign.

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3
Q

What is the expected response when testing the triceps reflex?

a. ) Extension of the forearm.
b. ) Pronation of the hand.
c. ) Flexion of the forearm.
d. ) Flexion of the hand.

A

a.) Extension of the forearm.

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4
Q

The student nurse is testing superficial reflexes on an adult client. When stroking up the lateral side of the sole and across the ball of the foot, he notices plantar flexion of the toes. How should the student nurse document this finding?

a. ) Plantar relex present.
b. ) A positive Babinski sign
c. ) A plantar reflex of 3+ on a scale of 0-4.
d. ) Plantar reflex abnormal.

A

a.) Plantar relex present.

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5
Q

With the client’s eyes closed, the nurse places a familiar object in the client’s hand and asks her to identify the object. This assessment is known as ________.

a. ) extinction.
b. ) tactile discrimination.
c. ) stereognosis.
d. ) graphesthesia.

A

c.) stereognosis.

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6
Q

A very brisk, hyperactive reflex should be documentated as:

a. ) 1+.
b. ) 2+.
c. ) 3+.
d. ) 4+.

A

d.) 4+.

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal structures of the breast? The breast is:

  1. ) Mainly muscle, with very little fibrous tissue.
  2. ) Composed of fibrous, glandular, and adipose tissue.
  3. ) Composed mostly of milk ducts, known as lactiferous ducts.
  4. ) Composed of glandular tissue, which supports the breast by attaching to the chest wall.
A

2.) Composed of fibrous, glandular, and adipose tissue.

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8
Q

In performing a breast examination, the nurse knows that it is especially important to examine the upper outer quadrant of the breast. The reason for this is that the upper outer quadrant is:

a. ) The largest quadrant of the breast.
b. ) The location of most breast tumors.
c. ) Where most of the suspensory ligaments attach.
d. ) More prone to injury and calcifications than other location in the breast.

A

b.) The location of most breast tumors.

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9
Q

During an annual physical exam, a 43-year-old patient states that she doesn’t perform monthly breast self-examination (BSE). She tells the nurse that she believes that mammograms “do a much better job than I ever could to find a lump.” The nurse should explain to her that:

a. ) BSEs may detect lumps that appear between mammograms.
b. ) Breast self-examination is unnecessary until the age of 50 years.
c. ) She is correct, mammography is a good replacement for breast self-examination.
d. ) She doesn’t need to perform breast self-examination as long as a physician checks her breasts yearly.

A

a.) BSEs may detect lumps that appear between mammograms.

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10
Q

During an examination of a woman, the nurse notices that her left breast is slightly larger than her right breast. Which of these statements is true about this finding?

a. ) Breasts should always be symmetric.
b. ) This finding is probably due to breastfeeding and is nothing to worry about.
c. ) This finding is not unusual, but the nurse should verify that this change is not new.
d. ) This finding is very unusual and means she may have an inflammation or growth.

A

c.) This finding is not unusual, but the nurse should verify that this change is not new.

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11
Q

The nurse is palpating a female patient’s breasts during an examination. Which of these positions is most likely to make significant lumps more distinct during breast palpation?

a. ) Supine with arms raised over her head
b. ) Sitting with arms relaxed at the sides
c. ) Supine with arms relaxed at the sides
d. ) Sitting with arms flexed and fingertips touching shoulders

A

a.) Supine with arms raised over her head

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12
Q

The nurse is aware that which of these statements is true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?

a. ) Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
b. ) The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
c. ) Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at greatest risk for development of testicular cancer.
d. ) The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.

A

c.) Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at greatest risk for development of testicular cancer.

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13
Q

The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a patient. Which of these statements is most appropriate?

a. ) “A good time to examine your testicles is just before you take a shower.”
b. ) “If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider.”
c. ) “The testicle is egg shaped and movable. It feels firm and has a lumpy consistency.”
d. ) “Perform a testicular exam at least once a week to detect the early stages of testicular cancer.”

A

b.) “If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider.”

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14
Q

The external male genital structures include the:

a. ) Testis.
b. ) Scrotum.
c. ) Epididymis.
d. ) Vas deferens.

A

b.) Scrotum.

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15
Q

The nurse is providing patient teaching about an erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drug’s potential side effects is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation, which is known as:

a. ) Orchitis.
b. ) Stricture.
c. ) Phimosis.
d. ) Priapism.

A

d.) Priapism.

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16
Q

During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient’s foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is:

a. ) Phimosis.
b. ) Epispadias.
c. ) Urethral stricture.
d. ) Peyronie’s disease.

A

a.) Phimosis.

17
Q

The nurse is preparing a male client for a rectal examination. Which of the following positions would it be most appropriate to help the client assume?

a. ) Right lateral decubitus.
b. ) Lithotomy.
c. ) Standing, toes pointed out.
d. ) Left lateral decubitus.

A

d.) Left lateral decubitus.

18
Q

Female external genitalia structures include the:

a. ) Vaginal orifice, labia minora, vestibule, and clitoris.
b. ) Vaginal orifice, labia majora, vagina, and fallopian tubes.
c. ) Vagina, posterior fornix, vestibule, and clitoris.
d. ) Urethral meatus, labia majora, cervix, and clitoris

A

a.) Vaginal orifice, labia minora, vestibule, and clitoris.

19
Q

The nurse is preparing a female client for examination of the external genitalia. Which of the following interventions would be most effective in minimizing anxiety and discomfort?

a. ) Prohibit all family members or friends from entering the room during the exam.
b. ) Place the exam table in a flat position and avoid eye contact during the exam.
c. ) Ask the client to empty her bladder prior to the exam.
d. ) Avoid conversation during the exam and explain your findings after the exam.

A

c.) Ask the client to empty her bladder prior to the exam.

20
Q

A condition in which the uterus protrudes into the vagina in known as:

a. ) Uterine prolapse.
b. ) Cyctocele.
c. ) Rectocele.
d. ) Candidiasis.

A

a.) Uterine prolapse.

21
Q

The nurse is preparing a 24-year old female client for examination of the genitalia. The woman mentions that she has a painless warty growth around her anus. This description is consistent with which of the following:

a. ) Herpes simplex virus.
b. ) Syphilitic chancre.
c. ) Human papillomavirus.
d. ) Carcinoma.

A

c.) Human papillomavirus.

22
Q

Test hearing acuity.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

f.) CN VIII

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

23
Q

Palpate the temporal and masseter muscles while the client clenches their teeth.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

d.) CN V

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

24
Q

Ask the client to shrug their shoulders against resistance.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

i.) CN XI

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

25
Q

Test visual acuity and visual fields; examine the ocular fundus.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

b.) CN II

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

26
Q

Assess the ability to identify an odor on each side of the nose.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

a.) CN I

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

27
Q

Touch the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade to elicit the gag reflex.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

g.) CN IX

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

28
Q

Ask the client to frown, smile, and close their eyes tightly.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

e.) CN VII

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

29
Q

Ask the client to protrude their tongue in the midline assessing for deviation.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

j.) CN XII

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal

30
Q

Assess pupils and extraocular movements.

a. ) CN I b.) CN II
c. ) CN III, IV, VI d.) CN V
e. ) CN VII f.) CN VIII
g. ) CN IX h.) CN X
i. ) CN XI j.) CN XII

A

c.) CN III, IV, VI

CN I - Optic

CN II - Olfactory

CN III, IV, VI - Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens

CN V - Trigeminal

CN VII - Facial

CN VIII - Acoustic

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal

CN X - Vagus

CN XI - Spinal Accessory

CN XII - Hypoglossal