Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EEEEEEE > H E M A > Flashcards

H E M A Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In patients with infectious mononucleosis,
    which blood cells are infected by the
    causative agent?
    A. Monocytes
    B. T lymphocytes
    C. B lymphocytes
    D. Histiocytes
A

C. B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about
    hairy cell leukemia is true?
    A. It is an acute disease, primarily
    affecting young adults.
    B. Splenomegaly is an unusual finding.
    C. Hairy cells contain tartrate-resistant
    acid phosphatase.
    D. Hairy cells are abnormal T lymphocytes
A

C. Hairy cells contain tartrate-resistant
acid phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Based on the WHO classification
    system, B cell ALL (FAB type L3) and
    represent different
    clinical presentations of the same
    disease entity.
    A. Burkitt lymphoma
    B. Hodgkin lymphoma
    C. Mycosis fungoides
    D. Small lymphocytic lymphoma
A

A. Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. The presence of both immature neutrophils
    and nucleated erythrocytes in the peripheral blood is most accurately called a
    A. Neutrophilic left shift
    B. Regenerative left shift
    C. Neutrophilic leukemoid reaction
    D. Leukoerythroblastic reaction
A

D. Leukoerythroblastic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. In which anomaly is a failure of granulocytes to divide beyond the band or twolobed stage observed?
    A. Pelger-Huet
    B. May-Hegglin
    C. Alder-Reilly
    D. Chediak-Higashi
A

A. Pelger-Huet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. In which of the following are eosinophils
    not increased?
    A. cushing syndrome
    B. Allergic disorders
    C. Skin disorders
    D. Parasitic infection
A

A. Cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the
    principal defect in chronic granulomatous
    disease (CGD)?
    A. Chemotactic migration
    B. Phagocytosis
    C. Lysosomal formation and function
    D. Oxidative respiratory burst
A

D. Oxidative respiratory burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The blood shown in Color Plate 11 * is from
    a leukemia patient following treatment.
    These findings are most suggestive of
    therapy with
    A. Corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone)
    B. A folate antagonist (e.g., methotrexate)
    C. Recombinant erythropoietin
    D. Chloramphenicol
A

B. A folate antagonist (e.g., methotrexate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A patient with normal hemoglobin and
    WBC count values, a persistently elevated
    platelet count (over 1000 X 109/L),
    increased marrow megakaryocytes, and a
    history of frequent bleeding and clotting
    episodes most likely has
    A. Polycythemia vera
    B. Chronic myelofibrosis
    C. Essential thrombocythemia
    D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
A

C. Essential thrombocythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. An adult patient with massive
    splenomegaly has mild anemia, a slightly
    elevated WBC count, and an LAP score of 170. The blood smear shows teardrop
    erythrocytes and leukoerythroblastosis.
    These findings are most consistent with
    A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
    B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
    C. Primary polycythemia
    D. Primary thrombocythemia
A

B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following infections does not
    reveal a blood picture as seen in Color
    Plate 12B?
    A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
    B. Bordetellapertussis (whooping cough)
    C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
    D. Toxoplasma gondii (toxoplasmosis)
A

B. Bordetellapertussis (whooping cough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The most common type of chronic
    lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in the
    United States involves the
    A. Bcell
    B. NKcell
    C. Tcell
    D. Plasma cell
A

A. B cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristic
    findings in Waldenstrom disease?
    A. Increased IgA and
    hepatosplenomegaly
    B. Increased IgE and renal failure
    C. Increased IgG and hypercalcemia
    D. Increased IgM and blood hyperviscosity
A

D. Increased IgM and blood hyperviscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following would not cause a
    total WBC count of 62.2 X 109/L (62.2 X
    103/jjLL) and the blood findings seen in
    Color Plate 13B?
    A. Treatment with myeloid growth factors
    B. Gram-negative septicemia
    C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
    D. Systemic fungal infection
A

C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. The peripheral blood shown in Color Plate
    14B is from a 69-year-old female. Her
    WBC count was 83.0 X 109 cells/L (83.0 X
    103/(xL) and her platelet count was
    normal. Based on the cell morphology and
    this information, what is the most likely
    diagnosis?
    A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
    B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
    C. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
    D. Viral infection
A

B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. In which of the following is progression to
    acute leukemia least likely?
    A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
    B. Refractory anemia with excess blasts
    (RAEB)
    C. Refractory anemia with ringed
    sideroblasts (RARS)
    D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
A

D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A Gaucher cell is best described as a
    macrophage with
    A. “Wrinkled” cytoplasm due to an
    accumulation of glucocerebroside
    B. “Foamy” cytoplasm filled with
    unmetabolized sphingomyelin
    C. Pronounced vacuolization and
    deposits of cholesterol
    D. Abundant cytoplasm containing
    storage iron and cellular remnants
A

A. “Wrinkled” cytoplasm due to an
accumulation of glucocerebroside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following suggests a
    diagnosis of Hodgkin disease rather than
    other lymphoproliferative disorders?
    A. Presence of a monoclonal population
    of large lymphoid cells
    B. Predominance of immature B cells
    with irregular nuclear clefts
    C. Circulating T cells with a convoluted,
    cerebriform nucleus
    D. Presence of giant binucleated Reed-Sternberg cells with prominent
    nucleoli
A

D. Presence of giant binucleated Reed-Sternberg cells with prominent
nucleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. In a patient with fever of unknown origin,
    which of the following findings is not
    consistent with an inflammatory process?
    A. Increased C-reactive protein
    B. Increased albumin level
    C. Increased fibrinogen level
    D. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation
    rate
A

B. Increased albumin level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. The presence of the chromosomal
    abnormality t(15;17) and a high incidence
    of disseminated intravascular coagulation
    (DIG) is diagnostic of
    A. Acute myeloblastic leukemia without
    maturation (FAB type Ml)
    B. Acute myeloblastic leukemia with
    maturation (FAB type M2)
    C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (FAB
    type M3)
    D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
    (FAB type M4)
A

C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (FAB
type M3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following is not commonly
    found in acute myelogenous leukemias?
    A. Neutropenia
    B. Thrombocytopenia
    C. Hepatosplenomegaly
    D. Lymphadenopathy
A

D. Lymphadenopathy

22
Q
  1. The child whose blast cells are shown in
    Color Plate 15> has acute lymphoblastic
    leukemia that is precursor B cell type
    and CALLA positive. Analysis by flow
    cytometry would likely show cells that
    immunophenotype for
    A. CD2,CD7
    B. CD10,CD19
    C. CD13,CD33
    D. CD14,CD34
A

B. CD10,CD19

23
Q
  1. The patient whose bone marrow is shown
    in Color Plate 16 * most likely has a(n)
    A. Acute leukemia
    B. Chronic leukemia
    C. Myelodysplastic syndrome
    D. Aplastic anemia
A

A. Acute leukemia

24
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma is characterized by the
    presence in urine of large amounts of
    A. Cryoglobulins
    B. IgG heavy chains
    C. IgG light chains
    D. Beta microglobulins
A

C. IgG light chains

25
Q
  1. Which of the following is not classified as
    a myeloproliferative disorder?
    A. Polycythemia vera
    B. Essential thrombocythemia
    C. Multiple myeloma
    D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
A

C. Multiple myeloma

26
Q
  1. Which of the following gene mutations
    correlates with the t(9;22) that is present
    in Philadelphia chromosome positive
    chronic myelogenous leukemia?
    A. MYC/IGH
    B. BCR/ABL
    C. PML/RARA
    D. JAK2
A

B. BCR/ABL

27
Q
  1. Which of the following statements does
    not correctly describe the WHO (World
    Health Organization) classification of
    hematopoietic neoplasms?
    A. Acute leukemia is defined as the
    presence of at least 20% bone marrow
    blasts.
    B. Diagnosis is based on cellular
    morphology and cytochemistry.
    C. It groups lymphoid disorders into
    B cell, T/NK cell, and Hodgkin
    lymphoma.
    D. Diagnostic criteria include morphologic, cytochemical, immunologic,
    cytogenetic, and molecular features
A

B. Diagnosis is based on cellular
morphology and cytochemistry.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following would be least
    helpful in distinguishing chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) from a neutrophilic
    leukemoid reaction?
    A. An extreme leukocytosis with
    increased neutrophilic bands,
    metamyelocytes, and myelocytes
    B. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score
    C. Presence of marked splenomegaly
    D. Neutrophils with Dohle bodies and
    toxic granulation
A

A. An extreme leukocytosis with
increased neutrophilic bands,
metamyelocytes, and myelocytes

29
Q
  1. The cytoplasmic inclusion present in the
    cell shown in Color Plate !?*
    A. Excludes a diagnosis of acute
    myelogenous leukemia
    B. Stains positive with leukocyte alkaline
    phosphatase (LAP)
    C. Stains positive with myeloperoxidase
    (MPO)
    D. Identifies the cell as a malignant
    lymphoblast
A

C. Stains positive with myeloperoxidase
(MPO)

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is a typical finding
    in chronic leukemias at onset?
    A. Symptoms of infection and bleeding
    B. Significant thrombocytopenia
    C. Severe anemia
    D. Elevated leukocyte count
A

D. Elevated leukocyte count

31
Q
  1. In what condition would an LAP score of
    10 most likely be found?
    A. Bacterial septicemia
    B. Late pregnancy
    C. Polycythemia vera
    D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
A

D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated
    with neutrophilia?
    A. Staphylococcal pneumonia
    B. Cm shing inj ury
    C. Infectious hepatitis
    D. Neoplasms (tumors)
A

C. Infectious hepatitis

33
Q
  1. In which of the following would an
    absolute monocytosis not be seen?
    A. Tuberculosis
    B. Recovery stage of acute bacterial
    infection
    C. Collagen disorders
    D. Infectious mononucleosis
A

D. Infectious mononucleosis

34
Q
  1. Coarse PAS positivity may be found in the
    leukemic cells of
    A. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (FAB
    type Ml)
    B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (FAB
    type L1)
    C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
    (FAB type M4)
    D. Acute monocytic leukemia (FAB
    type M5)
A

B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (FAB
type L1)

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is not among the
    diagnostic criteria used for classifying the
    myelodysplastic syndromes?
    A. Unexplained anemia refractory to
    treatment
    B. Hypogranular and hyposegmented
    neutrophils
    C. Abnormal platelet size and
    granulation
    D. Hypocellular bone marrow with 25%
    blasts
A

D. Hypocellular bone marrow with 25%
blasts

36
Q
  1. Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase
    (specific) is usually positive in ____
    cells, and alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase (nonspecific)
    is useful for identifying blast cells of
    lineage.
    A. Granulocytic; monocytic
    B. Monocytic; granulocytic
    C. Granulocytic; lymphocytic
    D. Monocytic; lymphocytic
A

A. Granulocytic; monocytic

37
Q
  1. The familial disorder featuring pseudoDohle bodies, thrombocytopenia, and
    large platelets is called
    A. May-Hegglin anomaly
    B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
    C. Pelger-Huet anomaly
    D. Alder-Reilly anomaly
A

A. May-Hegglin anomaly

38
Q
  1. Alder-Reilly anomaly is an abnormality of
    A. Lysosomal fusion
    B. Nuclear maturation
    C. Oxidative metabolism
    D. Mucopolysaccharide metabolism
A

D. Mucopolysaccharide metabolism

39
Q
  1. What is the initial laboratory technique
    for the diagnosis of monoclonal
    gammopathies?
    A. Immunologic markers of marrow
    biopsy cells
    B. Cytochemical staining of marrow and
    peripheral blood cells
    C. Serum and urine protein
    electrophoresis
    D. Cytogenetic analysis of marrow cells
A

C. Serum and urine protein
electrophoresis

40
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about
    Hodgkin disease is false?
    A. Peak incidence occurs in young adults.
    B. Staging determines extent of disease
    and treatment course.
    C. Stage IV has the best prognosis.
    D. Almost a 2:1 male predominance over
    females is characteristic.
A

C. Stage IV has the best prognosis.

41
Q
  1. The blast cells shown in Color Plate 18 *
    are CD14 and CD33 positive, Sudan black
    B positive, specific esterase positive, and
    nonspecific esterase positive. Which type
    of acute leukemia is most consistent with
    the immunophenotyping and cytochemical
    staining results?
    A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, T cell
    type
    B. Acute erythroleukemia
    C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
    D. Acute monocytic leukemia
A

C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

42
Q
  1. Which type of leukemia is associated with
    the best prognosis for a cure?
    A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia in the
    elderly
    B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in
    children
    C. Acute myelogenous leukemia in
    children
    D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia in
    young adults
A

B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in
children

43
Q
  1. What is the key diagnostic test for
    Hodgkin lymphoma?
    A. Bone marrow biopsy
    B. Lymph node biopsy
    C. Spinal tap
    D. Skin biopsy
A

B. Lymph node biopsy

44
Q
  1. A bone marrow with 90% cellularity and
    myeloid:erythroid (M:E) ratio of 10:1 is
    most characteristic of
    A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
    B. Primary polycythemia
    C. Beta-thalassemia major
    D. Aplastic anemia
A

A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

45
Q
  1. A 60-year-old patient presents with
    extreme fatigue. Her blood and bone
    marrow findings are as follows: severe
    anemia with a dual RBC population, 3%
    marrow blasts, and numerous ringed
    sideroblasts. This information is most
    consistent with
    A. Refractory anemia (RA)
    B. Refractory anemia with ringed
    sideroblasts (RARS)
    C. Refractory anemia with excess blasts
    (RAEB)
    D. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia
    (CMML)
A

B. Refractory anemia with ringed
sideroblasts (RARS)

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a
    mechanism by which neutropenia
    may be produced?
    A. Hypersplenism
    B. Marrow injury or replacement
    C. Recent strenuous exercise
    D. Drug-induced antibodies
A

C. Recent strenuous exercise

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic finding in polycythemia vera?
    A. Blood pancytosis
    B. Increased red cell mass
    C. Increased erythropoietin level
    D. Increased blood viscosity
A

C. Increased erythropoietin level

48
Q
  1. In what disorder is significant basophilia
    most commonly seen?
    A. Hairy cell leukemia
    B. Plasma cell leukemia
    C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
    D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
A

D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

49
Q
  1. Acute erythroleukemia (FAB type M6) is
    characterized by increased
    A. Promyelocytes and lysozyme activity
    B. Marrow megakaryocytes and
    thrombocytosis
    C. Marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells
    D. Marrow monoblasts and immature
    monocytes
A

C. Marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells

50
Q
  1. The blood findings present in Color Plate
    20 * are from a patient with complaints of
    fatigue and severe lower back pain. Which
    of the following would not be typical of
    this disease?
    A. Bone tumors of plasma cells
    B. Hypercalcemia
    C. Progressive renal impairment
    D. Normal sedimentation rate
A

D. Normal sedimentation rate

51
Q
  1. Myeloid metaplasia refers to
    A. Displacement of normal marrow cells
    by fibrous tissue
    B. Hematopoietic failure
    C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
    D. Tumors (neoplasms) of the bone marrow
A

C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

52
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about
    non-Hodgkin types of lymphoma is true?
    A. Lymphadenopathy is the most
    common presenting symptom.
    B. Initially, they present as a systemic
    disease rather than a localized tumor.
    C. They are often associated with
    multiple bone lesions.
    D. They are characterized by proliferation
    of malignant cells primarily involving
    the bone marrow
A

A. Lymphadenopathy is the most
common presenting symptom.

EEEEEEE (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions