Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gynecology > Gynecology > Flashcards

Gynecology Flashcards

0
Q

Regulation by gonadal sex of the differentiation of the genital apparatus

A

Phenotypic or genital sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Established by genetic inheritance at the moment of fertilization

A

Chromosomal sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Establishment of gender role, role gender identity or sexual orientation

A

Psychological sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Single most consistent determinant of maleness

A

Presence of y chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Responsible for sex determination

A

SRY gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

One of the 2 copies of x chromosome present in females is inactivated

A

Lyon hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tests to determine genetic sex

A

Sex chromatin test, hair root test, karyotyping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cells that secrete anti mullerian hormone

A

Sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enlarges to become testis

A

Embryonic medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Proliferates to become the ovaries

A

Embryonic cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mesonephric dcg

A

Wolffian ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Paramesonephric ducts

A

Mullerian ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Responsible for differentiation of wolffian ducts

A

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Induces dissolution of mullerian ducts

A

MIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Forms the testis

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Forms the ovaries

A

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dubbed as gay gene

A

Xq28 of X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Part of brain larger in homosexual males

A

Suprachiasmatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

47 xxy

A

Klinefelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common gynecologic problem in the prepubertal female

A

Vulvovaginitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Translucent vertical line at the midline

A

Adhesive vulvitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Management for adhesive vulvitis

A

Topical estrogen cream, BID for 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Figure of 8 or hour glass; parchment like appearance of skin

A

Lichen sclerosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mgmt for lichen sclerosus

A

Sitz bath, avoid trauma; CLOBETASOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Precocious puberty is defined by the onset of secondary sexual characteristics at what age

A

Before 8 in girls and 9 in boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Managment for incomplete isosexual precocious puberty

A

Conservative management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Premature thelarche is associated with

A

Extremely low birthweights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pseudo precocious puberty is due to

A

Granulosa cell tumor, mc cune albright syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tx for idiopathic precocious puberty

A

GnRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Management for McCune albright syndrome

A

Aromatase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3ps of mc cune albright

A

Precious puberty, pigmentation, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (due to somatic mutation of neural crest cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Most useful diagnostic tool for premenstrual syndrome

A

Symtpom diary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the indications for endometrial biopsy for AUB

A

> 35yrs old, obesity, HPN, DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ovulatory DUB is due to what

A

Prostaglandin and fibrinolytic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Medical managment for DUB

A

CEE 10mg/day in 4 divided doses;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tx of choice for anovulatory DUB

A

Progestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Androgenic steroid used for DUB

A

Danazol 200-400mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Inhibits ovarian steroid production

A

Leuprolide- GnRH agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Definitive management for DUB

A

Hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Primary dysmenorrhea is due to increased levels of

A

Protaglandin F2a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

First line for primary dysme

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Isolated gonadotropin deficiency associated with anosmia

A

Kallman syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Management for Turner syndrome

A

Estrogen therapy; cyclic progesterone- endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Failure of ovaries to respond to FSH and LH secondary to receptor defect

A

Savage syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cessation of ovarian function in patients <40 yo

A

Premature ovarian failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Management for mayer rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome

A

Neovagina creation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Management for androgen insensitivity

A

Gonad removal at 18yo; neovagina creation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Incision for imperforate hymen

A

Cruciate incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hematocolpos

A

Transvaginal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hirsutism, amenorhea, obesity

A

Stein leventhal syndrome (PCOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pituitary cell destruction as a result of a hypotensive episode during pregnancy

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pituitary cell destruction unrelated to pregnancy

A

Simmond’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Management for premature ovarian failure

A

Irradiation, chemotherapy, autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Intrauterine adhesions due to curettage

A

Asherman syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Anovulation can be caused by

A

Hypothyroidism and prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Menopause characterisitcs

A

51 yo; 12 mos after last; 3 mos with elevated FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Menopause is earlier by how many yrs in smokers

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Coverts androstenedione to estrone

A

Aromatas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pathognomonic sign of menopause

A

Hot flushes/ flashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mgmt for hot flushes

A

Estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Most accurate method to measure bone density

A

Dual energy xray DEXA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Risks regarding ERT

A

Heart, breast, stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Duration of ERT

A

6-12 mos, not >4 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Prevents endometrial hyperplasia

A

Progrsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Selective receptor modulator

A

Raloxifene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Herniation of the Pouch of Douglas

A

Enterovele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Grade: cervix descends halfway to the introitus

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Grade: cervix descends to the introitus

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Grade: cervix extends outside introitus

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Grade: providential

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pelvic strengthening exercise:

A

Keel’s maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Endopelvic fascial reinforcement

A

Kelly placation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Obliteretion of vaginal canal

A

Colpocleisis/ effort procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Urethrovesicular suspension via abdominal apporach

A

Burch/ marshallarchetti krantz procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Elevation of bladder neck and urethra via vaginal and abdominal approaches

A

Sling procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Mgmt for rectocele

A

Posterior repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Mgmt enterocele

A

Moschvitz repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Mgmt for PCOS

A

OCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mgmt for late onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Glucocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Management for hair follicle and androgen sensitivity

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Double cervix, double vagina

A

Bicollis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Mucous retention cyst of endocervical columnar cells occuring when a cleft has been covered by squamous metaplasia

A

Nabothian cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Most common cervical cyst

A

Nanothiam cust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Cervical polyp

A

Most common lesion of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

HPV types related with cervical CA

A

16,18,31,33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Mainstay tx for menopause

A

Estrogen replacement therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Example of a selective receptor modulator

A

Raloxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Pelvic strengthening exercise

A

Keel’s maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Drugs for ovulation induction

A

Clomiphene citrate, metformin, hMG, GnRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

75% of ovarian masses in women

A

Functional cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Most common cause of complex adnexal mass

A

Benign cystic teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Most common cause of a pelvic mass

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

HONEYCOMB, straw colored fluid, multicystic, bilateral

A

Theca lutein cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Functional cysts include

A

Follicular, corpus luteum, theca lutein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Rpt ultrasound for follicular cyst and corpus luteum cyst are done when?

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Management for premenaechal cyst >2cm

A

Ex lap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Most frequent ovarian epithelial tumor

A

Serous cystadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Resembles cells of endocervix or intestinal epithelium

A

Mucinous cystadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Transitional tumor: coffee bean appearing nucleus

A

Brenner tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Most common neoplasm in prupubertal female

A

Benign cystic teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Most common benign solid tumor of the ovary

A

Fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Ovarian fibroma, ascites, hydothorax

A

Meig’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Most common cause of gynecological cancer death

A

Malignant ovarian tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Gene associated with increased risk for ovarian CA

A

BRCA 1 gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Most common ovarian carcinoma

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Most frequent ovarian eptihelial tumor

A

Serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Epithelial cells filled with mucin

A

Mucinous tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Hobnail cells

A

Clear cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Resembles transitional cells of urinary bladder

A

Brenner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Epithelial cells resembling endometrium

A

Endometrioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

75% of patients with epithelial ovarian tumors present at what stage

A

III or stage IV

111
Q

Phase 1 of epithelial CA managment

A

Debulking

112
Q

Phase of 2 epithelial cancer management

A

Post op chemotherapy: carboplatin and taxol

113
Q

Follow up for CA 125

A

Q 3mos for 2 yrs then q6mos for the next 2 yrs

114
Q

Management for stage1a ovarian epithelial CA in young women who desire fertility

A

Unilateral salpingooophorecrony

115
Q

Most germ cell tumors are? Benign/malignant

A

Benign

116
Q

Most malignant germ cell tumors are what type?

A

Dysgerminoma

117
Q

Most frequent germ cell tumor overall

A

Dermoid cyst

118
Q

Most common ovarian neoplasm in women <30 yo

A

Germ cell tumor

119
Q

Analogous to seminoma of testes

A

Dysgerminoma

120
Q

Numerous hyaline droplets in yolk sac tumors

A

Schiller duval

121
Q

Schiller duval bodies

A

Yolk sac tumor

122
Q

Hemorrhagic highly malignant cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

A

Choriocarcinoma

123
Q

Mgmt for germ cell tumor

A

Benign- ovarian cystectony; malgnant- unilateral salpingo- oophorectony; post child bearing- TAHBSO

124
Q

Sex cord stromal tumors

A

Granulosa theca cell and sertoli leydig cell

125
Q

Resembles fetal testes

A

Sertoli leydig cell tumor

126
Q

Coffee bean nuclei; call exner bodies

A

Granulosa cell tumor

127
Q

Mgmnt fo sex cord stromal tumors

A

Young: unilateral salpingooophorectony; post menopausal: TAHBSO

128
Q

Nipple projections in dermoid

A

Tubercle of rokitansky

129
Q

Tumor marker for dysgerminoma

A

LDH

130
Q

Tumor marker for endodermwl sinus tumor

A

Yolk sac tumors- AFP

131
Q

Tumor marker for choriocarcinoma

A

HCG

132
Q

Tummor marker for immature teratoma

A

AFP

133
Q

Mgmt for labial fusion

A

Cortisol+ surgery

134
Q

Mgmt for imperforate hymen

A

Cruciate incision

135
Q

Dx of transverse vaginal septum

A

Ultrasound and MRI

136
Q

Failure of urogenital sinus to contribute to the lower portion of the vagina leads to

A

Vaginal atresia

137
Q

Mgmt for vaginal atresia

A

Vaginal pull through

138
Q

Absence of vagina, hypoplasia of cervix, uterus and fallopian tubes

A

Mayer rokitansky kuster hauser

139
Q

Mgmt for vaginal agenesis

A

Mc indole procedure; Serial vaginal dilators;

140
Q

Mgmt for lichen simplex chronicus

A

Medium potency topical steroids BID 4-6X / week

141
Q

Pruritic, polygonal, papules in external genitalia

A

Lichen planus

142
Q

Mgmt for lichen planus

A

Vaginal hydrocortisone suppositories; adhesions/ surgical excision or vaginal dilators; postmenopausal atrophy: vaginal estrogen

143
Q

Palpable red glandular spots and patches in the upper 1/3 of the vagina on the anterior wall

A

Vaginal adenosis

144
Q

Vaginal adenosis is due to exposure to what

A

DES

145
Q

Most common tumor in the vulva

A

Epidermal inclusion cyst

146
Q

Occlusion of pilosebaceous duct

A

Epidermal inclusion cyst

147
Q

Mgmt for epidermal inclusion cyst

A

Incision and drainage; complete excision

148
Q

Tumor formed due to accumulation within the cyst

A

Sebaceous cyt

149
Q

Mgmt for sebaceous cyst

A

Incision and drainage

150
Q

Microcystic disease

A

Fox Fordyce disease

151
Q

Due to occlusion of apocrine glands in the mons pubis and labia minora

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

152
Q

Mgmt for hidradenitis supparativa

A

Wide local excision, incision and drainage, antibiotics

153
Q

Chronic inflammation of the paraurethral gland causing obstruction of the duct

A

Skene’s gland cyst

154
Q

Mgmt for bartholin’s gland duct cyst and abscess

A

Biopsy in>40 yo; no tx for 1-2 cm; sitz bath, word catheter placement ;4-6 weeks; masupialization, antibiotics for N gonorrhoeae

155
Q

Also called dysontogenic cyst

A

Gartner’s duct cyst

156
Q

Remnants of the mesonephric ducts of the wolffian system

A

Gartner’s duct cyst

157
Q

Mgmt for gartner’s duct cyst

A

Excision, IVP and cystoscopy; vasopressin

158
Q

Most common benign solid tumor of the vulva

A

Fibroma

159
Q

Small fleshy outgrowth in the distal edge of urethral meatus

A

Urethral caruncle and prolapse

160
Q

Mgmt of urethral caruncle:

A

Biopsy; oral topical estrogen; avoid irritation

161
Q

Mass of anterior vaginal wall from the posterior urethra

A

Urethral diverticulum

162
Q

Dysuria, dyspareunia, dribbling of urine

A

Urethral diverticulun

163
Q

Mgmt for urethral diverticulum

A

Voiding cystourehtrograpjy; cystourethroscopy

164
Q

Mgmt for squamous cell hyperplasia

A

Medium potency topical steroid BID 4-6 weeks

165
Q

Risk factor for Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

A

HPV infectiom 16 and 18

166
Q

Mgmt for VIN

A

Vulvectomy, vulvar skinning; vaporization by laser

167
Q

Mgmt for vulvar carcinoma

A

Stage I-III: wide radical vulvar excision and bilateral inguinal femoral node dissection

168
Q

Gold standard for determining sex

A

Karyotyping

168
Q

When do the testes descend through the inguinal ring?

A

7-9th mo

168
Q

The internal genitalia come from w/c structures

A

Wolffian and mullerian ducts

169
Q

Analagen of external genitalia include

A

Genital swelling/ labioscrotal swellig; urogenital sinus; genital tubercle; genital or urethral folds

170
Q

Results when phenotype and geotype do match

A

Pseudohermaphrodites

171
Q

Grayish-white discharge 6-12 mos before menarche due to desquamation of vaginal epithelium

A

Physiologic discharge of puberty

172
Q

Most common foreign body seen

A

Tissue paper

173
Q

Most common cause of accidental genital trauma

A

Straddle injury(most common)

174
Q

Management of genital warts in children

A

Laser therapy under inhalation anesthesia

175
Q

Most common cause of peripheral precocious puberty

A

Granulosa cell tumor

176
Q

Used to differentiate bn central and peripheral precocious puberty

A

GnRH stimulation test

177
Q

Management for McCune Albright syndrome

A

Aromatase inhibitor

178
Q

Management for idiopathic pecious puberty

A

GnRH

179
Q

Management for premenstrual syndrome

A

Spironolactone, bromocriptine, SSRI, TAHBSO

180
Q

Norma freq, duration and volume of menstrual cycle

A

21-35 days, 4-7 days, 30-80 ml

181
Q

Excessive or prolonged menstruation

A

Menorrhagja

182
Q

Scanty menstruation; very light flow

A

Hypomenorrhea

183
Q

Menstruation occuring every >35 days

A

Oligomenorrhea

184
Q

Bleeding bn normal menses

A

Metrorrhagia

185
Q

Excessive or prolonged bleeding

A

Menometorrhagja

186
Q

2 types of DUB

A

Ovulatory and anovulatory

187
Q

Definitive management for DUB

A

Hysterectomy

188
Q

Tx of choice for anovulatory DUB

A

Progestins

189
Q

Indicated for DUB cases with acute bleeding who do not respond to Iv estrogen or women with significant hypovolemia

A

D and C

190
Q

25% of women with breasts and uterus have

A

Prolactinomas or hyperprolactinemia

191
Q

Initial hormonal changes signaling onset of menopause

A

Decrease inhibin and fah

192
Q

Marker of production of ovary

A

Testoserone

193
Q

Marker of production of adrenal gland

A

DHEAS

194
Q

Marker of production of peripheral conversion

A

3a diol G

195
Q

Elevated in androgen producing tumors

A

DHEAS

196
Q

Elevated in late onset CAH

A

17-OHP

197
Q

Elevated in cushing’s disease

A

Glucocoricoid and androgen

198
Q

Usual fecundability rate

A

20%

199
Q

Direct injection of a single sperm into an oocyte

A

Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

200
Q

Sperm is added to oocytes in culture medium

A

In vitro fertilization

201
Q

Most common presenting symptomnof vaginitis

A

Vaginal discharge

202
Q

Fishy odor

A

Bacterial vaginosis

203
Q

Clue cells

A

Bacterial vaginosis

204
Q

Mgmt for vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

205
Q

Mgmt fir candiasis

A

Fluconazole

206
Q

Mgmt for trichomoniasis

A

Metronidazole

207
Q

Management for enterobiasis

A

Pyrantel pamoate

208
Q

Microscopy of enterobiasis

A

D shaped eggs

209
Q

Microscopy for trichomonas

A

Trichimonads

210
Q

Strawberry cervix

A

Trichomoniasis

211
Q

Most common cause of PID

A

Gonorrhea

212
Q

Severe cervical motion tenderness

A

Chandelier sign

213
Q

Management for tubo ovarian abscess

A

Clindamycin and gentamycin

214
Q

Gram negative diplococci and numerous WBC

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

215
Q

definitive diagnosis for PID

A

Endometrial biopsy, TVS/ MRI,laparoscopic

216
Q

TVS or MRI showing thickened, fluid filled tubes, with or without free pelvic fluid or tubo ovarian complex

A

Acute PID

217
Q

Management for cervical stenosis

A

Gentle dilatation

218
Q

Examples of ablative therapy for CIN II-III

A

Cryotherapy, CO2 laser ablation, Loop electrosurgical excision, Cold knife conization

219
Q

HPV 6,11 causes what

A

Genital warts

220
Q

Most common cervical CA tumor type

A

Squamous

221
Q

Most common symptom of cervical CA

A

Vaginal bleeding

222
Q

Stage of cervical CA confined to cervix

A

I

223
Q

Stage of cervical CA invading the uteus

A

II

224
Q

Stage if cervical CA extending to the pelvic wall

A

III

225
Q

Stage of cervical CA that extends beyond the true pelvics

A

IV

226
Q

Management for stage IA and IIA

A

Extrafascial hysterectomy

227
Q

Management for highly advanced cervical CA

A

Chemoradiatiob

228
Q

Most common cause of death of cervical CA

A

Uremia

229
Q

Most common Mullerian anomaly

A

Category V. Septate uterus

230
Q

Most common type of myoma

A

Intramural

231
Q

Myoma associated with prolonged bleeding

A

Submucosal

232
Q

Most common symptom of myoma

A

AUB

233
Q

Most common symptom of endometrial polyp

A

Metorrhagia

234
Q

Presence and growth of glands and stroma of the lining of the uterusnin aberrant location

A

Endometriosis

235
Q

Theories in endometriosis

A

Metastatic theory(retrograde menstruation- most wideley accepted); metaplastic theory

236
Q

Adenomyosis is growth of endometrial glands and stroma where

A

Uterine myometrium with a depth of at least 2.5

237
Q

Most common site for adenomyosis

A

Ovaries

238
Q

Chocolate cysts or powder burn lesions in the pelvis

A

Adenomyosis

239
Q

3 cardinal features of adenonyosis

A

Gland, stroma, hemorrhage

240
Q

Mid 30s, nulliparous, infertile, secondary dysme,pelvic pain

A

Adenomyosis

241
Q

Classic symtpom of adenomyosis

A

Dysmenorrhea and menorrhagis

242
Q

Laparosxopy

A

Diagnosis of endometriosis is via

243
Q

Most common sx of endrometrial hyperplasia

A

Bleeding (long periods of oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea followed by irregular excessive uterine bleeding)

244
Q

Most important determinant of pre malginant potential(endometrial hyperplasia)

A

Cytologic atypia

245
Q

Most common cause of post menopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial atrophy

246
Q

Most common gynecologic malignancy

A

Endometrial cancer

247
Q

Most common site of mets in endometrial cancer

A

Lungs

248
Q

Most common subtype of endometrial CA

A

Endometrioid

249
Q

basic tx for endometrial CA

A

Tahbso, node sampling, peritoneal washing

250
Q

Most common cause of simple cystic adnexal mass in reproductive years

A

Functional cyst

251
Q

Most common cause of complex adnexal mass

A

Benign cystic teratoma

252
Q

Persistence of dominant follicle

A

Follicular cyst

253
Q

Arise from prolonged or excessive stimulation by endo/exogenous gonadotrophins

A

Theca lutein cysts

254
Q

Management for adnexal mass during reproductive years

A

8cm ex lap

255
Q

Typical size of malignant pelvic masses

A

> 8cm

256
Q

Ovarian CA types

A

EGS(epithelial, germ cell, stromal)

257
Q

Epithelial ovarian tumors that resemble fallopian tubes

A

Serous tumors

258
Q

Epithelial ovarian tumor that resembles cells of the GIT

A

Mucinous

259
Q

Hobnail cells are found in

A

Clear cell CA

260
Q

Analogous to seminoma of the testes

A

Dysgerminoma

261
Q

Schiller Duval bodies are found in

A

Yolk sac tumors

262
Q

Malignant germ cell tumors:

A

Dysgerminoma, endodermal sinus/yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, immature teratoma

263
Q

Sex cord stromal tumors include

A

Granulosa theca cell and sertoli leydig cell tumors

264
Q

Failure of mullerian tubercle to canalize

A

Transverse vaginal septum

265
Q

Failure of the urogenital sins to contribute to lower portion of vagina

A

Agenesis of lower vagina

266
Q

Liquefaction degeneration at the basal layer; well defined band like infiltrate below the basal layer

A

Lichen planus

267
Q

Related to exposure to DES in utero

A

Vaginal adenosis

268
Q

Most common symptom of vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Itching

269
Q

Risk factor for VIN

A

HPV 16 and 18

270
Q

Most common sx of vulvar CA

A

Itching

271
Q

Most common type of vulvar CA

A

Squamous

272
Q

Mngmt for stage I to stage III Vulvar Ca

A

Wide radical vulvar excision and bilateral inguinal femoral node dissedtion

Gynecology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions