Gynecology Flashcards
Which of the following syndromes is not the cause of secondary amenorrhea?
-Asherman ́s syndrome
-Stein-Levental ́ s syndrome
-Sheehan ́ s syndrome Mayer-Rokitansky
-Kustner-Hauser yndrome
Mayer-Rokitansky-Kustner-Hauser yndrome
By the bimanual examination we do not palpate:
cervix
uterus
Fallopian ubes
ovary
Fallopian ubes
Hysteroscopy complications: choose the incorrect answer
-Hysteroscopy is a non-invasive method that has not definied complications
-Bleeding, perforation,of the uterus and injury of surrounding organs are common complications of hystero
-Intrauterine adhesions are indication for hysteroscopy, but pre procedure could also cause them
-Fluid overload syndrome causing dilute hyponatremia is common complication of hysteroscopy
Hysteroscopy is a non-invasive method that has not definied complications
I n primary sterility is recommended to perform:
RCUI
LSC and HSC
HSC
ovarian drilling
ovarian drilling
Breast cancer risk factors: choose the incorrect statement:
-Breast cancer is characterized by a significant burden of a positive family history, especially in first-degree relatives
-BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 are the only genes dextected so far whose mutation leads to breast cancer
-HER2 activation is a better prognostic marker in breast cancer
-Women with a long reproductive period and thus estrogen production are at increased risk of developing breast cancer
BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 are the only genes dextected so far whose mutation leads to breast cancer
The breast cancer screening program includes:
Mammography
Ultrasound
Breast self-examination
There is no defined screening program for breast cancer
Mammography
The method of choice in the treatment of the first stage of stress incontinence:
-The method of choice is estrogens hormone replacement therapy
-Stage I of stress incontinence is always indicated for surgery
-The exercises and rehabilitation of pelvic floor muscels are used in the treatment of stress incontinence
-Stress incontinence does not require further treatment
The exercises and rehabilitation of pelvic floor muscels are used in the treatment of stress incontinence
The basic diagnostic imaging method in gynecology is:
elastography
PET CT
MRI
USG
USG
What is the most likely diagnosis in a 60-year-old patient with postmenopausal hemorrhage, type II DM and m…
-Endometrial cancer
-Physiological postmenopausal changes of the endometrium
-Cervical cancer
-Metastasis in the uterus
Endometrial cancer
Anovulation: incorrect statement
-Hypergonadotropic anovulation is
associated with high gonadotropin concentrations and low estradiol con
-In hypogonadrotropic anovulation, the progesterone test is positive
-Clinically, hyperprolactinemia is manifested by suppression of gonadal function and stimulation of the ma
-The most common type of anovulation is normogonadotropic anovulation that represends polycystic ovary
In hypogonadrotropic anovulation, the progesterone test is positive
Individual ovarian reserve can be established:
by examination of AMH II. phase of MC
by examination of progesterone in the first phase MC
in the 28 - day MC AMC examination at day 14
by examination of AMH any day during MC
by examination of AMH any day during MC
Choose the correct claim for gynecological examination:
-children are investigated only vaginally
-consists of aspection, auscultation and examination in the mirror
-digital examination always precedes scanning in mirrors
-examination in mirrors shall be preceded by a manual examination
examination in mirrors shall be preceded by a manual examination
An indication of the LSC and HSC examination is:
ectopic pregnancy
malformations of the uterus
intramural myoma
endometrial polyps
malformations of the
uterus
Contraindications to hysteroscopy do not include:
Cervical cancer
Pregnancy
Endocervical polyp
Profuse uterine bleeding
Endocervical polyp
Mastitis puerperalis: choose the correct answer:
-It is an inflammatory disease caused by a streptococcal infection
-In case of abscess, surgical treatment-incision, evacuation, drainage is necessary
-Breast-feeding is a contraindication to antibiotic therapy
-Antibiotic therapy is a contraindication to breast-feeding
In case of abscess, surgical treatment-incision, evacuation, drainage is necessary
Colposcopy:
is included in screening program for cervical cancer
is not useful for the examination of the vagina
is miniinvasive diagnostic method for cervical lesions
basic dividing defines native and advanced colposcopy
is miniinvasive diagnostic method for cervical lesions
In postmenopausal metrorrhagia, the imaging method of choice is:
MRI
Transabdominal ultrasound
CT
Transvaginal ultrasound
Transvaginal ultrasound
Gynecological examination: choose the incorrect answer:
-During the bimanual palpation examination palpable organs are the cervix, the uterus, the adnexes
-Breast examination is not part of the gynecological examination
-Bimanual palpation examination is the first, examination per speculam is afterwards -During bimanual palpation examination we can only examine the cervix and the uterus
During bimanual palpation examination we can only examine the cervix and the uterus
Treatmnet of Bartholin cyst is performed by:
incision, drainage
ventrosuspension
morselation
extirpation
incision, drainage
Oncological diseases with a conceived screening program are:
-breast cancer, cervical carcinoma
-breast cancer, ovarian carcinoma
- cervical carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma
- ovarian carcinoma, breast cancer, cervical carcinoma
breast cancer, cervical carcinoma
For POP - Q, point 0 (zero) is:
the hymen
the outer urethral orifice perineum
vesico - urethral junction
the hymen
The discriminant value between the follicle and the cyst in USG findings on the ovary is:
3 cm
1 cm
7 cm
10 cm
3cm
Assisted hatching:
-is an iatrogenic interruption of the zona pellucida in order to facilitate embryo nidation
-is performed especially in young women
-is performed in young men
-all answers are correct
is an iatrogenic interruption of the zona pellucida in order to facilitate embryo nidation
Menstrual cycle: choose the correct answer:
-The luteal phase lasts 14 days, the duration varies
-The follicular phase lasts 12-15 days, the duration is constant
-In normal cycle the ovulation is considered as the 1st day of MC
-Early rise of the FSH is the first hormonal marker as the onset of new menstrual cycle
Early rise of the FSH is the first hormonal marker as the onset of new menstrual cycle
What types of gynecological mirrors do we know?
Breus, Trelat, Shute, Simpson Simon, Simpson
Simon, Scherbac
Simon, Trelat, Scherbac
Simon, Trelat, Scherbac
For the diagnosis of breast cancer is standardly used:
mutations BRCA1 a BRCA2
CA 125
CA 19-9
core cut biopsy, fine needle aspiration
Core cut biopsy, fine needle aspiration
In sacrocolpopexy, the fixation material is fixed to:
ligamentum longitudinale anterior
lig. sacrouterinum
lig. longitudinale transversum
to the promontorium S3 - S4
to the promontorium S3 - S4
Aspermia is:
Inability to ejaculate
Reduced sperm motility
Absence of sperm in the ejaculate
Low ejaculate volume <2 ml
Inability to ejaculate
Polymenorrhea:
-we define it as part of menstruation, which occurs during prolonged menstrual cycle
-we define it as a rare menstruation that occurs during prolonged menstrual cycle that lasts more than 35 days
-we define it as part of menstruation, which occurs in a shortened menstrual cycle, which
lasts less than 23 days
-is a bleeding disorder in maintaining a regular menstrual cycle
we define it as part of menstruation, which occurs in a shortened menstrual cycle, which
lasts less than 23 days
To the benefits of laparoscopy does not belong:
reduce the number of complications in the wound and better cosmetic effect
a better view of the surgical field
the operation can be performed under local anesthesia
less postoperative pain
the operation can be performed under local anesthesia
Cervical conization:
It prevents further pregnancy
Allows histological examination
It is a method of treatment cervical elongation It only has a cosmetic effect
Allows histological examination
Mammography:
reduces female patient’s ovarian reserve
is screened from 35 years of age
suspected ultrasound finding is indicative of mammography
in cumulative form does not have a significant radial burden for the patient
suspected ultrasound finding is indicative of mammography
The internal genital ligaments are:
urachus
lig. inguinale
lig. longitudinale anterior
lig. sacrouterinum
lig. sacrouterinum
Primary treatment for cervical cancer - surgery is indicated in stage:
3a
2b
3b
2a
2a
Folliculogenesis: choose the correct answer:
-Tekal cells synthesize androgens in response to FSH stimulation
-Granulosa cells respond to LH, their main role is the aromatization of androgens to estrogens
-After ovulation and the formation of a corpus luteum, granulosa and tecal cells vanish
-Granulosa and tecal cells produce progesterone in the luteal phase of the cycle when the corpus luteum is formed
Granulosa and tecal cells produce progesterone in the luteal phase of the cycle
when the corpus luteum is formed
Which of the following types of gynecological speculas do we use in colposcopy?
Cusco
Sims
Scherback
Kristeller
Cusco
Hysteroscopy: choose the incorrect answer:
It is necessary to use a distance medium during the procedure
Allows you to perform a targeted biopsy
It is a non-invasive endoscopic method of the uterine cavity
It is a diagnostic and a therapeutic method at the same time
It is a non-invasive endoscopic method of the uterine cavity
Uterine fibroids with a 6 cm diameter is indication for:
hysteroscopy
laparoscopic myomectomy followed by morselation of myoma
a partial resection
always laparotomy enucleation
laparoscopic myomectomy followed by morselation of myoma
Choose the correct statement about the general characteristics about breast cancer:
-90% of malignant diseases originate from the epithelium of the lobes
-The lower outer quadrant is the site of more than half of the cases
-The upper outer quadrant is the site of more than half of the cases
-It occurs equally in both breasts
The upper outer quadrant is the site of more than half of the cases
Colposcopy:
-is not useful for the examination of the vagina
-is miniinvasive diagnostic method for cervical lesions
-basic dividing defines native and advanced colposcopy
-is included in screening program for cervical cancer
is miniinvasive diagnostic method for cervical lesions
The surgical treatment of pelvic floor defect -middle compartment does not include:
-Colpofixatio sec.Amreich-Richter II
-Vaginal hysterectomy
-Colporrhaphia anterior
-Sacrohysteropexy and sacrocolpopexy
Vaginal hysterectomy
What is the best practice for the infertility treatment in 32-years-old woman with laparoscopically confirmed endometriosis, patent fallopian tubes, normal partner sperm parameters and 4 years history of infertility?
-6-months contraception treatment, followed by 3-month of spontaneous effort of conception, and then in case of failure to achieve pregnancy in vitro fertilization
-6-months gonadoliberin analogs treatment, then ovulation induction with clomifene citrate during 3-months, and in case of failure then Intrauterine Insemination
-2-3 cycles of intrauterine insemination after stimulation with gonadotropins
eventually clomifene citrate, and then in case of failure to achieve pregnancy in vitro fertilization
-6-months progestogens treatment 20 days during each cycle, followed by 3-month of spontaneous effort of conception, and then in case of failure to achieve pregnancy ovulation induction with clomifene citrate
2-3 cycles of intrauterine insemination after stimulation with gonadotropins
eventually clomifene citrate, and then in case of failure to achieve pregnancy in
vitro fertilization
Veress needle is used for:
-aplication of contrast medium into the uterine cavity at laparoscopy -morselation of uterine node
-the establishment of capnoperitoneum
-dilatation of the cervical canal during hysteroscopy
the establishment of capnoperitoneum
Primary treatment for the breast cancer includes: radiotherapy
chemotherapy brachytherapy
surgical treatment
surgical treatment
The pathological colposcopic findings include:
-ectopium, origin epithelium, squamous metaplasia
-mosaic image, punctuation, origin epithelium
-punctuation, white epithelium, mosaic image -white epithelium, ectropium, ectropium
punctuation, white epithelium, mosaic image
CT in gynecology is used to:
cancer staging
pregnancy date
detection of IUGR
determine the sex of the fetus
cancer staging
Menstrual cycle: choose the correct answer:
-Early rise of the FSH is the first hormonal marker as the onset of new menstrual cycle
-In normal cycle the ovulation is considered as the 1st day of MC
-The follicular phase lasts 12-15 days, the duration is constant
-The luteal phase lasts 14 days, the duration varies
Early rise of the FSH is the first hormonal marker as the onset of new menstrual cycle SPRAWDZONE
The internal genital ligaments are:
lig. sacrouterinum
lig. longitudinale anterior
lig. inguinale
urachus
g. sacrouterinum
The most common symptom of endometrial carcinoma is:
hematochesis
bleeding
pruritus of the vagina
dyspareunia
bleeding
Polycystic ovarian syndrome is not associated with:
Cervical dysplasia
Sterility
Anovulation cycle
Impaired glucose metabolism
Cervical dysplasia
What is true about CA 125 and ovarian cancer?
in case of the ovarian cancer the elevation is always seen
separate elevation of CA 125 is for the diagnosis of ovarian cancer sufficient
the elevation of CA 125 is not in non-oncological patients seen
the level of CA 125 is useful mainly for the determination of the answer to the
treatment
the level of CA 125 is useful mainly for the determination of the answer to the
treatment
Gynecological oncology screening and prevention: choose the incorrect statement:
-In Slovakia we have a screening program for the breast cancer, cervical cancer and endometrial cancer
-Methods for the primary prevention of cervical cancer include vaccination against HPV
-It is a systematic search for disease in asymptomatic individuals, which allows early detection of the disease
-Screening cytological sampling of the uterine cervix is one of the methods of secondary prevention
In Slovakia we have a screening program for the breast cancer, cervical cancer and endometrial cancer
The surgical treatment of pelvic floor defect -middle compartment does not include: Colporrhaphia anterior
Colpofixatio sec.Amreich-Richter II
Vaginal hysterectomy
Sacrohysteropexy and sacrocolpopexy
Vaginal hysterectomy
The VEX conditions Include:
a. exclusion of cephalspelvic disproportion, fully dilated cervix, amniotic fluid
drained, live fetus
b. exclusion of cephalopelvic disproportion, cervix dilated to at least 7em, amniotic fluid drained, live fetus
c. exclusion of cephalopelvic disproportion, fully dilated cervix, non-drained amniotic fluid, live fetus
d. exclusion of cephalopelvic disproportion fully dilated cervix, amniotic fluid drained, dead fetus
A. exclusion of cephalspelvic disproportion, fully dilated cervix, amniotic fluid
drained, live fetus
Birth per VEX (ventouse):
a. In contrast to forceps, it is possible to attend even at the first stage of labor
b. Contraindicated in fetal premature <34th gestational w
c. Is not used today
d. There is not a lower risk of iatrogenic injury to the birth canal
b. Contraindicated in fetal premature <34th gestational w
At the forehead deflection position, the leading point is:
a. A small fontanel
b. Bregma
c. Chin
d. Forehead
c. Chin
Characteristics for uterine hypotony are:
a. bleeding very weak
b. strong bleeding and the uterus is soft
c. the uterine fundus behind the long bones and the bleeding is not present
d. the uterine fundus in the navel and uterus region is stiff
b. strong bleeding and the uterus is soft
- contraindications of hormonal contraceptives:
a. cervical carcinoma
b. dysfunctional bleeding
c. age over 35 and nicotinism
d. Hypertension
c. age over 35 and nicotinism
d. Hypertension
Premenstrual spotting:
a. is typical of follicular insufficiency
b. is typical of luteal insufficiency
c. is treated by estrogens in the first half of the menstrual cycle
d. is treated by gestagens in the first half of the menstrual cycle
b. is typical of luteal insufficiency
In the case of spontaneous delivery of a patient after Ceasarian Section:
a. it is not always necessary to manually revise the lower segment of the uterus
b. we do not do induction of contractions
c. spasmolytics are contraindicated
d. we can initiate the induction of 1 IU of Oxytocin
b. we do not do induction of contractions
The most common etiological agent of mastitis is:
a. E. coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Klebsiella sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
HELLP syndrome:
a. in the clinical picture dominates epigastrium pain and tonic-clonic seizures
b. always occurs in severe preeclampsia
c. laboratory findings include haemolysis, elevation of hepatic tests,
thrombocytopenia
d. occurs only before childbirth
c. laboratory findings include haemolysis, elevation of hepatic tests,
thrombocytopenia
Uterine artery is a branch of
a. ovarian artery
b. internal iliac artery
c. no one is correct
d. exteral iliac artery
b. internal iliac artery
Dysfunctional menopause bleeding:
a. FSH concentration is low
b. does not occur
c. treatment is mainly conservative
d. endometrial biopsy is essential
d. endometrial biopsy is essential
Bandel’s ring is typical for:
a. uterine rupture
b. deflection position of the fetus
c. cephalopelvic disproportion
d. the oblique position of the fetus
a. uterine rupture
Juvenile metrorrhagia:
a. can lead to anemia
b. is a dysfunctional bleeding
c. is relatively common in women of childbearing potential
d. it is not hormonal condition
a. can lead to anemia
Select an incorrect claim about HELLP syndrome:
a. We observe schistocytes in the blood
b. Hepatic enzymes are elevated
c. Thrombocytopenia is present
d. We terminate the pregnancy only it the fetus is mature
d. We terminate the pregnancy only it the fetus is mature
Amniotomy can be done if:
a. we feel small fetal amounts above the pelvic entrance
b. the head of the fetus is fixed to the entrance and the cervix is open for 4 cm
c. the head of the fetus is fixed to the entrance and the cervix is open for finger
d. the fetal head balloons and the cervix is open for 4 cm
b. the head of the fetus is fixed to the entrance and the cervix is open for 4 cm
The region of the chin is palpable by a vaginal examination at the position:
a. Is not palpable at deflection positions
b. the frontal
c. face
d. the parietal
c. face
at the military position, the pervading circuit is:
a. submentobregmatic
b. frontoocipital
c. maxilloparietal
d. suboccipitobregmatic
b. frontoocipital
in the diagnosis of dysfunctional bleeding is necessary to exclude:
a. malignant disease
b. all answer corrects
c. endometriosis
d. abortion
b. all answer corrects
in the overactive bladder treatment is used:
a. antidepressants
b. anticholinergics
c. antimuscarinics
d. all answers are correct
d. all answers are correct
Montevideo unit:
Represents the sum of the contraction amplitudes at a 5 minute interval
Represents the sum of the contraction amplitudes at a 10 minute interval
Represents the sum of the contraction amplitudes at a 15 minute interval Represents the sum of contraction amplitudes over the whole IV (?) stage of labor
Represents the sum of the contraction amplitudes at a 10 minute interval
Choose correct option:
The most common benign tumor of the ovary is the my..
Menopause bleeding is physiological
Brenner’s tumor is a tumor of the ovary
Ovarian cancers are relatively common
Brenner’s tumor is a tumor of the ovary
The first symptoms of cervical carcinoma include:
a. Abnormal vaginal discharge with blood
b. Pain in the lower abd
c. Presence of condylomata lata
d. Bleeding from the rectum
. Abnormal vaginal discharge with blood
Choose the incorrect claim about rubella
a. Congenital infection is manifested by barrel incisors, interstitial keratitis, sensoric
deafness
b. Congenital infection manifests as Gregg triad
c. When an infection is detected in the first trimester, pregnancy termination is
recommended
d. In maternal infection fetal anatomical defects are rare at the end of the second
trimester
a. Congenital infection is manifested by barrel incisors, interstitial keratitis, sensoric
deafness
- Chose the correct claim about the uterus duplex:
a. It is not cervical anomaly of the uterus
b. It is a single – skinned congenital uterine defect
c. It is a double-skinned congenital uterine defect
d. It is undeveloped uterus
c. It is a double-skinned congenital uterine defect
Vaginal sweat after 34th gestational w is focused on the presence:
a. Enterococcus fecalis
b. Staphylococcus
c. E-coli
d. GBS
GBS
Tubular ectopic pregnancy is divided into:
a. Isthmic, ampullary and fimbrial
b. Interstitial, isthmic and ampullary
c. Intramural, isthmic and ampullary
d. Isthmic, mesoalpingeal and ampullary
a. Isthmic, ampullary and fimbrial
Late decelerations (DIP Il) occur in
a. umbilical cord compression
b. the fetal head compression
c. uteroplacental flow decrease
d. fetal hiccups
c. uteroplacental flow decrease
Choose the correct claim about puerperium;
a. Lasts from birth 42 days
b. Later puerperium begins later in multiparas
c. Early puerperium lasts from 7th to 42nd day
d. Is shorter in primiparas
a. Lasts from birth 42 days
To the external genital organs include:
a. Labia majora
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Sacrouterine ligaments
d. Ovary
a. Labia majora
The 2nd trimester USG includes:
a. The determination of the date of delivery according to the CRL
b. Morphological examination of the fetus
c. Measurement of the circumference of the head, abdomen, biparietal diameter, length of the femur
d. Umbilical artery flow monitoring
b. Morphological examination of the fetus
In the 3rd trimester USG we monitor:
a. CRL, nuchal translucency, nasal bone, ductus venosus
b. Chorionicity and amniocentesis in multiple pregnancy
c. Fetal biometrics, amniotic fluids index, fetal position, placental localization,
umbilical artery flow rates
d. Fetal morphology
c. Fetal biometrics, amniotic fluids index, fetal position, placental localization,
umbilical artery flow rates
Uterine atony – choose the correct claim
a. Bleeding is weak
b. Uterotonics must be applied
c. Uterine fundus is behind the symphysis of the pubis, the bleeding is not present
d. The uterus is solid and the uterine fundus is below the umbilicus
b. Uterotonics must be applied
The beudelocquea-Schultz mechanism is:
a. Placenta is born by its fetal part
b. Placenta is born by its maternal part
c. Retroplacental hematoma flows freely through the vagina
d. Placenta separates from the periphery through the central part to the opposite
side
a. Placenta is born by its fetal part
What are the current lower boundary parameters of sperm count by WHO in 2010?
A. 2ml ejaculate, 20 mil / ml sperm, 60% total sperm motility, 8% morphologically normal sperm
B. 2 mi ejaculate, 10 mil / mi sperm, 30% total sperm motility, 5% morphologicalty normal sperm
C. 1.5 ml ejaculate. 15 mil / ml sperm, 50% total sperm motility, 10% morphologically normal sperm
D. 1.5 ml ejaculate, 15 mil / ml sperm, 40% total sperm motility, 4% morphologically
normal sperm
D. 1.5 ml ejaculate, 15 mil / ml sperm, 40% total sperm motility, 4% morphologically
normal sperm
Ultrasonography flow Doppler diagnostics:
a. BFC Il - increased resistance, preserved continuity of diastolic flow
b. BFC III - lack of diastolic flow, negative diastole-reverse flow
c. fetal flow rates are measured in v. umbilicalis and v. cerebri media
d. BFC I - amputated end - diastolic velocity
b. BFC III - lack of diastolic flow, negative diastole-reverse flow
Choose the correct option:
a. Functional length of the uterine cervix in 25 g w. should not be less than 25 mm
b. fetus sex can be determined in the first trimester USG examination
c. fetal heart rate is detected from the 3ed week of pregnancy
d. under physiological circumstances, the amount of amniotic fluid with the approaching date rises
a. Functional length of the uterine cervix in 25 g w. should not be less than 25 mm
Among the main causes of bleeding in early puerperium include:
a. hypotony and atony of uterus, placental and membranes retention
b. menstruation
c. endometritis
d. placental, deciduous polyp
a. hypotony and atony of uterus, placental and membranes retention
To the abnormal placentation does not belong
a. Placenta accrete, increta, percreta
b. Placental insufficiency
c. Abruption of placenta and placenta praevia
d. Mola hydatidose
b. Placental insufficiency
Choose the correct claim about ovarian cancer:
A. has a good prognosis
B. is diagnosed at early Stage in most cases c. occurs in women under 35 years of age
D. CA 125 elevation is observed
D. CA 125 elevation is observed
At the vertex position, the oblique circumferences:
a. Suboccipitobregmatic
b. Maxilloparietal
c. Subentobregmatic
d. frontoccipital
A. Suboccipitobregmatic
Choose the incorrect claim about deep transverse arrest
A. the fetal head is arrested between the mid pelvis and outlet
B. delivery is usually terminated by caesarean section
C. it’s a failure of second stage labor mechanism
D. the sagital suture is of a transverse diameter
B. D elivery is usually terminated by caesarean section
We can use Forceps:
a. in the second stage of delivery
b. before the amniotomy
c. at the breech fetal position
d. even it the fetus is dead
a. in the second stage of delivery
choose the correct claim:
a. delayed puberty pubarche is ealier than tenarche
b. menarche is the first menstruation (first bleeding)
c. precocious puberty occurs after 10 years
d. puberty is the period since the onset of the first menstrual bleeding
b. menarche is the first menstruation (first bleeding
the thickness of the endometrium in the menopausal women should be maximun
a. 2mm
b. 8mm
c. 10mm
d. 5mm
d. 5mm
Choose the correct claim, folliculometry is the method:
a. It is an invasive method
b. Evaluate the number and size of follicles
c. Done by perineal approach most frequent
d. Realized between 22nd-24th day of menstruation cycle
b. Evaluate the number and size of follicles
Which of the following is not a contraceptive method
a. Bismark
b. Intrauterine device
c. Fertile and infertile days method
d. Hormonal contraceptives
a. Bismark
What metod can we use for treatment, if we have ectopic pregnancy in a hemodynamically unstable patient
a. Methotrexate
b. Hysterectomy
c. Laparoscopy
d. Laparotomy
D. Laparotomy
Before the contraception prescribing is advisable to investigate:
a. Liver tests
b. Creatinine
c. Coagulation parameters
d. Blood pressure
C. c. Coagulation parameters
Normal colposcopic findings do not include:
a. Original squamos epithelium
b. White epithelium
c. Cylindrical epithelium
d. Transformation zone
b. White epithelium
Ovarian artery flowmetry
a. Not related to RI
b. Evaluates PI and RI
c. Has no prognostic significance
d. Is RTG method
c. Has no prognostic significance
Which of the following types of gynecological speculas do we use in colposcopy:
a. Cusco
b. Kristeller
c. Sims
d. Scherback
a. Cusco
To the benefits of laparoscopy does not belong:
a. Reduce the number of complications in the wound and better cosmetic effect
b. less postoperative pain
c. The operation can be performed under local anesthesia
d. A better view of the surgical field
c. The operation can be performed under local anesthesia
We insert the laparoscope into the peritoneal cavity: Choose the INCORRECT answer:
a. In the area above the umbilicus after previous insertion of the Veress needle and
set capnopentoneum
b. In the umbilical area after previous insertion of the Veress needle and without set capnoperitoneum
c. In the umbilial area after previous insertion of the Veress, needle and set capnoperitoneum
d. In the area of the left hypogastrium after previous insertion of the Veress needle and set capnopentoneum
b. In the umbilical area after previous insertion of the Veress needle and without set
capnoperitoneum
The method of choice in the treatment of the first stage of stress incontinence*
a. Stage 1 of stress incontinence is always indicated for surgery
b. The exercises and rehabilitation of pelvic floor muscles are used in the treatment of stress incontinence
c. The method of choice is estrogens hormone replacement therapy
d. Stress incontinence does not require further treatment
b. The exercises and rehabilitation of pelvic floor muscles are used in the treatment
of stress incontinence
Vaginal ultrasound is used:
a. In the diagnosis of large abdominal tumor
b. in pediatric gynecology
c. Enlarged paraaortal lymph nodes
d. in the diagnosis of extrauterine gravidity
d. in the diagnosis of extrauterine gravidity
Choose the incorrect claim about deep transverse arrest:
A. the fetal head is arrested between the mid pelvis and outlet
B. delivery is usually terminated by caesarean section
C. it’s a failure of second stage labor mechanism
D. the sagittal suture is of a transverse diameter
B. delivery is usually terminated by caesarean section
choose the incorrect claim about identical twins:
A. originate by superfecundation
B. biamnial monochorial twins are the most common type
C. are sometimes connected by the third Schatz cycle
D. biamnial bichorial twins ar separated by 4 amniotic membranes
A. originate by superfecundation
Medicament choice in finding postpartum hemorrhage in the first time is?
a. Oxygen therapy
b. Uterotonic agent-oxytocin
c. Spasmolytic agent
d. Ice on hypogastric area
b. Uterotonic agent-oxytocin
For Caesarean section is current apply?
a. Appenedectoma is more common that caesarean section
b. The number of caesarean sections is degressive
c. Extraction vaginal births are more common than caesarean sections
d. It is generally the most common abdominal operation
d. It is generally the most common abdominal operation
Internal rotation of the head occurs in the:
a. Pelvis outlet
b. Neither is it true
c. Midpelvis
d. Pelvis inlet
c. Midpelvis
Prediction of preterm labour?
a. Under physiological conditions is fetal fibronectin bound in cervical secretions of
24 w.g
b. The main biochemical marker that can reveal the risk of premature birth is the fetal fibronectin
c. The only way to elevate the risk of premature birth is cervicometry
d. With in the cervicometry the risk of preterm delivery increases at less than 35mm
b. The main biochemical marker that can reveal the risk of premature birth is the fetal fibronectin
First-trimester prenatal screening?
a. The combined biochemical screening tests include the determination of free B-
hCG and PAPP-A
b. Is used only for the detection of Down’s syndrom
c. Normally is realised between 10-15 w.g
d. Among the 1st trimester screening test not belong a combined test
a. The combined biochemical screening tests include the determination of free B-
hCG and PAPP-A
The single most powerful marker available today for differentiating Down syndrome from euploid pregnancies is the first trimester sonographic measurement of?
a. Nuchal translucency
b. (something) length
c. Intracranial lucency
d. Width of heart ventricles
a. Nuchal translucency (Nuchal translucency refers to the normal subcutaneous fluid-filled space between the back of the fetal neck and the overlying skin)
Tripple test
a. It consists of establishing free B-hCG and AFP, uE3
b. Is implemented in 12 w/g
c. Is not requitred if negative combined test
d. Consists of establishing free B-hCG and PAPP-A
a. It consists of establishing free B-hCG and AFP, uE3 (=screening in 2nd trimester; +
INHIBIN A= quadruple test - down sy)
- Second trimester sonography morpholic or genetic ultrasound is typically performed:
a. Immediately after combined screening test (13+7 w pregnancy)
b. Between 14 and 16 + 0 of pregnancy
c. After 24 + 0 week of pregnancy
d. Beween 18 + 1 and 20 + 0 week of pregnancy
d. Beween 18 + 1 and 20 + 0 week of pregnancy
. Where is the limit excessive intraoperative blood loss at cesarean section:
a. 1000 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 300 ml
a. 1000 ml
Twins-fetal complications are not:
A. IUGR
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C.Prematurity
D. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
B. Diabetes Mellitus
What types of gynecological (vaginal) speculum we know:
A. Simon,Scherbak
B. Simon,Simpson
C. Simon,Trelat,Scherbak
D. Breus,Trelat,Shut, Simpson
C. Simon,Trelat,Scherbak
The most common causes of primary postpartum hemorrhage(PPH) within 24 hours of birth
are?
a. Damage to the genital tract
b. Retaines/residues of placenta and membranes
c. Hypotony/atony of uterus
d. All of the conclusion are correct
d. All of the conclusion are correct
Which of the following is not an absolute indication for caesarion section?
a. Collision position of twins
b. Placenta Praevia - central
c. Abruptio placentae praecox
d. Caesarian section in history – relative OR (terminate by caesarian section delivery
in anamnesis)
Caesarian section in history – relative OR (terminate by caesarian section delivery
in anamnesis)
Vacuum extraction it is:
a. For fetuses who have attained a gestational age of at least 34 weeks
b. Just for stillbirth
c. Not extraction delivery
d. Not connected with any serious risks for fetus
a. For fetuses who have attained a gestational age of at least 34 weeks
Dizygotic twins - what is incorrect
a. Fertilization of one egg by one spermatozoa
b. Factors affecting-ethnic group, increasing maternal age, increasing party, family history of twining, ovulatio induction
c. ence always dochorionic, diamniotic
d. Each twin his its own placenta, chorion, amnion
a. Fertilization of one egg by one spermatozoa
By the delivery/ parturition we name :
a. If stillborn fetus has less or equal than/to 1000g
b. All answers are correct
c. If the fetus has less/equal to 500g which live at least 24 hours
d. any termination of pregnancy in which a newborn weighing at least 500 g is born
d. any termination of pregnancy in which a newborn weighing at least 500 g is born
By the parturition we call?
a. It is the stillbirth more and equal than 1000 grams
b. If the fetus less and equals than 500g and survive at least 24 hours
c. Any termination of pregnancy, in which a newborn baby born with minimum weight 500g
d. All answers are correct
Any termination of pregnancy, in which a newborn baby born with minimum weight 500g
At the time of receiving the mother to delivery room we’re interested in:
a. All answers are correct
b. Medical history of the family, allergic, obstetric history and overcome disease
c. The name of the father of the child, his employment history and social conditions
d. Term of the last menses, term of birth, blood type of mother, BWR, HbsAg, HIV,
GBS
a. All answers are correct
Preterm causes of bleeding include:
a. Abruption of the placenta
b. HELLP syndrome
c. Uterine inversion
d. 4th degree perineum rupture
a. Abruption of the placenta
Urgent C-Section:
a. Is always from the fetus indication
b. We perform it after the preoperative internal and preaenesthesiol
c. We do not perform it from the mother’s indication
d. We perform it in fetus acute asphyxia
d. We perform it in fetus acute asphyxia
Experimental traction:
a. It is performed out of contractions
b. It is not done in multipairs
c. Is performed essentially during contraction
d. It is performed essentially during the first stage of delivery
c. Is performed essentially during contraction
Multipairs cervix?
a. Always stiffer than in primparas
b. The outer gate has a circular shape
c. Conical
d. With dilatation of the inner gate the neck is opened in
d. With dilatation of the inner gate the neck is opened in
For identical twin is NOT true:
a. Are often connected by Schatz circulation
b. They are always of the same sex
c. Are formed by fertilizing 1 egg with 1 sperm
d. Most often they are monochorial diamnionic
a. Are often connected by Schatz circulation
The most common fetus situs is?
a. 1st ordinary left front
b. II. Ordinary right reat
c. Left rear
d. Right front
a. 1st ordinary left front
- Mark the wrong answer, the date of birth can be determined by:
a. The date of the first day of the last menstrual period
b. Naegele’s formula: 1st day of I.p + 7days- 3months
c. To the date fertilizing intercourse we add 268 days
d. According to the first fetal movement
d. According to the first fetal movement
Nuchal translucency:
a. A part of a triple test
b. Is done in 1st trimester
c. Is done in the 2nd trimester
d. Serves to calculate the date of birth
D. Is done in 1st trimester
When is amniocentesis normally done?
a. After 15 weeks gestation
b. After 10 w.g
c. 18-20 w.g
d. 20-22 w.g
a. After 15 weeks gestation
Most common causes of secondary postpartum hemorrhage from 24 hours?
a. Menstruation
b. Carcinoma
c. Placental remaining in uterus
c. Placental remaining in uterus
Most practical anesthesia used for c-section?
a. Spinal
b. epidural anestesia
c. combine subarachnoidal and epidural anestesia
d. general an.
Spinal - according to lecture it is most used, in pre-op we have to remember to administer 50% dextrose to avoid hypotension by intravenous cannula
What is incorrect about monozygotic twins?
a. They are identical
b. They are not identical
c. Some bridge veins
b. They are not identical
Forceps delivery
a. Epistiomy not required
b. Cervix needs to be dilated
c. Sac can be intact – membranes intact
d. Fetus must be present a breech
b. Cervix needs to be dilated
Prenatal screening:
a. During normal pregnancy is an action Septum primum is seen on the 6th w. G.
b. Culture testing for streptococcus agalactiae from back of the vagina vault is carried 34 w. G.
c. Morphological examination of the fetus takes place within III. USG examination
d. Placenta praevia marginalis is defined as placenta that extends into the lower
segment exceeding 50 mm
a. During normal pregnancy is an action Septum primum is seen on the 6th w. G
Forceps delivery
a. Epistiomy not required
b. Cervix needs to be dilated
c. Sac can be intact – membranes intact
d. Fetus must be present a breech
b. Cervix needs to be dilated
Prenatal screening:
a. During normal pregnancy is an action Septum primum is seen on the 6th w. G.
b. Culture testing for streptococcus agalactiae from back of the vagina vault is carried 34 w. G.
c. Morphological examination of the fetus takes place within III. USG examination
d. Placenta praevia marginalis is defined as placenta that extends into the lower
segment exceeding 50 mm
a. During normal pregnancy is an action Septum primum is seen on the 6th w. G.
Fetal risks of forceps its is not connected with:
a. Injury of fetal legs
b. Intracranial hemorrhage
c. Cephalic hematoma
d. Injury to the soft tissues of face & forehead
a. Injury of fetal legs
For doppler examination of the fetus we don’t use:
a. Uterine artery
b. Suprarenal artery
c. Umbilical artery
d. Middle cerebral artery
b. Suprarenal artery
Twins cannot be delivered vaginally when:
a. Twin B is head down, breech
b. The is no evidence of fetal distress
c. Twin A is head down
d. There is cephalopelvic disproportion
d. There is cephalopelvic disproportion
The parturition itself is divided into:
a. 5 stages of parturition: I opening stage, II pushing stage, III delivery of placenta and fetal membranes, IV early postpartum period, V …
b. 4 stages of parturition: I opening stage, II pushing stage, III delivery of placenta
and fetal membranes, IV early postpartum period
c. 2 stages of parturition: I opening stage,
d. 3 stages of parturition: I opening stage, II pushing stage, III delivery of placenta
and fetal membranes
d. 3 stages of parturition: I opening stage, II pushing stage, III delivery of placenta
and fetal membranes d. 3 stages of parturition: I opening stage, II pushing stage, III delivery of placenta
and fetal membranes
The absolute indication for caesarean section is:
a. Complete breech position
b. Ruptura uteri imminens
c. Primarily low contractile activity
d. occipito-anterior position
b. Ruptura uteri imminens
Premature birth
a. funneling within USG cervicometry means extension of outer gate
b. Cervical insufficiency belongs between most often cause of premature delivery
c. Pre-term labor Syndrome consist of three components: uterine contraction,
cervical maturation, activation of the fetal membranes
d. Define like termination of pregnancy before completion of 36th week
d. Define like termination of pregnancy before completion of 36th week
The drug of choice in detecting postpartum hemorrhage in the first line is
a. Oxygenotherapy
b. Uterotonikum
c. Ice on the lower abdomen
d. Spasmolytic
b. Uterotonikum
Induction of the labor
a. Is not joint with any kind of complications
b. Is mainly in posterminal gravidity
c. does not apply to Rh isoimmunization where antibodies rise
d. Belongs to each delivery
b. Is mainly in posterminal gravidity
Complications of multiple pregnancy - what is right?
a. Big fetus
b. miscarriage, disappearing twin syndrome
c. Premature birth
d. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
d. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
In a patient at the date of childbirth who is admitted to the delivery room as conditions after the section ,,, ??
a. pregnancy must not be terminated by spontaneous delivery
b. the patient’s pregnancy always ends in a clearly spontaneous birth
c. the patient’s pregnancy may be terminated by spontaneous delivery or by section
d. pregnancy in a patient should always be terminated by scheduling a section
c. the patient’s pregnancy may be terminated by spontaneous delivery or by section
Regardless of the causal reason of postpartum haemorrhage it is necessary to always begin your treatment:
a. raise the legs
b. book at least 7 IU blood transfusions
c. put sign to patient informed consent
d. restore and maintain the circulating blood volume (and thereby perfusion pressure)
restore and maintain the circulating blood volume (and thereby perfusion
pressure)
Determination of PAPP - A, free beta-hCG, nuchal translucency, nasal bone evaluation, cardiac events, blood flow to the tricuspid valve and through the ductus venosus:
a. it is a part II. trimester screening
b. takes place in 8 T. G.
c. a part III. trimester screening
d. it is part of a combined ultrasound test multimarker
d. it is part of a combined ultrasound test multimarker
Ultrasonography is the primary screening modality for obstetric imaging. When additional information is needed next modality can be used:
a. Xray
b. magnetic resonance imaging
c. positron emission tomography
d. computed tomography
b. magnetic resonance imaging
Criterium for aplicaton Outlet forceps deliveri is :
a. Stillbrth
b. Scalp is not visible at the introitus
c. Rotation can exceed more than 45 degrees
d. Fetal skull has reached pelvic floor
d. Fetal skull has reached pelvic floor
Initiation of labor does not depend on:
a. sex of the fetus
b. change in estrogen-to- progesterone ratio
c. increased number of oxytocin receptors late in pregnancy
d. prostaglandin level
a. sex of the fetus
Antibiotic prophylaxis in premature rupture of membranes futures begins:
a. after 6 hours
b. serve only targeted antibiotic treatment
c. after 24 hours
d. after 12 hours
d. after 12 hours
Cardiac activity should be detected routinely:
a. with high –end equipment before 3 week
b. with high- end equipment after 3 week
c. between 6-7 weeks
d. after 10 weeks
c. between 6-7 weeks
Medicament choice in finding postpartum hemorrhage in the first time is?
a. Oxygenotherapy
b. Uterotonic agent-oxytocin
c. Spasmolytic agent
d. Ice on hypogastric area
b. Uterotonic agent-oxytocin
The single most powerful marker available today for differentiating Down syndrome from
euploid pregnancies is the first trimester sonographic measurement of?
a. Nuchal translucency
b. (something) length
c. Intracranial lucency
d. Width of heart ventricles
a. Nuchal translucency
Twins-fetal complications are not?
a. IUGR
b. DM
c. Prematurity
d. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
b. DM
Stress urinary incontinence caused by:
a. Obesity
b. Fibrinoid changes
c. Urethral hypermobility
c. Urethral hypermobility
Menstrual cycle hormones
a. FSH is higher than estrogen in early follicular phase
b. Ovulation 36h after peak of gonotropins
c. FSH is lower than LH only in early follicular grow
a. FSH is higher than estrogen in early follicular phase
The menstrual cycle (MC):
a. Ovulation occurs about 36 hours after the rise of the peak of gonadotrophin
b. In a typical MC luteal phase length can vary significantly
c. Normal MC takes 25-30 days and begins by the luteal phase
d. The concentrations of the serum FSH is over the concentrations of the LH only in
the early follicular FSH increase
a. Ovulation occurs about 36 hours after the rise of the peak of gonadotrophin
Specula examination after 40w pregnancy:
a. Before bimanual examination
b. After by manual
c. Don’t do (fear to induce labor)
d. No answer is correct
a. Before bimanual examination
Most common treatment in fallopian tube - surgery
a. salpingectomy
b. tube repair and eggs removal
c. adnexectomy
d. ovariotomy
a. salpingectomy
When the HPV infection is considered to be clinically significant?
A. If the HPV test is positive
B. If the HPV test is positive and colposcopy shows abnormal finding
C. If the HPV test + p53 are positive
D. If the HPV test + p53 +KI67 are positive
B. If the HPV test is positive and colposcopy shows abnormal finding
In Urge Urinary Incontinence we use?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antimuscarinics
C. Suburethral tape
D. Benzodiazepines
B. Antimuscarinics
Polymennorhea?
a. we define it as a part of menstruation, which occurs during prolonged menstrual
cycle
b. We define it as part of menstruation, which occurs in a shortened menstrual
cycle, which lasts less than 23 days
c. We define it as a rare menstruation that occurs during prolonged menstrual cycle that lasts more than 35 days
d. Is a bleeding disorder in maintaining a regular menstrual cycle
b. We define it as part of menstruation, which occurs in a shortened menstrual
cycle, which lasts less than 23 days
Basic diagnostic imaging method in gynaecology is?
a. MRI
b. PET CT
c. Sonography (USG)
d. elastrography
c. Sonography (USG)
What are the current lowest sperm parameters by WHO 2010?
a. 2ml semen volume, 20 millions/ml sperm count, 60% total sperm motility, 8% morphologically normal spermatozoa
b. 1.5ml semen volume, 15 millions/ml sperm count, 30% total sperm motility, 2% morphologically normal spermatozoa
c. 1.5ml semen volume, 15 millions/ml sperm count, 40% total sperm motility, 4%
morphologically normal spermatozoa
d. 2ml semen volume, 20 millions/ml sperm count, 25% total sperm motility, 4% morphologically normal spermatozoa
c. 1.5ml semen volume, 15 millions/ml sperm count, 40% total sperm motility, 4%
morphologically normal spermatozoa
The most common benign disorder of the breast is?
a. Fibroadenoma
b. Lipoma
c. Myoma
d. Paget
A. . Fibroadenoma
By the bimanual examination we do palpation of?
a. Fundus uteri,parametrium,cervix uteri, tubae uterine
b. Fundus uteri, ovaries, parametrium
c. Sometimes the ovarie, cervix uteri and parametrium
d. fundus uteri, cervix uteri, sometimes ovaries
d. fundus uteri, cervix uteri, sometimes ovaries
Cystocele is an indication for?
a. colpocleisis
b. Vaginal hysterectomy and vaginal sculptures
c. Cystectomy
d. Front vaginal plastic
d. Front vaginal plastic
dysfunctional bleeding
a. it’s a regular heavy menstrual bleeding, which is characterized by glandular cystic
endometrial hyperplasia
b. the cause of the disorder is usually persistent presence of the follicle , which form
only oestrogens
c. it’s a change of bleeding while maintaining regular d. it occurs mainly in women in reproductive age
d. it occurs mainly in women in reproductive age
b. the cause of the disorder is usually persistent presence of the follicle , which form
only oestrogens
choose the correct statement
a. in complete abortion revision cavi uteri instrumentalis is performed
b. HSC can be diagnostic and surgical methods
c. at laparoscopy is always necessary to use at least three ports
d. subserous fibroids can be diagnosed by HSC
b. HSC can be diagnostic and surgical methods
In the expanded colposcopy
a. Blue filter
b. Red filter
c. In an extended colposcope, the filter is not normally used
d. Green filter
d. Green filter
Epithelial ovarian cancer
a. Hormone active tumor
b. Germinal tumor
c. Diagnosed at early stages
d. Most common ovarian tumor
d. Most common ovarian tumor
During the mirror examination we evaluate?
A. Urine incontinence
B. Cervix only
C. Vaginal walls, exocervix, endocervix
D. Vaginal discharge, vaginal wall , exocervix
D. Vaginal discharge, vaginal wall , exocervix
What is not true about the revision of the uterus?
A. At abortion acquired part of fetal egg is not sent for histology verification
B. Before revision is always advisable to investigate the uterus by palpation
C. Perforation of the uterus can occur even when probing the uterine cavity
D. It is always necessary to use Hegar dilators
At abortion acquired part of fetal egg is not sent for histology verification
The risk factors for pelvic organ prolapse include?
A. Nulligravida, caesarean section, age
B. Low BMI, multiparity, dementia
C. Age, obesity, constipation, chronic cough d. Smoking, HPV, obesity
Age, obesity, constipation, chronic cough
Typical USG markers of benign tumorous process include?
A. Neovascularization
B. Multilocular ovarian cyst without residual ovarian tissue
C. Unilocular ovarian anechoic cyst with residual ovarian tissue
D. Irregular tumor boundary
Unilocular ovarian anechoic cyst with residual ovarian tissue
What is true about CA-125 and ovarian cancer?
A. In case of ovarian cancer, the elevation is always seen
B. The level of CA-125 is useful mainly for determination of the answer to treatment
C. Separate elevation of CA 125 is for diagnosis of ovarian cancer sufficient
D. The elevation of CA 125 is not in non-oncological patients seen
The level of CA-125 is useful mainly for determination of the answer to treatment
Prolapse of vaginal apex are treated by fixation in the?
a. Lig. Teres uteri
b. Lig. Sacrospinosum
c. Lig. Suspensorium ovari
d. Lig. Longitudinale posterior
b. Lig. Sacrospinosum
Choose the correct answer for gynecological examination?
A. Children are investigated only vaginally
B. Consists of aspection, auscultaition and examination in the mirror
C. Examination in mirrors shall be preceded by a manual examination
D. Digital examination always precedes scanning in mirrors
xamination in mirrors shall be preceded by a manual examination
MRI is used for?
A. In gynecology has no foundation
B. In oncological screening of breast carcinoma
C. Staging of cervical carcinoma
D. All answers are correct
In oncological screening of breast carcinoma
What is true about breast cancer?
A. We do not have a screening program
B. In etiopathogenesis we can often see mutation of proto-oncogenes BRCA1 and BRCA2
c. In etiopathogenesis we can often see mutation of tumor suppressor genes BRCA1 and BRCA2
D. Is non curable disease
c. In etiopathogenesis we can often see mutation of tumor suppressor genes BRCA1
and BRCA2
Treatment of menstrual disorder?
a. Treatment of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) comprises ataking progestogens in
the first half of the MC
b. Infertility in the luteal phase unsuficiency can be treated by taking of progesteron
from 12th day of menstrual cycle to the first day of bleeding for 6-12 months
c. Organic causes hypermenorrhea fundamentally we treat hormone replacement therapy
d. Oligomenorrhea failure of the secretory phase to be treated by taking estrogen
b. Infertility in the luteal phase unsuficiency can be treated by taking of progesteron
from 12th day of menstrual cycle to the first day of bleeding for 6-12 months
An indication of the LSC and HSC examination is:
a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Intramural myoma
c. Endometrial polyps
d. Malformations of the uterus
d. Malformations of the uterus
When should we start with the mammography screening program?
a. 40
b. 50
c. 55
d. 35
a. 40
Schultze apparatus:
a. Laparoscopy
b. Dilation tools
c. Administration of contrast medium
c. Administration of contrast medium
Forceps side effects (INCORRECT):
a. Cuts
b. Hematoma
c. Bruises
d. injury
a. Cuts
The most important factors that make postpartum hemorrhage a life- threatening
conditions is:
a. separation and delivery of the placenta over 30 min
b. labor management is not in accordance with guidelines available in the country
c. absent of two doctors at labour room
d. consistently underestimate visible blood loss and well controlled blood loss in
healthy women with late signs of hypovolemia
d. consistently underestimate visible blood loss and well controlled blood loss in
healthy women with late signs of hypovolemia
on the fetal head we have
a. 3 fontanelles
b. Sagittal suture – connects 2 parietal bones
c. Lambdoidal suture – connects occipital and frontal bone
d. Occipital fontanel
b. Sagittal suture – connects 2 parietal bones
Premature rupture of amniotic fluid and application of corticosteroids
a. Corticosteroids standard dose every 12 hrs and the max dose is 32g
b. Use of cortico. In some cases is associated with an increase in the oscillation
cardiotocogram
c. The prevention of RDS in the fetus comprises administering corticosteroids in the range of 24/6 – 34/6 w.g.
d. Corticosteroids should be applied only to fetal weight to 1500 g
b. Use of cortico. In some cases is associated with an increase in the oscillation
cardiotocogram
Premature preterm rupture of membranes (PPROM):
a. Is defined as amniotic fluid effluent over 1 hr before the delivery prior to 37 w.g.
b. Is defined as amniotic fluid effluent over 1 hr before the birth of the completed 37 w.g
c. For early preterm runoff amniotic fluid is recommended to save the patient in Trendelenburg position
d. Fergusson reflex is triggered by activation Frankenhauser ganglion and leads to reduced secretion of oxytocin
Is defined as amniotic fluid effluent over 1 hr before the birth of the completed
37 w.g (OR: we defined as AF outflow more than 1 hr before the beginning of delivery before 37w)
Signs of parturition:
a. Regular contractions in 10-15 min, spontaneous rupture of amniotic membrane, loosing of mucus plug
b. Regular contraction activity, dilated cervical canal to 1 cm
c. Spontaneous rupture of amniotic membrane, bleeding
d. Pain in the lower segment of the uterus
a. Regular contractions in 10-15 min, spontaneous rupture of amniotic membrane,
loosing of mucus plug
Choose the uncorrect answer
a. Termination of pregnancy before 24 weeks of gestation is defined as delivery
b. Labor is the process by which contractions Of the gravid uterus expel the fetus
c. Preterm labor is that occurring before 37 weeks of gestational age
d. Aterm pregnancy delivers between 38 and 40 weeks from the last menstrual
period (LMP)
a. Termination of pregnancy before 24 weeks of gestation is defined as delivery
Which of these conditions are clear indications for termination of pregnancy by cesarean section?
A. BP – breech presentation + euhydramnion, + regular contractions uterine activity
B. Oligohydramnion + reduced fetal movement activity, regular contraction uterine activity
C. Cephalopelvic disproportion + anhydramnionic or conflit position of twins
D. FHP – fetal head position, rupture of amniotic membrane present 4 hrs
Cephalopelvic disproportion + anhydramnionic or conflit position of twins
Choose
a. The main traction we have to perform out the contraction
b. Forceps delivery it is absolute safe method of delivery
c. We can’t use forceps for face presentation
d. Forceps delivery we have to exclude cephalopelvic disproportion
c. We can’t use forceps for face presentation
The mechanism of parturition
a. Internal rotation, flexion internal, external extension, external rotation
b. Extension, internal toration, external flexion, external rotation
c. Initial flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, external extension
d. Initial – internal flexion, internal rotation, external extension, external rotation
d. Initial – internal flexion, internal rotation, external extension, external rotation
V aginal
a. only by forceps
operative childbirth
b. per forceps or vacuum extractor
c. only with the help of a vacuum extractor
d. less risky than childbirth via naturales
b. per forceps or vacuum extractor
choose the correct statement
a. childbirth has 3 phases
b. episiotomy is the cutting of the vagina
c. the management of the third period of childbirth is not medicated
d. the most common urgent part of the fetus is the buttocks
childbirth has 3 phases
visible action of the fetal heart is routinely observed
a. with high-perfomance ultrasound after 3w
189. choose the correct statement
a. childbirth has 3 phases
b. after 10w
c. with high-performance ultrasound before 3w
d. between 6-7-w
d. between 6-7-w
What is diabetic fethopathy
Child when born is obese
Benign lesion in women most common is
Layomioma or nodus fibromatosus
Dysmenorrhea
Pain with menstruation
Oligomenorrhea
Infrequent mentstruation, interval greater than 35 days
Polymenorrhea
Abnormally frequent menstruation
Symptoms of carcinoma of uterus
Irregular bleeding , menorrhagia
2nd trimester sonography, when
18-20 weeks
Most common cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage from 24hours
- menstruation
- carcinoma
- placental remaining in uterus
Me
Placental remaining in uterus
What types of obstetric forceps we know
A. Simpson forceps: Breus,kjelland, shutte?
B. Simpson forceps: Breus,kjelland
C. Breus, Shultz
B
Treatment of primary sterility?
clomiphene citrate
Best method of investigation for endometrial cancer?
Biopsy, Hysteroscopy
Type of fibroid tumor which can be diagnosed with hysteroscopy?
Submucosal
The most common risk of Instrumental revision of uterine cavity is?
ashermans syndrome
Morcellator is?
Instrument used for division and removal of large masses of tissues used in myomectomy.
Endometriosis if untreated cause adhesion lead to? retroversion of uterus
93. Most common localization of endometriosis? Peritoneum, ovaries, Rectovaginal pouch
Which vessel is in risk for damage in laparoscopy surgery?
Inferior epigastric
When we use Ayers spatula-wooden stick
To collect Pap smear
In surgical therapy of metrorrhagia we use
A. A sharp curette
B. Bumm curette
C. A blunt curette
D. Vacuum aspiration
A. A sharp curette✅
B. Bumm curette
C. A blunt curette
D. Vacuum aspiration
Therapy of cervical carcinoma in situ can be:
Conisation
Marshall-Boney test: choose the incorrect answer:
clinical test for the diagnosis of stress
incontinence, performed with an empty bladder
The ultrasound image of the low endometrium may correspond to the following
conditions except:
Use of hormonal contraceptives
Condition after revision of the uterine cavity
Postmenopausal period
Pregnancy
Pregnancy
Treatment of post partum haemorrhage:
I.V oxytocin (syntocinon)
Choose the right correct definition :
A) multigravida – birth with twins
B) primigravida – 1st time pregnant according to lecture:
• Primigravida - pregnant for first time
• Multigravida - pregnant more than once
• Viability - able to survive outside the womb (24+ weeks gestation)
• Nulliparous - never carried a pregnancy to viability
• Multiparous - has had two or more deliveries that were carried to viability
B
Therapy for breast cancer:
tamoxifen, Mastectomy or quadrectomy
Signs of onset of childbirth are:
a. Regular contracting activity and 10 miin + spontaneous amniotic fluid outflow
a. Regular contracting activity and 10 miin + spontaneous amniotic fluid outflow
What is not true about the revision of the uterus?
A. At abortion acquired part of fetal egg is not sent for histology verification
B. Before revision is always advisable to investigate the uterus by palpation
C. Perforation of the uterus can occur even when probing the uterine cavity
D. It is always necessary to use Hegar dilators
A. At abortion acquired part of fetal egg is not sent for histology verification
Dysfunctional bleeding
A. It’s regular heavy menstrual bleeding which is characterized by glandular cystic endometrial hyperplasia
B. The cause of disorder is usually persistent presence of follicle , which for, only estrogen
C. It’s change of bleeding while maintaining regular…
D. It occurs mainly in women in reproductive age
B
