Gynae oncology Flashcards
A - F
B - T - associated with raised CA-125 in 75% of serous and 30% of mucinous
C- F
D- F
E - T
A -T
B - F
C- F
D - T
E -
A - T
B - T
C - F
D - T
A - F –> returning to complete surgery when there is post-op diagnosis of BOT does not improve survival. Equally, when a dx of mucinous BOT, do not return for appendicectomy
B - F –> this is what we do to preserve fertility. it is a trade-off, but not acceptable treatment. The treatment is full surgery
C - F –> not robust
A - F
B - T –> there is no evidence that it improves survival, but there is higher recurrence rate
C - T
F
About BOTs (True or False)
A) 20% of cases occur in women over 45 years
B) 15% of serous BOTs have peritoneal implants at diagnosis
C) 10% of BOTs identified at frozen section later are found to be invasive
D) in the event of invasive peritoneal implants, 50% of tumours recurr
E) Micropapillary serous BOTs have the worse prognosis
F) If invasive peritoneal implants, survival is still good around 75%
G) Aneuploidy in the tumour increases risks by 5X
A) F. 30% occur in women <40yo
B) F. 30% do
C) F. 30% are
D) T
E) T
F) F. Survival is 35%
G) F. Increases by 19x
About Borderline Ovarian Tumours (True or False)
a) The combined contraceptive pill is a protective factor
b) Lactation is a protective factor
c) The vast majority are of the serous type
d) The serous type tends to be more aggressive
e) BRCA gene mutation increases the risk of BOTs
A) F. the pill is not protective. Protective factors are parity and lactation
B) T
C) F. not the vast majority, 50% are serous, 46% mucinous, 4% other types (endometrioid, Brenner, Clear cell, mixed)
D) T. It has a lower survival rate in comparison to mucinous and 30% of them already have peritoneal implants at Dx. Of these, 30% are invasive
E) F.There is no evidence that BRCA mutations increase the risk of BOTs
Wha
What are the survival rates for
A) 5 year survival for serous BOT (S1)
B) 10 year survival for serous BOT (S1)
C) 5 year survival for mucinous BOT
D)10 year survival for mucinous BOT
A) 97%
B) 80% (90% if early)
C) 100%
D) 97%???
Question 1: Which of the following is the most appropriate method for staging ovarian cancer according to the FIGO system?
A) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B) MRI of the pelvis
C) Surgical exploration and biopsy
D) Serum CA-125 levels
E) Ultrasound of the abdomen
C
Question 2: A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of bloating and abdominal discomfort. Imaging reveals a large, complex adnexal mass. Surgical staging is planned. Which of the following is not part of the FIGO staging for ovarian cancer?
A) Examination of the peritoneal cavity
B) Assessment of lymph node involvement
C) Histological confirmation of the tumor type
D) Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
E) Intraoperative evaluation of distant metastases
D
Question 3: Which of the following is correct regarding the FIGO staging for ovarian cancer?
A) Stage I is limited to the ovaries
B) Stage II involves pelvic organs and inguinal lymph nodes
C) Stage III involves spread to the peritoneum outside the pelvis
D) Stage IV refers to metastasis to lymph nodes and the liver only
E) Stage IV is limited to the ovaries and immediate surrounding structures
A) It is more nuanced, as substages also involve spillage (1C) etc
B) Inguinal LFN is stage IV
C) True. Stage III involves abrominal organs but does not extend to chest. IIIA: retroperitoneal LFN; IIIB: peritoneal lesions <2cm; IIIC: peritoneal lesions >2cm
Question 4: A patient with ovarian cancer is staged as FIGO Stage III. Which of the following describes the most likely findings?
A) Tumor confined to the ovaries with no lymph node involvement
B) Tumor involves one or both ovaries with microscopic spread to the peritoneum
C) Tumor extends beyond the pelvis to the peritoneum and lymph nodes
D) Distant metastases involving the liver and lungs
E) Tumor confined to one ovary with no evidence of spread
Stage III means abrominal structure involvement wihtout reaching the chest.
I: ovary only and any spillage (IC)
II: pelvic structures only
III: abdominal organs
IV: more distant including chest
C
Question 5: A 45-year-old woman with ovarian cancer undergoes staging laparotomy. During the procedure, a lesion is found in the omentum. The tumor is grossly confined to the omentum, and there is no involvement of the peritoneal cavity or lymph nodes. The stage of ovarian cancer is most likely:
A) Stage IA
B) Stage IB
C) Stage IIIC
D) Stage IIIA
E) Stage IV
D
Question 6: Which of the following factors would indicate that an ovarian cancer is most likely Stage IV rather than Stage III?
A) Involvement of the omentum
B) Presence of peritoneal implants
C) Spread to the diaphragm
D) Distant metastasis to the liver and lungs
E) Involvement of pelvic lymph nodes
D
Question 8: Which of the following is true regarding the significance of lymph node involvement in ovarian cancer staging?
A) Lymph node involvement automatically indicates Stage IV disease
B) Lymph node involvement is included in the criteria for Stage III
C) Lymph node involvement is only relevant in Stage I
D) Lymph node involvement does not affect the stage
E) Lymph node involvement always occurs before distant metastases
B
Stage 1: ovary only and includes spillage (1C)
Stage 2: pelvis only
Stage 3: Abdominal organs, including retroperitoneal LFN
Stage IV: distant metastases, including inguinal LFN
A 62-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is undergoing surgery for staging. During the procedure, she is found to have peritoneal implants on the diaphragm, along with lymph node enlargement in the para-aortic region. There is no evidence of distant metastasis.
Which of the following is the most likely stage according to the FIGO staging system?
Options:
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
E) Stage IIC
C
Question 2:
A 45-year-old woman is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Imaging shows a unilateral ovarian mass, and during surgery, it is found to be confined to one ovary, with no capsular rupture. There is no evidence of spread to the peritoneum or lymph nodes.
What is the most likely FIGO stage?
Options:
A) Stage I
B) Stage IA
C) Stage IB
D) Stage IC
E) Stage II
B
Question 3:
A 58-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is found to have a peritoneal implant in the small bowel during surgery. There is no lymph node involvement, but there is a small tumor on the bladder.
What is the most appropriate FIGO stage for this case?
Options:
A) Stage IA
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IIB
E) Stage IV
C
Question 4:
A 70-year-old woman presents with ovarian cancer. Imaging shows extensive spread to the omentum and peritoneum, along with enlarged pelvic and para-aortic lymph nodes. There are also liver and lung metastases.
What is the most likely FIGO stage?
Options:
A) Stage III
B) Stage IIIC
C) Stage IV
D) Stage I
E) Stage II
C