Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Pathology Year 2 > Gynae & Breast Pathology > Flashcards

Gynae & Breast Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Fibrocystic Disease?

A

Benign changes seen in the breast, including apocrine change, ductal hyperplasia & sclerosing adenois.
Can from a lump (can mimic cancer)
Can cause discomfort related to the menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is fibroadenoma?

A

Usually women ages 10-40 years.

Most common breast mass in the adolescent & young adult population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some risk factors of breast cancer?

A

(all linked to oestrogens)

  • Early menarche, late menopause
  • Oral contraceptives & hormonal replacement therapy for menopause
  • Alcohol
  • Mutations in certain genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Main types of breast cancer?

A
  • Ductal (75%)
  • Lobular (12%)
  • Tubular/cribriform

(DCIS= Ductal carcinoma in situ: the presence of abnormal cells inside a milk duct in the breast. Considered the earliest form of breast cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Triple Assessment in Breast Cancer?

A

1) Clinical examination
2) Imaging (usually mammography, ultrasonography)
3) Needle biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Dysplasia?

A

The earliest morphological manifestation of multistage process of neoplasia.
The abnormal cells have not yet acquired the capacity for invasion, so elimination removes the basis on which cancer will develop (this is the whole basis of the cervical screening program)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)?

A

Double stranded DNA viruses. Genital HPVs are grouped into low and high oncogenic risk:

  • Low risk: Associated with genital warts & other low-grade cytological abnormalities (6, 11 most common)
  • High risk: Associated with high grade pre-invasive and invasive diseases (16, 18) (~70% cervical cancers)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mode of action of high risk HPVs?

A

They upregulate E6 and E7 expression.

  • E6 inactivates p53 (which mediates apoptosis in response to DNA damage)= accumulation of genetic damage.
  • E7 binds to RB1 gene product (RB1 is tumour suppressor gene controls G1/S checkpoint in cell cycle)= Dysregulation of cell proliferation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(types of Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia- VIN)

What are the 2 types of VIN?

A
  • Classical/Warty/Baseloid: Graded VIN 1-3. related to HPV infection, younger people
  • Differentiated VIN: Not graded. Not HPV related. Occurs in chronic dermatoses. older people.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common type of vulval cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma.

Associated with a)VIN, and b)inflammatory dermatoses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are Gynaecological cancers staged by instead of the TNM system?

A

FIGO (starts in cervix, then invades uterus and beyond and to bladder/rectum or outside the pelvis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 types of Vulval cancers?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (90%) - associated with a)VIN or b)Inflammatory dermatoses
Malignant Melanoma (5%) - mean age 50-60
Paget’s Disease (5%) - mean age 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Features of Paget’s disease of the vulva and comparison with Paget’s disease of the breast?

A

Mean age 80
Pruritic/ burning/ eczematous patch
In-situ adenocarcinoma of squamous mucosa, can develop invasive
(in comparison of breast: due to underlying ductal carcinoma in-situ, spreading into the epidermis. In the vulva there is no underlying tumour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(Cervical Pathology)- What is the transformation zone?

A

Physiological area of squamous metaplasia. Vulnerable to oncogenic effects of HPV (site of development of CIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is treatment of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)?

A

Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some causes of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)?

A
  • High risk HPV is most important causative factor
  • Multiple sexual partners
  • Smoking
  • Young age at first intercourse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Cervical Adenocarcinoma related to and a precursor of?

A

Related to high risk HPV (‘high risk’ HPV subtypes are 16 & 18)
Precursor is Cervical Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CGIN)

18
Q

What infections can be transmitted from mother to baby in utero? (haematogenous)

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV), Parvovirus, Toxoplasmosis, Syphilis, Varicella Zoster virus (VZV), Rubella, Zika virus.

19
Q

What neonatal infections are acquired during passage through Birth Canal?

A 
Group B Streptococcus
Herpes Simplex Virus
Gonorrhoea
Chlamydia
HIV
Hep B
20
Q

What will Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Pregnancy develop into if left untreated?

A

It will develop into acute pyelonephritis. (continuing bacteriuria is associated with premature delivery and increased perinatal mortality)

21
Q

What antimicrobials are considered ‘safe’ in pregnancy?

A

Penicillins, Cephalosporins

22
Q

What antimicrobials are considered ‘unsafe’ in pregnancy?

A

Chloramphenicol, Tetracycline, Fluoroquinolones

23
Q

What is Puerperal Endometritis?

A

Infection of the womb during puerperium (the period of about 6 weeks after childbirth when the mother’s reproductive organs return to their normal position)

24
Q

What are the causative organisms of puerperal endometritis?

A

E coli, Beta-haemolytic streptococci

25
Q

What are 2 upper resp. tract infections of childhood?

A

Acute tonsillitis: Viral (70-80%), Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus (20-30%)
Acute otitis media

26
Q

What are 3 lower resp. tract infections of childhood?

A

Acute bronchitis
Pneumonia
Bronchiolitis (Respiratory Syncytial virus, Adenovirus, Influenza, Rhinovirus)

27
Q

Common pathogens causing Pneumonia…

a) Newborn
b) 1-3 months
c) 3-12 months
d) 2-5 years
e) 5-18 years

A

(in order of frequency)

a) Group B strep, Gram-negative bacilli, Listeria monocytogenes
b) Chlamydia trachomatis, Respiratory Syncitial Virus
c) Respiratory Syncitial Virus, Strep pneumoniae
d) Respiratory viruses, strep pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae
e) Myoplasma pneumoniae, Strep pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae

28
Q

What causes Pertussis, and what are the 3 stages of clinical illness?

A

B. pertussis.

  1. Catarrhal phase (7-10 days): cold-like
  2. Paroxysmal phase (2-6 weeks): no fever, typical whooping sound.
  3. Convalescent phase
29
Q

Bacterial causes of Meningitis in…

a) neonates
b) >1month-5years

A

a) Group B strep, E coli, Listeria monocytogenes

b) Strep pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis

30
Q

Viral Causes of Meningitis?

A
  • Enteroviruses (commonest), HSV, Influenza, EBV, adenovirus, CMV
  • Mononuclear lymphocytes in CSF
31
Q

What causes Impetigo, what are the features and treatment?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, or Strep pyogenes

  • Classically ruptured vesicles with honey-coloured crusting (commonly starts around face/ mouth)
  • Treatment: topical antibiotics/ oral flucloxacillin
32
Q

What causes Scarlet Fever and what is the treatment?

A

Gp A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus

Treatment: Penicillin

33
Q

When is Meningitis still communicable?

A

Communicable 4 days before to 4 days after rash onset.

34
Q

What are the 2 kinds of Endometrial Cancer?

A

1) Endometrial Adenocarcinoma (most common kind- 80%)

2) High grade serous adenocarcinoma (more common in older women)

35
Q

What is Gardasil?

A

It is a vaccine covering most HPV-type cancers. (HPV= CERVICAL)

36
Q

What are the risk factors for developing cervical carcinoma?

A 
HIV
High no. births
Smoking
High no. sexual partners
(EPV not related- this is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal & gastric carcinomas)
37
Q

What is:

a) Cervical Screening age?
b) Breast screening age?

A

a) 25-64

b) 50-70

38
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the uterus? (remember- neoplasm means growth and can be benign)

A

Leiomyoma (a fibroid)

39
Q

What is endometrioid endometrial adenocarcinoma associated with?

A

Obesity
Oestrogen
Diabetes
Hypertension

40
Q

What are the 3 types of ovarian neoplasm?

A

1) Epithelial (most common- 80%)
2) Germ Cell
3) Stromal Cell

41
Q

What is each of the following a serum marker of?

a) CA-125
b) CA-19.9
c) b-HCG
d) PSA

A

a) Ovarian carcinoma
b) Pancreatic
c) Pregnancy & placenta
d) Prostate

Clinical Pathology Year 2 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions