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GVC Flashcards

1
Q

What is CAA?

A

Civil Aviation Authority

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2
Q

What is MOR?

A

Mandatory Occurance Report

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3
Q

What is SARG?

A

Safety and Airspace Regulation Group

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4
Q

What is ATM?

A

Air Traffic Management

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5
Q

What is ATC?

A

Air Traffic Control

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6
Q

What is NATS?

A

National Air Traffic Services

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7
Q

What is NAA?

A

National Aviation Authority

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8
Q

What is FIR?

A

Flight Information Region

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9
Q

What is ATZ?

A

Aerodome Traffic Zone

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10
Q

What is FRZ?

A

Flight Restriction Zone

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11
Q

What is NOTAM?

A

Notice to Airmen

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12
Q

What is MTOM?

A

Maximum Take-Off Mass

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13
Q

What is AIP?

A

Aeronautical Information Publication

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14
Q

What is AIC?

A

Aeronautical Information Circular

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15
Q

What is VLOS?

A

Visual Line of Sight

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16
Q

What is BVLOS?

A

Beyond Visual Line of Sight

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17
Q

What is EVLOS?

A

Extended Visual Line of Sight

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18
Q

What is NSF?

A

Non-Standard Flight

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19
Q

What is ENSF?

A

Enhanced Non-Standard Flight

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20
Q

Who are the airspace monitors?

A

ATMs (Air Traffic Management) and ATCs (Air Traffic Controllers)

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21
Q

What is AIRPROX?

A

Air Proximity

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22
Q

What is ECCAIRS?

A

European Coordination Centre for Accident and Incident Reporting Systems

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23
Q

What is OSC?

A

Operating Safety Case

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24
Q

What is ASL?

A

Above surface level

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25
Q

What is a flyer ID?

A

Acts as yout acknowledgement of compentency as as Remot Pilot from the CAA
Can be any age - anyone under 12 must be supervised by someone aged 16 or over who has a flyer ID
Must pass an online test

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25
Q

What is a flyer ID?

A

Acts as yout acknowledgement of compentency as as Remot Pilot from the CAA
Can be any age - anyone under 12 must be supervised by someone aged 16 or over who has a flyer ID
Must pass an online test

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26
Q

What is an Operator ID?

A

Anyone responsible for a drone must register as an Operator
Must didplay your Operator ID on your drones and you can use the same Operator ID for all your drones
Must be aged 18 or over to be an Operator

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27
Q

What are the specifications for the Open Category

A

Can use A2 CofC qualification
MOTM must be less than 25kg
UAS operated within VLOS
UAS must not be flown further than 120 m (400ft) from the closest point of the surface of the earth

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28
Q

What are the specifications for the Specialised Category?

A

Qualification requirement is GVC
Requires CAA Application
Allows you to fly with reduced limitations if not attainable in Open Category

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29
Q

What are the specification for Certfied Category?

A

Qualification requirements equivalent to manned avaition
Requires CAA application
Rules for flying will mirror those used in manned aviation

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30
Q

Specifications for A1 open category?

A

No overflight
Less than 250g
No specific distance limitations but should observe 1:1 rule

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31
Q

Specifications for A2 open category?

A

No closer than 50m horizontally from uninvolved persons
Max mass of 4kg
Must have A2 CofC

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32
Q

Specifications for A3 open category?

A

No flight within 150m horizontally of congested area
Max mass 25kg
Training requirement DMARES & User Manual

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33
Q

What is 1:1 rule?

A

Horzontal separation distacne of drone must be equal (or greater) to the height the drone is flying

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34
Q

When can an unmanned aircraft be flown greater then 400ft from closest point of the earth’s surface in open category?

A

Height can be exceeded whrn overflying a fixed obstacle provided that:
* Person in charge of obstacle has granted permission
* The UM is not flown more than 15m above the top of the obstacle and must be kept within 50m horizontally of it

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35
Q

How long is a GVC valid for?

A

5 years from the date that the exam was taken

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36
Q

What is PDRA?

A

Pre-Defined Risk Assessment

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37
Q

What is UKPDRA-01?

A

Standard permission issued by the CAA for operations with the Specific category

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38
Q

What are the conditions associated witH UKPDRA-01?

A

VLOS only
Operation during day and night
Predominantly in for UK Operations
Flights must not take place in an FRZ or reserved airspace without appropriate approval
Kept at 400 ft
Max distance of 500m
Must not fly closer than 50m to uninvolved persons (no closer than 30m for take off or landing)
Checklist for safety
Remote pilots operating under the OA must be employed
Operator must comply with the UAS IR, and maintain flight records (logbooks)
Occurances when operating under OA must be reported with accordance with the requirements
EC785/2004 complaint insurance is needed whenever flying under the OA

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39
Q

What are the requirements for ‘See and Avoid’

A

Effective visual scanning
Situational Awareness
The development of good airmanship

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40
Q

What are VLOS principles?

A

Maximum distance of 500m horizontally (only if aircraft can still be seen at this distance)
Maxium heigth from earth’s surface is 400 ft

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41
Q

When are NSF and ENSF needed?

A

In controlled airspace over London and other major cities, NATs can require a UAS operator to apply for NSF or ENSF approval to fly in restricted airspace before the flight can take place

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42
Q

When should you apply for an NSF?

A

Unusual Aerial Activities wholly contained within controlled airspace are processed as NSF approval and are subject to prior approval either by CAA or specific Air Traffic Services
Applications for NSFs should be made within a minimum of 14 days notice

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43
Q

When are ENSF required?

A

Restricted areas such as airports and parks that are marked on current VRF charts
The restritions require, with certain exceptions, that no aircraft fly below 1,400 feet Above Means Sea Level (AMSL) within these areas unless in accordance with an ENSF clearnce issued by the appropriate ATC unit

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44
Q

What are some reportable occurances?

A

Loss of control/datalink
Navigation failures
Pilot station configuration changes/errors
Transfer to/from launch control/ mission control stations
Display failures
Crew Resource Management failures
Structural damage/heavy landing
Flight programming errors (incorrect speed programmed)
Any incident that injuries a third party

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45
Q

What is an AirProx?

A

Where, in the opinion of a pilot or air traffic service personnel, the distance between aircraft as well as thier relative postions and speeds have been sucht that ther safety of an aircrat involved may have been compromised
Either piloted involved or an ATC who witness the AirProx can report the incident

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46
Q

What is an Operational Authorisation?

A

Permission to operate a UAS under specific limiations and conditions

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47
Q

Who has rights over airspace?

A

The state has the rights over the airspace and the rules and regulations about its use are issued on behalf of the state by the NAA: in our case the CAA

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48
Q

What is FL?

A

Flight Level

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49
Q

What is TMA?

A

Terminal Manoeuvring Area

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50
Q

What is CTA?

A

Controlled Area

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51
Q

What is CTR?

A

Controlled Zone

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52
Q

What is ATZ?

A

Aerodone Traffic Zone

53
Q

Where do CTRs, ATZs, TMAs, CTAs and FLs occur?

A

CTRs and ATZs occur at ground level
TMAs, CTAs and FLs occur up in the airspace away from the ground

54
Q

Who manages FIRs?

A

Managed by a controlling authority and they have the responsibility of ensuring that air traffic services are supplied to aircraft that are flying with their region
In the UK CAA is the controlling authority, and the ATS are provided to them by NATS

55
Q

What are the three FIRs in the UK?

A

London
Scottish
Shanwick

56
Q

What is Class A, C, and E airspace?

A

Layer of airspace that do not exten to the ground

57
Q

What is Class G?

A

Main uncontrolled, except aroung aerodomes where ATC is resident and in these cases, the level of control comes down to ground level

58
Q

What is Class D?

A

Very controlled and occurs around major airports and the control at the lowest level extends to ground level

59
Q

What class do UAS flights noramlly take place?

A

Class G - uncontrolled
Class D - controlled airspace

60
Q

What are runway protection zones?

A

Protectes areas that extend 5km from the runway and ensure unmanned aircraft are clear of manned aviation unless controlled closely

61
Q

What are ATZs?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Zones

62
Q

What are the dimensions of ATZs?

A

Zone extending from the ground upto 2000 feeet with radius of 2.5 (2.0) NM around midpoint of longest runway for aerodromes where the longest runway is longer (shorter) than 1850m

63
Q

What are the parameters of FRZs?

A

Flight Restriction Zones
Area combined with the runway protection zone which starts and end of each runway going out to 5km in length, with a width of 1km
FRZ + ATZ makes the Flight restriction zone

64
Q

What are the three main reserved airspace categories?

A

Danger areas where military operate
Prohibited areas where no is supposed to fly
Restricted areas for particular reasons

65
Q

How can we check temporary airspace reservations?

A

They will not show up on aviation maps
We can use NOTAM info websites
Or look at Dronesafetymaps.com

66
Q

When should you seek permission for UAS flight?

A

Any UAS under 25kg MOTM, no specific permission is needed from an ATC at any time before you operate execpt when flying in a flight restriction zone or runway protection zone
Do consider contacting local ATC or nearby airfields out of courtesy to inform about intended flight

67
Q

When can NOTAMS be issued?

A

Red arrow displays
Firework displays
Runways out of service
GPS jamming
New obstacle/structure erected

68
Q

Who to contact when flying in class G and D airspace?

A

If below 25 kg and outside an ATZ/FRZ you can fly without seeking permission from an ATC
This isn’t advised and best practice to still contact relevant ATC before flight

69
Q

Who do you contact before operating within an ATZ/FRZ?

A

Must contract ATC/Airport Operator first and seek permission to fly (some may require NSF Application)

70
Q

What is segragated airspace?

A

Block of airspace to operate in which the unmanned aircraft is segregated from other aircraft - other aircraft not permitted to enter airspace block
Usually put in place for BVLOS flights

71
Q

What is good airmanship?

A

Knowledge
Preparation
Practice

72
Q

What are the block principles of the Kern Airmanship model?

A

Proficiency
Skill
Discipline

73
Q

What are the pillars of knowledge of the Kern Airmanship model?

A

Self
Aircraft
Team
Environment
Risk

74
Q

What are the capstone outcomes in the Kern Airmanship model?

A

Judgement
Situational Awareness

75
Q

What is aircraft airworthiness?

A

CAA regulates all UAS under 150kg
No requirement for independent airworthimess assessment if the aircraft is less than 20kg
However RP must ensure that any aircraft system can be safely operated in the context of the intended application, taking into account the applicable environmental conditions

76
Q

What prep is needed before flight?

A

Plan flight from start to finish
Identify hazards that are present and the risks those hazards present to your flight
Mitigate the risk in some way

77
Q

What is expected during flight operation?

A

Adopt ‘See and Avoid’ approach
Scan airspace regularly
Utilise oberver to help manage the flight and the environment
Anticipate the unexpected
Plan for the worst case scenario

78
Q

What must be consider to determine if flight is Go/No Go?

A

UAS airworthiness
Crew has been briefed
Pilot fit and capable to execute operation
Crew fit and capable to excute their tasks
Present risks are ALARP
Safe to operate in the airspace
Anyone who is not under the control of the remote pilot is at the require distance for the UAS

79
Q

What must the RP do after flight is completed?

A

Take note of the flight
Record any incident or unexpected events
Log the response and actions taken to any emergency

80
Q

What parameters should RP be aware of during flight?

A

Distance
Height
Speed

81
Q

Whart are Congested Areas?

A

Any area in relation to a city, town, or settlement which is substantially used for residential, industrial, business, or recreational purposes
Without valid Operational Authorisation flying near a congested area you must stay 150m away
With OA must maintain 50m away from people, vessels, vehicles, and structures not underconrol of the remote pilot

82
Q

What must you consider before flying at night?

A

Does the aircraft have suitable lighting on it?
Have you done a daytime risk assessment?
Is the take-off/landing area suitably illuminated?

83
Q

What is the Operational Volume?

A

Composed of the flight geography and the contingency volume

84
Q

Whar are mitigtions for ground risks?

A

Ground risk buffer should be established to protect third parties on the ground
Green area - Flight Geography
Yellow area - Contingency volume (where we don’t intend to fly but can be confident that univolved persons will not be present and ground hazrdds will be minimal)
Red lines - outline the Ground Risk Buffer, the area between the operational volume and any adjacent areas

85
Q

What are mitigations for air risks?

A

Air-risk buffer should be defines during planning phase
Green and yellow shows the operational volume
Pink area shows any mearby FRZ, the arrow depicts the Air Risk Buffer (distance to the hazard)

86
Q

What must be recorded in a remote pilot logbook?

A

Unexpected events/emergencies and the response
Time in flight for both aircraft and pilot flight times
Having a detailed and up to date flight log can also help if applyig for an Operations Safety Case (OSC)

87
Q

What is the I’M SAFE Mnemonic?

A

I - illness
M - medication
S - stress
A - alcohol
F - fatigue
E - eating

If this checklis cannot be completed, the pilot shoud not take off

88
Q

What are blind spots?

A

Area outside of our field of view or, an area within our range of vision that is obscured, meaning that we cannot see properly

89
Q

How do you mitigate the risks with blind spots?

A

RP check behind them after each manoeuvre
Use crew to keep an eye on these areas

90
Q

What is the Scan Technique?

A

To avoid fixation and maintain situational awareness, aspects to check would include the following:
Check the UAS
Check the airspace (including weather)
Check ground space
Check the telemetry/endurance (battery levels)
Check your blind spot

91
Q

What is the decision process during flight when observing risks?

A

Identify hazards
Assess risks
What are the controls
Make control decision
Use controls
Monitor results

92
Q

What scale OS map is used for planning UAS flight?

A

1:25,000 scale OS Maps give the greatest detail on ground hazards when planning

93
Q

What are key things to look out for on an OS map?

A

Public rights of way/Bridleways
Powerlines, masts, and other structures
Leisure signs indication potential public use
Contour lines
Roads

93
Q

What are key things to look out for on an OS map?

A

Public rights of way/Bridleways
Powerlines, masts, and other structures
Leisure signs indication potential public use
Contour lines
Roads

94
Q

What is the London Helicopter Routes Aviation Chart?

A

Depicts current helicoper routes into and out of the London area, heliports, altitude limits, and reporting points
Info on such low-level VFR helicopter route structures is provided in the Aeronautical Information PUblication (AIP_ and portrayed on Helicopter Route VFR charts

95
Q

What are military low flying areas?

A

Low flying areas specified from the surface to 2000 ft
Can notify the military low flying booking cell of our flight

96
Q

What format is given when liaising with ATC about latitude and longitude?

A

DMS - Degrees, Minutes, Seconds
Decimals

97
Q

What are the factorss that affect UAS performance?

A

Air pressure
Air temperature
Humidity

98
Q

What factors affect air density?

A

Altitude
Time of day
Location

99
Q

What are METARs and whatdo they show?

A

Meteorological Aerodrome Report
Snapshop of current weather conditions including:
Wind speed and direction
Visibility
Weather
Clouds
Temperature
Pressure

100
Q

What are TAFs and what do they show?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
Provide concise description of the upcoming:
Wind
Visibility
Cloud
Weather Conditions

101
Q

What are cold fronts?

A

Symbolised as a blue line with triangles
Cold air advancing and pushing underneath warmer air like a wedge
Cold air is replacing warm air at the surface

102
Q

What are warm fronts?

A

Symbolised as red line with semicircles
Warm air is advancing and rising over cold air
Warm air is replacing cooler air at the surface

103
Q

What are occulded fronts?

A

Symbolised as a purple line with triangles and semicircles
Occulded means hidden
The cold front catches up with the warm front
Warm air is lifeted from the surface and therefore hidden
Thought to have characteristics of both warm and cold fronts

104
Q

What are the effects of wind on UAS?

A

No wind: Airspeed = Ground Speed
Headwind: Airspeed - Windspeed = Ground Speed
Tailwind: Airspeed + Windspeed = Ground Speed

105
Q

What are the three types of turbulance?

A

Mechanical - Caused by air moving over irregularly shaped surfaces, such as buildings or hills
Thermal - Generated as air as the surface is heated to a higher temperature than the surrounding air and then ascend as thermals
Shear - Caused by air moving in different directions at different levels

106
Q

How does cold weather effect UAS?

A

Reduce battery life
Icing on leading edges of props

106
Q

How does cold weather effect UAS?

A

Reduce battery life
Icing on leading edges of props

107
Q

What factors effect visibility?

A

Fog
Mist
Sun

108
Q

What is lift affected by?

A

Speed of rotor blade moving thorugh the air
Size and profile of prop
Air density

109
Q

What is the best case condition for generating lift?

A

Dry cold winter morning near sea level
Worst case conditions are in the middle of summer, high up in the mountains, in a tropical rain forest at midday

110
Q

What is ground effect?

A

It is caused by a reduction in induced drag from rotor tip vortices, creating better lift efficiency

111
Q

What is the vortex ring?

A

Occurs when rotor helicopters/drones descend vertically at speed
The downwash from the tips of the rotor blades circles back over the top and is pulled through the rotor blades again
Results in reduced lift and the UAS becomes unstable, which usually results in a crash

112
Q

What key manoeuvre is used to avoid Vortex Ring?

A

Descend at an angle and if the Vortex Ring looks like it’s taking hold, don’t apply more power as this exacerbates the problem

112
Q

What key manoeuvre is used to avoid Vortex Ring?

A

Descend at an angle and if the Vortex Ring looks like it’s taking hold, don’t apply more power as this exacerbates the problem

113
Q

How is yaw counteracted in multi-rotors?

A

They have adjacent rotor blades spinning in the opposite direction but opposite rotor blades spinning in the same direction

114
Q

What is ATTI mode?

A

Also known as ALT HOLD or Attitude mode
When the drone has no GPS stabilisation, not connected to GPS satellites, and does not know its location
The drone will still hold its altitude at this information

115
Q

What is manual mode?

A

Similar to ATTI mode in the sense that it will not hold its position but it also will not hold its altitude

116
Q

What are the two main components that make up a UAS?

A

Main Flight Control Processor - This is the brain of the UAS
IMU - Provice data to stabilise the craft

117
Q

How can RPs be proactive with any maintenance or damage that is impacting drones airworthiness?

A

Flight reference cards/pre-flight checklists
Routine maintenance logs for the aircraft should be checked and up to date
Where has the UAS been and who has flown it
Look at number of flights or hours of service the drone has undertaken
Software/firmware updates should be checked and updated before each flight

118
Q

What pre-flight checks should be completed?

A

Compass calibrated?
Are the props in a safe condition?
Is everything secure?
Any sign of damage?
Battery, fully charged?
Telemetry working?
LEDs working and sequences correct?
Multiple GPS fix?
Correct flight mode selected?

119
Q

What is geofencing?

A

Works by creating an invisible barrier around the location
The coordinates for this barrier are stored on your device and when the aircraft coordinates match a restricted location it will not let you continue

120
Q

What are operational limits?

A

Implementing height and distance limits on equiment

121
Q

What happens if you arrive on-site and things are different?

A

The planning and risk assessment will need to be amended to reflect your findings
If an accident was to occur, the CAA can demand to see your planning paperwork and risk assessments so you need to ensure they are correct for the location you had flown at

122
Q

What should RPs do yo develop better situational awareness?

A

Doing pre-site and on-site survey

123
Q

What should RPs look out for when it comes to airspace?

A

Type - is it controlled/uncontrolled
Class - G, D, or a FRZ
ATC - is permission required and what are their details?
Any other air users in the vicinity?

124
Q

What should RPs consider when encountering obstructions?

A

Type of obstruction
Proximities
Permissions - are they under the control of the remote pilot
Will VLOS be effected

125
Q

What should the brief to crew members include?

A

Times of flight
Objectives to achieve
Role and responsibilities
Areas of conceWrn (access points, areas not under your control, etc)
What to do in an emergency

126
Q

What factors can effect how quickly the battery depletes?

A

Overall conditions of the batteries
Temperature
Wind speeds and direction
How the flight is being performed - flying more aggressively will draw more power

127
Q

What are some emergencies that can occur?

A

Loss of power
Loss of control
Loss of GPS
Flyaway
Fire
Structural failure
Pilot incapacitation
Air incursions
Ground incursions

GVC (1 decks)

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