Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Lee County common treatment guidelines > Guidelines > Flashcards

Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

What age classifies an adult

A

Greater than 13 years or signs of puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What age classifies a pediatric patient

A

1 to 13 years of age or signs of puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What age classifies an infant patient

A

One month to one year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What age classifies a neonate patient

A

Birth to one month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

For purposes of admission criteria, the Lee health system considers any patient less than how many years old to be pediatric

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

For purposes of trauma alert criteria, adult his age (blank) and above

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For purposes of trauma alert criteria, pediatric age is a (blank) and below

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three things to assess during a general impression that determines sick versus not sick

A

Appearance, work of breathing, circulation to scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the CABDE assessment stand for

A 
Circulation 
Airway
Breathing 
Disability 
Exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three things assessed to gauge circulation status

A

Central and peripheral pulses

Major hemorrhage

Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When checking central and peripheral pulses assess for

A

Present or absent

Regular or a regular

Rate and quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When assessing skin check for

A

Color, temperature, condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four categories

When checking Airway status

A

Natural
Artificially secured
Compromised
Obstructed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When assessing breathing status check

A

Work of breathing

Respirations

Auscultate lung sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When assessing respirations assess for

A

Present or absent

Regular or a regular

Rate and quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Check these four things when assessing disability status

A

Defibrillation

Motor/Sensory

Blood glucose

Cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When assessing exposure look for

A

Evaluate illness or injury by removing clothing

Medical or bracelets or ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sample stands for

A 
Signs/Symptoms
Allergies
Medications
Pertinent medical history
Last oral intake
Events leading to present illness or injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

OPQRST stands for

A 
Onset
Provocation/palliation
Quality
Region/radiation/referred
 Severity
Time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What detailed exam consist of checking AVPU, Glasgow coma scale, stroke assessment, pupil response, Pain scale, sedation scale

A

Neurological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A full set of vital signs consist of

A

Pulse, blood pressure, respirations, skin color, temperature and condition, capillary refill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Documentation related to what consists of emergency information form, medical records, medical error, DNR form, etc.

A

Patient’s history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many differential Impressions of a case Should you form

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an example of a triple differential for altered mental status

A

Hypoglycemia vs. stroke vs. Organic brain syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an example of a triple differential for acute coronary syndrome

A

STEMI vs Unstable angina

Vs Pulmonary emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an example of a triple differential for a shoulder injury

A

Shoulder fracture vs shoulder dislocation vs shoulder contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ventilation target is what with a normal capnograph

A

etCO2 35mmHg - 45 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Oxygen target is what with a normal plethysmograph

A

Sp02 94%-99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary approach for the pleural Needle decompression

A

Anterior, second or third intercostal space, midclavicular Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the secondary approach for the pleural needle decompression

A

Lateral, fourth or fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What should you correct in open pneumothorax with

A

An appropriate vented occlusive dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

EMTs may start IVs under the supervision of who and in the upper extremity only

A

A credentialed paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the four approved insertion sites for an IO

A

Proximal humerus

Proximal tibia

Distal femur

Distal tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the primary site for an IO in an adult

A

Proximal humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the primary site for an IO in pediatrics

A

Distal femur or proximal humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

First line therapy for a closed system hypotension hypo perfusion is what

A

Crystalloid fluid Resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the preferred balanced Based isotonic crystalloid

A

Lactated ringer’s solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the BP target

A

Permissive hypotension, restoration of peripheral pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

You should mitigate non-compressible hemorrhages by

A

Rapid transport and crystalloid Fluid resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Any Patient that receives IV or I owe medications must have what

A

A running. Crystalloid Infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

No medications will be administered directly through what

A

A medication porch or saline lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the blood glucose target

A

60 mg/dL - 300 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

You should splint or immobilize mobilize Fractured or dislocated limbs and what position

A

A natural or functional one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the treatment for a closed femur fracture

A

Traction split

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What should you provide to all high acuity patients

A

Environmental protection and Thermo preservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the temperature target Four Thermo preservation

A

98.6°F or 37°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The phrase cold blood does not clot refers to what

A

Hitler’s method which states you should preserve body heat to mitigate the lethal Triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What priority patient is unstable ALS that requires immediate medical attention for a life and or limb threatening illness or injury

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What priority patient is a stable ALS patient that requires medical attention but not immediately in danger of life

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What priority patient is a BLS patient that just requires non-emergent medical attention

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A minimum of how many assessments are required for every patient transport

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Transfer of care between the non-transport and transport providers is essential for what

A

A good patient outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What takes precedence over patient care in apparatus

A

Provider safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the six medication right before the administration of any medication

A 
Patient
Drug
Dose
Route 
Time
Documentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What should you perform before the administration of any medication and or critical procedure

A

A partner cross check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The maximum dose of pediatric medication should never exceed

A

The maximum adult dose except when specifically stated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a clinical mindset in a constellation of skills, tools and techniques that are deployed to establish and or manage non-natural airways

A

Airway management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The primary goal of progressive airway management is to

A

Start simple, work through the various levels and stop with the airway is patent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When placing an Advanced airway, every effort must be made to avoid

A

Iatrogenic hyper/hypocapnea

Hypotension

Bradycardia

SPO2 desaturation events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is associated with worse outcomes among pediatrics, closed head traumatic brain injuries and poly trauma patients

A

Endotracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

True or false endotracheal intubation is also associated with interruptions and chest compressions during CPR

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Indications for prehospital endotracheal intubation can be narrow to the following

A

Inability to ventilate and or oxygenate

Inability to manage secretions

Laryngeal Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

If endotracheal intubation is required providers will adhere to what

A

The two and out philosophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is preferential To direct laryngoscopy

A

Video laryngoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is defined as passing the Laryngoscope blade and or endotracheal tube beyond the teeth with the intent to intubate the trachea

A

An endotracheal intubation attempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the mechanical aspect of breathing in which air moves into the lungs and CO2 moves out of the lungs

A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Proper ventilation requires both

A

Adequate title volume and respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is defined as the addition of oxygen to any system, including the human body

A

Oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Oxygenation may also refer to the process of treating a patient with oxygen or

A

Combining a medication or other substance with oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Considerations in determining a patient’s need for supplemental oxygen are determined from the patients

A

Presenting condition coupled with history and physical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a condition where a patient’s respiratory volume and rate can create uncertainty

A

Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

During hyperventilation The lack of adequate CO2 causes a (blank) in the acid levels resulting in alkalosis

A

Drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

CO2 is a potent vasodilator or constrictor

A

Vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When CO2 drops as a result of iatrogenic hyperventilation blood vessels do what

A

Constrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In the case of a brain injured patient, iatrogenic hyperventilation will

A

Reduce blood flow to the injury/ischemic zone (penumbra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the Progressive airway management path in escalating order

A

Natural airway

Head positioning Airway axis alignment

Basic mechanical airways

Advanced airways

Cricothyroidotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The maneuvers of head tilt chin lift, John thrust, sniffing position, moving the head of the bed up, and ramping fall under

A

Head positioning and airway axis alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Extra glottic or endotracheal airways are what kind

A

Advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the three types of cricothyroid otomy

A

Needle , percutaneous, surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The primary treatment goals for patients suffering from inadequate oxygenation include

A

Preventing or correcting hypoxia

Optimizing ET CO2 and SPO2

Minimizing the effects of secondary and or iatrogenic injury

Decreasing airway resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is an effective way to improve oxygenation in patients that are non-invasively or invasively ventilated

A

Positive and expiratory pressure for PEEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What stents Open closed alveoli and recruits long thus increasing surface area for gas exchange

A

PEEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

PEEP increases (blank), Which improves pulmonary reserve between breaths

A

Functional reserve capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In prehospital care, the range of PEEP is generally what

A

5-15 cmH2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Classic settings for PEEP are

A

5,7.5,10,12.5,and 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Tight lung patients, reactive airway disease, typically do better at what PEEP setting

A

5 cmH20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Wet lung patients typically require what PEEP setting

A

7.5 -15 cmH20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

PEEP greater than 15cmH20 Can result in an increase in intrathoracic pressure thus causing

A

A decrease in venous return and cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

PEEP Is contra indicated in what type of patients

A

Cardio pulmonary arrest and grossly hypotensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What has been shown to improve oxygen saturation in apneic patients during advanced airway management placement

A

Apneic nasal oxygenation

Nasal cannula at 15lpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the escalating desired pathway for progressive ventilation and oxygenation management

A

Eupneic

Truncal positioning-airway axis alignment

Passive oxygenation

Non invasive ventilation /oxygenation

Invasive ventilation/oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Nasal cannula, high flow nasal cannula, nonrebreather mask, nebulizer, controlled mechanical ventilation, bag mask ventilation fall under what type of oxygenation

A

Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

CPAP, Controlled mechanical ventilation, bag mask ventilation fall under what type of oxygenation

A

Non-invasive ventilation/oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Controlled mechanical ventilation, PEEP, bag mask ventilation-PEEP fall under

A

Invasive ventilation/oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A common pitfall in ventilation is to over ventilate patients by providing

A

Too much Tidal volume or too fast minute rate

96
Q

When they normally breathing patient takes a breath, and intrathorasic pressure does what

A

It decreases allowing air to be drawn into the lungs

97
Q

In patients that receive positive pressure ventilation, intrathoracic pressure is

A

Increased

98
Q

Unregulated PPV will have a dramatic adverse effect on

A

Circulation and perfusion

99
Q

When attention is not paid to PPV volume and rate, the patient can be harmed as a result of the imbalance between what

A

Alveolar ventilation and pulmonary capillary blood flow

100
Q

An imbalance Between alveolar ventilation and pulmonary capillary blood flow is known as

A

Ventilation/ perfusion (VQ) miss matching

101
Q

Iatrogenic V/Q Miss matching can be mitigated by the use of what two things

A

Controlled mechanical ventilation (CMV) Devices or automated transport ventilators
(ATVs)

102
Q

Ventilation volume in rate should be guided by the use of what and in concert with American heart Association guidelines

A

Wave form capnography or ET CO2

103
Q

Supine positioning can result in a market reduction in what respiratory factor

A

Functional residual capacity

104
Q

Pulmonary patients should be transported in what position

A

Semi Fowler’s

105
Q

What two devices are preferential to bag mask ventilation (BVM)

A

Controlled mechanical ventilation (CMV) or automated transport ventilator (ATV)

106
Q

What two things are required for all advanced airway/ ventilation cases

A

Waveform capnography (ET CO2) and pulse oximetry

107
Q

What can be used for initial CO2 detection when continuous waveform capnography is not immediately available

A

Color metric ET CO2 device

108
Q

What is the treatment for a partial FBAO

A

Encourage coughing and reevaluate

109
Q

What is the treatment for a complete and conscious FBAO in an adult

A

Abdominal thrusts

110
Q

What is the treatment for a complete and conscious FBAO In an infant

A

Five back slabs and five Chest thrusts

111
Q

In an unconscious adult with an FBAO that you can’t ventilate what is the treatment

A

Laryngoscopy , McGill forcep removal, Surgical/needle Cricothyroid otomy

112
Q

The use of patient restraints is authorized in all instances where a patient’s behavior may

A

Jeopardize the safety of the patient or crew

113
Q

What may be used when a patient Lacks decisional capacity to make rational decisions and exhibits behavior that may disallow necessary medical treatment

A

Restraints

114
Q

Patients will not be restrained and what position

A

Prone

115
Q

Distal neurovascular function she’ll be checked and documented after application of restraints and every how many minutes after

A

10

116
Q

After restraint application what must be checked every 10 minutes

A

Pulse
Motor
Sensation

117
Q

When a patient is restrained, distal pulses and capillary refill time of less than how many Seconds should be obtained

A

2 seconds

118
Q

In the event of a short transport time, the results of a minimum of how many sets are to be documented before you reach the facility with a Restrained patient

A

2

119
Q

First consideration for transport is

A

The facility of the patient’s choice

120
Q

What is the key to delivering the right patient, to the right facility, the first time

A

Informed consent

121
Q

Mode of transport (ground, air or water) is determined by who

A

The highest medical authority providing direct patient care

122
Q

Status of transport (lights and siren Use) is determined by who

A

The EMS transport provide her with the highest medical authority providing direct patient care

123
Q

The decision to run lights and sirens should be justified by the need of what

A

Time sensitive medical intervention that is beyond the capabilities of the transport unit

124
Q

Patients, regardless of age, were transported in cardiopulmonary arrest or deteriorate to cardiopulmonary arrest in transit, shall be transported where

A

To the closest facility

125
Q

Stroke alert patient should be transported to

A

The closest. STEMI/percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) facility

126
Q

Stroke alert patient should be transported to the closest

A

Comprehensive stroke center

127
Q

Trauma alert patients, regardless of age or pregnancy status, shall be transported where

A

The closest trauma center

128
Q

Septic alert patients may be transported

A

To any admit facility

129
Q

Adults with simple extremity fractures (SEFx) Or dislocations May be transported to

A

Any facility

130
Q

Children with simple extremity fractures (SEFx) or dislocations, excluding the elbow, may be transported to

A

Any facility

131
Q

The term to describe an isolated, closed, distal extremity below the elbow or knee) fracture or dislocation without neurovascular compromise or need for surgical intervention is

A

Simple extremity fracture

SEFx

132
Q

True or false, elbow fractures or dislocations in children are not considered SEFx

A

True

133
Q

Adults that may require orthopedic surgery or have a neurovascular injury should be transported to the closest

A

Adult orthopedic admit the facility

134
Q

Adults that have a high probability for general medical surgical admission (GMSA) can be transported to

A

Any facility

135
Q

Children that have a high probability for general medical surgical admissions (GMSA) should be transported to the closest

A

Pediatric admit facility

136
Q

Possible appendicitis, bowel obstruction and or any signs of peritoneal irritation in any pediatric are all high probability for what

A

To be a general medical surgical admission

GMSA

137
Q

Obstetrical patients greater than or equal to 20 weeks gestation shall be transported to an

A

OB/GYN receiving facility

138
Q

Where should high risk Obstetrical patients be transported to

A

Neonatal intensive care receiving facility

139
Q

Where should patients within an Imminent Obstetrical emergency Be transported to

A

The closest

OB/GYN facility

140
Q

Oncology alert patients (on or receiving chemotherapy with a fever 100.4°F or greater) shall be transported to

A

An oncology admit facility

141
Q

Following appropriate prehospital Decontamination, patient exposed to hazardous materials can be transported to

A

Any facility

142
Q

Patients with a high probability for hyperbaric oxygen therapy can be transported to

A

Any facility

143
Q

Venomous snake and spider bites or stings can be transported to

A

Lee Memorial Hospital and all Collier County facilities

144
Q

Mammal and Marine bites or stings can be transported to

A

Any facility

145
Q

Lee Memorial Hospital

A

Trauma alert

Adult ortho

146
Q

Golisano Children’s hospital of SWFL

A

Pediatric admit

OB under 18 years of age

OB less than 20 weeks gestation

Ped ortho

147
Q

Lehigh regional medical center

A

Adult ortho

148
Q

Cape Coral Hospital

A

OB/GYN

Adult ortho

149
Q

Golf Coast medical center

A

STEMI alert/ PCI

Stroke alert (comprehensive)

Adult ortho

Oncology alert

150
Q

Health Park medical center

A

STEMI alert PC

OB/GYN

neonate

151
Q

For mixed transports (i.e. parent and child), both parents shall be transported to

A

Health Park

152
Q

Naples community Hospital

A

STEMI alert/ PCI

Stroke alert comprehensive

Adult ortho

Oncology alert

153
Q

Physicians regional medical center PR

A

STEMI alert PCI

Stroke alert

Adult ortho

154
Q

Naples community Hospital

A

Stroke alert comprehensive

Ped

OB/GYN

Neonate

Adult ortho

Ped ortho

155
Q

Physicians regional medical center. CB

A

Adult ortho

156
Q

Fossett Memorial Hospital

A

STEMI alert PCI

Stroke alert comprehensive

Adult ortho

Oncology alert

157
Q

Bayfront health Punta Gorda

A

Oncology alert

158
Q

Bayfront health Port Charlotte

A

STEMI alert PCI

Stroke alert comprehensive

Ped

OB/GYN

Neonate

Adult ortho

Ped ortho

159
Q

Inglewood community Hospital

A

STEMI alert PCI

Adult ortho

160
Q

Bayfront health Venice regional

A

STEMI alert PCI

161
Q

Sarasota Memorial Hospital

A

STEMI alert PCI

Stroke alert comprehensive

Trauma alert

Ped

OB/GYN

Neonate

Adult ortho

Ped ortho

Oncology alert

162
Q

D1

A

Lee Memorial Hospital

163
Q

D2

A

Golisano children’s hospital of SWFL

164
Q

D3

A

Lehigh regional medical center

165
Q

D4

A

Cape Coral Hospital

166
Q

D5

A

Golf Coast medical center

167
Q

D7

A

Health Park medical center

168
Q

D6

A

Naples community hospital baker DT

169
Q

D13

A

Physicians regional Medical Center PR

170
Q

D14

A

Naples community Hospital North

171
Q

D15

A

Physicians regional Medical Center CB

172
Q

D9

A

Fawcett Memorial Hospital

173
Q

D10

A

A front health Punta Gorda

174
Q

D11

A

Bayfront health Port Charlotte

175
Q

D8

A

Inglewood community Hospital

176
Q

D12

A

Bayfront health Venice regional

177
Q

D16

A

Sarasota Memorial Hospital

178
Q

What county does Lee Memorial Hospital, Golisano Children’s Hospital of SWFL, Lehigh regional Medical Center, Cape Coral Hospital, golf Coast medical center, and health Park medical center reside in

A

Lee

179
Q

What county does Naples community hospital baker, physicians Regional medical center PR, Naples community Hospital North, and physicians regional medical centerCB reside in

A

Collier

180
Q

What county does faucet Memorial Hospital bayfront health contact order and pay front health Port Charlotte reside in

A

Charlotte

181
Q

What county does Inglewood community Hospital, bayfront health Venice regional, and Sarasota Memorial Hospital reside in

A

Sarasota

182
Q

D31

A

Coconut point

183
Q

D32

A

NCH Bonita

184
Q

D35

A

Bayfront a Cape Coral

185
Q

D34

A

NCH north east

186
Q

D33

A

Northport ER

187
Q

Northport ER

A

Ped

OB/GYN

Adult ortho

Ped ortho

Oncology alert

188
Q

What county does Coconut point NCH Bonita and bayfront Cape Coral standalone ER’s reside in

A

Lee

189
Q

What is the only standalone ER in Collier County

A

NCH Northeast

190
Q

What is the only standalone ER in Sarasota County

A

Northport ER

191
Q

Air medical transport should be used when it critically ill and or injured patient will benefit from

A

Faster transport and reduced out of hospital time

192
Q

You should place air medical transport on standby when

A

The call information obtained by Dispatch suggests the need for it

193
Q

You should request air medical transport within the first how many minutes of patient contact

A

2

194
Q

Request air medical transport within the first two minutes of patient contact if they fall under these two priorities

A

Priority 1: patients exceed ground transport time of 30 minutes

Priority 2: Patients that are in accessible by roads

195
Q

True or false, any on scene first responder may request air medical transport

A

True

196
Q

Who, weather on scene or not, may request air medical transport based on available information at that time

A

Any LCEMS supervisor

197
Q

Lee control may provide information to Air medical transport and request a what to expedite response time

A

an Auto launch

198
Q

Air medical crews may request information from Lee control and decide to

A

Auto launch

199
Q

True or false, after initial assessment, the highest medical authority providing direct patient care should cancel air medical transport if the patient’s condition does not warrant the service or meet the criteria

A

True

200
Q

The following patients are not appropriate for air medical transport

A

CPR in progress

Hazmat patients

Priority 3 patients

201
Q

Contact Lee control and notify them if you have more than one patient because what needs to happen

A

Additional air resources need to be requested

202
Q

Who is responsible for determining if the weather will permit the mission to be accepted By the air resource

A

The pilot

203
Q

Who is responsible for preparing and securing landing zones

A

The fire department

204
Q

Who occupies the controller roll on an LZ

A

Fire department personnel

205
Q

All LZ’s should be a minimum of what dimensions day or night

A

100x100

206
Q

Hard surface LZs must be illuminated at the corners with

A

Strobe and or a steady burn light source

207
Q

Once established, the LC controller will ensure what other task The duration of the event

A

LZ security

208
Q

What is provided in the LZ report From the controller to the pilot

A

The type of surface
(Hard or soft)

Wind direction and speed

Any potential hazards
(Wires, fences , signs )

209
Q

Ground to air radio traffic should be limited to

A

LZ information only, no patient information

210
Q

The LZ controller Should clear the aircraft for takeoff by

A

Looking around the LZ into the sky for any Other Air craft traffic in the vicinity

211
Q

If at any time the LZ becomes unsafe for takeoff or landing, the LZ controller will transmit what phrase

A

Abort, abort, Abort

212
Q

Ground providers shall comply with who’s instructions regarding patient packaging and aircraft loading and offloading

A

The air crew member’s

213
Q

A patient shall be defined as any individual who meets one or more of the following criteria

A

Medical or trauma complaint

Illness or injury

New altered mental status

Any individual in the same event that Is significantly ill and or injured

Demonstrates a high index of suspicion for illness or injury

214
Q

Who is a designated decision maker when a patient is not of decisional capacity or has legally transferred their healthcare decision making to another party

A

Responsible party

215
Q

What are the two phrases used when the unit arrives in the vicinity of a given location but no event or person involved could be found or located

A

Unable to locate

No patient found

216
Q

What is the phrase used when the unit arrives on scene and the person involved does not meet “patient” criteria

A

No Care required

217
Q

What is the phrase for the instance when a unit arrives on scene, makes contact with the person involved, the PI is determined to be a patient, and evaluation and/or intervention is performed and the patient ultimately declines to be transported to the hospital (refusal form required)

A

Treated, no transport

218
Q

What is the phrase used when the unit arrived on scene, makes contact with the person involved, the PI is determined to be a patient, ultimately refuses evaluation, treatment and declines to be transported to the hospital ( refusal required)

A

Treatment and transport refused

219
Q

What are the three components to a valid refusal of care

A

Competence

Decisional capacity

Informed refusal

220
Q

Competence to refuse care is defined by

A
  1. 18 years of age or older, or legally emancipated

2. A parent or legal guardian get refuses on behalf of their minor child

221
Q

Decisional capacity to refuse care is defined by

A

Orientation

Gate and or coordination

Speech pattern

Insight and judgment

Psychiatric decompensation

222
Q

All patients undergoing the refusal process must be oriented defined by

A

Being awake, alert, and oriented x 4 (Person Place time and situation)

223
Q

Staggering gate, or inability to stand and ambulate may indicate in an impairment That alters

A

Decision making capacity

224
Q

Slurred, incoherent or otherwise inappropriate speech patterns me indicate an impairment that alters

A

Decision making capacity

225
Q

(Blank): Patients being able to express good insight into the nature of their condition, and convey a reasonable plan to deal with the condition is acceptable as Decisional capacity to refuse care.

A

Insight and judgment

226
Q

Patient experiencing suicidal or homicidal ideation’s or gestures, audio or visual hallucinations, and/or other forms of delusional behavior that alters decision making capacity reveals (blank) , rendering someone unable to refuse Carr

A

Psychiatric decompensation

227
Q

What is defined by patients being fully informed about their medical condition, the risks and benefits associated with the proposed treatment and the risks associated with refusing evaluation, treatment, and or transportation

A

Informed refusal

228
Q

Medical emancipation:

Are you female who is (blank) May consent to medical care relating to her pregnancy and can make medical decisions on behalf of the unborn were born child

A

18 years of age who is unmarried, pregnant and or has a minor child

229
Q

What are the three categories of legal emancipation

A

18 years of age or at least 16 who is married

Is enlisted in military service

Or has been declared emancipated by court order

230
Q

No mine are less than how many years of age can be emancipated in Florida

A

16

231
Q

Patient able to refuse care must be

A

Competent

Have decisional capacity

Informed of all the risks

232
Q

Patient unable to refuse care

A

Incompetent < 18 yo

Lacks decisional capacity

AMS

Suicidal ideation’s or gestures

Mental defect disability or deficiency

Severely altered or impaired vitals

233
Q

If a patient is determined to be incompetent and relax decisional capacity, they may be evaluated, treated and transported under what term

A

Implied consent

234
Q

What a reasonable individual would consent to under the same circumstances is called

A

Implied consent

235
Q

If the patient is evaluated, treated and transported on the basis of implied consent, providers should use reasonable measures to ensure safe transport to

A

The closest appropriate facility

236
Q

True or false, to obtain a refusal of care you have to perform a primary assessment, history and physical examination; including a complete vital sign assessment

A

True

237
Q

True or false, to obtain a refusal of care procedure you must fully informed the patient or responsible party about his or her medical condition, the risks and benefits associated with the proposed treatment and the risk associated with refusing evaluation, treatment, and or transportation

A

True

Lee County common treatment guidelines (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions