GTN Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the genetic pathophysiology and karyotype of the typical complete mole.

A

Typically 46XX and due to duplication of genetic material from a single sperm within an empty egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the genetic pathophysiology and karyotype of the typical partial mole.

A
Typically triploid (69XXY, XYY, or XXX) and due to duplication of genetic material from a single sperm within a normal ovum
(Occasionally due to fertilization of a normal ovum with two sperm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common symptom of molar pregnancy? List three additional possible signs & symptoms.

A

Most common symptom: vaginal bleeding

Other possible S&S: HTN/preeclampsia, hyperemesis, hyperthyroidism, theca lutein cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What therapeutic options exist for a partial mole when the fetus is too large for A&C?

A

D&E
Hysterectomy with pregnancy in situ
Medical termination of pregnancy (associated with increased risk of persistent disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long should a woman wait following successful treatment of a molar pregnancy before attempting to conceive again?

A

6 months after beta = 0 x3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List three features which indicated increased risk of post-molar GTN.

A

Uterine size > dates
hCG > 100 000
Theca-lutein cysts > 6 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Your patient with GTN has a normal brain MRI, but has symptoms leading you to suspect cerebral metastasis. What follow-up test could you offer?

A

LP - if CSF:serum hCG > 1:60 this is highly suggestive of brain metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the staging of GTN.

A

I - confined to uterus
II - limited to pelvis
III - lung mets present
IV - any other mets present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
For each of the following features, define the high risk category:
Age
Antecedent pregnancy
Interval from pregnancy
hCG
Largest tumour
Site of metastasis
Number of metastases
Prior failed chemo
A
Age > 40
Antecedent pregnancy: term pregnancy
Interval > 12 months
hCG > 100 000
Largest tumour > 5 cm
Metastasis to brain or liver
> 8 metastases
Previous failed multiple agent chemo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the utility of the WHO risk scoring in GTN? For which patients is the risk scoring not useful?

A

Score > 7 suggests high likelihood of resistance to monotherapy, therefore should start with multiple-agent chemo
Not particularly useful in stage I or IV disease - stage I is always low-risk and stage IV always high-risk
Not useful for PSTT or ETT - in these cases treatment is based on FIGO staging alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the value of OCP for a woman undergoing chemo for high-risk GTN?

A

Other than contraception …
EMA/CO can damage the ovaries, resulting in increased LH
OCP suppresses LH and prevents cross-reactivity with hCG (which would interfere with treatment monitoring)_

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What options exist for treatment of CNS mets (other than chemo)?

A

Surgery - craniotomy & excision of met

RT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What follow-up test should be done if serum hCG is consistently positive and you suspect phantom beta?

A

Urine beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You previously treated a woman for a complete mole to good effect. She now has a new partner and they plan to start trying to conceive soon. She wants to know how her new partner affects her risk of recurrent molar pregnancy.

A

No effect

Rate of recurrence is 1% after a single molar pregnancy, 15-20% after two molar pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define trophoblastic embolization.

A

Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates following evacuation of a mole, typically resolve spontaneously within 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How should you treat theca-lutein cysts associated with a complete mole?

A

No treatment - spontaneous regression typically occurs 2-4 weeks after evacuation of mole
Drain if torted or causing significant symptoms (eg. pelvic pressure)

17
Q

Which contraceptive should not be used in patients who have recently been treated for molar pregnancy?

A

IUD due to increased risk of bleeding and perforation

18
Q

What is the fertility prognosis for women with familial recurrent hydatidiform mole?

A

Donor egg typically required for normal pregnancy

Moles in this case are biparental, not androgenetic, so IVF with own ovum is not sufficient treatment

19
Q

Your patient has had multi-agent chemo for treatment of a metastatic GTN. Her beta has normalized and she has received appropriate consolidation chemotherapy. Imaging identifies residual masses in the pelvis. How should these be treated?

A

No treatment - resection does not impact the risk of relapse

Imaging is done to establish a baseline in the event of future relapse

20
Q

What is the first-line treatment of stage I PSTT or ETT?

A

Hysterectomy followed by 8 weeks adjuvant chemo (PSTT and ETT are less chemosensitive than choriocarcinoma and invasive mole)

21
Q

What impact does EMA-CO have on later fertility?

A

Menopause will typically occur about 3 years earlier, but no other impact on fertility - majority of women can become pregnant, no increased rate of congenital anomalies