GST Revised Flashcards
_______________ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. ______________ is achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment. It requires weapons to strike within lethal range of the target. Hellfire missiles are well suited for destructive fires.
Destruction, Destruction
____________________ requires weapons effects to hit the target and cause damage to it. Unlike suppressive fire, target ________________ cannot be achieved by rounds that miss the target. Neutralizing damage to a target can temporarily remove it from the battle. (dATM Task 2033)
Neutralization, neutralization
______________________ of a target limits the ability of enemy personnel to perform their mission. ______________________ fire is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. It limits enemy movement and observation and increases friendly freedom to maneuver.
Suppression, Suppressive
Five techniques of fire?
Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump, Running/Diving Fire IP
Kinematic range
is the maximum distance that the round can physically fly.
RMAX
is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated)
Maximum effective range (RMe)
is the distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. RMe is generally the most useful weapons range for tactical planning and is dependent upon munition characteristics, desired munition effects and target type.
Four types of ballistics
Interior, Exterior, Aerial, Terminal
Ballistics definition?
is the science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion.
Interior Ballistics Include
Barrel wear, Launcher tube misalignment, Thrust misalignment, Propellant charge, and projectile weight
Exterior Ballistics
influence the motion of the projectile as it moves along its trajectory. The trajectory is the flight path of the projectile as it flies from the muzzle of the weapon to the point of impact. Aerial-fired weapons share the exterior ballistic characteristics associated with ground-fired weapons.
Exterior Ballistics Include
Gravity, Air resistance, Projectile drift and Wind drift are what types of ballistics?
Projectile drift _________ as range to target _____________. Spinning projectiles act like a gyroscope and exhibit gyroscopic precession, causing the projectile to move ________ in a horizontal plane
increases, increases, right
Aerial Ballistics. Aerial-fired weapons characteristics are derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are:
rotor down-wash error, angular rate error, and turning bank error
______________occurs when a crew fires a weapon from an aircraft in flight and the weapon’s muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind (figure C-14). Projectile jump begins when the projectile experiences an initial yaw as it leaves the muzzle. The jump occurs due to the precession (change in axis of rotation) induced by crosswind. The amount of jumps is proportional to the projectile’s initial yaw. Firing to the right produces a __________ jump; firing to the left produces an ____________jump.
Projectile Jump, downward, upward
Angular rate error is caused by the _________________________ in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. This error affects unguided weapon systems. When the weapon is fired, movement of the helicopter or rocket pod transfers motion to the rocket. The amount of error depends on range to the target and the rate of motion when weapon is fired
motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw)
The TSE is implemented using a seven state Kalman filter to derive the filtered target range and three axis target velocities. Whenever _____________ is in progress and a fresh range update is available from the LRV, the TSE updates target states and co-variances. Otherwise, the ____________________________________________ (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-22)
continuous lasing, Otherwise, the TSE extrapolates target states based on the last valid range measurement.
The TSE is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:
P
T
A
T
a. Processed range data from the laser range validator.
b. TADS LOS vector, pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros.
c. Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI.
d. Thumb force controller inputs (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-22)
The __________________________________ is used to initiate attack aviation fires on the enemy. It involves communication between the ground commander and the AWT conducting the attack. The 5-Line brief is a “friendly centric” brief that ______________. Transmission of this brief is clearance to fire unless “danger close”, “at my command”, or an additional method of control is stated. (dATM Task 2128)
Army Attack Aviation Call for Fire (5-Line), does not require a JTAC
The Artillery call for fire is comprised of 6 parts within 3 transmissions:
1st Transmission: Callsign and Warning Order.
2nd Transmission: Target Location.
3rd Transmission: Target description, method of engagement, and method of control.
TPMR Format
T=T, T, V, W, D, G, P
a) Techniques. Techniques of fire include running, diving, or hover fire. Type of threat, terrain, visibility, winds, DA, GWT of the aircraft, and the proximity to friendly troops will be considered when selecting a mode of fire. Another technique could be running fire with a bump to acquire targets.
b) Patterns. Patterns include, but are not limited to: race track, butterfly, 45-degree attack, circular/wheel, clover leaf, figure 8 or L-pattern. Direction of turns and pull-offs must be briefed.
c) Munitions. Munitions selected must be appropriate for the target and provide the most standoff capability. Accuracy and reliability must be considered when firing near friendly troops. Collateral damage could be another consideration in some areas of operation.
d) Range. When briefing range, include distance from target where inbound engagement will initiate and at what range the pull-off will be executed to prevent over flying the target and staying outside of the enemy’s engagement range.
The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation.
Shooter/cover, Shooter/shooter, Looker/shooter
The following steps are intended to provide guidelines for ensuring the most consistency in rocket engagements: ________________________ as a cue to enhance the accuracy of the aircraft weapon systems. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-9)
Use the four T’s (target, torque, trim, and target)
The Predicted Impact Vector end point (diamond - 3) depicts the location of the target at munition impact. It is Target State Estimator derived and displayed after approximately __________________________________. It is dynamically sized based on target velocity. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-37)
3 seconds of continuous lasing
The Dynamic Launch Zone (2) symbol represents the _____________, _________________, and ________________ for the actioned weapon system. The Target Range indicator (1) represents the___________________________________________ . (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-37)
minimum, maximum, and effective ranges
current range and its relation to the above targets
Appropriate levels of aircraft system safeing are defined as—
a. Weapons trigger switch released.
b. Weapons action switch deselected.
c. SAFE/ARM button – SAFE. (dATM Task 2033)
The rotary wing risk estimated distance for a 0.1% Pi (standing) - AWS
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP?
Black with yellow band
The 30-mm audible signature travels at approximately ________ meters per second. Engagement at greater than ________meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-28)
331
2,000
What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP Round?
Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings
Conduct AWS dynamic harmonization IAW the appropriate aircraft current operator’s manual/CL and the following criteria:
a. Aircraft heading to target within +/- 5˚ of the TADS LOS.
b. Range to target 500 – 1500 meters. The preferred distance is 1000 meters.
c. Transcribe the GUN harmonization correctors to DA Form 2408-14 (paper and electronic).
The projectile of the round has a shaped charge liner for piercing in excess of 2 inches of Rolled Homogenous Armor (RHA) at 2500 meters and a fragmentation radius of ____ meters for soft targets. (AH-64E AWS Student handout D-12)
4
30mm Time of flight when fired from a hover.
2000, 5.8 sec
The actual fragmentation pattern of any fragmenting warhead is not equally distributed in a circular pattern. To maximize probability of hit, the round must impact so that the target is within the fragmentation pattern. When engaging ______ targets, the _______should be ______________. When engaging exposed ____________, the __________ should be _________________ of the target to achieve the desired effects.
vehicle
DMPI
center of mass
personnel
DPMI
offset and/or short
The gun duty cycle is as follows:
- Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period.
- For BURST LIMIT settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 PG 4-153)
BURST LIMIT settings for the gun. BURST LIMIT establishes the number of rounds to be fired with each trigger pull:
10, 20, 50, 100, or ALL.
30mm Warning. If _____ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ____ minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 PG 4-153)
300
10
30
In the event of power loss, the gun is spring driven to _________________ to prevent dig-in during landing. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 PG 4-152)
+11° elevation