GST Revised Flashcards

1
Q

_______________ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. ______________ is achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment. It requires weapons to strike within lethal range of the target. Hellfire missiles are well suited for destructive fires.

A

Destruction, Destruction

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2
Q

____________________ requires weapons effects to hit the target and cause damage to it. Unlike suppressive fire, target ________________ cannot be achieved by rounds that miss the target. Neutralizing damage to a target can temporarily remove it from the battle. (dATM Task 2033)

A

Neutralization, neutralization

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3
Q

______________________ of a target limits the ability of enemy personnel to perform their mission. ______________________ fire is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. It limits enemy movement and observation and increases friendly freedom to maneuver.

A

Suppression, Suppressive

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4
Q

Five techniques of fire?

A

Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump, Running/Diving Fire IP

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5
Q

Kinematic range

A

is the maximum distance that the round can physically fly.

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6
Q

RMAX

A

is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated)

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7
Q

Maximum effective range (RMe)

A

is the distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. RMe is generally the most useful weapons range for tactical planning and is dependent upon munition characteristics, desired munition effects and target type.

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8
Q

Four types of ballistics

A

Interior, Exterior, Aerial, Terminal

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9
Q

Ballistics definition?

A

is the science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion.

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10
Q

Interior Ballistics Include

A

Barrel wear, Launcher tube misalignment, Thrust misalignment, Propellant charge, and projectile weight

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11
Q

Exterior Ballistics

A

influence the motion of the projectile as it moves along its trajectory. The trajectory is the flight path of the projectile as it flies from the muzzle of the weapon to the point of impact. Aerial-fired weapons share the exterior ballistic characteristics associated with ground-fired weapons.

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12
Q

Exterior Ballistics Include

A

Gravity, Air resistance, Projectile drift and Wind drift are what types of ballistics?

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13
Q

Projectile drift _________ as range to target _____________. Spinning projectiles act like a gyroscope and exhibit gyroscopic precession, causing the projectile to move ________ in a horizontal plane

A

increases, increases, right

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14
Q

Aerial Ballistics. Aerial-fired weapons characteristics are derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are:

A

rotor down-wash error, angular rate error, and turning bank error

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15
Q

______________occurs when a crew fires a weapon from an aircraft in flight and the weapon’s muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind (figure C-14). Projectile jump begins when the projectile experiences an initial yaw as it leaves the muzzle. The jump occurs due to the precession (change in axis of rotation) induced by crosswind. The amount of jumps is proportional to the projectile’s initial yaw. Firing to the right produces a __________ jump; firing to the left produces an ____________jump.

A

Projectile Jump, downward, upward

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16
Q

Angular rate error is caused by the _________________________ in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. This error affects unguided weapon systems. When the weapon is fired, movement of the helicopter or rocket pod transfers motion to the rocket. The amount of error depends on range to the target and the rate of motion when weapon is fired

A

motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw)

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17
Q

The TSE is implemented using a seven state Kalman filter to derive the filtered target range and three axis target velocities. Whenever _____________ is in progress and a fresh range update is available from the LRV, the TSE updates target states and co-variances. Otherwise, the ____________________________________________ (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-22)

A

continuous lasing, Otherwise, the TSE extrapolates target states based on the last valid range measurement.

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18
Q

The TSE is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:
P
T
A
T

A

a. Processed range data from the laser range validator.
b. TADS LOS vector, pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros.
c. Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI.
d. Thumb force controller inputs (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-22)

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19
Q

The __________________________________ is used to initiate attack aviation fires on the enemy. It involves communication between the ground commander and the AWT conducting the attack. The 5-Line brief is a “friendly centric” brief that ______________. Transmission of this brief is clearance to fire unless “danger close”, “at my command”, or an additional method of control is stated. (dATM Task 2128)

A

Army Attack Aviation Call for Fire (5-Line), does not require a JTAC

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20
Q

The Artillery call for fire is comprised of 6 parts within 3 transmissions:

A

1st Transmission: Callsign and Warning Order.
2nd Transmission: Target Location.
3rd Transmission: Target description, method of engagement, and method of control.

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21
Q

TPMR Format
T=T, T, V, W, D, G, P

A

a) Techniques. Techniques of fire include running, diving, or hover fire. Type of threat, terrain, visibility, winds, DA, GWT of the aircraft, and the proximity to friendly troops will be considered when selecting a mode of fire. Another technique could be running fire with a bump to acquire targets.
b) Patterns. Patterns include, but are not limited to: race track, butterfly, 45-degree attack, circular/wheel, clover leaf, figure 8 or L-pattern. Direction of turns and pull-offs must be briefed.
c) Munitions. Munitions selected must be appropriate for the target and provide the most standoff capability. Accuracy and reliability must be considered when firing near friendly troops. Collateral damage could be another consideration in some areas of operation.
d) Range. When briefing range, include distance from target where inbound engagement will initiate and at what range the pull-off will be executed to prevent over flying the target and staying outside of the enemy’s engagement range.

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22
Q

The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation.

A

Shooter/cover, Shooter/shooter, Looker/shooter

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23
Q

The following steps are intended to provide guidelines for ensuring the most consistency in rocket engagements: ________________________ as a cue to enhance the accuracy of the aircraft weapon systems. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-9)

A

Use the four T’s (target, torque, trim, and target)

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24
Q

The Predicted Impact Vector end point (diamond - 3) depicts the location of the target at munition impact. It is Target State Estimator derived and displayed after approximately __________________________________. It is dynamically sized based on target velocity. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-37)

A

3 seconds of continuous lasing

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25
Q

The Dynamic Launch Zone (2) symbol represents the _____________, _________________, and ________________ for the actioned weapon system. The Target Range indicator (1) represents the___________________________________________ . (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-37)

A

minimum, maximum, and effective ranges
current range and its relation to the above targets

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26
Q

Appropriate levels of aircraft system safeing are defined as—

A

a. Weapons trigger switch released.
b. Weapons action switch deselected.
c. SAFE/ARM button – SAFE. (dATM Task 2033)

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27
Q

The rotary wing risk estimated distance for a 0.1% Pi (standing) - AWS

A
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28
Q

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP?

A

Black with yellow band

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29
Q

The 30-mm audible signature travels at approximately ________ meters per second. Engagement at greater than ________meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-28)

A

331
2,000

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30
Q

What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP Round?

A

Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings

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31
Q

Conduct AWS dynamic harmonization IAW the appropriate aircraft current operator’s manual/CL and the following criteria:

A

a. Aircraft heading to target within +/- 5˚ of the TADS LOS.
b. Range to target 500 – 1500 meters. The preferred distance is 1000 meters.
c. Transcribe the GUN harmonization correctors to DA Form 2408-14 (paper and electronic).

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32
Q

The projectile of the round has a shaped charge liner for piercing in excess of 2 inches of Rolled Homogenous Armor (RHA) at 2500 meters and a fragmentation radius of ____ meters for soft targets. (AH-64E AWS Student handout D-12)

A

4

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33
Q

30mm Time of flight when fired from a hover.

A

2000, 5.8 sec

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34
Q

The actual fragmentation pattern of any fragmenting warhead is not equally distributed in a circular pattern. To maximize probability of hit, the round must impact so that the target is within the fragmentation pattern. When engaging ______ targets, the _______should be ______________. When engaging exposed ____________, the __________ should be _________________ of the target to achieve the desired effects.

A

vehicle
DMPI
center of mass
personnel
DPMI
offset and/or short

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35
Q

The gun duty cycle is as follows:

A
  • Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period.
  • For BURST LIMIT settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 PG 4-153)
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36
Q

BURST LIMIT settings for the gun. BURST LIMIT establishes the number of rounds to be fired with each trigger pull:

A

10, 20, 50, 100, or ALL.

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37
Q

30mm Warning. If _____ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ____ minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 PG 4-153)

A

300
10
30

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38
Q

In the event of power loss, the gun is spring driven to _________________ to prevent dig-in during landing. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 PG 4-152)

A

+11° elevation

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39
Q

The maximum effective range of the M230E1 is ___________________. Range (very effective) ________. Max ballistic solution _________. (AH-64E AWS SH)

A

1500-1700m
3000
4200

40
Q

Gun Reticle’s?

A
41
Q

The AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in ______________ mode.

A

NVS FIXED

42
Q

The amount of rounds will be reduced with the installation of the IAFS combo-pack. The IAFS has a 100 gallon fuel cell and an integrated ammunition storage magazine which stores approximately _____rounds in the magazine and _____rounds in the AHS allowing for approximately a 300 round capacity. (AH-64E AWS SH, PG D-5)

A

242
58

43
Q

The rotary wing risk estimate distance foe a 0.1% Pi (standing) - Rockets
PD
FL
APKWS

A
44
Q

Rocket Loading Zones

A
45
Q

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is ____meters. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is ___ to _____. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than ______. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-160)

A

800
1-3KM
3KM

46
Q

Re-inventory and attempting to fire 6MP, ____, and 6SK rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _________ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuze to reset. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-160)

A

6FL
10 days

47
Q

The M151 warhead is an anti-personnel, anti-materiel warhead (Figure A-3 and Table A-2) that is typically referred to as the “10-pounder” due to the combined warhead/fuze weight. The M151 warhead consists of a cast iron case (6.9 mm thick) with 1.05 kg of Comp B explosive. The base section of the warhead is threaded to mate with the MK66 rocket motor. The body of the warhead is _________________________________________. (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-4)

A

olive drab with a yellow band and yellow or black markings

48
Q

The HYDRA-70 rocket has a large dispersion (approximately 20-25 mils). Hit probability is increased with ___________________ and ____________________ (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-4)

A

running / diving fire and close range.

49
Q

The rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at high dive angles will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the ___________________________________ . (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-4)

A

effective beam spray

50
Q

Red pigment is ejected with the flechettes to serve as a daytime indicator and a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime indicator. The warhead body is ____________________________________ (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-18)

A

olive drab with white diamond markings.

51
Q

Flechettes are kinetic energy penetrators; so _________________________ will result in______________ _____________________ ___________________ of the flechettes. Flechette velocity decreases with increased ranges parallel the rocket. Note that the ejection charge only increases flechette velocity by approximately 15-25 m/s and flechette velocity decreases during free flight due to aerodynamic drag (including tumbling). (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-19)

A

short range shots
improved penetration performance

52
Q

The proper umbilical cord routing for a cargo rocket. (M255A1 Flechette shown)

A
53
Q

The M257 illumination warhead is primarily used for battlefield illumination with secondary application for target marking and Electro-Optical (EO) suppression. The M257 provides approximately 1 million candle power for a minimum of _____________. The M257 consists of a base mounted M442 fuze, drogue parachute, 2 second delay gas generator, expulsion charge, pilot/main parachute, and illuminate candle. The illuminate consists of 2.45 kg of magnesium sodium nitrate. The candle is deployed approximately ________________ down range from the launch platform. The body of the warhead is olive drab with white markings. (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-27)

A

100 seconds
3500m

54
Q

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended rocket motor and warhead case. Impact zone extends out between __________ and _______________from deployment point. (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-28)

A

700 and 1200 m

55
Q

The M278 Infrared (IR) illumination warhead is primarily used for battlefield illumination using Night Vision Goggles (NVG) operating in the 0.7 to 1.1 micron. Within this spectrum, the M278 provides approximately 1 million candle power for _____ to _____ seconds. (Unguided Rocket Supplement Para A-29)

A

150-210 seconds

56
Q

Rocket steering cursors.

A
57
Q

The vertical acceleration is less than .5 G’s and may cause the main rotor blades to obstruct the trajectory of the rockets. Safety inhibit. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Table 4-9)

A

Accel Limit

58
Q

The last crewmember to action a weapon has control of that weapon. Exception: (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-6)

A

If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the pilot actions rockets, cooperative mode is in effect. The active LOS will be the CPG’s LOS.

59
Q

The cursor will be ____________ when a safety or performance inhibit is in effect, indicating crew action is required prior to firing rockets. (dATM TASK 2039)

A

dashed

60
Q

The ___________mode is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at _________or less. This mode allows the firing crewmember to adjust rocket fires onto target by maneuvering the aircraft and reduces errors caused by pylon articulation and LOS movement. (dATM TASK 2039)

A

FXD mode
2000m

61
Q
A
62
Q
A
63
Q
A
64
Q

The rotary wing risk estimated distance for a 0.1% Pi (standing) Hellfire

A
65
Q

If the missile seeker loses sight of the laser spot during this time the HELLFIRE may miss the target. Rotating the aircraft just before launch—at least _______ to _______ degrees in the direction of the missile to be fired—prevents _______________________________________________________ (Hellfire Supplement Pg 7)

A

3 to 5 degrees
prevents missile from flying through the designator FOV

66
Q

Laser detractors:
USABOBBEP

A

Underspill, Spot Jitter, Attenuation, Back Scatter, Overspill, Boresight Error, Beam Divergence, Podium Effect, and Entrapment.

67
Q

Hellfire Min and MAX range chart

A
68
Q

The RMAX increases as the aircraft’s launch altitude above target is increased as the missile is able to glide further from a higher altitude. For each ______ increase in launcher altitude above target, _______ may be adjusted by the ____________ value in the table. (Hellfire Supplement Pg 33)

A

1KFT
RMAX
ΔRMAX

69
Q

The LOBL maximum range is

A

7.1 km for a target at the same altitude as the helicopter.

70
Q

Hellfire TOF chart

A
71
Q

Aim point selection and dive angle should be adjusted to ensure the shaped-charge jet shot line intersects these critical components. Fundamentally, placing the _____________________________ on the___________________ yields ___________________________. (Hellfire Supplement Pg 44)

A

desired point of impact
base of the turret
optimal munitions effects

72
Q

The following are three possible methods used to engage a target with an RF missile in LOAL mode:

A
  • Using own ship FCR as the acquiring sight.
  • Receiving a radar frequency handover (RFHO).
  • Target acquisition and designation sight handover. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-46)
73
Q

When firing a LOAL TADS HO, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no longer than _____to ______seconds after the target data (TARGET DATA?) message disappears. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-46)

A

5 to 7 seconds

74
Q

The constraints box size does not directly correlate to an angle (such as seeker FOV).
* For 1 or 2 SAL missiles, the allowable angle is larger for LOBL (20°) than for LOAL (7.5°).
* For JAGM, R SAL missiles, the allowable angle is ________________________________________
* For RF missiles in either _______or _______trajectory mode, the allowable angle is _____ except when the missile is tracking and the target range is _____, the allowable angle is ___
(TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-36)

A

JAGM = 20° for LOBL and 30° for LOAL.
LOAL or LOBL
RF = 20°, < 1 km, 5°

75
Q

2ND TARGET INHIBIT Button (L6). The __________________________________ button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the primary RF missile during a stationary target engagement. 2ND TARGET INHIBIT is common to both Crew Stations.
(TM 1-1520-263-3 Pg 4-173)

A

2ND TARGET INHIBIT

76
Q

The _______button is used for transmission of the FCR NTS (Figure 4-72) target data via the IDM to another AFAPD capable system. Selecting the RFHO button will display the Subscriber Identifier buttons based on the selected IDM network. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-71)

A

RFHO

77
Q

___________________________representing MRFI detected emitters are displayed on the ___________________________________ scan sector to indicate the direction to the detected threat. Up to 10 MRFI symbols can be displayed. (TM 1-1520-263-10-3 Pg 4-73)

A

MRFI threat symbols
periphery of the radar

78
Q

Ground Targeting Mode

A
79
Q

FCR Target Symbols

A
80
Q

NTS, NTS (STT), ANTS, Second Target Symbol

A
81
Q

Fratricide is? (TC 3-04.3 Pg 10-1)

A

the employment of friendly weapons and munitions with the intent to kill the enemy or destroy his equipment or facilities, which results in unforeseen and unintentional death or injury to friendly personnel.

82
Q

Many factors (or preconditions) contribute to fratricide.

A

a. Mission
b. Enemy
c. Terrain and environmental conditions
d. Troops and equipment
e. Time
(TC 3-04.3 Pg 10-2)

83
Q

_____________ prevention. Aviation units must incorporate _________as their baseline for all operations. The execution of operations is completed using practiced TTPs which work within the guidelines of doctrine. Unit SOPs must reflect a thorough understanding of fratricide and must focus on the TTPs which the Soldiers understand, innovate, refine and practice frequently. The following initiatives can help establish and refine unit SOPs. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 10-3)

A

Fratricide prevention
Doctrine

84
Q

ANGELS -

A

Height of FRIENDLY aircraft in thousands of feet from mean sea level (MSL).

85
Q

Danger Close - *

A

**[A/S] [S/S] FRIENDLY troops are within 0.1% probability of incapacitation from the target (determined by the weapon or munition that is delivered or fired).

86
Q

Mud

A

Radar warning receiver indication of surface threat in track mode.

87
Q

Popeye –

A
  1. Flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility.
    • Reduced EO/IR visibility due to atmospherics.
88
Q

Remington

A

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammunition.

89
Q

Rifle

A

FRIENDLY A/S missile launch. Option to add follow-on modifiers for the number of munitions or time of flight.

90
Q

Ripple -

A

Two or more munitions will be released or fired in close succession. Associated with number and type of weapon with release interval. (Normally discussed during the prestrike gameplan between aircraft or between aircraft and ground tactical controller.)

91
Q

Blind

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship or ground position. Opposite of VISUAL.

92
Q

No Joy -

A

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY.

93
Q

Tally -

A

Sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY

94
Q

Visual

A

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship. Opposite of BLIND

95
Q

Stare

A

Cue the laser spot search or tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point. The reference point may include the following: steerpoint, geographic reference, bearing and range, or data link point