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GST OCT 2015 > GST OCT 2015 > Flashcards

GST OCT 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

The “WARNING” regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ______ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ____________, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for _______ ____________. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

A

300; 10 minutes; 30 minutes (-10, pg. 4-108)

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2
Q

What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm?

A

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death. (-10, pg. 4-107)

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3
Q

The Gun Duty Cycle is as follows: ____, _____ round bursts w/ ______________between bursts followed by a _______________cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than ______, no more than ________ rounds within ___________ before allowing gun to cool for ____________, after which the cycle can be repeated.

A

6; 50; 5 seconds; 10 minute; 50; 300; 60 seconds; 10 minutes (-10, pg. 4-107)

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4
Q

T / F (circle) Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.

A

T (-10, pg. 4-105)

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5
Q

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ____________________.

A

stowed in elevation (-10, pg. 4-106)

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6
Q

In the event of __________________with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _____________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ________________________________.

A

IHADSS failure; inhibited; return to the stowed position (-10, pg. 4-19)

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7
Q

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to _____ degrees in elevation to prevent ________ during landing.

A

+11; dig-in (-10 pg. 4-105)

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8
Q

If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “_____________” weapon status field message will be displayed and the _______________________ anytime ________________________________.

A

gun fail; LOS reticule will flash; the trigger is pulled (-10, pg. 4-22, 26; ATM, pg. 4-159)

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9
Q

Fixed Gun may be utilized during degraded systems operations, such as when the M-TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable. Helmet sights are inherently inaccurate at long range due to aircraft vibration and therefore have a low probability of hit against targets beyond 1,000 meters. When engaging point targets _______________________(without the use of the M-TADS or FCR) the crew should select Fixed Gun.

A

beyond 1,000 meters (ATM, pg. 4-160)

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10
Q

When the AWS is in the Fixed Gun position, the WP will command the turret to _______ degrees in elevation and ___________ forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline.

A

+.87 ; 0 degrees (ATM, pg. 4-161)

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11
Q

The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode.

A

will (-10, pg. 4-105)

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12
Q

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

A

The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground. (-10, pg. 4-106)

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13
Q

The maximum effective range of the 30mm is __________________.

A

1500 to 1700 meters (ATM, pg. 4-160; .45, B-15)

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14
Q

What is the time of flight for a 3Km 30mm shot?

A

12.2 sec (ATM, pg. 4-12; .45, B-17)

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15
Q

What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?

A

2640 fps / 805 mps. (.45, pg. A-8)

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16
Q

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is __________.

A

625 +/- 25 (-10, pg. 4-105; .45, pg. B-15)

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17
Q

Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a ________ radius.

A

4-meter (.45, pg. B-19)

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18
Q

The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of ________ rounds.

A

1200 (-10, pg. 4-105)

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19
Q

The 100 gal Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) includes a _______ round ammunition storage magazine with _____ rounds in the flex chute, making the maximum capacity _______ rounds.

A

242; 58; 300 (-10, pg. 4-105)

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20
Q

The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of _______________.

A

4200 meters (-10, pg. 4-105; ATM, pg. 4-160)

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21
Q

With the exception of Rolled Homogeneous Armor (__________________), penetration performance for single 30-mm projectiles is _______________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, ___________/__________________ is required.

A

2 inches of RHA; not available; continued/concentrated fire (.45, pg. B-17)

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22
Q

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of __________________ left or right of the helicopter centerline, ______________ elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and __________________ depression.

A

86 degrees; +11 degrees; -60 degrees (-10, pg. 4-105)

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23
Q

Gun Dynamic Harmonization procedures should be accomplished maintaining a heading to target of _________________ and __________________ from the target.

A

±5 degrees; 500 to 1500 meters (-10, pg 4-108; ATM, pg. 4-160)

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24
Q

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the __________________________.

A

Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG) (10, pg. 4-109)

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25
Q

The 30mm is limited to _______________ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.

A

+-60 degrees (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)

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26
Q

The 30mm is limited to ________________ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.

A

52 degrees (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)

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27
Q

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the CPG will select a DMPI ____________ of personnel targets.

A

slightly short (ATM)

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28
Q

What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500meter 30mm engagement?

A

115 meters. (JFIRE, pg. 151)

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29
Q

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?

A

Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case. (.45, pg. B-16)

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30
Q

What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round?

A

Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings on projectile and case. (.45, pg. B-16)

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31
Q

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from _________ stations. Fire no more than _______ with two ___________ launchers every ____________, or fire with only _________________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).

A

in-board; pairs; outboard; 3 seconds; one outboard (-10, pg. 4-111)

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32
Q

Re-inventory and attempting to fire _____, _____, and ______ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least __________ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset.

A

6MP; 6FL; 6SK; 10 days (10, pg. 4-111)

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33
Q

How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page? The __________________________ provides this capability. The crew can override these settings on the ____________________________.

A

Load Maintenance Panel (LMP); Weapons Utility Load page (-10, pg. 4-112)

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34
Q

T/F If the pilot actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots.

A

F (-10, pg 4-29)

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35
Q

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is _____________________.

A

HMD, TADS, or FCR (-10, pg.4-111)

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36
Q

The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of ____________________.

A

+4 to -15 degrees (-10, pg. 4-110)

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37
Q

Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between _______________.

A

3000 to 5000 meters (ATM)

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38
Q

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than _________, and for all other flight conditions of ____________, is not authorized.

A

7 ft AGL; 5 ft AGL (-10, pg. 4-111)

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39
Q

With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available?

A

A- 24, B- 8, and E- 6. (-10, pg. 4-110)

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40
Q

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately ________________ without changing __________________________. At ranges beyond 4,500 meters, ____________________________ may have to be made to meet firing constraints.

A

4500 meters; aircraft pitch angle; pitch attitude changes (nose-up) (ATM, pg. 4-153)

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41
Q

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes ______,______,______,______,______, and ______.

A

6PD, 6MP, 6FL, 6IL, 6RC, and 6SK. (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-1, 23)

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42
Q

The position of the rocket pylons when in the FXD mode is based on the following inputs and assumptions: __________,__________________,_________forward airspeed at trigger pull, _____________________ and ____________________________.

A

-20º dive angle, 1063m slant range to target, 110KTAS; 6PD rockets selected; inputs from the Air Data System (ATM, pg 4-154)

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43
Q

The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is ______________; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than _______________.

A

10 meters; 50 meters (ATM, pg. 5-10) (incorrect reference)

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44
Q

What is employing “sunshine” IAW .45 and JFIRE?

A

Employing Illume Rockets. (.45, pg. 14-4; JFIRE)

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45
Q

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than ___________ of armor.

A

4 inches (.45, pg. C-16)

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46
Q

The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and effective employment ranges from _______________________.

A

500 meters to 7000 meters (ARS SHO)

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47
Q

Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than ____________, and forward airspeeds of less than ___________.

A

1,000 meters; 90 knots (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-16)

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48
Q

What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM rocket?

A

Ram Air Decelerator. Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition. (.45, pg. C-16)

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49
Q

What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?

A

1500’ AGL (.45, pg. C-13)

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50
Q

What standoff range should Illum (M257/M278) rockets be launched from?

A

3500 meters (.45, pg. C-13)

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51
Q

Spent Illum rocket motors will impact the ground between ___________________ beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket.

A

700 to 1,200 meters (.45, pg. 14-38)

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52
Q

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is ______________. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is _________________.

A

800 meters; 1 km to 3 km (-10, pg 4-111)

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53
Q

_________________ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versions will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.

A

Red pigment (.45, pg. C-9)

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54
Q

The flechette rocket detonates about ________ before the predetermined range.

A

150m (.45, pg C-8)

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55
Q

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ______________________ from deployment point.

A

700 and 1200 meters (.45, pg. C-9)

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56
Q

At _______________, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to ____________________.

A

1,000 meters; 8mm of milled steel (.45, pg. C-9)

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57
Q

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than _______ from other airborne helicopters.

A

51m (-10, pg.4-111)

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58
Q

What are the four “T’s” of diving flight?

A

Target, Torque, Trim, and Target. (ATM, pg. 4-134)

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59
Q

During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?

A

An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball. (ATM, pg. 4-34)

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60
Q

What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500meter PD rocket engagement?

A

305 meters. (JFIRE, pg. 151)

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61
Q

To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline ______________ to the side the SAL missile being launched.

A

3 to 5 degrees (.45, pg. 14-55)

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62
Q

The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ____________.

A

+ -20 degrees (.45, pg. 14-58)

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63
Q

The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ____________.

A

+ -7.5 degrees (.45, pg. 14-59)

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64
Q

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what? The __________,____,_________, or _____________________.

A

acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position (ATM, Task 1459)

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65
Q

Hellfire missile arming occurs after exceeding ______ acceleration ___________________after launch.

A

10g; 150 to 300 meters (.45, pg. D-2)

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66
Q

Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _______________ or ___________ or __________ or ___________.

A

475 meters per second; 923 knots; 950mph; Mach 1.4. (.45, pg. D-2)

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67
Q

How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

A

30 minutes (-10, pg. 4-126)

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68
Q

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does this symbol mean?

A

OT; Over temperature (-10, pg. 4-126)

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69
Q

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?

A

3 (ATM, Task 1458)

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70
Q

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection ___________ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.

A

narrows (SHWS, pg. D-65)

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71
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement ranges: o 0 degree offset: o 20 degree offset:

A

500 meters; 700 meters (.45, pg. 14-59)

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72
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range: o 0 degree offset: o 7.5 degree offset:

A

1,500 meters; 1,700 meters (.45, pg. 14-59)

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73
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range: o 0 degree offset: o 7.5 degree offset:

A

2,000 meters; 2,500 meters (.45, pg. 14-59)

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74
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range: o 0 degree offset: o 7.5 degree offset:

A

3,500 meters; 3,500 meters (.45, pg. 14-59)

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75
Q

What is the minimum range for a AGM-114K-2A missile? Why?

A

800 meters; because of fragmentation and possible pre-mature detonation. (AWR 2007D-A05)

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76
Q

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within _________________ and ___________________ of the gun target line, nor more than __________________ from the target centerline.

A

30 degrees lateral; 40 degrees vertical; 60 degrees (ATM, Task 1458; .45, pg. 4-71)

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77
Q

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by __________ if the target is ____________________below the aircraft.

A

500 meters; 50 to 400 feet (.45, pg. 14-59)

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78
Q

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by _____________if the target is ___________________below the aircraft.

A

1000 meters; 401 to 800 feet (.45, pg. 14-59)

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79
Q

With ___________ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a ________ mask ___________ away.

A

LOAL LO; 260 foot; 600 meters (.45, pg. 14-59)

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80
Q

With _________ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a _________ mask ____________ away.

A

LOAL HI; 1,000 foot; 1,500 meters (.45, pg. D-45)

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81
Q

What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL Dir for a K model missile with 7.5 degrees offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.

A

2200 meters (1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target). (ATM, pp. 4-137)

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82
Q

The maximum effective engagement range for a SAL missile engagement is limited by the ability of the designator to _______________________________________, the __________________ to be concentrated enough to prevent over spill or under spill, and for ____________________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.

A

accurately maintain the laser spot on the target; size of the laser spot; sufficient reflected laser energy; (.45, pg. 14-54)

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83
Q

The maximum range of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range? Selecting a _________________________(except for P+ and R model missiles) will extend the missile’s maximum range from __________________.

A

LOAL-L or LOAL-H trajectory; 7 to 8 kilometers (.45, pg. 14-56)

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84
Q

What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?

A

Fire LOAL-Lo or LOAL-Hi to increase the missile trajectory. (.45, CH 14)

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85
Q

What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for a K/M/N/R missile trajectory?

A

600 feet. (.45, pg. 14-58)

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86
Q

What is the max airspeed you can fly when engaging with a AGM-114F-A?

A

90 knots (AWR 2008D-A72)

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87
Q

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile?

A

105.1 lbs (-10, pg. 6-14)

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88
Q

For RF missile engagements _____________, the maximum allowable offset angle is ____________.

A

less than 1km; 5 degrees (-10, pg 4-28; .45, pg. D-20)

How well did you know this?
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2
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89
Q

When the RF missile is tracking and the target range is _______________________, the allowable constraints angle is _______________.

A

greater than or equal to 1km; 20 degrees (.45, pg. D-20)

90
Q

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ________________, it will radiate and engage LOBL.

A

.5km to 8km (ATM, Task 1459)

91
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of ____________. If target is not detected it will revert to LOAL.

A

1km to 2.5km (ATM, Task 1459)

92
Q

The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between _____________________.

A

2.5km to 6km (.45, pg. D-11)

93
Q

The RF missile is capable of hitting stationary LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of __________________.

A

8000 meters (ATM, pg. 4-148)

94
Q

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

A

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present. (-10 pg. 4-102)

95
Q

What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?

A

R (-10, pg. 4-116)

96
Q

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

A

NA (-10, pg. 4-116)

97
Q

What is “transfer alignment”?

A

The transfer of the aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform. (-10, pg. 4-118)

98
Q

What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?

A

TADS, FCR, and IDM (-10, pg. 4-118; ATM , pg. 4-146; .45, pg. 14-68)

99
Q

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

A

To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature. (ATM, Task 1458)

100
Q

The ___________________________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a _____________ target engagement.

A

2nd target inhibit button; stationary (-10, pg. 4-123; ATM, pg. 4-147)

101
Q

An RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called _____________________.

A

Doppler Beam Sharpening (ATM, Task 1459; .45, pg. D-20)

102
Q

At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of ___________ at __________.

A

990 meters; 8 km (.45, pg. D-21; SHWS, pg. B-91)

103
Q

Stationary targets between _____________________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missile conducts DBS by _________________________________________.

A

2,500 and 8,000 meters; pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction (ATM, pg. 4-148)

104
Q

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at ________ intervals. This _________ occur while missiles are WASed.

A

10 minute; does not (SHWS, pg. D-86)

105
Q

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

A

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose (.45, pg D-12)

106
Q

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using the _________________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.

A

CPG’s sight and range source (-10, pg. 3-91)

107
Q

How many Shot-At locations can be stored?

A

128 (-10, pg. 3-104)

108
Q

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as ____________________________ in the firing sequence.

A

the next missile to be launched (-10, pg. 4-115)

109
Q

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ____________. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is _____________.

A

active;

not active

110
Q

What is the “rule of thumb” for computing Hellfire TOF?

A

RANGE x 4

(SHO, pg. D-55)

111
Q

What is the “rule of thumb” for calculating maximum laser delay?

A

(TOF/2)-2

(SHO, pg. D-55)

112
Q

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L is ______________.

A

110 meters

(JFIRE, pg. 151)

113
Q

Default range for the pilot is ______; default range for the CPG is _________.

A
  1. 5 km;
  2. 0 km
114
Q

The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ________ targets, prioritize the ______ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and initiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ________ targets.

A

128;

16;

256;

(.45, pg. G-3)

115
Q

A ________________________ in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a ________________________________.

A

flashing asterisk (*);

multiple target condition is detected

(-10, pg 4-33)

116
Q

When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the ______________________and compensates for ________________when engaging with __________________ when TADS is the LOS.

A

RF missile hand over;

trajectory shift;

gun and rockets

(.45, pg. 14-68)

117
Q

T / F (circle) Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode.

A

F

(ATM, pg. 4-82)

118
Q

T / F In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.

A

F

(-10, pg. 4-53; .45, pg. 4-83)

119
Q

Up to _____ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.

A

10

(-10, pg 4-54)

120
Q

RFI emitters will stay full intensity until _______________ after they cease transmission.

A

30 seconds;

(-10, pg 4-65)

121
Q

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a __________________________ around the threat Symbol and target type.

A

Home Plate Symbol

(-10, pg. 4-67)

122
Q

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ____________, the symbols will change to ___________________. After _______________of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ____________.

A

30 seconds;

partial intensity;

90 seconds;

blank;

(-10, pg. 4-67)

123
Q

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in _______ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in _____________.

A

CYAN;

YELLOW;

(-10, pg. 4-67)

124
Q

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places an___________________________________ over that emitter.

A

inverse video home plate (selected emitter symbol);

(-10, pg. 4-67)

125
Q

Powering the RLWR ON enables up to ____________ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ___________ of the ASE footprint.

A

seven;

inside;

(-10, pg. 4-130)

126
Q

Powering the RFI ON enables up to _______ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _________ of the ASE footprint.

A

ten;

outside;

(-10, pg. 4-52)

127
Q

The RFI system detects and processes ______________________________________________.

A

pulse, pulse doppler, and continuous wave (CW) radar signals;

(-10, pg. 4-130)

128
Q

What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?

A

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available

(-10-2, pg. 4-33)

129
Q

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within _________________ of the ____________________.

A

+ / - 90 degrees;

FCR centerline;

(-10, pg. 4-68)

130
Q

The _______________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.

A

CUED Search;

(-10, pg. 4-68)

131
Q

While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?

A

The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter.

(-10, pg. 4-66)

132
Q

Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended _______________________________.

A

two times every 2.5-hour flight;

(-10, pg. 4-96)

133
Q

When do FCR target symbols become stale? Moving? Stationary?

A

5 seconds;

30 seconds;

(-10, pg. 4-55)

134
Q

If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne what will the FCR do?

A

Change to ATM

(-10, pg 4-68)

135
Q

How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?

A

By either pressing the NTS button or selecting the alternate NTS with the cursor or shooting the NTS, or conducting another FCR scan

(-10, pg 4-55)

136
Q

What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?

A

2500 meters

(-10, pg. 4-62)

137
Q

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV __________, MFOV ___________, NFOV ____________ and ZFOV _____________.

A

90 degrees;

45 degrees;

30 degrees;

15 degrees;

(-10, pg. 4-58)

138
Q

The FCR is unable to process _________________at ranges greater than ____________.

A

stationary targets;

6000 meters;

(ATM, pg. 4-147)

139
Q

In zoom mode the FCR will conduct _____ scans per scan burst.

A

4

(-10, pg 4-47)

140
Q

The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict __________each.

A

2Km;

(-10, pg 4-58)

141
Q

The _______ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.

A

NTS;

(-10, pg 4-51)

142
Q

Which FCR Priority Scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?

A

B

(-10, pg. 4-65)

143
Q

Which Priority Scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?

A

C

(-10, pg. 4-65)

144
Q

A single scan burst in GTM __________ will give _________.

A

narrow FOV;

3 scans;

(-10, pg. 4-49)

145
Q

___________________________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification.

A

Scan-To-Scan-Correlation;

(-10, pg. 4-50)

146
Q

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the _____________ is ____________ and the NTS symbol will become __________.

A

NTS target;

frozen;

solid;

(-10, pg. 4-55)

147
Q

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the __________________will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and _____________________________________.

A

ANTS symbol;

flash for 3 seconds;

(-10, pg. 4-55)

148
Q

What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

A

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components.

(-10, pg. 4-65)

149
Q

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?

A

The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target.

(-10, pg. 4-12)

150
Q

Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of ______ symbols may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.

A

64

(-10, pg. 4-64)

151
Q

A shot-at symbol will be displayed ____________ target symbols __________________a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed _____________ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.

A

beneath;

during/after;

on top of;

(-10, pg. 4-50)

152
Q

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a ___________

_______________________________________________

_________________________________. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when the ground speed _______________________________________________

___________________________________________.

A

180-degree scan sector when ground speed decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots;

increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots

153
Q

When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in _________.

A

T50;

(-10, pg. 3-100)

154
Q

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a __________________________ in the center of the ________________ Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.

A

flashing lightning bolt;

Ownship;

(-10, pg. 4-135)

155
Q

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?

A

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity) (-10, pg. 4-136)

156
Q

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ________________________________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the __________________

_____________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ______________________

__________________.

A

FCR centerline to the TADS LOS;

TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS;

TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS;

(-10, pg. 4-7; ATM, Task 1144)

157
Q

FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The ____________________________________

________________________________ process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.

A

FLIR SANUC (Scene Assisted Non-Uniformity Correction);

(-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)

158
Q

___________________________should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if ____________________________________________

____________________________________.

A

Crew Coordination;

ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained.

(-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)

159
Q

On the AF (Air Fire) Page, if the values are all displayed in ____________ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in ___________, a performance parameter has been exceeded. The OBS range values are currently based off the _________________ laser performance for a 90% probability of a hit with a SAL missile.

A

GREEN;

WHITE;

OH-58D’s;

(-10, 3-69)

160
Q

The ___________________ will nominally take _________________for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.

A

Target State Estimator;

3 seconds;

(.45, pg. 14-68)

161
Q

MUMT-2 Range expectations: (v13.1 Differences)

A

AAG to Observer: 15km;

AAG to AAG: 15km;

UR to UAS: 40km;

162
Q

Remote Designator Safety Zone: Can you shoot a hellfire while your Wingman Lases using above scenario?

A

No, designator is within range safety fan.

163
Q

While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?

A

The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential inter communications system (ICS) shall cease until the P* states “BACK ABOVE” to the P.

(ATM, Task 1415, 1422)

164
Q

When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?

A

Pilot not on the controls.

(ATM, Task 1422)

165
Q

What are the three levels of safing? (ATM, Task 1422)

A

a. Weapons trigger switch released
b. Weapons action switch deselected
c. SAFE/ARM button – SAFE

166
Q

Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?

A

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-32)

167
Q

Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?

A

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-40)

168
Q

Pilot and CPG shall perform their __________________ prior to entering the _________________.

A

armament safety check

169
Q

When _____________________________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ______________________ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to _________.

A

icing conditions exist;

ARM/SAFE switch;

icing;

(-10, pg. 8-3)

170
Q

When operating at ____________________, ensure anti-ice is in the ___________________. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _________________________ could result in severe _____________________.

A

high power settings;

manual mode;

high power settings;

Np/Nr droop;

(-10, pg. 8-12)

171
Q

Crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark ____________________________.

A

friendly positions

172
Q

What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45? Note: for this question you don’t have to use exact words, as long as you relay understanding of the intent of the 4 initiatives.

A

DOCTRINE: Adhere to Doctrine/SOP/TTP’s

TRAINING: Combat ID & Graphic Control Measures Training

ORGANIZATION: LNO’s & Liaisons

LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT: Rehearsals &AARs

(.45, pg. 10-3)

173
Q

Maximum effective range is defined as ________________

____________________________________________

________________________________.

A

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target.

(.45, pg. A-4)

174
Q

The two types of fires are _______________ and ________________.

A

Direct;

Indirect;

(.45, pg. 14-2)

175
Q

What are the three Techniques of Fire?

A

Destruction, Neutralization, and Suppression.

(ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)

176
Q

Destruction. Destruction is awesome. It’s what we strive to get good at. Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. ___________________ is achieved by ___________________________or ________________________________.

A

Destruction;

killing enemy personnel;

destroying enemy equipment;

(ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3; FM 7-Gonzo)

177
Q

Neutralization. Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. ______________________ of a target occurs when it suffers at least _____ casualties or damage.

A

Neutralization;

10%;

(ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)

178
Q

Suppression. Suppressive fire is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?

A
179
Q

Suppression. Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ______________ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _____________ of the suspected target area.

A

10 or 20;

10 meters;

(.45, pg. 14-43)

180
Q

The four modes of fire IAW .45 are:

A

hover fire, moving fire, running fire, and diving fire;

(.45, pg. 14-2; ATM Task 1422 ATM does not include moving, it lists low alt bump.)

181
Q

Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ___

____________________________________________. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ___________________________________.

A

equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS;

above 40 KTAS through Vne;

(.45, pg. 14-2)

182
Q

What is the purpose of a “Fence Check?”

A
183
Q

What are the standard steps of a Fence Check?

A
184
Q

What does “Fence Out” mean? What does “Fence In” mean?

A

a. Fence out: conduct WAILR check crossing ‘the wire’, leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METTC depending.

b. Fence in: conduct reverse WAILR as part of the before landing checks.

(.45, pg. 14-5)

185
Q

How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD?

How many can be active at one time?

A

8;

1;

(-10, pg. 3-134; .45, pg. E-11)

186
Q

During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a __________________.

A

Ph=70%

(TACSOP, pg. 140-3)

187
Q

What is the difference between a “break,” “jinking,” and a “pull off?”

A

A “Break” is an Immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing a maximum performance evasive maneuver.

(Oh sh!t we’re taking fire 12o’clock! “BREAK RIGHT!!!”)

“Jinking” is defined as deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire.

(shew that was a close one, I think we are out of the enemy WEZ, but we better continue Jinking just in case. “TRAIL THIS IS LEAD, JINKING HIGH AND RIGHT, CHECK MAIL TGT xx, STANDBY FOR TPMR BRIEF.”)

A “Pull Off” is employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area.

(we took care of them shooters, “TRAIL THIS IS LEAD, LEFT PULLOFF. CALL TAG, RTB TO HOMEPLATE FOR BEER… CABs FOR EVERYBODY!”)

(ATM, pg. 6-5, 4-134, 4-203; FM 7-Gonzo)

188
Q

Transmission of the __________ constitutes __________________except in _____________________.

A

5-Line CCA Brief;

clearance to fire;

189
Q

To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _______ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.

A

8-10 km;

(ATM, pg. 4-134; .45, pg. 14-2)

190
Q

After conducting a proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?

A

Shooter/Shooter, Shooter/Cover, and Looker/Shooter.

(ATM, Task 2043)

191
Q

NORMA/BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the ____________of the weapon’s range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s ____________________.

A

last one-third;

192
Q

What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?

A
  1. R-MIN: Minimum engagement range.
  2. R-MAX: Maximum engagement range.
  3. Azimuth (left/right) limits: Lateral engagement limits or fields of fire modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.
  4. Elevation limits: Vertical engagement limits of the system modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.

ü ‘and’ Time of Flight (TOF)

(ATM, Task 1414; .45, pg. A-5)

193
Q

The four types of ballistics are _____________________________________.

A

Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal.

(.45, pg. A-6)

194
Q

___________________________, an ______________, influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it _________

__________________. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering ________.

A

Rotor Downwash Error;

aerial ballistic;

most affects rockets;

IGE;

(.45, pg. A-10)

195
Q

In the AH-64D, Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with forward airspeed of ______________.

A

30 knots;

(ATM, pg. 4-134)

196
Q

______________________ is an _______________that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to _______________.

A

Projectile Drift;

exterior ballistic;

drift to the right;

(.45, pg. A-8)

197
Q

__________________ is an ________________ aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to ________________.

A

Trajectory Shift;

aerial ballistic;

shift forward;

(.45, pg. A-13)

198
Q

____________________________is produced when _______________ and _______________combine. When a target is __________________________________

_______________________________________________. When a target is __________________________________

_______________________________________________

________________________.

A

Port-Starboard Effect;

trajectory shift; projectile drift;

to the left, the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move further right;

to the right, the effect of projectile drift (round moves right) tend to lessen the effect of trajectory shift (round moves left), so less compensation is required.

(.45, pg. A-13)

199
Q

_____________________ is an _______________is caused by _____________________________________________

_____________________________. It is an _____________.

A

Angular Rate Error;

aerial ballistic;

the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon;

Aerial Ballistic;

(.45, pg. A-10)

200
Q

A crew fires a burst of 30mm at a target and misses to the left. Crew adjusts by placing the line of sight equal distance to the right of the target and fires again, this time hitting the target. What technique was used?

A

The Burst on Target Recognition Method, also known as ‘Kentucky Windage’

(.45, pg. 14-21)

201
Q

List the seven laser related missile performance distracters.

A

Backscatter, Boresight error, Attenuation, Beam divergence, Spot jitter, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium Effect.

(.45, pg. F-3)

202
Q

Backscatter is ____________________________________

_______________________________________________

_______________________________________________. (ATM, pg. 4-141; .45, pg. F-6)

A
203
Q

T / F (circle) The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent.

A

F;

(Safety inhibit) (10-2, pg. 4-40)

204
Q

_____________________ occurs when the laser’s reflection point on the DPI is ________________________________. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the laser can be seen the missile is reduced, or blocked during its flight. This may occur due to designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, cave, or a wall with an extended overhang-such as a porch or building entryway.

A

Entrapment;

trapped or masked within the target;

(.45, pg. F-5)

205
Q

_______________________ occurs when the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker. This prevents the laser spot from being detected or tracked. It has been observed to occur during REMOTE engagements and buddy lase with UAVs, but could occur between AH’s and other platforms.

A

Podium Effect;

(.45, pg. 4-4)

206
Q

____________________ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon.

A

Turret bending;

(.45, pg. A-24)

207
Q

What is Turret Bending?

A

Airframe and gun-turret flexing in response to sustained recoil.

(.45, pg. A-24)

208
Q

The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is ________________________.

A

620 meters;

209
Q

_________,__________, and __________ are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation.

A

Low, High, and Pulse;

(.45, pg. F-7)

210
Q

To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond ____________, a manual range of 1000m must be entered into the weapons processor (WP) to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above line-of-sight (LOS). (AWR 2007D-A34)

A
211
Q

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?”

A

Training;

(-10, pg. 4-39, 102)

212
Q

What is entered on the keyboard unit (KU) to select auto range?

A

“A”

(-10, pg. 4-15)

213
Q

. The maximum PRF Laser frequency that may be entered is ___________.

A

1788;

(-10, pg. 4-121; .45, D-32)

214
Q

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _________ AGL with a ______________look down angle.

A

33 ft;

one-degree;

(SHWS, pg. D-16)

215
Q

Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires ___________________ for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires _______________ burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates.

A

3 laser bursts;

continuous;

(-10, pg. 4-15)

216
Q

On the COORD page, pressing any ____________________ makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an ___________________________.

A

VAB L1 – L6;

acquisition source;

(-10, pg. 3-128)

217
Q

There are three types of TAC (Types 1, 2, and 3).

  • _______________________ is used when the JTAC ______ visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack.
  • _________________________ is used when the JTAC requires control of individual attacks and ____________of the conditions exist: JTAC is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release, JTAC is unable to visually acquire the target, and/or the attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release.
  • _____________________ is used when the JTAC requires the ability to provide clearance for ____________________within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions, and ____________ of the conditions exist: JTAC is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release; JTAC is unable to visually acquire the target; and/or the attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release.
A

Type 1 control; must

Type 2 control; any or all

Type 3 control; multiple attacks;

any or all

218
Q

____________________________. A ____________ is a specifically trained and qualified aviation officer who exercises control from the air of aircraft and indirect fires engaged in CAS of ground troops. The __________ provides coordination and terminal attack control for CAS missions as well as locating and marking ground targets.

A

Forward Air Controller (Airborne);

FAC(A); FAC(A)

Close Air Support (3-09.3)

219
Q

The ____________________________ includes a combination of attack and/or scout RW aircraft and FW CAS aircraft operating together to locate and attack high-priority targets and other targets of opportunity.

A

joint air attack team (JAAT);

Close Air Support (3-09.3)

220
Q

The primary missions of attack reconnaissance helicopter units are— Attack Reconnaissance Helicopter Operations

(FM 3-04.126)

A
  • Reconnaissance.
  • Security.
  • Attack.
  • Movement to contact.

GST OCT 2015 (1 decks)

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