GST OCT 2014

Question 1

The “WARNING” regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __________, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for __________. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

Answer 1

The “WARNING” regarding 30mm stoppage states: If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

(-10, pg. 4-108)

Question 2

What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm?

Answer 2

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death. (-10, pg. 4-107)

Question 3

The Gun Duty Cycle is as follows: _, __ round bursts w/ _________ between bursts followed by a _________ cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than __, no more than ___ rounds within __________ before allowing gun to cool for __________, after which the cycle can be repeated.

Answer 3

The Gun Duty Cycle is as follows: 6, 50 round bursts w/ 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.

(-10, pg. 4-107)

Question 4

T/F Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.

Answer 4

True (-10, pg. 4-105)

Question 5

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ___________________.

Answer 5

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be Stowed in Elevation. (-10, pg. 4-106)

Question 6

In the event of ______________ with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will _____________________________.

Answer 6

In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is inhibited. When the gun is de-actioned, it will return to the stowed position. (-10, pg. 4-19)

Question 7

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ___________ in elevation to prevent _____ during landing.

Answer 7

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to +11 degrees in elevation to prevent dig-in during landing. (-10 pg. 4-105)

Question 8

If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “_________” weapon status field message will be displayed and the _______________________ anytime _____________________.

Answer 8

If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “gun fail” weapon status field message will be displayed and the LOS reticle will flash anytime the trigger is pulled.

(-10, pg. 4-22, 26; ATM, pg. 4-159)

Question 9

Fixed Gun may be utilized during degraded systems operations, such as when the M-TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable. Helmet sights are inherently inaccurate at long range due to aircraft vibration and therefore have a low probability of hit against targets beyond 1,000 meters. When engaging point targets ___________________ (without the use of the M-TADS or FCR) the crew should select Fixed Gun.

Answer 9

Fixed Gun may be utilized during degraded systems operations, such as when the M-TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable. Helmet sights are inherently inaccurate at long range due to aircraft vibration and therefore have a low probability of hit against targets beyond 1,000 meters. When engaging point targets beyond 1,000 meters (without the use of the M-TADS or FCR) the crew should select Fixed Gun. (ATM, pg. 4-160)

Question 10

When the AWS is in the Fixed Gun position, the WP will command the turret to ____ degrees in elevation and _________ forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline.

Answer 10

When the AWS is in the Fixed Gun position, the WP will command the turret to +.87 degrees in elevation and 0 degrees forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline. (ATM, pg. 4-161)

Question 11

The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode.

Answer 11

The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode. (-10, pg. 4-105)

Question 12

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

Answer 12

The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.

(-10, pg. 4-106)

Question 13

The maximum effective range of the 30mm is ___________________.

Answer 13

The maximum effective range of the 30mm is 1500 to 1700 meters. (ATM, pg. 4-160; .45, B-15)

Question 14

What is the time of flight for a 3Km 30mm shot?

Answer 14

12.2 sec (ATM, pg. 4-12; .45, B-17)

Question 15

What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?

Answer 15

2640 fps / 805 mps (.45, pg. A-8)

Question 16

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is ________.

Answer 16

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is 625 +/- 25. (-10, pg. 4-105; .45, pg. B-15)

Question 17

Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a _______ radius.

Answer 17

Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a 4-meter radius. (.45, pg. B-19)

Question 18

The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of ____ rounds.

Answer 18

The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of 1200 rounds. (-10, pg. 4-105)

Question 19

The 100 gal Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) includes a ___ round ammunition storage magazine with __ rounds in the flex chute, making the maximum capacity ___ rounds.

Answer 19

The 100 gal Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine with 58 rounds in the flex chute, making the maximum capacity 300 rounds. (-10, pg. 4-105)

Question 20

The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of ___________.

Answer 20

The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of 4200 meters.

(-10, pg. 4-105; ATM, pg. 4-160)

Question 21

With the exception of Rolled Homogeneous Armor (________________), penetration performance for single 30-mm projectiles is _____________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, ____________________________ is required.

Answer 21

With the exception of Rolled Homogeneous Armor (2 inches of RHA), penetration performance for single 30-mm projectiles is not available. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, continued/concentrated fire is required. (.45, pg. B-17)

Question 22

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of __________ left or right of the helicopter centerline, ___________ elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and ___________ depression.

Answer 22

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression. (-10, pg. 4-105)

Question 23

Gun Dynamic Harmonization procedures should be accomplished maintaining a heading to target of __________ and __________________ from the target.

Answer 23

Gun Dynamic Harmonization procedures should be accomplished maintaining a heading to target of ±5 degrees and 500 to 1500 meters from the target. (-10, pg 4-108; ATM, pg. 4-160)

Question 24

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the ___________________________.

Answer 24

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG).

(10, pg. 4-109)

Question 25

The 30mm is limited to ___________ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.

Answer 25

The 30mm is limited to ±60 degrees in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously. (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)

Question 26

The 30mm is limited to __________ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.

Answer 26

The 30mm is limited to 52 degrees in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon. (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)

Question 27

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the CPG will select a DMPI _________________ personnel targets.

Answer 27

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the CPG will select a DMPI slightly short of personnel targets. (ATM)

Question 28

What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500 meter 30mm engagement?

Answer 28

115 meters (JFIRE, pg. 151)

Question 29

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?

Answer 29

Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case. (.45, pg. B-16)

Question 30

What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round?

Answer 30

Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings on projectile and case. (.45, pg. B-16)

Question 31

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ________ stations. Fire no more than _____ with two ________ launchers every _________, or fire with only ____________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).

Answer 31

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from in-board stations. Fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers every 3 seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). (-10, pg. 4-111)

Question 32

Re-inventory and attempting to fire ___, ___, and ___ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _______ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset.

Answer 32

Re-inventory and attempting to fire 6MP, 6FL, and 6SK rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least 10 days to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset. (10, pg. 4-111)

Question 33

How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page?

Answer 33

The Load Maintenance Panel (LMP) provides this capability. The crew can override these settings on the Weapons Utility Load page. (-10, pg. 4-112)

Question 34

T/F If the pilot actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots.

Answer 34

False (-10, pg 4-29)

Question 35

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is _______________.

Answer 35

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is HMD, TADS, or FCR. (-10, pg.4-111)

Question 36

The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of _________________.

Answer 36

The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of +4 to -15 degrees. (-10, pg. 4-110)

Question 37

Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between ___________________.

Answer 37

Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between 3000 to 5000 meters. (ATM)

Question 38

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ________, and for all other flight conditions of ________, is not authorized.

Answer 38

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than 7 ft AGL, and for all other flight conditions of 5 ft AGL, is not authorized. (-10, pg. 4-111)

Question 39

With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available? ____, ___, and ___.

Answer 39

With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available? A- 24, B- 8, and E- 6. (-10, pg. 4-110)

Question 40

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately ___________ without changing ____________________. At ranges beyond ___________, ________________________________ may have to be made to meet firing constraints.

Answer 40

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately 4500 meters without changing aircraft pitch angle. At ranges beyond 4500 meters, pitch attitude changes (nose-up) may have to be made to meet firing constraints. (ATM, pg. 4-153)

Question 41

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes ___, ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.

Answer 41

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes 6PD, 6MP, 6FL, 6IL, 6RC, and 6SK. (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-1, 23)

Question 42

The position of the rocket pylons when in the FXD mode is based on the following inputs and assumptions: _______________, ___________________________, ________ forward airspeed at trigger pull, ____________________ and _______________________________.

Answer 42

The position of the rocket pylons when in the FXD mode is based on the following inputs and assumptions: -20º dive angle, 1063m slant range to target, 110 KTAS forward airspeed at trigger pull, 6PD rockets selected and inputs from the Air Data System. (ATM, pg 4-154)

Question 43

The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is _________; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than _________.

Answer 43

The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is 10 meters; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than 50 meters. (ATM, pg. 5-10)

Question 44

What is employing “sunshine” IAW .45 and JFIRE?

Answer 44

Employing Illume Rockets (.45, pg. 14-4; JFIRE)

Question 45

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than ________ of armor.

Answer 45

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than 4 inches of armor.

(.45, pg. C-16)

Question 46

The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and effective employment ranges from _________________________.

Answer 46

The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and effective employment ranges from 500 meters to 7000 meters. (ARS SHO)

Question 47

Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than ___________, and forward airspeeds of less than ________.

Answer 47

Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than 1000 meters, and forward airspeeds of less than 90 knots. (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-16)

Question 48

What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM rocket?

Answer 48

Ram Air Decelerator. Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition. (.45, pg. C-16)

Question 49

What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?

Answer 49

1500’ AGL (.45, pg. C-13)

Question 50

What standoff range should Illum (M257/M278) rockets be launched from?

Answer 50

3500 meters (.45, pg. C-13)

Question 51

Spent Illum rocket motors will impact the ground between __________________ beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket.

Answer 51

Spent Illum rocket motors will impact the ground between 700 to 1200 meters beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket. (.45, pg. 14-38)

Question 52

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is __________. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is ____________.

Answer 52

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is 800 meters. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is 1 km to 3 km. (-10, pg 4-111)

Question 53

___________ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versions will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.

Answer 53

Red pigment is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versions will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator. (.45, pg. C-9)

Question 54

The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range.

Answer 54

The flechette rocket detonates about 150m before the predetermined range. (.45, pg C-8)

Question 55

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ____________ meters from deployment point.

Answer 55

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between 700 and 1200 meters from deployment point. (.45, pg. C-9)

Question 56

At ___________, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to ___________________.

Answer 56

At 1000 meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to 8mm of milled steel. (.45, pg. C-9)

Question 57

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.

Answer 57

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than 51m from other airborne helicopters. (-10, pg.4-111)

Question 58

What are the four “T’s” of diving flight?

Answer 58

Target, Torque, Trim, and Target. (ATM, pg. 4-134)

Question 59

During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?

Answer 59

An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball. (ATM, pg. 4-34)

Question 60

What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500meter PD rocket engagement?

Answer 60

305 meters (JFIRE, pg. 151)

Question 61

To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline ______________ to the side the SAL missile being launched.

Answer 61

To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline 3 to 5 degrees to the side the SAL missile being launched. (.45, pg. 14-55)

Question 62

The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ___________.

Answer 62

The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ±20 degrees. (.45, pg. 14-58)

Question 63

The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ____________.

Answer 63

The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ±7.5 degrees. (.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 64

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what?

Answer 64

The acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position. (ATM, Task 1459)

Question 65

Hellfire missile arming occurs after _____________acceleration _________________ after launch.

Answer 65

Hellfire missile arming occurs after exceeding 10g acceleration 150 to 300 meters after launch. (.45, pg. D-2)

Question 66

Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _____________________ or _________ or _______ or ________.

Answer 66

Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is 475 meters per second or 923 knots or 950 mph or Mach 1.4. (.45, pg. D-2)

Question 67

How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

Answer 67

30 minutes (-10, pg. 4-126)

Question 68

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does this symbol mean?

Answer 68

OT — Overtemperature (-10, pg. 4-126)

Question 69

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?

Answer 69

3 (ATM, Task 1458)

Question 70

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection _______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.

Answer 70

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection narrows the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (SHWS, pg. D-65)

Question 71

SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement ranges:

Answer 71

• 0 degree offset: 500 meters
• 20 degree offset: 700 meters

(.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 72

SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range:

Answer 72

• 0 degree offset: 1,500 meters
• 7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters

(.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 73

SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range:

Answer 73

• 0 degree offset: 2,000 meters
• 7.5 degree offset: 2,500 meters

(.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 74

SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range:

Answer 74

• 0 degree offset: 3,500 meters
• 7.5 degree offset: 3,500 meters

(.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 75

What is the minimum range for a AGM-114K-2A missile? Why?

Answer 75

800 meters; because of fragmentation and possible pre-mature detonation. (AWR 2007D-A05)

Question 76

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within __________________ and ___________________ of the gun target line, nor more than __________ from the target centerline.

Answer 76

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within 30 degrees lateral and 40 degrees vertical of the gun target line, nor more than 60 degrees from the target centerline. (ATM, Task 1458; .45, pg. 4-71)

Question 77

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by __________ if the target is ______________ below the aircraft.

Answer 77

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by 500 meters if the target is 50 to 400 feet below the aircraft. (.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 78

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ___________ if the target is _____________________ below the aircraft.

Answer 78

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by 1000 meters if the target is 401 to 800 feet below the aircraft. (.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 79

With _______ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a ________ mask __________ away.

Answer 79

With LOAL LO selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a 260 foot mask 600 meters away. (.45, pg. 14-59)

Question 80

With _______ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a _________ mask ___________ away.

Answer 80

With LOAL HI selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a 1000 foot mask 1500 meters away. (.45, pg. D-45)

Question 81

What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR for a K model missile with 7.5 degrees offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.

Answer 81

2200 meters (1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target). (ATM, pp. 4-137)

Question 82

The maximum __________________________ for a SAL missile engagement is limited by the ability of the designator to ________________________________________, the ______________________ to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or Underspill, and for _________________________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.

Answer 82

The maximum effective engagement range for a SAL missile engagement is limited by the ability of the designator to accurately maintain the laser spot on the target, the size of the laser spot to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for sufficient reflected laser energy to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy. (.45, pg. 14-54)

Question 83

The maximum range of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range?

Answer 83

Selecting a LOAL-L or LOAL-H trajectory (except for P+ and R model missiles) will extend the missile’s maximum range from 7 to 8 kilometers. (.45, pg. 14-56)

Question 84

What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?

Answer 84

Fire LOAL-LO or LOAL-HI to increase the missile trajectory. (.45, CH 14)

Question 85

What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for a K/M/N/R missile trajectory?

Answer 85

600 feet (.45, pg. 14-58)

Question 86

What is the max airspeed you can fly when engaging with a AGM-114F-A?

Answer 86

90 knots (AWR 2008D-A72)

Question 87

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile?

Answer 87

105.1 lbs (-10, pg. 6-14)

Question 88

For RF missile engagements ______________, the maximum allowable offset angle is _________.

Answer 88

For RF missile engagements less than 1km, the maximum allowable offset angle is 5 degrees.

(-10, pg 4-28; .45, pg. D-20)

Question 89

When the RF missile is tracking and the target range is ______________________________, the allowable constraints angle is __________.

Answer 89

When the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to 1km, the allowable constraints angle is 20 degrees. (.45, pg. D-20)

Question 90

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ___________, it will radiate and engage LOBL.

Answer 90

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between .5km to 8km, it will radiate and engage LOBL. (ATM, Task 1459)

Question 91

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of ____________. If target is not detected it will revert to LOAL.

Answer 91

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of 1km to 2.5km. If target is not detected it will revert to LOAL. (ATM, Task 1459)

Question 92

The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between ____________.

Answer 92

The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between 2.5km to 6km. (.45, pg. D-11)

Question 93

The RF missile is capable of hitting stationary LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of ___________.

Answer 93

The RF missile is capable of hitting stationary LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of 8000 meters. (ATM, pg. 4-148)

Question 94

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

Answer 94

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present. (-10 pg. 4-102)

Question 95

What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?

Answer 95

R (-10, pg. 4-116)

Question 96

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

Answer 96

NA (-10, pg. 4-116)

Question 97

What is “transfer alignment”?

Answer 97

The transfer of the aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform. (-10, pg. 4-118)

Question 98

What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?

Answer 98

TADS, FCR, and IDM (-10, pg. 4-118; ATM , pg. 4-146; .45, pg. 14-68)

Question 99

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

Answer 99

To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature. (ATM, Task 1458)

Question 100

The __________________________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a __________ target engagement.

Answer 100

The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a stationary target engagement.

(-10, pg. 4-123; ATM, pg. 4-147)

Question 101

An RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called _______________________.

Answer 101

An RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called Doppler Beam Sharpening.

(ATM, Task 1459; .45, pg. D-20)

Question 102

At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of __________ at ____.

Answer 102

At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of 990 meters at 8 km. (.45, pg. D-21; SHWS, pg. B-91)

Question 103

Stationary targets between ____________________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missile conducts DBS by _______________________________________.

Answer 103

Stationary targets between 2,500 and 8,000 meters are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missile conducts DBS by pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction.

(ATM, pg. 4-148)

Question 104

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at _________ intervals. This ________ occur while missiles are WASed.

Answer 104

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at 10 minute intervals. This does not occur while missiles are WASed. (SHWS, pg. D-86)

Question 105

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

Answer 105

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose (.45, pg D-12)

Question 106

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using _______________________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.

Answer 106

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using the CPG’s sight and range source regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement. (-10, pg. 3-91)

Question 107

How many Shot-At locations can be stored?

Answer 107

128 (-10, pg. 3-104)

Question 108

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as _______________________________ in the firing sequence.

Answer 108

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as the next missile to be launched in the firing sequence. (-10, pg. 4-115)

Question 109

Define the following missile status messages:

Answer 109

(10, pg. 4-116-117)

Question 110

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ______. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is __________.

Answer 110

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is active. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is not active.

Question 111

What is the “rule of thumb” for computing Hellfire TOF?

Answer 111

RANGE x 4 (SHO, pg. D-55)

Question 112

What is the “rule of thumb” for calculating maximum laser delay?

Answer 112

(TOF/2)-2 (SHO, pg. D-55)

Question 113

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L is __________.

Answer 113

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L is 110 meters. (JFIRE, pg. 151)

Question 114

Default range for the pilot is _____; default range for the CPG is ____.

Answer 114

Default range for the pilot is 1.5 km; default range for the CPG is 3.0 km. (-10, pg. 4-15)

Question 115

The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ___ targets, prioritize the __ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and initiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ___ targets.

Answer 115

The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than 128 targets, prioritize the 16 most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and initiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of 256 targets. (.45, pg. G-3)

Question 116

A _____________________ in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a ____________________________.

Answer 116

A _flashing asterisk (*)_ in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a multiple target condition is detected. (-10, pg 4-33)

Question 117

When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the ____________________ and compensates for ________________ when engaging with _______________ when TADS is the LOS.

Answer 117

When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the RF missile hand over and compensates for trajectory shift when engaging with gun and rockets when TADS is the LOS. (.45, pg. 14-68)

Question 118

T/F Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode.

Answer 118

False (ATM, pg. 4-82)

Question 119

T/F In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.

Answer 119

False (-10, pg. 4-53; .45, pg. 4-83)

Question 120

Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.

Answer 120

Up to 10 RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page. (-10, pg 4-54)

Question 121

RFI emitters will stay full intensity until __________ after they cease transmission.

Answer 121

RFI emitters will stay full intensity until 30 seconds after they cease transmission. (-10, pg 4-65)

Question 122

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _________________ around the threat Symbol and target type.

Answer 122

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a Home Plate Symbol around the threat Symbol and target type. (-10, pg. 4-67)

Question 123

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for __________, the symbols will change to _________________. After __________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will _____.

Answer 123

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for 30 seconds, the symbols will change to partial intensity. After 90 seconds of no transmission receipt, the symbols will blank. (-10, pg. 4-67)

Question 124

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in ______.

Answer 124

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in CYAN and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in YELLOW.

(-10, pg. 4-67)

Question 125

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places __________________________ (_______________________) over that emitter.

Answer 125

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol) over that emitter. (-10, pg. 4-67)

Question 126

Powering the RLWR ON enables up to _____ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______ of the ASE footprint.

Answer 126

Powering the RLWR ON enables up to seven detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the inside of the ASE footprint. (-10, pg. 4-130)

Question 127

Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _______ of the ASE footprint.

Answer 127

Powering the RFI ON enables up to ten detected RFI threats to be displayed on the outside of the ASE footprint. (-10, pg. 4-52)

Question 128

The RFI system detects and processes _____, _____________, and __________________________________.

Answer 128

The RFI system detects and processes pulse, pulse doppler, and continuous wave (CW) radar signals. (-10, pg. 4-130)

Question 129

What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?

Answer 129

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available. (-10-2, pg. 4-33)

Question 130

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___________ of the ______________.

Answer 130

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ±90 degrees of the FCR centerline. (-10, pg. 4-68)

Question 131

The ___________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.

Answer 131

The CUED Search switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter. (-10, pg. 4-68)

Question 132

While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?

Answer 132

The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter. (-10, pg. 4-66)

Question 133

Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended _______________________________.

Answer 133

Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended two times every 2.5-hour flight. (-10, pg. 4-96)

Question 134

When do FCR target symbols become stale?

Answer 134

Moving: 5 seconds. Stationary: 30 seconds.

(-10, pg. 4-55)

Question 135

If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne what will the FCR do?

Answer 135

Change to ATM (-10, pg 4-68)

Question 136

How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?

Answer 136

By either pressing the NTS button or selecting the alternate NTS with the cursor or shooting the NTS, or conducting another FCR scan. (-10, pg 4-55)

Question 137

What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?

Answer 137

2500 meters (-10, pg. 4-62)

Question 138

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV __________, MFOV __________, NFOV __________ and ZFOV __________.

Answer 138

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV 90 degrees, MFOV 45 degrees, NFOV 30 degrees and ZFOV 15 degrees. (-10, pg. 4-58)

Question 139

The FCR is unable to process __________________ at ranges greater than ___________.

Answer 139

The FCR is unable to process stationary targets at ranges greater than 6000 meters.

(ATM, pg. 4-147)

Question 140

Be able to label the FCR icons:

Answer 140

(-10, pg. 4-55)

Question 141

Be able to label the FCR icons:

Answer 141

(-10, pg. 4-55)

Question 142

In zoom mode the FCR will conduct _ scans per scanburst.

Answer 142

In zoom mode the FCR will conduct 4 scans per scanburst. (-10, pg 4-47)

Question 143

The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict ___ each?

Answer 143

The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict 2km each? (-10, pg 4-58)

Question 144

The ___ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.

Answer 144

The NTS button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target. (-10, pg 4-51)

Question 145

Which FCR Priority Scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?

Answer 145

B (-10, pg. 4-65)

Question 146

Which Priority Scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?

Answer 146

C (-10, pg. 4-65)

Question 147

A single scan burst in GTM _________ will give _______.

Answer 147

A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give 3 scans. (-10, pg. 4-49)

Question 148

________________________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification.

Answer 148

Scan-To-Scan-Correlation improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification. (-10, pg. 4-50)

Question 149

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the __________ is ______ and the NTS symbol will become _____.

Answer 149

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the NTS target is frozen and the NTS symbol will become solid. (-10, pg. 4-55)

Question 150

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ___________ will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and ___________________.

Answer 150

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ANTS symbol will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and flash for 3 seconds. (-10, pg. 4-55)

Question 151

What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

Answer 151

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components. (-10, pg. 4-65)

Question 152

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?

Answer 152

The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target. (-10, pg. 4-12)

Question 153

Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of __________ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.

Answer 153

Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of 64 symbols may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time. (-10, pg. 4-64)

Question 154

A shot-at symbol will be displayed _______ target symbols ______/______ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed _________ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.

Answer 154

A shot-at symbol will be displayed beneath target symbols during/after a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed on top of a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target. (-10, pg. 4-50)

Question 155

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a ______________________ when _____________________________________ and _______________________________. Narrow format displays a _____________________ when __________________________________ and _______________________________.

Answer 155

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when ground speed increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots. (-10, pg. 4-63)

Question 156

When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in ___.

Answer 156

When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in T50. (-10, pg. 3-100)

Question 157

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a _______________________ in the center of the _______ Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.

Answer 157

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a flashing lightning bolt in the center of the Ownship Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting. (-10, pg. 4-135)

Question 158

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?

Answer 158

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity). (-10, pg. 4-136)

Question 159

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______________________________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ___________________________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ____________________________.

Answer 159

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the FCR centerline to the TADS LOS when the selected sight is TADS or to set the TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS. (-10, pg. 4-7; ATM, Task 1144)

Question 160

FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The __________ (_______________________________________) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.

Answer 160

FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The FLIR SANUC (Scene Assisted Non-Uniformity Correction) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality. (-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)

Question 161

Crew Coordination should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if _______________________________________.

Answer 161

Crew Coordination should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained. (-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)

Question 162

On the AF (Air Fire) Page, if the values are all displayed in _____ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in _____, a performance parameter has been exceeded. The OBS range values are currently based off the _______ laser performance for a 90% probability of a hit with a SAL missile.

Answer 162

On the AF (Air Fire) Page, if the values are all displayed in GREEN the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in WHITE, a performance parameter has been exceeded. The OBS range values are currently based off the OH-58D’s laser performance for a 90% probability of a hit with a SAL missile. (-10, 3-69)

Question 163

The ______________________ will nominally take _________ for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.

Answer 163

The Target State Estimator will nominally take 3 seconds for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation. (.45, pg. 14-68)

Question 164

MUMT-2 Range expectations:

Answer 164

• AAG to Observer: 15km
• AAG to AAG: 15km
• UR to UAS: 40km

(v13.1 Differences)

Question 165

Remote Designator Safety Zone: Can you shoot a hellfire while your Wingman Lases using this scenario?

Answer 165

No, designator is withing range safety fan.

• OWN - GREEN: within 8km HF max range
• OBS - GREEN: within 12 km max designation
• FAN - WHITE: NG because OBS in safety fan

Question 166

While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?

Answer 166

_The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential inter communications system (ICS) shall cease until the P* states “BACK ABOVE” to the P._ (ATM, Task 1415, 1422)

Question 167

When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?

Answer 167

Pilot not on the controls. (ATM, Task 1422)

Question 168

What are the three levels of safing?

Answer 168

• Weapons trigger switch released
• Weapons action switch deselected
• SAFE/ARM button – SAFE

(ATM, Task 1422)

Question 169

Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?

Answer 169

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-32)

Question 170

Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?

Answer 170

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-40)

Question 171

Pilot and CPG shall perform their _____________________ prior to entering the ____.

Answer 171

Pilot and CPG shall perform their armament safety check prior to entering the FARP. (-10, pg. 8-14)

Question 172

When _______________________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ________________ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to _____.

Answer 172

When icing conditions exist or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to icing. (-10, pg. 8-3)

Question 173

When operating at ___________________, ensure anti-ice is in the ___________. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during ___________________ could result in severe ___________.

Answer 173

When operating at high power settings, ensure anti-ice is in the manual mode. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during high power settings could result in severe Np/Nr droop. (-10, pg. 8-12)

Question 174

Crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark __________________.

Answer 174

Crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark friendly positions.

Question 175

What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45? Note: for this question you don’t have to use exact words, as long as you relay understanding of the intent of the 4 initiatives.

Answer 175

• DOCTRINE: Adhere to Doctrine/SOP/TTP’s
• TRAINING: Combat ID & Graphic Control Measures Training
• ORGANIZATION: LNO’s & Liaisons
• LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT: Rehearsals &AARs

(.45, pg. 10-3)

Question 176

Maximum effective range is defined as _______________________________________.

Answer 176

Maximum effective range is defined as the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target. (.45, pg. A-4)

Question 177

The two types of fires are ______ and ________.

Answer 177

The two types of fires are Direct and Indirect. (.45, pg. 14-2)

Question 178

What are the three Techniques of Fire?

Answer 178

Destruction, Neutralization, and Suppression.

(ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)

Question 179

Destruction. Destruction is awesome. It’s what we strive to get good at. Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. ___________ is achieved by _______________________ or __________________________.

Answer 179

Destruction. Destruction is awesome. It’s what we strive to get good at. Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. Destruction is achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment. (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3; FM 7-Gonzo)

Question 180

Neutralization. Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. ______________ of a target occurs when it suffers at least ___ casualties or damage.

Answer 180

Neutralization. Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. Neutralization of a target occurs when it suffers at least 10% casualties or damage.

(ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)

Question 181

Suppression. Suppressive fire is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?

Answer 181

Limit enemy movement, limit enemy observation, and increase friendly freedom to maneuver. (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)

Question 182

Suppression. Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ________ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _________ of the suspected target area.

Answer 182

Suppression. Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of 10 or 20 round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within 10 meters of the suspected target area.

(.45, pg. 14-43)

Question 183

The four modes of fire IAW .45 are:

Answer 183

Hover fire, moving fire, running fire, and diving fire.

(.45, pg. 14-2; ATM Task 1422 — ATM does not include moving, it lists low alt bump.)

Question 184

Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ________________________________. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter __________________________.

Answer 184

Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter above 40 KTAS through Vne. (.45, pg. 14-2)

Question 185

What is the purpose of a “Fence Check?”

Answer 185

The purpose of a Fence Check is to ensure that the aircraft is configured to fight. Each aircraft prior to moving into a hostile environment must be prepared to engage threats immediately and defend itself accordingly. (.45, pg. 14-5)

Question 186

What are the standard steps of a Fence Check?

Answer 186

Weapons, ASE, IFF, Lights, Recorder (WAILR) (.45, pg. 14-5)

Question 187

What does “Fence Out” mean? What does “Fence In” mean?

Answer 187

• Fence out: conduct WAILR check crossing ‘the wire’, leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METTC depending.
• Fence in: conduct reverse WAILR as part of the before landing checks.

(.45, pg. 14-5)

Question 188

How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD? How many can be active at one time?

Answer 188

8, 1 (-10, pg. 3-134; .45, pg. E-11)

Question 189

During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a ______ .

Answer 189

During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a Ph=70%. (TACSOP, pg. 140-3)

Question 190

What is the difference between a “break,” “jinking,” and a “pull off?”

Answer 190

• A “Break” is an Immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing a maximum performance evasive maneuver.
• “Jinking” is defined as deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire.
• A “Pull Off” is employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area.

(ATM, pg. 6-5, 4-134, 4-203)

Question 191

Transmission of the ________________ constitutes _________________ except in ________________________.

Answer 191

Transmission of the 5-Line CCA Brief constitutes clearance to fire except in Danger Close Situations.

(JFIRE, pg. 70)

Question 192

To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _______ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.

Answer 192

To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately 8-10 km from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run. (ATM, pg. 4-134; .45, pg. 14-2)

Question 193

After conducting a proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?

Answer 193

Shooter/Shooter, Shooter/Cover, and Looker/Shooter. (ATM, Task 2043)

Question 194

NORMA/BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the ______________ of the weapon’s range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s _______________________.

Answer 194

NORMA/BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the last one-third of the weapon’s range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s maximum effective range. (ATM, pg. 4-127)

Question 195

What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?

Answer 195

1. R-MIN: Minimum engagement range.
2. R-MAX: Maximum engagement range.
3. Azimuth (left/right) limits: Lateral engagement limits or fields of fire modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.
4. Elevation limits: Vertical engagement limits of the system modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.

• ‘and’ Time of Flight (TOF).

(ATM, Task 1414; .45, pg. A-5)

Question 196

The four types of ballistics are ________, ________, ______, and ________.

Answer 196

The four types of ballistics are Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal. (.45, pg. A-6)

Question 197

____________________, an _________________, influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it ____________________. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering ___.

Answer 197

Rotor Downwash Error, an aerial ballistic, influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it most affects rockets. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering IGE. (.45, pg. A-10)

Question 198

In the AH-64D, Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with forward airspeed of ________.

Answer 198

In the AH-64D, Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with forward airspeed of 30 knots.

(ATM, pg. 4-134)

Question 199

________________ is an __________________ that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to __________________.

Answer 199

Projectile Drift is an exterior ballistic that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to drift to the right. (.45, pg. A-8)

Question 200

________________ is an ________________ aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to _____________.

Answer 200

Trajectory Shift is an aerial ballistic aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to shift forward. (.45, pg. A-13)

Question 201

_____________________ is produced when ____________________________________ combine. When a target is ___________, _____________________________________, causing the round to move _____________. When a target is ________, ______________________ (round moves _____) tend to lessen _______________________ (round moves ___), so ____________________________.

Answer 201

Port-Starboard Effect is produced when trajectory shift and projectile drift combine. When a target is to the left, the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move further right. When a target is to the right, the effect of projectile drift (round moves right) tend to lessen the effect of trajectory shift (round moves left), so less compensation is required. (.45, pg. A-13)

Question 202

__________________ is an ________________ it is caused by __________ (___________________) in the ___________________________________.

Answer 202

Angular Rate Error is an aerial ballistic it is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. (.45, pg. A-10)

Question 203

A crew fires a burst of 30mm at a target and misses to the left. Crew adjusts by placing the line of sight equal distance to the right of the target and fires again, this time hitting the target. What technique was used?

Answer 203

The Burst on Target Recognition Method, also known as ‘Kentucky Windage’ (.45, pg. 14-21)

Question 204

List the seven laser related missile performance distracters.

Answer 204

• *Backscatter**, Boresight error,
• *Attenuation**, Beam divergence, Spot jitter, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium Effect. (.45, pg. F-3)

Question 205

Backscatter is ____________________________.

Answer 205

Backscatter is _a portion of the laser beam’s energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser
path back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser’s energy penetrates towards the target_. (ATM, pg. 4-141; .45, pg. F-6)

Question 206

T/F The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent.

Answer 206

False (Safety inhibit) (10-2, pg. 4-40)

Question 207

__________ occurs when the laser’s reflection point on the DPI is ________________________. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the
laser can be seen the missile is reduced, or blocked during its flight. This may occur due to
designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, cave, or a wall with an extended overhang-such as a porch or building entryway.

Answer 207

Entrapment occurs when the laser’s reflection point on the DPI _is trapped or masked within the
target_. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the
laser can be seen the missile is reduced, or blocked during its flight. This may occur due to
designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, cave, or a wall with an extended overhang-such as a porch or building entryway. (.45, pg. F-5)

Question 208

_____________ occurs when the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target
blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker. This
prevents the laser spot from being detected or tracked. It has been observed to occur during
REMOTE engagements and buddy lase with UAVs, but could occur between AH’s and other platforms.

Answer 208

Podium Effect occurs when the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target
blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker. This
prevents the laser spot from being detected or tracked. It has been observed to occur during
REMOTE engagements and buddy lase with UAVs, but could occur between AH’s and other platforms. (.45, pg. 4-4)

Question 209

______________ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon.

Answer 209

Turret bending is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. (.45, pg. A-24)

Question 210

What is Turret Bending?

Answer 210

Airframe and gun-turret flexing in response to sustained recoil. (.45, pg. A-24)

Question 211

The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is __________.

Answer 211

The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is 620 meters. (ATM, pg. 4-180; AWR 2007D-A34)

Question 212

___, ____, and _____are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation.

Answer 212

Low, High, and Pulse are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation. (.45, pg. F-7)

Question 213

To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond 1000m, a manual range of _____ must be entered into the weapons processor (WP) to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above line-of-sight (LOS).

Answer 213

To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond 1000m, a manual range of 1000m must be entered into the weapons processor (WP) to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above line-of-sight (LOS). (AWR 2007D-A34)

Question 214

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?”

Answer 214

Training (-10, pg. 4-39, 102)

Question 215

What is entered on the keyboard unit (KU) to select auto range?

Answer 215

“A” (-10, pg. 4-15)

Question 216

The maximum PRF Laser frequency that may be entered is ____.

Answer 216

The maximum PRF Laser frequency that may be entered is 1788. (-10, pg. 4-121; .45, D-32)

Question 217

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _________ with a __________ look down angle.

Answer 217

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately 33 ft. AGL with a one-degree look down angle. (SHWS, pg. D-16)

Question 218

Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires _____________ for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires __________ burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates.

Answer 218

Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires 3 laser bursts for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires continuous burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates. (-10, pg. 4-15)

Question 219

On the COORD page, pressing any _________ makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an __________________.

Answer 219

On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1 – L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an acquisition source. (-10, pg. 3-128)

Question 220

The _______________ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the _______ and the pilot actions rockets, __________________ is in effect.

Answer 220

The last crewmember to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the pilot actions rockets, cooperative moding is in effect. (-10, pg. 4-6)