Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gunnery > GST 2015 > Flashcards

GST 2015 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. GT-1 is the first gate to live-fire for all crewmembers gunnery. What training is included in GT-I?
A
  • Gunnery academic instruction.
  • Hands-on tasks.
  • G-COFT.
  • GT-I evaluation.
  • GST.
  • G-COFE. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 2-3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Active duty and mobilized NG/RC rotary-wing attack and reconnaissance units will:
A
  • Annually qualify 85 percent of company/troop assigned aircrews on GT-VI
  • Annually qualify 85 percent of company/troop assigned aircrews on GT-IX
  • Annually train 85 percent of company/troop assigned aircrews on GT-XII (TC 3-04.45 pg. 2-9)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. GT-I.3 (GST and G-COFT/E) must be successfully completed by all units with a gunnery program at least semi- annually by—
A
  • All assigned flight activity category (FAC) 1 and FAC 2 modernized table of organization and equipment (MTOE) personnel.
  • All rated and non-rated MTOE personnel prior to designation as RL 1. This includes utility/cargo FAC 1 and FAC 2 MTOE pilots in command, non-rated crewmembers, and non-aviation military occupational specialty (MOS)-qualified Soldiers assigned as a door gunner.
  • A minimum of two hours of G-COFT/E in a DOS-accredited aircraft simulator or in the aircraft, not to exceed 180 days. GT-I.3 completion is valid for 6-calendar months. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 2-10)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Aircrew qualification (GT-II through GT-VI) must be completed within __________. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 2-10)
A

180 days of GT-II start date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. GT-VI qualification is the ____________ for conduct of live-fire at other than home station gunnery events. GT – VI is valid for ______ and is the required entry on the DA Form 7122-R (Crew Member Training Record). (TC 3-04.45 pg. 2-10)
A
  • baseline requirement
  • one year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Gunnery Tables IAW 3-04.45 pg 2-4
A
  • GT-I Individual training
  • GT-II Harmonization (Live)-AH-64 Weapons Calibration.
  • GT-IV Training AH-64 basic gun or rocket and missile. (Combined with GT – III basic gun and rocket)
  • GT-V Basic crew practice (Day) GT – VI Aircrew qualification (Night)
  • GT-VII Section/team training (AVCATT/SIMNET)
  • GT- VIII Section/team practice
  • GT – IX Section /team qualification
  • GT – X Platoon/company training
  • GT – XI Platoon/company practice
  • GT – XII Platoon/company qualification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. GT-I.3 iterations _______________ are tracked by the company/troop standardization instructor pilot (SP), or standardization operator (SO) and annotated on ___________ (Crew Member Task Performance and Evaluation Requirements Remarks and Certification) in the crewmember’s individual aircrew training folder (IATF). GT-I.3 has a ______ execution window; completion is valid for __________. (TC 3-04.45 pg 5-2)
A
  • (GST completion and G-COFT/E hours)
  • DA Form 7120-3-R
  • 180-day
  • 6-calendar months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Individuals who fail to maintain GT-I.3 requirements IAW paragraph 5-8 will be—
A
  • Reduced from RL 1 to RL 2 until satisfactory completion of GT-I.3, as applicable.
  • Restricted from participating in live-fire events.
  • May be processed IAW AR 95-1 or AR 95-23. (TC 3-04.45 pg 5-2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Aircrews must qualify _____ before conducting collective GTs. Once an aircrew member completes _____ qualification, they may be paired with other GT-VI qualified aircrew members to complete collective events GT-VII through GT-XII. (TC 3-04.45 pg 6-2)
A
  • GT-VI
  • GT-VI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. All aircrew members must complete the following prerequisite training events prior to conducting live-fire aerial gunnery:
A
  • Aircrews must be current on GT-I.3, based upon the individual’s semi-annual ATP requirement in chapter 2.
  • Individuals who are newly assigned, or whose GT currency has lapsed are required to earn a GO on GT- I.3 prior to conducting live-fire gunnery. (TC 3-04.45 pg 6-3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The engagement process is a systematic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission. The 5 five tenets are ____________ (TC 3-04.45 pg. 11-1)
A
  • Detect
  • Identify
  • Decide
  • Engage
  • Assess
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Many factors (or preconditions) contribute to fratricide. These factors are crucial in the commander’s fratricide risk assessment before combat. They are based on _______. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 10-2)
A

METT-TC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The _____________ process is a series of progressive and interdependent steps (or actions)—target search, detection, location, and identification that lead to the decision process to engage or not engage. Effective CID for a crew requires a constant combined effort from each aircrew member. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 11-1)
A

Combat Identification Process (CID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. _____________ is the process of attaining an accurate characteristic and discriminatory aspect of detected objects on the battlefield. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 12-1)
A

Target identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. The gunner’s triangle is a logical sequence which standardizes the engagement method, in the order of- __________________ This method ensures that the firing crew member uses a complete cross-check, while verbalizing the engagement parameters for the opposite crew member to maneuver the aircraft appropriately. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-7)
A
  • target
  • heading
  • range
  • store
  • weapons employment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The _____________ is a series of progressive and interdependent steps based upon the mission, ROE, the tactical directive, the target threat level, weapon systems or ammunition selection, and confirming the target as a threat. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 13-1)
A

decision process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Neutralization knocks the target out of the battle temporarily. ___________ or more casualties usually neutralize most units. The unit becomes effective again when casualties are replaced and equipment repaired. (TC 3-04.45 pg H-23)
A

Ten percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Destructive fires put the target out of action permanently. A unit with __________or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force. (TC 3-04.45 pg H-23)
A

30 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. The three target-effect standards for armed helicopter engagements are? _______________ (TC 3-04.45 pg H-23)
A
  • suppression
  • neutralization
  • destruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What are the four kill standards classified as?
A
  • Mobility
  • firepower
  • combined mobility and firepower
  • catastrophic (TC 3-04.45 pg 15-1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Interior ballistics includes:
A
  • Barrel Wear
  • Launcher Tube Alignment
  • Thrust Misalignment
  • Propellant Charge
  • Projectile Weight (BLTPP) (TC 3-04.45 pg A-6 and A-7)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Air resistance, Gravity, Yaw, Projectile Drift, and Wind Drift are what type of ballistics? ________. (TC 3-04.45 pg A- 7 and A-8)
A

Exterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?
A
  • Time of flight
  • Wind speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile (TC 3-04.45 pg A-9)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile’s trajectory changing which increases Drag. Where would a projectile have its maximum Yaw?
A

Near the muzzle and gradually subsides as the projectile stabilizes. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right is called?
A

Projectile Drift (TC 3-04.45 pg A-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Do Apache Pilots have to compensate for Projectile drift?
A

No. Pilots should note that Apache ballistics algorithms compensate for this phenomenon, so aircrews do not have to make adjustments. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-8).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Trajectory shift and projectile drift combine to constitute the ____________ (TC 3-04.45 pg A-13)
A

port-starboard effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. In general, at ranges _____________ the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges _____________ the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift. (TC 3-04.45 pg A- 14)
A
  • less than 1,000 meters
  • greater than 1,000 meters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. AH-64D pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the weapons processor if:
A
  • a. TADS is the selected LOS (Seven-state Kalman filter)
  • b. FCR is the selected LOS (Scan-to-scan correlation) (TC 3-04.45 pg A-25)

***NO lead-angle compensation is computed or added when IHADSS is the selected sight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Firing to the right produces a downward jump; firing to the left produces an upward jump. This is compensated for by the weapons processor with TADS and FCR as the LOS. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-21)
A

Projectile Jump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. ____________ is caused by the motion of the helicopter as the projectile leaves the weapon.
A

Angular Rate Error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Angular rate error occurs when an aircrew fires rockets from a hover using the pitch-up delivery technique. Hover fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately ________ without changing the aircraft pitch attitude. (TC 3-04.45pg A-22 / TC 3-04.42 pg 4-153)
A

4,500 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. __________ describes a projectile’s characteristics and effects on a target. Projectile functioning such as blast, heat, and fragmentation are influenced by fuse and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface condition (TC 3-04.45 pg A-14)
A

Terminal ballistics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?
A

Terminal Ballistic (TC 3-04.45 pg A-15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as the _____________( TC 3-04.45 pg A-12)
A

relative wind effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
A
  • Thrust Misalignment
  • Rocket spin (TC 3-04.45 pg A-7)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Maximum effective range is defined as:
A

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Hellfire II missiles share a common rocket motor and SAD. The M120E5 is a single thrust, rod and tube motor design containing approximately 9.1 kilogram of class 1.1 propellant . Maximum velocity is approximately _____ meters per second (MACH 1.4). (TC 3-04.45 pg. D-8)
A

475

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Running fire is defined in the TC 3-04.45 as tasks that are conducted at maneuver speeds between______________________.
A

50 knots and the aircraft velocity to never exceed (VNE). (TC 3-04.45 pg. 6-13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Running fire performed at airspeeds ________will offer a mix aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-136)
A

above ETL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the weapons processor: 1st round-_____________, 2nd round-_____________, ________ is applied thereafter until gunfire is terminated. (TC 3- 04.45 pg. A-24)
A
  • no compensation
  • 1/2 of the turret bending table value
  • full table value
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. In the AH-64D, rotor down-wash influence is reduced to zero at approximately __________forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero. (TC 3-04.45 pg. A-24)
A

33 knots indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. The AH-64 ballistics algorithms automatically compute rotor down-wash compensation for rockets based on aircraft gross weight, air density ratio, and longitudinal true airspeed. However, this compensation assumes rocket launch is initiated at __________. (TC 3-04.45 pg. A-24)
A

HOGE altitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. The Target State Estimator is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:
A
  • Processed range data from the laser range validator.
  • TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros.
  • Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI. (TC 3-04.45 pg. A-26)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Crewmembers will not use _________ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-203)
A

friendly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately _________from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run. (TC 3- 04.42 pg 4-134)
A

8 to 10 KM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. When selecting the initial point for a running or diving fire attack it should be either a ____________. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-134)
A

readily identifiable terrain feature or a TSD/C-Scope icon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Transmission of the 5-Line CCA Brief (Ground-to-Air) constitutes clearance to fire except in a ____________. JFIRE (NOV 2012) pg 70
A

danger close situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. The 4 “T”s associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are?
A
  • Target
  • Torque
  • Trim
  • Target re-verified. (TC 3-04.42 pg. 4-134)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. What are the four modes of fire?
A
  • Hover fire
  • Moving fire (Equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS)
  • Running fire Greater than 40 KTAS but less than Vne)
  • Diving (pitch attitude 10 degrees below the horizon or greater and 40 KTAS to Vne) (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. The five techniques of fire are
A
  • hover fire
  • running fire
  • diving fire
  • low altitude bump
  • diving/running fire initial point. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-136)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

_______________ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300- to 1,000-foot (bump) about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target. (TC 3-04.42 4-136)

A

Low-Altitude Bump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

After weapon’s release the crew executes a turn away from the target. This maneuver is called the “_______” formerly referred to as the “break”. (TC 3-04.42 4-136)

A

Pull - off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The AMC will select the appropriate team employment technique and will brief the team utilizing TPM-R:

A
  • Technique (Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump),
  • Pattern (Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L-attack, Figure 8, Butterfly pattern, 45-degree attack, Circular/W heel pattern)
  • Munitions
  • Range. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-177)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based on the tactical situation utilizing the following terminology:

A
  • Shooter/cover
  • Shooter/shooter
  • Looker/shooter (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-177)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

JTACs may establish a hasty IP for CAS aircraft utilizing the “keyhole template”.

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is technique used to adjust fires on target that requires the aircrew member firing the weapon to sense projectile impacts of the weapon system and use proper technique to adjust the rounds on target. Crews can use this method with the cannon, machine-gun, and rocket engagements.

A

Burst on target (BOT) (TC 3-04.45 pg 14- 20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The three techniques of applying burst on target corrections include

A
  • recognition
  • milliadian relation
  • LRF methods (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-20)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is the_____________.

A

recognition method or “ Kentucky Windage” method of BOT. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which miss long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket’s impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is the _______________.

A

laser rangefinder- method of BOT. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When the LRF/D is not working, referencing target size vs. symbology to determine range to target is known as the____________.

A

Milliradian Relationship Method. (TC 3-04.45 pg G-16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

At shorter ranges with the M261 warhead , the ram air decelerator (RAD) takes longer to overcome momentum, __________ dispersion. As range increases, the rocket loses momentum, increasing the effectiveness of the RAD. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-30)

A

increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the three levels of safeing? (TC 3-04.42, pg. 4-135)

A
  1. Weapons trigger switch released
  2. Weapons action switch deselected
  3. SAFE/ARM button – SAFE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

A

Apache/30 mm M789

500m. ……………….75m /246’
1000m. ……………..95m/312’
1500m. ……………..115m/378’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

AWS dynamic harmonization. If the AWS requires harmonization accomplish the following:

A
  1. Maintain a heading to target of ±5 degrees, at a range of 500-1500 meters.
  2. Using the procedure outlined in TM 1-1520-251-CL, place 5 of 10 rounds in the target. (BMP frontal.)
  3. Accurately transcribe the dynamic harmonization data to the aircraft logbook. (Electronic and/or paper as appropriate.)

(TC 3-04.42 pg 4-163)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The M789 HEDP projectile is an _________ and _________ round capable of defeating light armored vehicles. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-18)

A
  • anti-materiel
  • anti-personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The M789 round shaped charge warhead forms a high velocity jet for light armor penetration. Armor penetration ranges from __________ at 500 meters, to _________ at 3,000 meters with the spin compensated (fluted) copper liner. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-18)

A
  • 38 mm (1.5 inches)
  • 76 mm (3 inches)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The M789 nominal burst radius is _______; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and the target type. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-19)

A

4 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The M789 round has a velocity of approximately _____________ at the muzzle and slows steadily thereafter. Engagements at greater than _________can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.(TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-44)

A
  • 805 meters per second
  • 2000 meters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The 3 types of rounds the 30mm can accommodate and description are the ___________________________.

A

M788 (Training) blue with aluminum tip

M789 (Tactical HEDP) black with yellow band

M848 (Dummy) Brass color. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-16) (-10 pg 4-102)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When FXD is selected by the pilot the _____ will only be displayed in the _______ symbology. When FXD is selected by the CPG _____________ will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-164)

A
  • CCIP
  • PLT Format
  • both crewmembers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid _________ when HMD is the selected sight. AWS Student Handout pg D-62

A

manual range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

During a fixed gun engagement, You action the gun by momentarily placing the WAS on the cyclic forward to the gun (G) position. When WASed, the gun will relocate and remain at fixed position ____________________.

A

(0 degrees azimuth and +0.87degrees elevation) until de-W ASed. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-164)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The gun duty cycle is as follows: _, __ round bursts w/ __________ between bursts followed by a _________ cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50 – no more than _____rounds within ___ seconds before allowing gun to cool for___ minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated. (-10, pg. 4-113)

A

6, 50/ 5 seconds, 10 minute, 300, 60, 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ____or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ___ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ___ minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (-10pg. 4-113)

A

300, 10, 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The maximum effective range of the 30mm varies based upon target type and desired effect. Point targets can be accurately engaged out to ___________. The WP will provide a ballistic solution up to a range of _______meters.(TC 3-04.42 pg 4-160)

A

1500 to 1700 meters, 4200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a safety inhibit. When firing the __________, ______________________, and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent. AWS Student Handout pg D-50

A
  • AWS in FIXED mode
  • LOS INVALID becomes a performance inhibit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of _______ left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within __________ of aircraft centerline), and __________depression. (- 10, pg. 4-111)

A

86 degrees, 10 degrees, -60 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

T / F (circle) Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode. (- 10, pg. 4-111)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The 30mm is limited to _______ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.(AW S Student Handout PG D- 24)

A

+/- 60 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The 30mm is limited to ________ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon. (AWS Student Handout PG D-24)

A

52 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The LOS Reticle flashes when the _______________________ or _______________________. It also flashes when ____________________________________________. (-10, pg. 4-24)

A
  • crewmember’s LOS is invalid
  • his selected NVS is at its limit
  • the gun is the selected weapon and the gun system has failed and is not following the crewmember’s head.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

A

The possibility exists that the AW S could inadvertently be driven into the ground. (-10, pg. 4-107)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ______________. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.

A

Stowed in elevation (-10, pg 4-112)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm in reference to the Gun Duty Cycle?

A

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death (-10, pg. 4-104)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The software ballistic range limit for the 30mm is ____________.

A

4200 meters. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-160) (-10-2, pg. 4-113)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The 100-gallon auxiliary fuel cell includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ____ rounds

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ________ in elevation to prevent _______ during landing (- 10pg. 4-111)

A

+11 degrees, dig-in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _______. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ________________. (– 10-2, pg. 4-22)

A

inhibited, return to the stowed position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is ______________.

A

625 +25. (-10 pg. 4-111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The AWS will ______________________when operating in NVS FIXED Mode. (-10 pg. 4-111)

A

continue to follow IHADSS LOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticle (GUN DH reticle) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the __________________.

A

Store/Update Switch (ORT LHG). (- 10, pg. 4-115)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The Sideloader/ Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions?

A
  • Counting of 30mm rounds
  • control of the carrier drive assembly
  • control of the loader assembly for uploading and downloading (-10 pg 4-111)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?

A

888

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

A
  1. 75” HE Rockets (Mk 146/151/229)
    300m. …………………140 / 460’
    800m. ………………..210m / 689’
    1500m. ……………….305m /1001’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?

A

A-24

B-8

E-6 (-10, pg 4-107)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

M439/M261 (MPSM)/M66 engagements at ranges less than _______ and/or speeds greater than ______ are not authorized. (-10, pg. 4-117)

A

1000 meters, 90 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

________________ that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and may cause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket. ARS Student Handout pg D-44

A

ACCEL Limit is a safety inhibit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The ___________ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the ________ and the pilot actions rockets, __________ is in effect. (-10, pg. 4-6)

A
  • last crewmember
  • LHG WAS
  • cooperative moding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Label the rocket steering cursors:

A

articulating inhibited G-Sinhibited G-Sfixed inhibited fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Each M73 sub-munition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _______ of armor. (TC 3.04.45, pg. C-16)

A

4 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The M261 is a MPSM warhead for ___________ and __________ applications. (TC 3-04.45 pg C -16)

A

anti-materiel, anti-personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The MPSM warhead body is _________________.

A

olive drab with yellow markings. (TC 3-04.45 pg C -16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The M261 contains _____ individual M73 sub-munitions with a shaped charge warhead for perforating light armor (top attack) and a fragmenting steel case for anti-personnel effects. (TC 3-04.45 pg C -16)

A

nine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

The MPSM sub-munition (M73) will land __degrees off center __ percent of the time, resulting in a 90% probability of producing personnel injuries within a __ meter radius. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-30)

A

5, 66, 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A sub-munitions landing __ degrees off center has a __ percent probability of producing casualties within a __ meter radius.(TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-30)

A

30, 90, 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The MK66 rocket achieves maximum velocity at approximately _______ (motor burnout) from the launch aircraft. (TC 3-04.45 pg. A-7).

A

300 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than _____with two _______ launchers every _____ seconds or fire with only ___ outboard launcher installed with out restrictions. (-10, pg. 4-117)

A

pairs, outboard, three, one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and _____smoke producing sub-munitions. (TC 3.04.45, pg. C-18)

A

six, three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters. (-10, pg.4-117)

A

51m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When rockets are in the cooperative mode the WP will use the _____________________________ and will disregard the ______________. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-159)

A
  • CPG-selected LOS and range date in the fire control solution
  • PLT LOS and range data. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-159)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?

A

Yes, during the rocket coop mode, both the CPG and PLT share a common WPN’s RKT page. Both may view, access , edit or fire RKT ’s. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-159)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

MK66 ______ motors are prohibited from use on Army Apaches and Kiowa Warriors due to the possibility of ejection of the rocket motor stabilizing rod. (3.04.45 C-18)

A

MOD 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range. (3-04.45 pg 14-29).

A

400m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately_______ without changing aircraft pitch angle. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-153)

A

4500m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes _____________.

A

6PD, 6RC, 6IL, 6SK, 6MP and 6FL. (-10, pg. 4-117)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than _____, and for all other flight conditions of _____, is not authorized. (-10 pg 4-117)

A

7 ft AGL, 5 ft AGL

118
Q

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is ______. The effective range withMK66 rocket motors is ________. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than _____. (-10 pg 4-117)

A

800m, 1 to 3km, 3km

119
Q

When forward airspeed exceeds _____, do not use M229/M423 (17 pounder PD) warhead/fuze combination for engagement of targets under ______ distance, and ensure the line of fire is clear of obstruction(trees/buildings) for at least ______ (-10 pg 4-117)

A

10 KTAS, 140m, 140m

120
Q

When at a hover or forward air speed is less than ______, engagement distance and the requirement for line of fire to be clear of obstruction may be reduced to ______. Firing this combination with the ballistics for the M151 (10 pounder) warhead will result in reduced rocket range. (-10 pg 4-117)

A

10 KTAS, 110m

121
Q

Re-inventory and attempting to fire 6MP,6FL, and 6SK rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _____ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset. (-10 pg 4-117)

A

10 days

122
Q

The M257 Illumination (overt) warhead provides one million candlepower for ________ or more. (TC 3-04.45 pg. C-13)

A

100 seconds

123
Q

The M278 IR Illumination (covert) warhead will provide IR light for ________. (TC 3-04.45 pg. C-15)

A

3 minutes

124
Q

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

A

AGM-114 K/M/N/FA/L

ALL………………….110m / 361’

125
Q

Firing the missile near the edge of constraints reduces the missiles probability of hit (Ph). Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both ________ and ________, to the gun target line prior to firing. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-143)

A

horizontally and vertically

126
Q

An offset of ________, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-143)

A

3 to 5 degrees

127
Q

What are the nine laser limiting factors:

A

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Spot Jitter, Beam Divergence, Attenuation, Overspill, Underspill, Podium effect, and Entrapment. (TC 3-04.45 pg F-3 thru F-5)

128
Q

When the seeker LOS differs from the TADS LOS by more than ________ and the seeker is locked onto the autonomous laser spot, the LOBL constraints box will indicate an out-of-constraints condition. (TC 3-04.45 pg F-6)

A

2 degrees

129
Q

Backscatter can NOT be overridden by the trigger second detent ________.

A

SAFETY INHIBIT (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-143)

130
Q

To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL-Direct, and use a minimum of __________ of delay from missile separation (about three seconds after trigger pull). (TC 3-04.45 pg F-6)

A

two seconds

131
Q

Missile constraints box driver:

A
  1. LOBL – Missile Seeker
  2. LOAL DIR – selected LOS
  3. LOAL LO or HI – target coordinates stored in the WP in the acquisition selection (B5). (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-18)
132
Q

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window. True / False ((TC 3-04.42 pg 4-139) It is from the acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position)

A

False

133
Q

The missile seeker has a _______ seeker limit from the missile centerline. (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-33)

A

+/- 30 degree

134
Q

LOAL HI/LO maximum engagement range is _________.

A

8 km (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-58)

135
Q

LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is _______.

A

7 KM (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-58)

136
Q

LOBL maximum engagement range is ___________.

A

7KM. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-58)

137
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement range: 0 degree offset: _____ meters: 20 degree offset: ______ meters ( TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-58)

A

500, 700

138
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range low altitude:

A

0 degree offset: 1,500 meters
7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-59)

139
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range low altitude:

A

0 degree offset: 2,000 meters
20 degree offset: 2,500 meters (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-59)

140
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range low altitude:

A

0 degree offset: 3,500 meters
20 degree offset: 3,500 meters (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-59)

141
Q

When SAL missiles are fired from more than _____ feet above the target’s altitude, or if ________________, fire the missile LOBL. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-59)

A

800, very short minimum ranges are required

142
Q

Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than _______ above the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-59)

A

800 feet

143
Q

The LOBL missile constraint box (SAL Missile) is ________.

A

+ -20 degrees. (-10, pg. 4-30)

144
Q

The LOAL missile constraint box (SAL Missile) is _______.

A

+ -7.5 degrees. (-10, pg. 4-30)

145
Q

LOAL LO will clear a _____ mask with a ______ standoff. (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-51)

A

260 ft, 600m

146
Q

LOAL HI will clear a ______ mask with a _______ standoff.( LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-53)

A

1000 ft, 1500m

147
Q

Due to seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for ____ engagements should be increased as follows:

a. Increase minimum range by _______ for launch altitudes between 50 to 400 feet above target altitude.
b. Increase minimum range by _______ for launch altitudes between 401 and 800 feet above the target altitude.

(TC 3-04.45 pg 14-59)

A

LOAL, 500m, 1000m

148
Q

Peak velocity of the missile when launched at sea level is _____________________.

A

475 meters/second (923 knots/Mach 1.4). (TC 3-04.45 pg D-2)

149
Q

Arming can only occur when the missile’s acceleration exceeds ___.

A

10Gs. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-2)

150
Q

The fuze is armed between ___________ from the launching platform for all hellfires except the AGM-114R, which is armed at ___________. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-2)

A

150-300 m, 375-500 m

151
Q

If a __________ is on a launcher rail, the aircraft prevents live missiles from being launched from that launcher. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-3)

A

training missile

152
Q

The AGM-114K,L,&P configurations utilize a tandem shaped-charge warhead to enhance performance against reactive armor. The ____________ initially defeats explosive reactive armor, IOT allow main warhead to penetrate main armor layer. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-3)

A

precursor warhead

153
Q

All hellfire missiles consist of a ______, _______, _______, and ________ section. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-3)

A

guidance, warhead, propulsion, and control

154
Q

The SAL seeker has 5 operating modes:

A

Cage, Slave, Stare, Scan, and Track. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-5/6)

155
Q

There are 2 pilot-controlled guidelines to adhere to IOT minimize hellfire missile roll tip off:

A

a. Loaded pylons minimize roll tip-off effect: Load from the upper inboard rail and out for each launcher pylon.
b. Higher launch airspeeds lower the probability of roll tip-off. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-37)

156
Q

he firing trajectory that affords the lowest flight path for all missiles is:

A

LOAL-D (TC 3-04.45 pg D-41/42)

157
Q

During Remote engagements, ensure designator offset angle does not exceed ______. Missile guidance performance is improved at designator angles less than ______. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-56)

A

60 degrees, 45 degrees

158
Q

For LOBL firing mode, the articulation will position the pylon _______above the target pitch line-of-sight. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-40)

A

+4 degrees

159
Q

For LOAL firing mode in Lot 13.1 / 13.2, the articulation will position the pylon +4 degrees above the target pitch line- of-sight, instead of +4 degrees above the horizon. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-40)

A

+4 degrees above the target pitch line-of-sight

160
Q

The AGM-114K, L, M, N, P, and R are all considered _____ missiles. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-1)

A

SAL II

161
Q

Targets shall be a minimum of _____ from the firing point when firing AGM-114M/N/K2A missiles. (AWR 2007D-A05)

A

800m

162
Q

When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the _______________ may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion. (AWR 2007D-A05)

A

ground just short of the target

163
Q

Do not fly faster than _______ when firing the AGM-114F-A missile. (AWR 2013D-A19)

A

90 KTAS

164
Q

Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no greater than _______ during running fire of the Hellfire AGM- 114K2A and AGM-114M/N missiles. (Safety of Use Message 07-004)

A

90 knots

165
Q

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes, that missile is selected as the ______________ in the firing sequence. (-10, pg. 4-121)

A

the next missile to be launched

166
Q

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel? ___ (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-140)

A

3

167
Q

What is the definition of Ripple fire? __________________ (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-141)

A

Multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes

168
Q

The Hellfire-II designator exclusion zone is a three-dimensional,________cone which originates at the firing aircraft, extending outward to the maximum range of the missile. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-71)

A

30 degree

169
Q

Maximum missile altitude:

A

LOBL

  • 3 km……….400 ft
  • 5 km……….500 ft
  • 7 km…………600 ft

LOAL-D

  • 7 km…………400 ft

LOAL-L

  • 8 km…………800 ft

LOAL-H

  • 8 km…………1400 ft
170
Q

The minimum cloud ceiling to fire a “K/K2A/M/N/R” model missile in LOBL mode) is?

A

3 km……………..400 ft

5 km……………..500 ft

7 km………………600 ft

(TC 3-04.45 pg 14-58)

171
Q

Time of flight and terminal guidance (steady on target time) requirements:

A

Range TOF (sec) Steady on Target (sec)

2 km………….7………………………6

3 km………….10…………………….6

4 km………….14…………………….6

5 km………….19…………………….6

6 km…………24…………………….6

7 km………….29…………………….7

8 km………….36……………………8

(TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-54)

**The rule of thumb for computing TOF is acceptable: RANGE times 4.

**The rule of thumb for computing maximum laser delay is acceptable: (TOF divided by 2) minus 2. Ex. 4k=14 sec TOF; 14/2=7 7-2=5 (max delay) LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-5

172
Q

Missile Icons:

A

(-10 pg. 4-122)

173
Q

If it is anticipated that both the pilot and CPG will operate the FCR during the mission, then an FCR Operational check should be completed in______________.(-10 pg. 4-105)

A

both crewstations

174
Q

The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to ___ in roll and ___ to ___ in pitch. Flight outside these parameters may result in degraded FCR performance. (-10 Pg 4-46)

A

20 degrees, +20 to -15

175
Q

To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over no longer than __ to __ seconds after the TARGET DATA message disappears. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-153)

A

5 to 7

176
Q

Target symbols are dimmed after a period of time to indicate that the target data is stale.

A

a. Moving target symbols become stale after 5 seconds.
b. Stationary target symbols become stale after 30 seconds.
c. Low priority targets are displayed in partial intensity yellow on the TSD page as a half size icon.

(-10 Pg 4-54)

177
Q

Name the following symbols. (-10Pg 4-54)

A

178
Q

The Next to Shoot Target Symbol The symbol is dashed if:

A

a. Aircraft is not armed
b. FCR is not selected as a sight
c. Weapon system is not actioned (WAS) (-10-2 Pg 4-54)

179
Q

When the RF missile is actioned and a second target is passed to the RF missile, the WP will pass the north, east and down information of the target to the DP by monitoring the ____________ message. -10 Pg 4-54)

A

secondary target handover

180
Q

Priority Fire (PF) zones are displayed in white as a quadrilateral to indicate a geographic area in which target priority is established as highest for prioritization and display. It is displayed in the _____________.

A

GTM, but not RMAP. (10Pg 4-55)

181
Q

Selecting the FCR mode switch to RMAP, after RMAP is initially selected, displays target symbols __________________.

A

without radar video. (-10 Pg 4-47)

182
Q

When FCR target data is displayed, switching from RMAP to GTM will display information in the selected format. Selecting ATM or TPM will _______________________.

A

eliminate all ground targeting data. (-10Pg 4-47)

183
Q

Targets blank as they exit the scan sector except for the NTS. NTS will ___________ when NTS is at the edge of sector scan (crew member may select new NTS). (-10Pg 4-59)

A

become dashed and partial intensity

184
Q

The CUED search button is used to quickly orient the FCR to a RFI detected radar emitter to conduct a scan. Selecting the cued search button is a quick way to __________________________________.

A

mode, point, size and initiate the FCR for a scan. (-10Pg 4-50)

185
Q

When an emitter selected for cued search is a ground emitter, the ___________________________.

A

FCR is commanded to RMAP and the FCR centerline is commanded to the azimuth of that emitter. (-10 Pg 4-67)

186
Q

If the emitter is located beyond the azimuth limits of the RMAP, the FCR will not perform a cued search. If this condition occurs, a LIMITS message will be displayed in the Sight Status Field of the HAD for a minimum of __________.

A

10 seconds. (-10 Pg 4-67)

187
Q

If the CUED button is pressed during a normal FCR scan, the scan will be discontinued and _________________________.

A

a new cued search will be initiated. (-10 Pg 4-67)

188
Q

When FCR BIT ORIDE is selected from the FCR utility page, Initiated BIT (IBIT) will only conduct critical item BIT and will terminate early (after a minimum run time of approximately_________), and the FCR will go directly to the selected mode of operation. (-10 Pg 4-84)

A

25 to 45 seconds

189
Q

________________ is transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform, which occurs automatically, whether inflight or not, at missile power up with no pilot action required.( -10 pg 4-124)

A

Transfer alignment

190
Q

_____ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and that the missile is ready to receive a target. (-10 pg 4-124)

A

“R”

191
Q

_____________ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-24)

A

Doppler beam sharpening

192
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of ______________. If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-151) **Terminal track acquisition

A

1 KM to 2.5KM

193
Q

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at ______ intervals. This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned. (LBHMMS Student Handout pg. D-65)

A

10 minute

194
Q

A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following sources:

A

TADS, FCR, IDM. (-10 pg 4-124)

195
Q

The _________ is initiated when the firing command (weapon trigger pull) occurs. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-19 )

A

post launch mode

196
Q

The ___________ and __________ are terms used to explain the different ways that the missile seeker improves its chances of locating and hitting LOBL and LOAL targets. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-23)

A

target acquisition, tracking modes

197
Q

The missile has three target acquisition modes: _________________________________. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-23)

A

Preterminal track acquisition, Terminal track acquisition, and Moving target acquisition

198
Q

The missile has two tracking modes:

A

Preterminal track and Terminal track. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-23)

199
Q

If the missile determines the target requires a LOBL acquisition, it will try to acquire it by radiating _____________________. (Student Handout pg. D-75) (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-151)

A

three consecutive times for about three seconds each

200
Q

When a stationary target is handed over to the RF missile between ___________, the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. IF the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message “NO ACQUIRE” will be displayed and firing will be inhibited. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-151)

A

0.5 KM and 1.0 KM

201
Q

RF DBS trajectory based on __________________________.

**DBS will only occur on stationary target at ranges between 2.5KM and 8.0KM. This will occur during Preterminal Track Acquisition (TC 3-04.45 pg D-25)

A

target location relative to the missile centerline

202
Q

When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the _____ side of the target. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-25)

A

right

203
Q

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons? ___ (- 10, pg. 4-132)

A

NA

204
Q

How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

A

30 minutes (–10, pg. 4-132)

205
Q

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? ___ What does this symbol mean? Overtemperature (-10, pg. 4-132)

A

OT

206
Q

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

A

To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-150)

207
Q

What does the message “TARGET DATA?” mean in the HAD?

A

Indicates no target data is available (i.e. MSL WAS’D, RF MSL selected and, TADS is selected LOS) (-10, pg. 4-34)

208
Q

For an RF missile shot you must track and lase target for at least _______ or until HAD message ________ blanks. (-10 pg. 4-131)

A

3 seconds, TARGET DATA?

209
Q

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection ______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (SHWS, pg. D-65)

A

narrows

210
Q

The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the _______ RF missile during a _______ target engagement. (-10, pg. 4-129)

A

primary, stationary

211
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of ________. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-151)

A

1KM to 2.5KM

212
Q

At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of _______ at 8 km. (SHWS, pg. B-91)

A

990m

213
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to ___, the allowable constraints angle is ________. (-10, pg. 4-30)

A

1km, 20 degrees

214
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than ___, the allowable constraints angle is _______. (-10, pg. 4-30)

A

1km, 5 degrees

215
Q

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

A

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose (TC- 3-04.45, pg. D-12)

216
Q

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile?

A

107.8 (-10, pg 6-14)

217
Q

In what three modes does the RF missile operate?

A

Standby, Prelaunch, Post Launch (TC-3-04.45), pg. D-12)

218
Q

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

A

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present (-10 pg. 4-109)

219
Q

The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data (position error data taken from both aircraft and/or FCR range deviation error data) has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?

A

“NAV DATA INVALID” (-10, pg. 4-33)

220
Q

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV __ degrees, MFOV __ degrees, NFOV __ degrees and ZFOV __ degrees. (-10, pg. 4-57)

A

90, 45, 30, 15

221
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets? ___ (-10, pg. 4-64)

A

A

222
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets? ____ (-10, pg. 4-64)

A

B

223
Q

Which Priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets? ___ (-10, pg. 4-64)

A

C

224
Q

A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give ___ scans. (-10, pg. 4-48)

A

3

225
Q

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ___ and ___, it will radiate and attempt ______. (TC 3-04.42, pg. 4-151)

A

.5K, 8K, LOBL

226
Q

____________improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification. (-10, pg. 4-49)

A

Scan-To-Scan Correlation

227
Q

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the ____ target is ______ and the NTS symbol will become _____. (-10, pg. 4-54)

A

NTS, frozen, solid

228
Q

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the _______ will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and flash for ________. (-10, pg. 4-54)

A

ANTS symbol, 3 seconds

229
Q

The __________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter. (-10, pg. 4- 67)

A

CUED Search

230
Q

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ____________________. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-84)

A

+ / - 90 degrees of the Aircraft Centerline.

231
Q

Up to ___ RFI emitters can be displayed. (-10, pg. 4-53)

A

10

232
Q

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a ____________ around the threat Symbol and target type. (- 10, pg. 4-66)

A

Home Plate Symbol

233
Q

fter RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ______, the symbols will change to ________. After ________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will _______. (-10, pg. 4-66)

A

30 seconds, partial intensity, 90 seconds, blank

234
Q

1 Emitter and Other than #1

Threat Symbols

A

235
Q

Label the High Action display (-10-2 pg 4-29)

A
  1. Sight Select Status 6. Weapon Status
  2. Range and Range Source 7. Weapon Inhibit
  3. Sight Status 8. Owner Cue
  4. Weapon Control 9. ASE Manual Program Selection
  5. ACQ Select Status 10. Selected Missile Left Side
  6. Selected Missile Right Side
236
Q

A solid asterisk is displayed in front of the range indicates; _____________ (-10, pg 4-35)

A

Receiving Valid Range Data

237
Q

A flashing asterisk in the *XXXX message indicates __________________ (-10, pg 4-35)

A

Receiving Valid Range Data

238
Q

What is the allowable range for PRF laser codes? ________. (-10, pg 4-127)

A

1111-1788

239
Q

________ of laser energy in one second are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent. (-10 pg 4-16)

A

Three bursts

240
Q

Maximum MTADS turret gimbal movement is ____ (right) and ____ (left) in azimuth, _____ (up) and ______ (down) in elevation. (-10 pg. 4-43)

A

120°, 180°, 30°, 60°

241
Q

FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The FLIR SANUC ____________________process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.(-10, pg. 4-87)

A

Scene Assisted Non- Uniformity Correction

242
Q

Weapons initialization is used to verify _______ status of the weapons using fault indications and symbolic messages. It also places the weapons in a condition that will require ____________________. (-10 pg 4-110)

A

go/no-go, minimal switch selection prior to engagement

243
Q

_____________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if ________________ cannot be maintained. (-10, pg. 4-87)

A

Crew Coordination, ground and obstacle clearance

244
Q

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?” _______. (-10, pg. 4-132)

A

Training

245
Q

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately ______ with a _______ look down angle. (SHWS, pg. D-16)

A

33 ft. AGL, one-degree

246
Q

You will see the following message in yellow in the Weapon Status Field “ _________ ” This indicates the fire signal was sent but umbilical separation did not occur. This message is displayed for 6 seconds, during which time all HF missiles on that side of the helicopter become ______________________ . (-10 pg 4-36)

A

“HANG FIRE”, “not available” and are inhibited from firing

247
Q

Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, or CXX) is selected as ________________. (-10, pg. 4-16)

A

acquisition source

248
Q

The CPG is required to _________ the selected sight to the acquisition LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically _________. (-10, pg. 4-15)

A

manually “slave”, de-selected

249
Q

Boresight aligns MTADS DTV to the _____________________. MTADS boresight is initiated from the BORESIGHT page. (-10Pg 4-46)

A

laser LOS and FLIR to the DTV LOS

250
Q

If TADS power is applied, while using the FCR, selecting manual will allow the CPG to slew antenna elevation using the ________________. (-10 Pg 4-52).

A

RHG manual tracker control

251
Q

While utilizing FLIR, __________ fields of view are normally used for target acquisition while __________ fields of view are used for target recognition and engagement. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-79 )

A

medium or narrow, narrow or zoom

252
Q

When using the MTT Pressing and holding the switch in the IAT position for longer than _________ will initiate manual sizing control of the tracking gates. (-10 Pg 4-43)

A

0.6 seconds

253
Q

While maneuvering and tracking a target with ___, an accurate dynamic range must be maintained to target. ___ should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-80 )

A

LMC, LMC

254
Q

When using the MTT, The sensor may be changed between ___________ while tracking the target, however, the target will still be tracked in the __________. (10 Pg 4- 43)

A

DTV and FLIR, original sensor

255
Q

When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the ORT left handgrip, a TXX message will be displayed where? ______________________________. (-10 pg 4-39)

A

In the Pilot/CPG weapon inhibit field for four seconds

256
Q

The target and threat file has up to ___ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set. (-10, pg 3-94)

A

25

257
Q

The sights/sensors system consists of:

A

a. Integrated Helmet and Display Sight System (IHADSS)
b. Pilot Night Vision Sensor (PNVS)
c. Target Acquisition Designation Sight (TADS)
d. Fire Control Radar (FCR)
e. UAS

(-10 pg 4-1)

258
Q

The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity green to full intensity ______ when TADS is lasing. (-10, pg 3-95)

A

white

259
Q

What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present? ___________________________________. (-10 pg 4-28)

A

The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected. If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view (Zoom ).

260
Q

Describe what will happen to the TADS if the Laser Spot Tracker is in Manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy? ___________________________________ . (-10 pg 4-45)

A

The thumbforce controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off.

261
Q

The initial internal boresight takes approximately 2 minutes due to the cue search process. Subsequent boresights (same power cycle) take approximately ____________ as they use AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight. (MTADS Operator Course slide 56)

A

30 seconds

262
Q

If you have been operating the MTADS/MPNVS on the ground for ______or longer, perform a ________ before takeoff.( -10 pg 8-13)

A

15 minutes, SANUC

263
Q

What does the LRFD in the “Last” position do? _______________________. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-142)

A

WP uses last laser return

264
Q

BLIND

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position. Opposite of VISUAL.

265
Q

CAPTURED

A

Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor

266
Q

CONTACT

A

Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).

267
Q

LOOKING

A

Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight (opposite of CONTACT).

268
Q

LOW DOWN

A

A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest.

269
Q

MOVER(S)

A

Unidentified surface vehicle(s) in motion.

270
Q

NO JOY

A

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET/BANDIT. (Opposite of TALLY).

271
Q

PLAYTIME

A

Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g., ONE PLUS THIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).

272
Q

POSTURE

A

Communicates sensor posture (offensive, defensive, or neutral) by the JTAC to assets. Does not imply the friendly ground forces’ tactical situation.

273
Q

REMINGTON

A

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.

274
Q

SQUIRTER

A

A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.

275
Q

SUNSHINE

A

Illuminating target with artificial illumination.

276
Q

TALLY

A

Sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY.

277
Q

VISUAL

A

Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND.

278
Q

WINCHESTER

A

No ordnance remaining.

279
Q

CEASE (activity)

A

Discontinue stated activity; e.g., CEASE BUZZER, CEASE LASER, CEASE SPARKLE, etc.

280
Q

LASER ON

A

Start / acknowledge laser designation.

281
Q

LASING

A

The speaker is firing the laser.

282
Q

NEGATIVE LASER

A

Laser energy has not been acquired.

283
Q

SPOT

A

Acquisition of laser designation. Platform is LST capable.

284
Q

STARE (with laser code and reference point)

A

Cue the laser spot search / tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point.

285
Q

ROPE

A

Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position.

286
Q

SNAKE

A

Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

287
Q

SPARKLE

A

Mark / marking target by IR pointer or Platform is capable to IR point.

288
Q

HANDSHAKE

A

Video data link established. Opposite of HOLLOW.

289
Q

HOLLOW

A

Any data link message not received or Lost video data link.

290
Q

What is the format for a CCA Check in brief?

A
  1. Aircraft: “______ , this is ______” (Ground unit in contact) (Aircraft Call Sign)
  2. Aircraft Team Composition and Location
  3. Munitions Available (Rockets / Guns / Missiles)
  4. Night Vision Capability and Type (If Appropriate)
  5. Station Time (In minutes) (JFIRE, PG 70)
291
Q

What are the 3 things that can cause a REMOTE message to be displayed on the HAD?

A
  1. LRFD code does not match PRI code
  2. Sight is HMD
  3. Laser is off

Gunnery (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions