GST Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
The Apache’s target state estimator (TSE) will correct for steady state target movement when the MTADS or FCR are used. However,
A
the TSE assumes that the gunner is smoothly tracking the target. Excessive or inconsistent target tracking by the gunner is misinterpreted by the TSE as target movement and will result in the wrong amount of lead.
2
Q
The rate of fire for the M230E1 is ___ +- ___ per minute
A
625 ±25 rounds per minute.
3
Q
The M230E1 is an externally powered, chain driven weapon mounted in a hydraulically driven turret. Gun major components are:
A
receiver assembly, index drive assembly, bolt carrier assembly, forward track assembly, recoil mechanisms, drive motor, flash suppressor, and barrel.
4
Q
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86° left or right of the helicopter centerline. Elevation travel is:
A
+11° (+9° elevation within ±10° of centerline), and -60° depression.
5
Q
In the event that a GUN AZIMUTH MISTRACK or a GUN ELEVATION MISTRACK FAULT is encountered, the WP will disable the gun.
A
This will freeze the gun turret in its current azimuth and stow in elevation.
6
Q
In the event of power loss, the gun is spring driven to +__ elevation to prevent dig-in during landing.
A
+11°
7
Q
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a _____ ______ ______ or ______
A
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.
8
Q
The gun duty cycle is as follows:
A
Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For BURST LIMIT settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated.
9
Q
Harmonization procedures should be accomplished between 500 to 1500 meters from the target with the preferred distance being ____m
A
1000 meters.
10
Q
The M789 round steel case generates explosively driven fragments. The nominal burst radius is ___meters; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the _____, ______, _______, and the _______type.
A
4M, surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and the target type.
11
Q
The maximum effective range of the 30-millimeter varies based upon target type and desired effect. Point targets can be accurately engaged out to ______ to ______ meters. The WP will provide a ballistic solution up to a range of _____ meters.
A
15-1700 m, 4200m
12
Q
If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ___ minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
A
10 minutes, 30 Minutes
13
Q
The M789 HEDP round is a high explosive, dual purpose service round with a point detonating fuse.
A
The M789 HEDP round is a high explosive, dual purpose service round with a point detonating fuse.
14
Q
The projectile of the round has a shaped charge liner for piercing an excess of __ inches of Rolled Homogenous Armor (RHA) at ____ meters and a fragmentation radius of __ meters for soft targets.
A
2 inches, 2500m, 4m
15
Q
The Fixed (FXD) mode fixes the gun to 0 degrees in azimuth and _____ degrees (≈15mils) elevation.
A
+0.87 elevation
16
Q
30mm time of flight chart:
A
1000m, 2 sec, 15 mil drop
1500m, 3.7 sec, 32 mil drop
2000m, 5.8 sec, 60 mil drop
2500m, 8.6s sec, 100mil drop
3000m, 12.2 sec, 160 mil drop
17
Q
The aircraft ready posture is termed “Fence-Out” and has the basic framework of:
A
weapons, ACE, IFF, Lights Recorder, MPD - WAIL-RM
18
Q
In order to obtain an accurate laser range when engaging troop targets, the laser range finder should be placed in “____ ____” logic (LAST) and aimed for the ____________ troop.
A
last pulse, feet of the closest
19
Q
If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ten minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ____ minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
A
30 min,
20
Q
6PD -
6RC -
6MP -
6IL -
6IL -
6SK -
6FL –
A
6PD - Point Detonation, High Explosive
6RC - Penetration, High Explosive
6MP - Time, Multipurpose Submunition
6IL - Time, Illumination
6IL - Time, Infrared flare
6SK - Time, Smoke
6FL – Flechette
21
Q
The P*will announce whenever he or she intends to ___, ____, ______ fire, _______ for running fire, or reposition the aircraft and will maneuver the aircraft into constraints.
A
The P*will announce whenever he or she intends to unmask, re-mask, climb for diving fire, accelerate/ decelerate for running fire, or reposition the aircraft and will maneuver the aircraft into constraints.
22
Q
MODE options. The firing crewmember selects the desired mode of rocket employment. This button allows the crewmember to set either the normal (NORM) or fixed (FXD) mode of operation. In NORM the pylons are commanded to articulate based on the WP/MP ballistic solution within an articulation range of ___ to____degrees. In the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to a fixed position of ____ degrees.
A
MODE options. The firing crewmember selects the desired mode of rocket employment. This button allows the crewmember to set either the normal (NORM) or fixed (FXD) mode of operation. In NORM the pylons are commanded to articulate based on the WP/MP ballistic solution within an articulation range of +4 to -15 degrees. In the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to a fixed position of +3.48 degrees.
23
Q
Hover-fire Rockets engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately ____meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond _____meters, pitch attitude changes (nose-up) may have to be made to meet firing constraints.
A
Hover-fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately 4,500 meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond 4,500 meters, pitch attitude changes (nose-up) may have to be made to meet firing constraints.
24
Q
During running fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the ______while maintaining aircraft trim. Firing constraints are met when the rocket steering cursor overlays the ____reticle. The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively.
A
LOS reticle.
The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively.
25
The PLT is able to employ manual (MAN), automatic (AUTO), radar (autonomous FCR and radar frequency missile handover [RFHO]),AAG, UR, and navigation (NAV) coordinate ranging to targets. The CPG may utilize LASER ranging as well as those selections available to the pilot.
The PLT is able to employ manual (MAN), automatic (AUTO), radar (autonomous FCR and radar frequency missile handover [RFHO]),AAG, UR, and navigation (NAV) coordinate ranging to targets. The CPG may utilize LASER ranging as well as those selections available to the pilot.
26
_____ _____] The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively. This indicates the pylons are able to articulate as necessary to meet the range and elevation requirements for the engagement.
[NORM Mode] The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively. This indicates the pylons are able to articulate as necessary to meet the range and elevation requirements for the engagement.
27
The FXD mode is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at _____or less.
The FXD mode is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at 2000m or less.
28
When rockets are actioned with HMD as the selected LOS, range will automatically default to the selected _____range of the firing crew member. If ____range is desired the crew member must select the appropriate _____source after rockets are actioned.
When rockets are actioned with HMD as the selected LOS, range will automatically default to the selected manual range of the firing crew member. If NAV range is desired the crew member must select the appropriate ACQ source after rockets are actioned.
29
The _____ ______ ______ provides the capability to check/verify rocket type within each of the rocket zones on pre-flight.
The Load Maintenance Panel (LMP) provides the capability to check/verify rocket type within each of the rocket zones on pre-flight.
30
If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements against stationary targets ____ detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV should be utilized.
If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements against stationary targets 1st detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV should be utilized.
31
Cooperative engagements allow the crewmembers to share the workload for the engagement. Cooperative engagements utilize the CPG’s LOS and range for ballistic solution calculations and provide the PLT with steering data. During cooperative engagements___ _____ _____ and provide range to target while the PLT aligns the aircraft for the engagement and fires the rockets.
Cooperative engagements allow the crewmembers to share the workload for the engagement. Cooperative engagements utilize the CPG’s LOS and range for ballistic solution calculations and provide the PLT with steering data. During cooperative engagements the CPG will track and provide range to target while the PLT aligns the aircraft for the engagement and fires the rockets.
32
If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements (when the target is stationary) ____ detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV should be utilized.
If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements (when the target is stationary) 1st detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV shouldbe utilized.
33
Low-altitude bump. This profile maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low- altitude run-in with a ___ _____-foot climb (Bump) about ____ _____ meters prior to the target. From the apex of the climb the crew enters a diving profile in order to deliver ordnance in a nose-down angle to achieve smaller beaten zones. In mountainous terrain there may be no need for a Bump as the relative position of the sloping terrain provides the same effect to an aircraft in level flight.
Low-altitude bump. This profile maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low- altitude run-in with a 300- to 1,000-foot climb (Bump) about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target. From the apex of the climb the crew enters a diving profile in order to deliver ordnance in a nose-down angle to achieve smaller beaten zones. In mountainous terrain there may be no need for a Bump as the relative position of the sloping terrain provides the same effect to an aircraft in level flight.
34
Stable firing platform (4-Ts): Regardless of the engagement technique used, the aircrew must strive for accurate fires onto the target by providing a stable firing platform. By verifying “___ ___ ____ ____” sequence prior to firing the P* ensures a stable and accurate weapons platform
4-Ts—target, TQ, trim, and target”
35
After rockets are fired, the CPG should “sense” their impact by selecting a wider FOV on the TADS and detecting the rocket impact. Subsequent corrections must be made in the field of view in which the CPG “sensed”.
After rockets are fired, the CPG should “sense” their impact by selecting a wider FOV on the TADS and detecting the rocket impact. Subsequent corrections must be made in the field of view in which the CPG “sensed”.
36
The M255A1 flechette is the optimum weapon for attacking dismounted enemy combatants, particularly in soft soil/marshy conditions which would otherwise limit the effectiveness of conventional point detonating HE weapons.
The M255A1 flechette is the optimum weapon for attacking dismounted enemy combatants, particularly in soft soil/marshy conditions which would otherwise limit the effectiveness of conventional point detonating HE weapons.
37
The minimum range to target when firing flechette rocket is ___meters. Operators should attempt to employ M255A1 flechette rockets at ranges between ___ to ____ meters. Operators should employ a ____ -____ degree dive when firing flechettes. Steeper delivery angles will create a smaller beaten zone and increase flechette density within that beaten zone. Consider placing the rocket steering cursor (NORM or FXD) just above the target as a means to place more nails on target. For example, the data shows at a 10° dive and 1000 meter trigger pull that a majority of the nails land approximately 50 meters short of the intended target.
The minimum range to target when firing flechette rocket is 800 meters. Operators should attempt to employ M255A1 flechette rockets at ranges between 800 - 2000 meters. Operators should employ a 10° - 30° dive when firing flechettes. Steeper delivery angles will create a smaller beaten zone and increase flechette density within that beaten zone. Consider placing the rocket steering cursor (NORM or FXD) just above the target as a means to place more nails on target. For example, the data shows at a 10° dive and 1000 meter trigger pull that a majority of the nails land approximately 50 meters short of the intended target.
38
If it is suspected that a residual charge is present on the M439 fuse, the rocket should be downloaded and not used for a minimum of _____days, in order for the fusing charge to dissipate.
10
39
The M257 Overt Illumination rocket provides approximately 1 million candle power for a minimum of _____seconds and can illuminate an area of more than ___ square kilometer when deployed at optimum height. A deployed main parachute descent is approximately ____ feet per second.
100, 1km^2, 15 ft/Sec
40
The M278 Infrared (IR) Illumination Warhead is designed for target illumination using NVG’s. The M278 puts out an equivalent of one million candlepower of IR illumination. It’s preset to deploy approximately _____meters downrange, and provides IR light for approximately ____ seconds.
3500, 180 sec
41
The M442 fuse is a 9-second nominal fuse used in both the M257 and M278 illumination rockets. It requires a launch distance of approximately _____m.
3500m.
42
Current aircraft software will input an algorithm to place the rocket approximately ____ ftabove the ACQ source. If using covert/M278 illumination, crews should factor in additional burn-time and add approximately _____ ft to TGT elevation to compensate
2000 ft, 1000 ft
43
Time from launch to flare ignition is ____ seconds.
13.5 sec
44
Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than 7 ft AGL, and for all other flight conditions of 5 ft AGL, is not authorized.
Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than 7 ft AGL, and for all other flight conditions of 5 ft AGL, is not authorized.
45
Do not fire rockets with the M433 (Nose Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse in situations where they might fly closer than __m from other airborne helicopters.
51m
46
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than _____ with ____outboard launchers every ____ seconds, or fire with only ____outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). These are the only conditions permitted.
pairs, 2, 3 sec, One outboard
47
Spent illumination rocket will land ____ to _____m beyond the target, and ___ to ___ beyond the Launch aircraft
700-1200, 4200-4700m
48
To offset-designate while manually tracking, place the MTADS reticle on a target of at least tank size, about ___ to ___ meters to the front or side of the intended target, while keeping the intended target within the selected MTADS sensor FOV. Allow a period of approximately ___ to ___ seconds to smoothly reposition the laser reticle to the intended target (careful to avoid large range to target errors, overspill), so that the laser spot remains on the intended target for the recommended terminal laser time (____ seconds for ground ranges up to ___km; 2 additional seconds for each additional kilometer).
To offset-designate while manually tracking, place the MTADS reticle on a target of at least tank size, about 50 to 100 meters to the front or side of the intended target, while keeping the intended target within the selected MTADS sensor FOV. Allow a period of approximately 1-2 seconds to smoothly reposition the laser reticle to the intended target (careful to avoid large range to target errors, overspill), so that the laser spot remains on the intended target for the recommended terminal laser time (6 seconds for ground ranges up to 5km; 2additional seconds for each additional kilometer).
49
When firing a LOAL TADS HO, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no longer than ____to ______ seconds after the target data (TARGET DATA?) message disappears.
5 to 7 seconds
50
LOBL constraints of an AGM-114R missile are ±___° as referenced from the tracking missile seeker’s LOS and aircraft centerline.
20
51
Arming can only occur when the missile’s acceleration exceeds 10Gs. The fuze is armed between ____and _____ meters from the launching platform for all HELLFIRE missiles except for the AGM-114R which is armed between _____and _____ meters.
Arming can only occur when the missile’s acceleration exceeds 10Gs. The fuze is armed between 150 and 300 meters from the launching platform for all HELLFIRE missiles except for the AGM-114R which is armed between 375 and 500 meters.
52
HELLFIRE R includes the P+ improvements as well as a multi-purpose main warhead, referred to as the integrated blast fragmentation sleeve (IBFS), and has a pre-launch programmable fuze. HELLFIRE R2 includes all R improvements and incorporates a Height-Of-Burst (HOB) sensor for detonation of the warhead a few meters before impact. This is selectable in the Warhead Delay Options.
HELLFIRE R includes the P+ improvements as well as a multi-purpose main warhead, referred to as the integrated blast fragmentation sleeve (IBFS), and has a pre-launch programmable fuze. HELLFIRE R2 includes all R improvements and incorporates a Height-Of-Burst (HOB) sensor for detonation of the warhead a few meters before impact. This is selectable in the Warhead Delay Options.
53
During rocket and gun engagements, the gunner often benefits from seeing more of the terrain surrounding the target in order to sense weapon’s impact and maintain higher situational awareness (SA). However, for SAL HELLFIRE designation, a larger apparent target size is generally preferred to ensure ideal laser spot placement.
During rocket and gun engagements, the gunner often benefits from seeing more of the terrain surrounding the target in order to sense weapon’s impact and maintain higher situational awareness (SA). However, for SAL HELLFIRE designation, a larger apparent target size is generally preferred to ensure ideal laser spot placement.
54
The gunner must consider the requirements for awareness in and around the target as well as tracking a moving target with the need for an accurate laser spot placement
The gunner must consider the requirements for awareness in and around the target as well as tracking a moving target with the need for an accurate laser spot placement
55
Performing laser designation in a field of view (FOV) that has not been boresighted significantly degrades the probability of a hit (Ph) and should be avoided.
Performing laser designation in a field of view (FOV) that has not been boresighted significantly degrades the probability of a hit (Ph) and should be avoided.
56
Rotating the aircraft just before launch—at least three to five degrees in the direction of the missile to be fired— prevents the missile from flying through the designator FOV.
Rotating the aircraft just before launch—at least three to five degrees in the direction of the missile to be fired— prevents the missile from flying through the designator FOV.
57
During hovering engagements, visible or invisible obscurants may be kicked up by the aircraft’s rotor wash potentially creating a backscatter condition. HF-II variants enforce a lock-on inhibit which reduces the likelihood of locking on to laser backscatter near the aircraft in LOAL missions. For HF-I, to prevent the missile locking on to backscatter near the aircraft, discontinue lasing for a short time and then re-lase the same target. If problem still exists, it may be necessary to discontinue lasing, and move to another position with less rotor wash induced backscatter prior to re-designating the target. Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL. In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a remote designator to provide missile guidance. If remote designation is not available and the engagement must be conducted, the gunner can stop lasing the target, fire the missile LOAL and delay lasing for a minimum of two seconds after missile separation (approximately three seconds after trigger pull).
discontinue lasing for a short time and then re-lase the same target. If problem still exists, it may be necessary to discontinue lasing, and move to another position with less rotor wash induced backscatter prior to re-designating the target. Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL.
In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a remote designator to provide missile guidance. If remote designation is not available and the engagement must be conducted, the gunner can stop lasing the target, fire the missile LOAL and delay lasing for a minimum of two seconds after missile separation (approximately three seconds after trigger pull).
58
Detailed information is required during remote engagements to maximize the probability of hit and ensure the safety of both firing and designating platforms. Offset geometry, gun to target line (GTL), laser to target line (LTL), target location, laser codes, launch and delivery modes, and ranges are factors which ensure proper and safe delivery of the HELLFIRE.
Offset geometry, gun to target line (GTL), laser to target line (LTL), target location, laser codes, launch and delivery modes, and ranges
59
The 34-degree vertical component of the HF-II exclusion zone is reduced from the 40 degree HF-I vertical exclusion zone due to the lower flight trajectories of HF-II and Romeo.
Clearance of the HELLFIRE exclusion zone is required prior to firing and is determined either electronically, utilizing HELLFIRE air-mission, PPOS digital map icons, or calculated manually using the HELLFIRE designator exclusion zone tabular format
60
Clearance of the HELLFIRE exclusion zone is required prior to firing and is determined either electronically, utilizing HELLFIRE air-mission, PPOS digital map icons, or calculated manually using the HELLFIRE designator exclusion zone tabular format
Clearance of the HELLFIRE exclusion zone is required prior to firing and is determined either electronically, utilizing HELLFIRE air-mission, PPOS digital map icons, or calculated manually using the HELLFIRE designator exclusion zone tabular format
61
Loaded pylons minimize the roll tip-off effect. Load from the upper inboard rail (closest to the aircraft) and out for each launcher pylon. When firing, execute launch from the outer-lower launcher pylons and rails to the inner-upper pylons/rails to minimize roll tip-off effect. This will also minimize scorching of the seeker dome of adjacent missiles.
Load from the upper inboard rail (closest to the aircraft) and out for each launcher pylon. When firing, execute launch from the outer-lower launcher pylons and rails to the inner-upper pylons/rails to minimize roll tip-off effect.
62
For LOAL, the HF-II/Romeo seeker will be commanded to slave and scan to enable laser target acquisition but will be inhibited from acquisition for 1.3 seconds. The lock-on inhibit is used to allow the missile to attain flight away from an autonomous designation beam and reduce the likelihood of atmospheric backscatter tracking.
63
Horizontal exclusion zone. Describe
inside of 43 degrees to either side of the Gun Shot line is never safe, outside of 43 degrees is always safe
64
Vertical exclusion, generally describe
inside of 30 degrees to either side of the Gun Shot line is never safe, outside of 30 degrees plus amount of target offset.
65
The Enhanced AGM-114R can receive an R9 target message which provides target location to the missile from capable platforms. For LOAL, the seeker will be commanded to slave and scan to enable laser target acquisition. If the Romeo received the targeting message, the seeker performs a reduced scan pattern about the location of the target as provided by the R9 message. Target acquisition is still inhibited for 1.3 seconds to allow the missile to attain flight away from an autonomous designation beam and reduce the likely hood of atmospheric backscatter tracking.
The Enhanced AGM-114R can receive an R9 target message which provides target location to the missile from capable platforms. For LOAL, the seeker will be commanded to slave and scan to enable laser target acquisition. If the Romeo received the targeting message, the seeker performs a reduced scan pattern about the location of the target as provided by the R9 message. Target acquisition is still inhibited for 1.3 seconds to allow the missile to attain flight away from an autonomous designation beam and reduce the likely hood of atmospheric backscatter tracking.
66
The LOBL maximum range is ____ km for a target at the same altitude as the helicopter.
7.1 km
67
During the launch sequence, the launcher will transmit to the missile a serial data message (R9). That data includes targeting, aircraft, atmospherics, and platform type.
targeting, aircraft, atmospherics, and platform type.
68
Min range should be increased by approximately ____m for max-offset (±30oazimuth) engagements.
500m
69
If after missile launch it becomes necessary to abort the engagement, due to possible collateral damage, the CPG should smoothly move the LOS (shift cold) to an acceptable area while continuing to designate.
If after missile launch it becomes necessary to abort the engagement, due to possible collateral damage, the CPG should smoothly move the LOS (shift cold) to an acceptable area while continuing to designate.
70
LOBL inhibit options. Select the LOBL inhibit button, if desired. The LOBL inhibit function allows the aircrew to engage RF missile targets in the LOAL mode only, inhibiting RF missiles from transmitting. This option is used to eliminate the ___ ______ _______.
LOBL inhibit options. Select the LOBL inhibit button, if desired. The LOBL inhibit function allows the aircrew to engage RF missile targets in the LOAL mode only, inhibiting RF missiles from transmitting. This option is used to eliminate the RF missile signature.
71
_____is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).
RMAX is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).
72
_____is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).
RMAX is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).
73
_____ _____ _______ is the distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. RMe is generally the most useful weapons range for tactical and is dependent upon munition characteristics, desired munition effects and target type.
Maximum effective range (RMe)
74
The WEZ is a four-dimensional space defining a weapon system’s engagement capabilities (figure C- 7, page C-6). It is defined by the following aspects:
RMIN.
RMAX.
Azimuth limits left and right.
Vertical(elevation/altitude) limits.
MunitionTOF.
75
The four type of ballistics are ___, ____, _____, and ______
interior, exterior, aerial and terminal.
76
_____ ______ _______ is produced when trajectory shift and projectile drift combine. When using IHADSS as a sight, and a target is to the left, the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move right. The gunner must correct for both ballistic effects by aiming to the target’s left. When a target is to the right, the effect of projectile drift (round moves right) tend to lessen the effect of trajectory shift (round moves left), so less compensation is required.
Port-starboard effect
77
The effect of wind on a projectile in flight is wind drift. The amount of drift depends on projectile TOF and the wind speed acting on the projectile’s cross-sectional area. TOF depends on range to target and the projectile’s average velocity. Rockets seek the relative
wind for targets short of _______ meters, requiring the gunner to aim ________of the target. Conversely, rockets drift with the wind for targets greater than _______meters, requiring the gunner to aim _________ and allow the rocket to drift back to the target.
Rockets seek the relative wind for targets short of 3,000 meters, requiring the gunner to aim downwind of the target. Conversely, rockets drift with the wind for targets greater than 3,000 meters, requiring the gunner to aim upwind and allow the rocket to drift back to the target.
78
30-mm rounds drift with the air mass throughout their free-flight trajectory. The amount of projectile drift attributed to wind effects is directly proportional to munitions TOF, wind vector (angle), and wind magnitude.
30-mm rounds drift with the air mass throughout their free-flight trajectory. The amount of projectile drift attributed to wind effects is directly proportional to munitions TOF, wind vector (angle), and wind magnitude.
79
Firing while an aircraft is in a bank affects fixed and flexible weapons (figure C-11). To compensate for ballistic factors, the boreline axes of all weapon systems require some form of elevation. However, this elevation becomes deflection if a weapon is fired within a bank, resulting in rounds impacting short and inside the turn. To compensate for turning error, it is necessary to aim ____ and ____ the direction of the bank. Range estimation and power setting adjustments are necessary
high and opposite
80
The AH-64 ballistics algorithms automatically compute rotor down-wash compensation for rockets based on aircraft gross weight, air density ratio, and longitudinal true airspeed. However:
However, this compensation assumes rocket launch is initiated at hover OGE altitudes.
81
The TSE’s Kalman filter is adaptive and can differentiate between noise content in the inputs signals and true trends in target motion given continuous sustained lasing and adequate settling time. The TSE is not considered settled, and target handover to the missile will
not occur, unless all of the following conditions are satisfied:
Continuous lasing has occurred for a minimum of four seconds.
Multiple LRV range updates have been received within a specified timeframe.
The derived target velocity estimates exhibit a sample to sample standard deviation less than a specified value.
When the above conditions are satisfied, the weapons processor translates the TADS LOS and TSE target states to NED coordinates and initiates handover to the priority RF missile.
82
For any large number of rounds fired, it is possible to draw a cone within which the trajectories of all the rounds will fall. As depicted in, figure C-2, page C-2, the dispersion pattern becomes elongated as the impact angle changes from perpendicular to horizontal. The shallower the impact angle, the more elongated the dispersion pattern becomes.
83
Call for Fire (CFF). The CFF has six elements communicated in three distinct transmissions to the fire direction center (FDC). Table 2 shows the three transmissions and six elements in a CFF.
1. Observer Identification (call sign)
2. Warning Order
---- (second transmission)
3. Target Location
----- (Third transmission
4. Target description
5. Method of Engagement
6. Method of Fire and Control
84
(CFF) Warning Order. The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of the type of mission, the size of the element to fire for effect, and the method of target location. It is a request for fire unless prior authority has been given to order fire.
Adjust Fire
Fire for Effect (FFE)
Suppress
Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses (SEAD)
85
Target Description. This element contains sufficient detail (i.e., type, size, activity and degree of protection) for the receiving unit:
for the receiving unit to determine the amount and type of ammunition to use.
86
Method of Fire and Control. In this element, the observer indicates the desired manner of attack and who has fire control authority. The observer also indicates the ability to directly observe the target. The methods are listed
Methods of Fire control:
1. Fire when ready
2. At my command
3. cannot observe
4. time on target
5. time to target
6. coordinated illumination
7. continuous illumination
8. cease loading
9. check firing
10. continuous fire
11. repeat
12. Request Splash
13. do not load
14. duration
87
Message to Observer (MTO). The supporting FDC sends this information to the observer. The observer will read back the entire MTO. The MTO should include the items listed in table 4 (asterisk (*) items are required):
Readback entire message, Astrisk must be included
1. **Unit(s) to Fire. The battery (or batteries) that will fire the mission is (are) announced. If the battalion is firing in effect with one battery adjusting, the FDC designates the FFE unit (battalion) and the adjusting unit by using the last letter of the call sign.
EXAMPLE
The battalion call sign is A8T36. Battery A is R6G36. Battery A will adjust, and battalion will fire for effect. The MTO would begin T, G.
2. ** Changes to the Call for Fire. Any change to what the observer requested in the call for fire is announced.
EXAMPLE
The observer requested ICM in effect and the FDO decides to fire VT in effect. The MTO begins T, G, VT IN EFFECT.
3. **Number of Rounds. The number of rounds per tube in fire for effect is announced; for example, T, G, VT IN EFFECT, 4 ROUNDS.
4. **Target Number. A target number is assigned to each mission to facilitate processing of subsequent corrections; for example, T, G, VT IN EFFECT, 4 ROUNDS, AA7732, OVER.
5. Time of flight
6. maximum ord
7. informaiton
88
Grid or Laser missions consist of the following information:
You, this is me
Grid, XX XXXX XXXX, over
Target description
Method of egnagement
Method of fire and control
89
Army Aviation Air-to-Ground Check-in Brief
You, this is me.
Compositions and location
munitions available: rockets/guns/missiles
Capabilities (EO/IR/SPOT/FLIR)
Station time
90
CAS 5 line
1. Aircraft callsign, Jtac Call sign, "5-line".
Type (1,2, or 3) control, MOA (BOC or BOT), (ordance requested)
2. My positions ____, marked by _____.
3. Target location:
4. Target description:
5. Remarks
Must read back:
1. Final attack headings
2. Airspace coorindation areas
3. Daner Close and initials
4. Time on target/Time to target
5. Post launch abort coordination and considerations
91
AC-130 Deconfliction zones
1500-5500 Height Above Target, RW no closer than 2000m
500-1500 HAT, RW no closer than 750m
0-500 ft HAT, RW no closer than 500m
92
ANCHOR
Orbit about a specific point.
93
ANGELS:
Height of FRIENDLY aircraft in thousands of feet from mean sea level (MSL)
94
CHERUBS:
Height of a FRIENDLY aircraft in hundreds of feet above surface
95
CLEARED HOT
1. [A/S] Type 1 and 2 close air support terminal attack control clearance to release ordnance on this pass.
2. [A/S] Training range operations: the range control officer or range safety officer authorizes ordnance release.
96
CLEARED TO ENGAGE
**[A/S] Type 3 close air support, terminal attack control clearance.
Attack aircraft or flight may initiate attacks within the parameters imposed by the joint terminal attack controller.
2. **[A/A] [A/S] Clearance to fire on designated GROUP or target.
97
DANGER CLOSE
**[A/S] [S/S] FRIENDLY troops are within 0.1% probability of incapacitation from the target (determined by the weapon or munition that is delivered or fired).
98
LOWDOWN:
A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest
99
PLAYTIME:
Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g., ONE PLUS THIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).
100
REMINGTON:
**[A/A] [A/S] No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammunition.
101
RETROGRADE:
*Withdraw(ing) while executing defensive procedures in response to a threat.
102
WINCHESTER:
No ordnance remaining.
103
CONTACT:
1. Sensor information at the stated position.
2. [A/S] Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).
104
NO JOY
*[A/A] [A/S] [S/A] Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY.
105
TALLY:
Sighting a target, nonfriendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY.
106
VISUAL:
Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship. Opposite of BLIND
107
DEADEYE:
The laser designator system is inoperative.
108
LASING:
A/S] [S/S] The speaker is firing the laser in response to LASER ON.
109
SPOT:
1. [A/S] Acquisition of laser designation.
2. Platform is laser spot tracker capable.
110
MATCH (type):
*[A/S] [AIR-MAR] [S/S] Overlay requested target designator type (e.g.,
MATCH SPARKLE, MATCH LASER).
111
HANDSHAKE:
[A/S] Video data link established.
112
HOLLOW:
1. Any data link message not received.
2. *[A/S] Lost video data link
113
POPEY:
1. Flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility.
2. Reduced electro-optical or infrared visibility due to atmospherics.
114
SQUIRTER:
**[A/S] [S/S] A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.
115
NEUTRAL:
The lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly force. The wingman is primarily responsible for scanning the objective (or assigned checkpoint) and back to the friendly force.
116
OFFENSIVE:
Lead and wingman aircraft concentrate on the objective
117
DEFENSIVE:
The lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly force. The wingman is
responsible for sanitizing the route directly in front of the friendly force.
118
RISK-ESTIMATE DISTANCES (REDS)
1. Background The values in tables 94–100 assume
a 0.1% probability of incapacitation (Pi), indicating a horizontal distance from the intended point of weapon impact to the closest friendly forces.
119
30mm REDs
Range to target / Danger close (standing)
500m / 55m
1000m / 70m
1,500m / 100m
120
2.75 in HE Rocket REDs
Range to target / Danger close (standing)
300m / 110m
800m / 135m
1500m / 170m
121
2.75 in FL Rocket REDs
Range to target / Danger close (standing)
1000m / 235m
122
Hellfire REDs
AGM 114 (older than R) - 115m
AGM-114R - 130m
AGM 114R2 - 145m
123
Keyhole
. A
D E B
C
124
IHADDS: When either gun or rockets are actioned with HMD as the selected LOS, range will automatically default to the selected ______ range of the firing crewmember. If the manual range is zero, the default range for that crew station will be used.
Manual Range
125
With the IHADSS as the selected sight, lead-angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position command, nor is the target state estimator is employed.
With the IHADSS as the selected sight, lead-angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position command, nor is the target state estimator is employed.
126
Laser Phenomena that may result in laser ranging errors: (USABOBB)
Underspill, Spot Jitter, Attenuation, Beam Divergence, Overspill, Backscatter, Boresight Error. (USABOBB)
