GST

Question 1

The Apache’s target state estimator (TSE) will correct for steady state target movement when the MTADS or FCR are used. However,

Answer 1

the TSE assumes that the gunner is smoothly tracking the target. Excessive or inconsistent target tracking by the gunner is misinterpreted by the TSE as target movement and will result in the wrong amount of lead.

Question 2

The rate of fire for the M230E1 is ___ +- ___ per minute

Answer 2

625 ±25 rounds per minute.

Question 3

The M230E1 is an externally powered, chain driven weapon mounted in a hydraulically driven turret. Gun major components are:

Answer 3

receiver assembly, index drive assembly, bolt carrier assembly, forward track assembly, recoil mechanisms, drive motor, flash suppressor, and barrel.

Question 4

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86° left or right of the helicopter centerline. Elevation travel is:

Answer 4

+11° (+9° elevation within ±10° of centerline), and -60° depression.

Question 5

In the event that a GUN AZIMUTH MISTRACK or a GUN ELEVATION MISTRACK FAULT is encountered, the WP will disable the gun.

Answer 5

This will freeze the gun turret in its current azimuth and stow in elevation.

Question 6

In the event of power loss, the gun is spring driven to +__ elevation to prevent dig-in during landing.

Answer 6

+11°

Question 7

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a _____ ______ ______ or ______

Answer 7

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.

Question 8

The gun duty cycle is as follows:

Answer 8

Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For BURST LIMIT settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated.

Question 9

Harmonization procedures should be accomplished between 500 to 1500 meters from the target with the preferred distance being ____m

Answer 9

1000 meters.

Question 10

The M789 round steel case generates explosively driven fragments. The nominal burst radius is ___meters; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the _____, ______, _______, and the _______type.

Answer 10

4M, surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and the target type.

Question 11

The maximum effective range of the 30-millimeter varies based upon target type and desired effect. Point targets can be accurately engaged out to ______ to ______ meters. The WP will provide a ballistic solution up to a range of _____ meters.

Answer 11

15-1700 m, 4200m

Question 12

If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ___ minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

Answer 12

10 minutes, 30 Minutes

Question 13

The M789 HEDP round is a high explosive, dual purpose service round with a point detonating fuse.

Answer 13

The M789 HEDP round is a high explosive, dual purpose service round with a point detonating fuse.

Question 14

The projectile of the round has a shaped charge liner for piercing an excess of __ inches of Rolled Homogenous Armor (RHA) at ____ meters and a fragmentation radius of __ meters for soft targets.

Answer 14

2 inches, 2500m, 4m

Question 15

The Fixed (FXD) mode fixes the gun to 0 degrees in azimuth and _____ degrees (≈15mils) elevation.

Answer 15

+0.87 elevation

Question 16

30mm time of flight chart:

Answer 16

1000m, 2 sec, 15 mil drop
1500m, 3.7 sec, 32 mil drop
2000m, 5.8 sec, 60 mil drop
2500m, 8.6s sec, 100mil drop
3000m, 12.2 sec, 160 mil drop

Question 17

The aircraft ready posture is termed “Fence-Out” and has the basic framework of:

Answer 17

weapons, ACE, IFF, Lights Recorder, MPD - WAIL-RM

Question 18

In order to obtain an accurate laser range when engaging troop targets, the laser range finder should be placed in “____ ____” logic (LAST) and aimed for the ____________ troop.

Answer 18

last pulse, feet of the closest

Question 19

If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ten minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ____ minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

Answer 19

30 min,

Question 20

  6PD -
  6RC -
  6MP -
  6IL -
  6IL -
  6SK -
  6FL –

Answer 20

  6PD - Point Detonation, High Explosive
  6RC - Penetration, High Explosive
  6MP - Time, Multipurpose Submunition
  6IL - Time, Illumination
  6IL - Time, Infrared flare
  6SK - Time, Smoke
  6FL – Flechette

Question 21

The P*will announce whenever he or she intends to ___, ____, ______ fire, _______ for running fire, or reposition the aircraft and will maneuver the aircraft into constraints.

Answer 21

The P*will announce whenever he or she intends to unmask, re-mask, climb for diving fire, accelerate/ decelerate for running fire, or reposition the aircraft and will maneuver the aircraft into constraints.

Question 22

MODE options. The firing crewmember selects the desired mode of rocket employment. This button allows the crewmember to set either the normal (NORM) or fixed (FXD) mode of operation. In NORM the pylons are commanded to articulate based on the WP/MP ballistic solution within an articulation range of ___ to____degrees. In the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to a fixed position of ____ degrees.

Answer 22

MODE options. The firing crewmember selects the desired mode of rocket employment. This button allows the crewmember to set either the normal (NORM) or fixed (FXD) mode of operation. In NORM the pylons are commanded to articulate based on the WP/MP ballistic solution within an articulation range of +4 to -15 degrees. In the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to a fixed position of +3.48 degrees.

Question 23

Hover-fire Rockets engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately ____meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond _____meters, pitch attitude changes (nose-up) may have to be made to meet firing constraints.

Answer 23

Hover-fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately 4,500 meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond 4,500 meters, pitch attitude changes (nose-up) may have to be made to meet firing constraints.

Question 24

During running fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the ______while maintaining aircraft trim. Firing constraints are met when the rocket steering cursor overlays the ____reticle. The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively.

Answer 24

LOS reticle.

The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively.

Question 25

The PLT is able to employ manual (MAN), automatic (AUTO), radar (autonomous FCR and radar frequency missile handover [RFHO]),AAG, UR, and navigation (NAV) coordinate ranging to targets. The CPG may utilize LASER ranging as well as those selections available to the pilot.

Answer 25

The PLT is able to employ manual (MAN), automatic (AUTO), radar (autonomous FCR and radar frequency missile handover [RFHO]),AAG, UR, and navigation (NAV) coordinate ranging to targets. The CPG may utilize LASER ranging as well as those selections available to the pilot.

Question 26

_____ _____] The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively. This indicates the pylons are able to articulate as necessary to meet the range and elevation requirements for the engagement.

Answer 26

[NORM Mode] The top and bottom horizontal legs of the solid I-beam must be above and below the center of the LOS reticle, respectively. This indicates the pylons are able to articulate as necessary to meet the range and elevation requirements for the engagement.

Question 27

The FXD mode is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at _____or less.

Answer 27

The FXD mode is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at 2000m or less.

Question 28

When rockets are actioned with HMD as the selected LOS, range will automatically default to the selected _____range of the firing crew member. If ____range is desired the crew member must select the appropriate _____source after rockets are actioned.

Answer 28

When rockets are actioned with HMD as the selected LOS, range will automatically default to the selected manual range of the firing crew member. If NAV range is desired the crew member must select the appropriate ACQ source after rockets are actioned.

Question 29

The _____ ______ ______ provides the capability to check/verify rocket type within each of the rocket zones on pre-flight.

Answer 29

The Load Maintenance Panel (LMP) provides the capability to check/verify rocket type within each of the rocket zones on pre-flight.

Question 30

If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements against stationary targets ____ detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV should be utilized.

Answer 30

If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements against stationary targets 1st detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV should be utilized.

Question 31

Cooperative engagements allow the crewmembers to share the workload for the engagement. Cooperative engagements utilize the CPG’s LOS and range for ballistic solution calculations and provide the PLT with steering data. During cooperative engagements___ _____ _____ and provide range to target while the PLT aligns the aircraft for the engagement and fires the rockets.

Answer 31

Cooperative engagements allow the crewmembers to share the workload for the engagement. Cooperative engagements utilize the CPG’s LOS and range for ballistic solution calculations and provide the PLT with steering data. During cooperative engagements the CPG will track and provide range to target while the PLT aligns the aircraft for the engagement and fires the rockets.

Question 32

If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements (when the target is stationary) ____ detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV should be utilized.

Answer 32

If utilizing TADS the CPG will provide range to target for the engagement. During hover fire engagements (when the target is stationary) 1st detent laser ranging or NAV should be used. During dynamic (target, aircraft or both moving) continuous laser ranging or NAV shouldbe utilized.

Question 33

Low-altitude bump. This profile maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low- altitude run-in with a ___ _____-foot climb (Bump) about ____ _____ meters prior to the target. From the apex of the climb the crew enters a diving profile in order to deliver ordnance in a nose-down angle to achieve smaller beaten zones. In mountainous terrain there may be no need for a Bump as the relative position of the sloping terrain provides the same effect to an aircraft in level flight.

Answer 33

Low-altitude bump. This profile maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low- altitude run-in with a 300- to 1,000-foot climb (Bump) about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target. From the apex of the climb the crew enters a diving profile in order to deliver ordnance in a nose-down angle to achieve smaller beaten zones. In mountainous terrain there may be no need for a Bump as the relative position of the sloping terrain provides the same effect to an aircraft in level flight.

Question 34

Stable firing platform (4-Ts): Regardless of the engagement technique used, the aircrew must strive for accurate fires onto the target by providing a stable firing platform. By verifying “___ ___ ____ ____” sequence prior to firing the P* ensures a stable and accurate weapons platform

Answer 34

4-Ts—target, TQ, trim, and target”

Question 35

After rockets are fired, the CPG should “sense” their impact by selecting a wider FOV on the TADS and detecting the rocket impact. Subsequent corrections must be made in the field of view in which the CPG “sensed”.

Answer 35

After rockets are fired, the CPG should “sense” their impact by selecting a wider FOV on the TADS and detecting the rocket impact. Subsequent corrections must be made in the field of view in which the CPG “sensed”.

Question 36

The M255A1 flechette is the optimum weapon for attacking dismounted enemy combatants, particularly in soft soil/marshy conditions which would otherwise limit the effectiveness of conventional point detonating HE weapons.

Answer 36

The M255A1 flechette is the optimum weapon for attacking dismounted enemy combatants, particularly in soft soil/marshy conditions which would otherwise limit the effectiveness of conventional point detonating HE weapons.

Question 37

The minimum range to target when firing flechette rocket is ___meters. Operators should attempt to employ M255A1 flechette rockets at ranges between ___ to ____ meters. Operators should employ a ____ -____ degree dive when firing flechettes. Steeper delivery angles will create a smaller beaten zone and increase flechette density within that beaten zone. Consider placing the rocket steering cursor (NORM or FXD) just above the target as a means to place more nails on target. For example, the data shows at a 10° dive and 1000 meter trigger pull that a majority of the nails land approximately 50 meters short of the intended target.

Answer 37

The minimum range to target when firing flechette rocket is 800 meters. Operators should attempt to employ M255A1 flechette rockets at ranges between 800 - 2000 meters. Operators should employ a 10° - 30° dive when firing flechettes. Steeper delivery angles will create a smaller beaten zone and increase flechette density within that beaten zone. Consider placing the rocket steering cursor (NORM or FXD) just above the target as a means to place more nails on target. For example, the data shows at a 10° dive and 1000 meter trigger pull that a majority of the nails land approximately 50 meters short of the intended target.

Question 38

If it is suspected that a residual charge is present on the M439 fuse, the rocket should be downloaded and not used for a minimum of _____days, in order for the fusing charge to dissipate.

Answer 38

10

Question 39

The M257 Overt Illumination rocket provides approximately 1 million candle power for a minimum of _____seconds and can illuminate an area of more than ___ square kilometer when deployed at optimum height. A deployed main parachute descent is approximately ____ feet per second.

Answer 39

100, 1km^2, 15 ft/Sec

Question 40

The M278 Infrared (IR) Illumination Warhead is designed for target illumination using NVG’s. The M278 puts out an equivalent of one million candlepower of IR illumination. It’s preset to deploy approximately _____meters downrange, and provides IR light for approximately ____ seconds.

Answer 40

3500, 180 sec

Question 41

The M442 fuse is a 9-second nominal fuse used in both the M257 and M278 illumination rockets. It requires a launch distance of approximately _____m.

Answer 41

3500m.

Question 42

Current aircraft software will input an algorithm to place the rocket approximately ____ ftabove the ACQ source. If using covert/M278 illumination, crews should factor in additional burn-time and add approximately _____ ft to TGT elevation to compensate

Answer 42

2000 ft, 1000 ft

Question 43

Time from launch to flare ignition is ____ seconds.

Answer 43

13.5 sec

Question 44

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than 7 ft AGL, and for all other flight conditions of 5 ft AGL, is not authorized.

Answer 44

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than 7 ft AGL, and for all other flight conditions of 5 ft AGL, is not authorized.

Question 45

Do not fire rockets with the M433 (Nose Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse in situations where they might fly closer than __m from other airborne helicopters.

Answer 45

51m

Question 46

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than _____ with ____outboard launchers every ____ seconds, or fire with only ____outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). These are the only conditions permitted.

Answer 46

pairs, 2, 3 sec, One outboard

Question 47

Spent illumination rocket will land ____ to _____m beyond the target, and ___ to ___ beyond the Launch aircraft

Answer 47

700-1200, 4200-4700m

Question 48

To offset-designate while manually tracking, place the MTADS reticle on a target of at least tank size, about ___ to ___ meters to the front or side of the intended target, while keeping the intended target within the selected MTADS sensor FOV. Allow a period of approximately ___ to ___ seconds to smoothly reposition the laser reticle to the intended target (careful to avoid large range to target errors, overspill), so that the laser spot remains on the intended target for the recommended terminal laser time (____ seconds for ground ranges up to ___km; 2 additional seconds for each additional kilometer).

Answer 48

To offset-designate while manually tracking, place the MTADS reticle on a target of at least tank size, about 50 to 100 meters to the front or side of the intended target, while keeping the intended target within the selected MTADS sensor FOV. Allow a period of approximately 1-2 seconds to smoothly reposition the laser reticle to the intended target (careful to avoid large range to target errors, overspill), so that the laser spot remains on the intended target for the recommended terminal laser time (6 seconds for ground ranges up to 5km; 2additional seconds for each additional kilometer).

Question 49

When firing a LOAL TADS HO, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no longer than ____to ______ seconds after the target data (TARGET DATA?) message disappears.

Answer 49

5 to 7 seconds

Question 50

LOBL constraints of an AGM-114R missile are ±___° as referenced from the tracking missile seeker’s LOS and aircraft centerline.

Answer 50

20

Question 51

Arming can only occur when the missile’s acceleration exceeds 10Gs. The fuze is armed between ____and _____ meters from the launching platform for all HELLFIRE missiles except for the AGM-114R which is armed between _____and _____ meters.

Answer 51

Arming can only occur when the missile’s acceleration exceeds 10Gs. The fuze is armed between 150 and 300 meters from the launching platform for all HELLFIRE missiles except for the AGM-114R which is armed between 375 and 500 meters.

Question 52

HELLFIRE R includes the P+ improvements as well as a multi-purpose main warhead, referred to as the integrated blast fragmentation sleeve (IBFS), and has a pre-launch programmable fuze. HELLFIRE R2 includes all R improvements and incorporates a Height-Of-Burst (HOB) sensor for detonation of the warhead a few meters before impact. This is selectable in the Warhead Delay Options.

Answer 52

HELLFIRE R includes the P+ improvements as well as a multi-purpose main warhead, referred to as the integrated blast fragmentation sleeve (IBFS), and has a pre-launch programmable fuze. HELLFIRE R2 includes all R improvements and incorporates a Height-Of-Burst (HOB) sensor for detonation of the warhead a few meters before impact. This is selectable in the Warhead Delay Options.

Question 53

During rocket and gun engagements, the gunner often benefits from seeing more of the terrain surrounding the target in order to sense weapon’s impact and maintain higher situational awareness (SA). However, for SAL HELLFIRE designation, a larger apparent target size is generally preferred to ensure ideal laser spot placement.

Answer 53

During rocket and gun engagements, the gunner often benefits from seeing more of the terrain surrounding the target in order to sense weapon’s impact and maintain higher situational awareness (SA). However, for SAL HELLFIRE designation, a larger apparent target size is generally preferred to ensure ideal laser spot placement.

Question 54

The gunner must consider the requirements for awareness in and around the target as well as tracking a moving target with the need for an accurate laser spot placement

Answer 54

The gunner must consider the requirements for awareness in and around the target as well as tracking a moving target with the need for an accurate laser spot placement

Question 55

Performing laser designation in a field of view (FOV) that has not been boresighted significantly degrades the probability of a hit (Ph) and should be avoided.

Answer 55

Performing laser designation in a field of view (FOV) that has not been boresighted significantly degrades the probability of a hit (Ph) and should be avoided.

Question 56

Rotating the aircraft just before launch—at least three to five degrees in the direction of the missile to be fired— prevents the missile from flying through the designator FOV.

Answer 56

Rotating the aircraft just before launch—at least three to five degrees in the direction of the missile to be fired— prevents the missile from flying through the designator FOV.

Question 57

During hovering engagements, visible or invisible obscurants may be kicked up by the aircraft’s rotor wash potentially creating a backscatter condition. HF-II variants enforce a lock-on inhibit which reduces the likelihood of locking on to laser backscatter near the aircraft in LOAL missions. For HF-I, to prevent the missile locking on to backscatter near the aircraft, discontinue lasing for a short time and then re-lase the same target. If problem still exists, it may be necessary to discontinue lasing, and move to another position with less rotor wash induced backscatter prior to re-designating the target. Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL. In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a remote designator to provide missile guidance. If remote designation is not available and the engagement must be conducted, the gunner can stop lasing the target, fire the missile LOAL and delay lasing for a minimum of two seconds after missile separation (approximately three seconds after trigger pull).

Answer 57

discontinue lasing for a short time and then re-lase the same target. If problem still exists, it may be necessary to discontinue lasing, and move to another position with less rotor wash induced backscatter prior to re-designating the target. Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL.

In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a remote designator to provide missile guidance. If remote designation is not available and the engagement must be conducted, the gunner can stop lasing the target, fire the missile LOAL and delay lasing for a minimum of two seconds after missile separation (approximately three seconds after trigger pull).

Question 58

Detailed information is required during remote engagements to maximize the probability of hit and ensure the safety of both firing and designating platforms. Offset geometry, gun to target line (GTL), laser to target line (LTL), target location, laser codes, launch and delivery modes, and ranges are factors which ensure proper and safe delivery of the HELLFIRE.

Answer 58

Offset geometry, gun to target line (GTL), laser to target line (LTL), target location, laser codes, launch and delivery modes, and ranges

Question 59

The 34-degree vertical component of the HF-II exclusion zone is reduced from the 40 degree HF-I vertical exclusion zone due to the lower flight trajectories of HF-II and Romeo.

Answer 59

Clearance of the HELLFIRE exclusion zone is required prior to firing and is determined either electronically, utilizing HELLFIRE air-mission, PPOS digital map icons, or calculated manually using the HELLFIRE designator exclusion zone tabular format

Question 60

Clearance of the HELLFIRE exclusion zone is required prior to firing and is determined either electronically, utilizing HELLFIRE air-mission, PPOS digital map icons, or calculated manually using the HELLFIRE designator exclusion zone tabular format

Answer 60

Clearance of the HELLFIRE exclusion zone is required prior to firing and is determined either electronically, utilizing HELLFIRE air-mission, PPOS digital map icons, or calculated manually using the HELLFIRE designator exclusion zone tabular format

Question 61

Loaded pylons minimize the roll tip-off effect. Load from the upper inboard rail (closest to the aircraft) and out for each launcher pylon. When firing, execute launch from the outer-lower launcher pylons and rails to the inner-upper pylons/rails to minimize roll tip-off effect. This will also minimize scorching of the seeker dome of adjacent missiles.

Answer 61

Load from the upper inboard rail (closest to the aircraft) and out for each launcher pylon. When firing, execute launch from the outer-lower launcher pylons and rails to the inner-upper pylons/rails to minimize roll tip-off effect.

Question 62

For LOAL, the HF-II/Romeo seeker will be commanded to slave and scan to enable laser target acquisition but will be inhibited from acquisition for 1.3 seconds. The lock-on inhibit is used to allow the missile to attain flight away from an autonomous designation beam and reduce the likelihood of atmospheric backscatter tracking.

Question 63

Horizontal exclusion zone. Describe

Answer 63

inside of 43 degrees to either side of the Gun Shot line is never safe, outside of 43 degrees is always safe

Question 64

Vertical exclusion, generally describe

Answer 64

inside of 30 degrees to either side of the Gun Shot line is never safe, outside of 30 degrees plus amount of target offset.

Question 65

The Enhanced AGM-114R can receive an R9 target message which provides target location to the missile from capable platforms. For LOAL, the seeker will be commanded to slave and scan to enable laser target acquisition. If the Romeo received the targeting message, the seeker performs a reduced scan pattern about the location of the target as provided by the R9 message. Target acquisition is still inhibited for 1.3 seconds to allow the missile to attain flight away from an autonomous designation beam and reduce the likely hood of atmospheric backscatter tracking.

Answer 65

The Enhanced AGM-114R can receive an R9 target message which provides target location to the missile from capable platforms. For LOAL, the seeker will be commanded to slave and scan to enable laser target acquisition. If the Romeo received the targeting message, the seeker performs a reduced scan pattern about the location of the target as provided by the R9 message. Target acquisition is still inhibited for 1.3 seconds to allow the missile to attain flight away from an autonomous designation beam and reduce the likely hood of atmospheric backscatter tracking.

Question 66

The LOBL maximum range is ____ km for a target at the same altitude as the helicopter.

Answer 66

7.1 km

Question 67

During the launch sequence, the launcher will transmit to the missile a serial data message (R9). That data includes targeting, aircraft, atmospherics, and platform type.

Answer 67

targeting, aircraft, atmospherics, and platform type.

Question 68

Min range should be increased by approximately ____m for max-offset (±30oazimuth) engagements.

Answer 68

500m

Question 69

If after missile launch it becomes necessary to abort the engagement, due to possible collateral damage, the CPG should smoothly move the LOS (shift cold) to an acceptable area while continuing to designate.

Answer 69

If after missile launch it becomes necessary to abort the engagement, due to possible collateral damage, the CPG should smoothly move the LOS (shift cold) to an acceptable area while continuing to designate.

Question 70

LOBL inhibit options. Select the LOBL inhibit button, if desired. The LOBL inhibit function allows the aircrew to engage RF missile targets in the LOAL mode only, inhibiting RF missiles from transmitting. This option is used to eliminate the ___ ______ _______.

Answer 70

LOBL inhibit options. Select the LOBL inhibit button, if desired. The LOBL inhibit function allows the aircrew to engage RF missile targets in the LOAL mode only, inhibiting RF missiles from transmitting. This option is used to eliminate the RF missile signature.

Question 71

_____is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).

Answer 71

RMAX is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).

Question 72

_____is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).

Answer 72

RMAX is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).

Question 73

_____ _____ _______ is the distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. RMe is generally the most useful weapons range for tactical and is dependent upon munition characteristics, desired munition effects and target type.

Answer 73

Maximum effective range (RMe)

Question 74

The WEZ is a four-dimensional space defining a weapon system’s engagement capabilities (figure C- 7, page C-6). It is defined by the following aspects:

Answer 74

 RMIN.
 RMAX.
 Azimuth limits left and right.
 Vertical(elevation/altitude) limits.
 MunitionTOF.

Question 75

The four type of ballistics are ___, ____, _____, and ______

Answer 75

interior, exterior, aerial and terminal.

Question 76

_____ ______ _______ is produced when trajectory shift and projectile drift combine. When using IHADSS as a sight, and a target is to the left, the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move right. The gunner must correct for both ballistic effects by aiming to the target’s left. When a target is to the right, the effect of projectile drift (round moves right) tend to lessen the effect of trajectory shift (round moves left), so less compensation is required.

Answer 76

Port-starboard effect

Question 77

The effect of wind on a projectile in flight is wind drift. The amount of drift depends on projectile TOF and the wind speed acting on the projectile’s cross-sectional area. TOF depends on range to target and the projectile’s average velocity. Rockets seek the relative
wind for targets short of _______ meters, requiring the gunner to aim ________of the target. Conversely, rockets drift with the wind for targets greater than _______meters, requiring the gunner to aim _________ and allow the rocket to drift back to the target.

Answer 77

Rockets seek the relative wind for targets short of 3,000 meters, requiring the gunner to aim downwind of the target. Conversely, rockets drift with the wind for targets greater than 3,000 meters, requiring the gunner to aim upwind and allow the rocket to drift back to the target.

Question 78

30-mm rounds drift with the air mass throughout their free-flight trajectory. The amount of projectile drift attributed to wind effects is directly proportional to munitions TOF, wind vector (angle), and wind magnitude.

Answer 78

30-mm rounds drift with the air mass throughout their free-flight trajectory. The amount of projectile drift attributed to wind effects is directly proportional to munitions TOF, wind vector (angle), and wind magnitude.

Question 79

Firing while an aircraft is in a bank affects fixed and flexible weapons (figure C-11). To compensate for ballistic factors, the boreline axes of all weapon systems require some form of elevation. However, this elevation becomes deflection if a weapon is fired within a bank, resulting in rounds impacting short and inside the turn. To compensate for turning error, it is necessary to aim ____ and ____ the direction of the bank. Range estimation and power setting adjustments are necessary

Answer 79

high and opposite

Question 80

The AH-64 ballistics algorithms automatically compute rotor down-wash compensation for rockets based on aircraft gross weight, air density ratio, and longitudinal true airspeed. However:

Answer 80

However, this compensation assumes rocket launch is initiated at hover OGE altitudes.

Question 81

The TSE’s Kalman filter is adaptive and can differentiate between noise content in the inputs signals and true trends in target motion given continuous sustained lasing and adequate settling time. The TSE is not considered settled, and target handover to the missile will
not occur, unless all of the following conditions are satisfied:

Answer 81

 Continuous lasing has occurred for a minimum of four seconds.
 Multiple LRV range updates have been received within a specified timeframe.
 The derived target velocity estimates exhibit a sample to sample standard deviation less than a specified value.
 When the above conditions are satisfied, the weapons processor translates the TADS LOS and TSE target states to NED coordinates and initiates handover to the priority RF missile.

Question 82

For any large number of rounds fired, it is possible to draw a cone within which the trajectories of all the rounds will fall. As depicted in, figure C-2, page C-2, the dispersion pattern becomes elongated as the impact angle changes from perpendicular to horizontal. The shallower the impact angle, the more elongated the dispersion pattern becomes.

Question 83

Call for Fire (CFF). The CFF has six elements communicated in three distinct transmissions to the fire direction center (FDC). Table 2 shows the three transmissions and six elements in a CFF.

Answer 83

1. Observer Identification (call sign)
2. Warning Order
   —- (second transmission)
3. Target Location
   —– (Third transmission
4. Target description
5. Method of Engagement
6. Method of Fire and Control

Question 84

(CFF) Warning Order. The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of the type of mission, the size of the element to fire for effect, and the method of target location. It is a request for fire unless prior authority has been given to order fire.

Answer 84

 Adjust Fire
 Fire for Effect (FFE)
 Suppress
 Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
 Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses (SEAD)

Question 85

Target Description. This element contains sufficient detail (i.e., type, size, activity and degree of protection) for the receiving unit:

Answer 85

for the receiving unit to determine the amount and type of ammunition to use.

Question 86

Method of Fire and Control. In this element, the observer indicates the desired manner of attack and who has fire control authority. The observer also indicates the ability to directly observe the target. The methods are listed

Answer 86

Methods of Fire control:
1. Fire when ready
2. At my command
3. cannot observe
4. time on target
5. time to target
6. coordinated illumination
7. continuous illumination
8. cease loading
9. check firing
10. continuous fire
11. repeat
12. Request Splash
13. do not load
14. duration

Question 87

Message to Observer (MTO). The supporting FDC sends this information to the observer. The observer will read back the entire MTO. The MTO should include the items listed in table 4 (asterisk (*) items are required):

Answer 87

Readback entire message, Astrisk must be included

1. **Unit(s) to Fire. The battery (or batteries) that will fire the mission is (are) announced. If the battalion is firing in effect with one battery adjusting, the FDC designates the FFE unit (battalion) and the adjusting unit by using the last letter of the call sign.

EXAMPLE
The battalion call sign is A8T36. Battery A is R6G36. Battery A will adjust, and battalion will fire for effect. The MTO would begin T, G.

2. ** Changes to the Call for Fire. Any change to what the observer requested in the call for fire is announced.

EXAMPLE
The observer requested ICM in effect and the FDO decides to fire VT in effect. The MTO begins T, G, VT IN EFFECT.

3. **Number of Rounds. The number of rounds per tube in fire for effect is announced; for example, T, G, VT IN EFFECT, 4 ROUNDS.
4. **Target Number. A target number is assigned to each mission to facilitate processing of subsequent corrections; for example, T, G, VT IN EFFECT, 4 ROUNDS, AA7732, OVER.
5. Time of flight
6. maximum ord
7. informaiton

Question 88

Grid or Laser missions consist of the following information:

Answer 88

You, this is me
Grid, XX XXXX XXXX, over
Target description
Method of egnagement
Method of fire and control

Question 89

Army Aviation Air-to-Ground Check-in Brief

Answer 89

You, this is me.
Compositions and location
munitions available: rockets/guns/missiles
Capabilities (EO/IR/SPOT/FLIR)
Station time

Question 90

CAS 5 line

Answer 90

1. Aircraft callsign, Jtac Call sign, “5-line”.
   Type (1,2, or 3) control, MOA (BOC or BOT), (ordance requested)
2. My positions ____, marked by _____.
3. Target location:
4. Target description:
5. Remarks

Must read back:
1. Final attack headings
2. Airspace coorindation areas
3. Daner Close and initials
4. Time on target/Time to target
5. Post launch abort coordination and considerations

Question 91

AC-130 Deconfliction zones

Answer 91

1500-5500 Height Above Target, RW no closer than 2000m
500-1500 HAT, RW no closer than 750m
0-500 ft HAT, RW no closer than 500m

Question 92

ANCHOR

Answer 92

Orbit about a specific point.

Question 93

ANGELS:

Answer 93

Height of FRIENDLY aircraft in thousands of feet from mean sea level (MSL)

Question 94

CHERUBS:

Answer 94

Height of a FRIENDLY aircraft in hundreds of feet above surface

Question 95

CLEARED HOT

Answer 95

1. [A/S] Type 1 and 2 close air support terminal attack control clearance to release ordnance on this pass.
2. [A/S] Training range operations: the range control officer or range safety officer authorizes ordnance release.

Question 96

CLEARED TO ENGAGE

Answer 96

**[A/S] Type 3 close air support, terminal attack control clearance.
Attack aircraft or flight may initiate attacks within the parameters imposed by the joint terminal attack controller.
2. **[A/A] [A/S] Clearance to fire on designated GROUP or target.

Question 97

DANGER CLOSE

Answer 97

**[A/S] [S/S] FRIENDLY troops are within 0.1% probability of incapacitation from the target (determined by the weapon or munition that is delivered or fired).

Question 98

LOWDOWN:

Answer 98

A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest

Question 99

PLAYTIME:

Answer 99

Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g., ONE PLUS THIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).

Question 100

REMINGTON:

Answer 100

**[A/A] [A/S] No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammunition.

Question 101

RETROGRADE:

Answer 101

*Withdraw(ing) while executing defensive procedures in response to a threat.

Question 102

WINCHESTER:

Answer 102

No ordnance remaining.

Question 103

CONTACT:

Answer 103

1. Sensor information at the stated position.
2. [A/S] Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).

Question 104

NO JOY

Answer 104

*[A/A] [A/S] [S/A] Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY.

Question 105

TALLY:

Answer 105

Sighting a target, nonfriendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY.

Question 106

VISUAL:

Answer 106

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship. Opposite of BLIND

Question 107

DEADEYE:

Answer 107

The laser designator system is inoperative.

Question 108

LASING:

Answer 108

A/S] [S/S] The speaker is firing the laser in response to LASER ON.

Question 109

SPOT:

Answer 109

1. [A/S] Acquisition of laser designation.
2. Platform is laser spot tracker capable.

Question 110

MATCH (type):

Answer 110

*[A/S] [AIR-MAR] [S/S] Overlay requested target designator type (e.g.,
MATCH SPARKLE, MATCH LASER).

Question 111

HANDSHAKE:

Answer 111

[A/S] Video data link established.

Question 112

HOLLOW:

Answer 112

1. Any data link message not received.
2. *[A/S] Lost video data link

Question 113

POPEY:

Answer 113

1. Flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility.
2. Reduced electro-optical or infrared visibility due to atmospherics.

Question 114

SQUIRTER:

Answer 114

**[A/S] [S/S] A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.

Question 115

NEUTRAL:

Answer 115

The lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly force. The wingman is primarily responsible for scanning the objective (or assigned checkpoint) and back to the friendly force.

Question 116

OFFENSIVE:

Answer 116

Lead and wingman aircraft concentrate on the objective

Question 117

DEFENSIVE:

Answer 117

The lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly force. The wingman is
responsible for sanitizing the route directly in front of the friendly force.

Question 118

RISK-ESTIMATE DISTANCES (REDS)

Answer 118

1. Background The values in tables 94–100 assume
   a 0.1% probability of incapacitation (Pi), indicating a horizontal distance from the intended point of weapon impact to the closest friendly forces.

Question 119

30mm REDs

Answer 119

Range to target / Danger close (standing)
500m / 55m
1000m / 70m
1,500m / 100m

Question 120

2.75 in HE Rocket REDs

Answer 120

Range to target / Danger close (standing)
300m / 110m
800m / 135m
1500m / 170m

Question 121

2.75 in FL Rocket REDs

Answer 121

Range to target / Danger close (standing)
1000m / 235m

Question 122

Hellfire REDs

Answer 122

AGM 114 (older than R) - 115m
AGM-114R - 130m
AGM 114R2 - 145m

Question 123

Keyhole

Answer 123

. A
D E B
C

Question 124

IHADDS: When either gun or rockets are actioned with HMD as the selected LOS, range will automatically default to the selected ______ range of the firing crewmember. If the manual range is zero, the default range for that crew station will be used.

Answer 124

Manual Range

Question 125

With the IHADSS as the selected sight, lead-angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position command, nor is the target state estimator is employed.

Answer 125

With the IHADSS as the selected sight, lead-angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position command, nor is the target state estimator is employed.

Question 126

Laser Phenomena that may result in laser ranging errors: (USABOBB)

Answer 126

Underspill, Spot Jitter, Attenuation, Beam Divergence, Overspill, Backscatter, Boresight Error. (USABOBB)