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NKS Ground School (recurrent) > Ground School Final > Flashcards

Ground School Final Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What would cause an external horn to sound?

a. Brake overtemperature.
b. APU fire.
c. ADIRS alignment.

A

b. APU fire. AOM VOL 1 pg. 802

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2
Q
  1. What is the maximum cabin altitude in normal conditions?
    a. 6,000’.
    b. 8,000’
    c. 9,200’
A

b. 8,000’ AOM VOL 1 pg. 88

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3
Q
  1. The pneumatic system provides wing anti-ice protection on which of the slats?
    a. The three outboard slats.
    b. The two inboard slats (1-2).
    c. The horizontal stabilizer.
A

a. The three outboard slats. (3-4-5) AOM VOL 1 pg. 583

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4
Q
  1. If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM, or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR, what will be the PACK FLOW rate?
    a. LOW flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
    b. MED flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
    c. HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
A

c. HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic. AOM VOL 1 pg. 66

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5
Q
  1. What will happen if an APU fire is detected while the aircraft is on the ground?
    a. The APU will shut down.
    b. A horn in the nose gear bay sounds.
    c. The APU fire extinguisher discharges.
    d. All of the above.
A

d. All of the above. AOM VOL 1 pg. 419

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6
Q
  1. What is the maximum field elevation for autoland in the A319/A320/A321 respectively?
    a. 9200’/6500’/5750’.
    b. 9200’/6000’/5750’.
    c. 9200’/6500’/5500’.
A

a. 9200’/6500’/5750’. COM VOL 1 pg. 58

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7
Q
  1. What is the active range of the A/THR with one engine inoperative?
    a. Just above IDLE to the CL detent.
    b. Just above IDLE to the MCT detent.
    c. A/THR is not available with one engine inoperative.
A

b. Just above IDLE to the MCT detent. AOM VOL 1 pg. 264

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8
Q
  1. If ground deicing/anti-icing is performed, the flaps, slats, and flight controls may be moved:
    a. At the normal time.
    b. Approximately 5 minutes before takeoff.
    c. Approximately 3 minutes before takeoff.
    d. Only as directed by the Old Farmers Almanac.
A

c. Approximately 3 minutes before takeoff. AOM VOL 1 pg. 419

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9
Q

. Given the following TAF, could the flight be dispatched with an ETA of 2154Z? Note: KACY is limited to CAT 1 minimums of 1/2 sm.
TAF KACY 081443Z 0815/0918 13026G23KT 3SM –RA BR BKN008 OVC012
FM082100 12023G38KT 1/2SM SN OVC005
TEMPO 0821/0901 1/4SM +SN OVC 004

	a. No.
	b. Only with a High Minimum Captain.
	c. Yes, but only under Exemption Letter 3585.
A

c. Yes, but only under Exemption Letter 3585. FOM pg. 111

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10
Q

What method would the pilot use to charge the batteries if BAT voltage was 25.5 volts or below on an originating flight?

	a. Charge the batteries with external power and BAT pbs to AUTO for 20      minutes. 
	b. Charge the batteries with external power by selecting the BUS TIE switch to AUTO.
	c. Charge the batteries with the APU by selecting the APU MASTER pb ON.
A

a. Charge the batteries with external power and BAT pbs to AUTO for 20 minutes. AOM VOL 2 pg. 101

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11
Q

Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

	a. RMP 1 
	b. RMP 2
	c. RMP 3
A

a. RMP 1 AOM VOL 2 pg. 30

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12
Q
  1. If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS BUS powered?
    a. DC ESS BUS automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS through the ESS TR.
    b. The pilot must manually select the AC ESS BUS.
    c. AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS.
A

c. AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS. AOM VOL 1 pg 370

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13
Q
  1. What is the normal inflight power source for the FADEC?
    a. Normal aircraft electrical power.
    b. The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above 10%.
    c. Engine #2.
A

b. The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above 10%. AOM VOL 1 pg 1011.

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14
Q
  1. Under what conditions would the flight crew need to manually abort an automatic engine start on the ground.
    a. Hot Start.
    b. Hung Start.
    c. Tailpipe Fire.
A

c. Tailpipe Fire. AOM VOL 2 pg 197

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15
Q
  1. What is accomplished when the engine fire pb is pushed?
    a. Closes the LP fuel valve.
    b. Opens the engine bleed valves.
    c. Both fire bottles will automatically discharge.
A

a. Closes the LP fuel valve. AOM VOL 1 pg 421

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16
Q
  1. What happens if both engine fire loops fail simultaneously?
    a. FIRE warning will be issued if the failure occurs within 5 seconds of each other.
    b. FIRE warning will be issued if the failure occurs within 10 seconds.
    c. Both fire bottles will discharge automatically.
A

a. FIRE warning will be issued if the failure occurs within 5 seconds of each other. AOM VOL 1 pg 420

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17
Q
  1. How is alternate law indicated on the PFD?
    a. Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM” message.
    b. Amber Xs.
    c. Green double markers.
A

b. Amber Xs. AOM VOL 1 pg 477

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18
Q
  1. How is mechanical back-up indicated on the PFD?
    a. Red Xs.
    b. Green double markers.
    c. Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”.
A

c. Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”. AOM VOL 1 pg 480

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19
Q
  1. What should happen to the THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) after landing?
    a. Nothing.
    b. It resets to zero.
    c. It retracts with the flaps.
A

b. It resets to zero. AOM VOL 1 pg 482

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20
Q
  1. When would the sideslip index on the PFD change from yellow to blue?
    a. An engine failure during takeoff/go-around.
    b. An engine failure during cruise flight.
    c. An engine failure during an instrument approach.
A

a. An engine failure during takeoff/go-around. AOM VOL 1 pg 652

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21
Q
  1. When do Ground Spoilers fully extend upon landing if not armed?
    a. After both main landing gear have touched down and both thrust levers are at idle.
    b. After one main landing gear has touched down and reverse is selected on at least one engine.
    c. After both main landing gear have touched down and reverse is selected on at least one engine.
A

c. After both main landing gear have touched down and reverse is selected on at least one engine. AOM VOL 1 pg 460

22
Q
  1. How is direct law indicated on the PFD?
    a. Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”.
    b. Green double markers.
    c. Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”.
A

c. Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”. AOM VOL 1 pg 278

23
Q
  1. To legally depart from an airport without a designated takeoff alternate, weather reported must be:
    a. at or above takeoff minimums at the departure runway.
    b. At or above landing minimums at the departure airport. FOM pg 66
    c. At or above landing minimums at ETA the airport to which dispatched.
    d. At or above alternate minimums at ETA at the alternate airport.
A

b. At or above landing minimums at the departure airport. FOM pg 66

24
Q
  1. Severe low level windshear can be associated with:
    a. Thunderstorms and fronts.
    b. Large temperature/dewpoint spreads and/or strong surface winds.
    c. The potential for complete loss of the Aircraft.
    d. All of the above statements are true.
A

d. All of the above statements are true. FOM pg 108

25
Q
  1. Regarding airports equipped with Runway Status Light Systems (RWSLS):
    a. Illuminated Runway Entrance Lights indicate the runway is not safe.
    b. Runway Status Lights are controlled by ATC.
    c. When Takeoff Hold Lights are extinguished, you are cleared for takeoff.
    d. Runway Status Lights are used only during low visibility taxi operations
A

a. Illuminated Runway Entrance Lights indicate the runway is not safe. AIM RWSLS.

26
Q
  1. A new Airworthiness Release is required:
    a. The first flight of each UTC (Z) day.
    b. After a scheduled Check.
    c. After a UFO encounter.
A

b. After a scheduled Check. FOM pg 361

27
Q
  1. Lowest authorized takeoff minimums and/or requirements per OPSPECS are:
    a. At least two RVR Transmissometers must be operational.
    b. RVR TDZ 500’, MID 500’, Rollout 500’.
    c. HIRL and CL must be operational.
    d. All of the above are correct.
A

d. All of the above are correct. OPSPECS C078

28
Q
  1. Which of the following instrument approaches are not authorized in company OPSPECS:
    a. RNAV (GPS).
    b. LDA with glide slope.
    c. LOC Back Course.
A

c. LOC Back Course. OPSPECS C052

29
Q
  1. Circle-to-land maneuvers may only be conducted if:
    a. Reported weather is at or above Category C published circling min.
    b. Reported weather is at or above Category D published circling min.
    c. Reported weather is at least ceiling 1000ft. and visibility at least 3sm.
    d. Straight in minimums are higher.
A

c. Reported weather is at least ceiling 1000ft. and visibility at least 3sm.

30
Q
  1. Utilizing proper Crew Resource Management involves:
    a. Information transfer and problem solving.
    b. Anticipating contingencies and initiating appropriate actions.
    c. Conflict resolution, i.e. attitudes, behaviors and their effects on others.
    d. All of the above are correct.
A

d. All of the above are correct. FOM pg 63

31
Q
  1. Lowest authorized landing minimums for Company Aircraft are:
    a. As published but not less than RVR 300ft.
    b. The Captains authorized minimums if higher.
    c. RVR 1800ft.
    d. Both a. and b. above are correct.
A

d. Both a. and b. above are correct. FOM pg 78

32
Q
  1. The primary focus of CRM Threat-Error Management (TEM) is:
    a. Eliminate the possibility of any errors occurring.
    b. Reduce the likelihood of errors occurring.
    c. Dealing satisfactorily with errors if they occur.
    d. Both b. and c. above are correct.
A

d. Both b. and c. above are correct. FOM pg 358

33
Q
  1. For flight in RVSM Airspace, primary altimeters should agree within:
    a. 300 ft.
    b. 200 ft.
    c. 150 ft.
    d. 75 ft.
A

b. 200 ft. FOM pg 201

34
Q
  1. Regarding a destination alternate airport, weather forecast at the alternate at ETA must remain at or above:
    a. Alternate minimums while the flight is enroute to the destination.
    b. Ceiling at least 600 ft. and visibility at least 2 sm while the flight is enroute to the destination.
    c. Landing minimums while the flight is enroute to the destination.
A

a. Alternate minimums while the flight is enroute to the destination. FOM pg 361

35
Q
  1. ICAO forms that may be required for entry/exit are:
    a. General Declaration.
    b. Cargo Manifest.
    c. Passenger Manifest.
    d. All of the above are correct.
A

d. All of the above are correct. FOM pg 234

36
Q
  1. “Hazardous Materials” is a DOT term. However, it is known as ________ in international carriage.
    a. Explosive Materials
    b. Irritant Items.
    c. Dangerous goods.
A

c. Dangerous goods. HAZMAT MANUAL pg. 56

37
Q
  1. As a Spirit employee or Contract Vendor, your recurrent Hazardous Materials training is required every:
    a. 3 years per CFR49, 2 years per the FARs, and 1 year per IATA.
    b. 1 year per CFR49, 2 years per the FARs, and 3 year per IATA.
    c. 1 year per CFR49, 2 years per IATA.
    d. 1 year per Spirit Company policy. HAZMAT MANUAL
A

d. 1 year per Spirit Company policy. HAZMAT MANUAL pg. 65,66

38
Q
  1. The maximum quantity of dry iced allowed per passenger in checked baggage is.
    a. 1 kg. or 2.2 lbs.
    b. 2.5 kg. or 5.5 lbs.
    c. 2.3 lbs. or 1.01 kg.
A

b. 2.5 kg. or 5.5 lbs. FOM pg. 438

39
Q
  1. What is Spirit Airlines’ policy for shipping COMAT that contains Hazardous Materials?
    a. Ship on any Spirit flight.
    b. Ship on any Spirit flight with prior approval of Flight Operations.
    c. Ship on a different mode and/or carrier that is approved to carry HAZMAT.
    d. On Spirit ferry flights only.
A

c. Ship on a different mode and/or carrier that is approved to carry HAZMAT. FOM pg. 435

40
Q
  1. What does an amber FAULT LT on the PTU pb mean?
    a. Green or Yellow reservoir overheat.
    b. Green or Yellow reservoir low air pressure.
    c. Green or Yellow reservoir low fluid level.
    d. All of the above are correct. AOM VOL 1 pg. 568
A

d. All of the above are correct. AOM VOL 1 pg. 568

41
Q
  1. In which of the following scenarios should Engine Anti-Ice be used?
    a. Descending through FL 240 in visible moisture, TAT -22°, SAT -45°.
    b. Descending through 10,000ft, visible moisture, TAT 11°C, SAT 4°C.
    c. Climbing through FL195, no visible moisture TAT -24°C, SAT -49°C.
A

a. Descending through FL 240 in visible moisture, TAT -22°, SAT -45°. AOM VOL 2 pg. 698

42
Q
  1. The Red Arrow next to the landing gear selector lever illuminates when:
    a. The gear is not locked in the selected position when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.
    b. The gear is not locked in the down position when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.
    c. The gear is not locked in the up position.
A

b. The gear is not locked in the down position when the aircraft is in the landing configuration. AOM VOL 1 pg. 742

43
Q
  1. When do the strobe lights flash with the pb selected in AUTO?
    a. When the main gear strut is not compressed. AOM VOL 1 pg. 780
    b. When the computer logic senses the aircraft in motion.
    c. When the computer logic senses both engines are running.
A

a. When the main gear strut is not compressed. AOM VOL 1 pg. 780

44
Q
  1. What does DMC 1 normally supply?
    a. The Captain’s PFD, ND, and both ECAM DUs.
    b. The FO’s PFD, ND, and lower ECAM DU.
    c. DMC 1 serves as a backup.
A

a. The Captain’s PFD, ND, and both ECAM DUs. AOM VOL 1 pg. 646

45
Q
  1. What occurs when the T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed?
    a. A master warning associated with a Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC) will annunciate.
    b. A message is displayed on the Engine Systems Display.
    c. The system simulates application of T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration.
A

c. The system simulates application of T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration. AOM VOL 1 pg. 627

46
Q
  1. What is the maximum landing weight of the A321?
    a. 172,915 lbs.
    b. 172,519 lbs.
    c. 171,195 lbs.
A

b. 172,519 lbs. COM 1 pg 24

47
Q
  1. During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation check of the DOOR/OXY page, how would a crewmember know if it is necessary to verify that oxygen pressure is sufficient for the scheduled flight?
    a. If oxygen pressure is half boxed in amber.
    b. If oxygen pressure is > 1500psi.
    c. If after selecting AC power, an ECAM message “CHECK OXY PRESS” appears.
A

a. If oxygen pressure is half boxed in amber. AOM VOL 2 pg. 106

48
Q
  1. What happens when the BLOWER or EXTRACT pb is set to OVRD?
    a. The ventilation system is in the open-circuit configuration and adds air circulated from the aircraft skin to the ventilation air.
    b. The ventilation system is in the closed-circuit configuration and adds air from the air conditioning system to the ventilation air.
    c. The BLOWER or EXTRACT fans are manually selected OFF.
A

b. The ventilation system is in the closed-circuit configuration and adds air from the air conditioning system to the ventilation air. AOM VOL 1 pg. 104

49
Q
  1. What are some signs that you have flown into a Volcanic Ash Cloud?
    a. Smoke or dust appears on the flight deck possibly with an acid odor similar to electrical smoke. Airborne weather radar cannot detect it.
    b. Multiple engine malfunctions, such as stalls, increasing EGT, torching from tail pipe, flameout etc.
    c. At night, St. Elmo’s fire/static discharges may be observed around the windshield, accompanied by a bright orange glow in the engine inlets.
    d. All of the above are correct.
A

d. All of the above are correct. FOM pg. 454; COM 2 pg. 777

50
Q
  1. What procedure should be followed if you detect a cracked cockpit window/windshield?
    a. Refer to COM 2 Miscellaneous procedures
    b. Touch the cracks with a pen (or carefully with fingernail) to determine if there is a crack on the cockpit side.
    c. If no crack on the cockpit side, no limitation. If cracks on cockpit side, MAX FL 230/MEA; MAX ∆P, 5PSI.
    d. All of the above are correct.
A

d. All of the above are correct. COM 2 pg. 748

NKS Ground School (recurrent) (1 decks)

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