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Ground course > Ground Course Test > Flashcards

Ground Course Test Flashcards

1
Q

1 What happens, if you switch the wing anti ice system ON on ground?
A The wing anti ice valves open without any restriction.
B The wing anti ice valves stay closed.
C ECAM creates a warning, because wing anti ice operation on ground is not allowed.
D The wing anti ice valves open and the wing anti ice system initiates a 30 second test sequence.

A

D

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2
Q

2 Is it possible to engage the autopilot with FD`s OFF?
A Yes, the autopilot will be in HDG V/S or TRK FPA mode.
B Yes, the autopilot mode will depend on FCU setting.
C Yes, the autopilot will be in NAV ALT mode.
D No.

A

A

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3
Q

3 On the E/WD the following message appears: “ENG 1(2) FIRE DET FAULT”. What has happened?
A Loop A or B has a fault.
B Both loops have a fault.
C Loop A has a fault.
D Loop B has a fault.

A

B

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4
Q

4 ILS receiver 2 is inoperative. Where can you observe the failure?
A On CAPT ND and F/O PFD.
B On CAPT PFD and F/O ND.
C On CAPT PFD and ND.
D On F/O PFD and ND.

A

A

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5
Q

5 To force waste into the waste storage tanks, the toilet system uses
A bleed air.
B differential pressure.
C differential pressure or a vacuum generator, depending on altitude.
D a vacuum generator.

A

C

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6
Q

6 How is the AC ESS BUS normally supplied?
A From the emergency generator.
B From the batteries via the static inverter.
C From AC BUS 2.
D From AC BUS 1.

A

D

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7
Q

7 What is the wing span of an A319 / 320 / 321?
A Around 44 meters.
B Around 34 meters.
C Around 38 meters.
D All types have different spans, depending on manufacturer date and main serial number.

A

B

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8
Q

8 Ignition fault during engine start. What happens?
A CFM (A319, A320) and IAE (A321) engines abort the start progress and try a restart.
B CFM (A319, A320) and IAE (A321) engines abort the start progress, you have to take corrective action.
C All engines abort the start progress, but only CFM (A319, A320) engines try a restart.
D All engines abort the start progress, but only IAE (A321) engines try a restart.

A

C

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9
Q

9 HYD G+Y SYS LO PR. Why is it so important to extend the gear not before CONF 3 is selected and VAPP
is reached?
A To increase the stall margin.
B ELAC stops to set the elevator neutral reference according to the trim requirements.
C To have the same pattern in all double hydraulic failure cases.
D Trim stops with gear down.

A

B

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10
Q

10 During engine start the PTU performs a power transfer from the yellow to the green hydraulic system.
What is the explanation?
A During engine start the PTU drives a test cycle.
B The PTU must be switched ON manually before engine start.
C When there is a pressure difference between the both hydraulic systems, the PTU will always perform a power transfer.
D There is a pressure difference between the both hydraulic systems with both engine master switches set to ON.

A

D

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11
Q

11 Shortly after engine start you want to read the T.O. checklist, but it has not yet appeared on the E/WD.
What should you do?
A Ask the purser to push the CABIN READY pushbutton, this initiates the T.O. checklist.
B You have to wait two minutes.
C Use the paper checklist on the CM 2 table.
D Push the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton and the T.O. checklist will appear.

A

D

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12
Q

12 The windshear warning is active
A only if both FAC`s are switched ON.
B always below 2500 ft RA.
C with flaps FULL and below 1300 ft RA.
D with flaps 1 or more and below 1300 ft RA.

A

D

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13
Q

13 On the A319 and A320 the fuel used to cool the integrated drive generators (IDG)
A stays in the engine.
B returns to the center tank.
C returns to the inner wing tanks.
D returns to the outer wing tanks.

A

D

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14
Q

14 If an APU fire warning occurs on ground
A you must immediately discharge the fire extinguisher.
B the fire extinguisher will be automatically discharged when the APU FIRE pushbutton is pressed.
C the fire extinguisher can be discharged from the external power panel.
D the fire extinguisher will be automatically discharged after 3 seconds.

A

D

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15
Q

15 The parking brake needs
A yellow ACCU pressure.
B blue ACCU pressure.
C green ACCU pressure.
D no hydraulic pressure.

A

A

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16
Q

16 You have a dual engine generator failure and the emergency generator supplies the aircraft with
electricity. Which statement is correct?
A FMGC 1 is available (NAV function only).
B Only FMGC 2 is available.
C Both FMGC`s are available.
D No FMGC is available.

A

A

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17
Q

17 Engine failure after liftoff, manual flight.
A Rudder trim executes trim orders to assist in engine failure recovery (long term yaw compensation).
B In manual flight there is no short or long term yaw compensation.
C Both, the short and long term yaw compensation are active to assist in the recovery.
D Short term yaw compensation is active to assist in engine failure recovery.

A

B

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18
Q

18 You are on radar vectors (HDG select) during approach, ATC clears you for descent.
A DES, OPEN DES or V/S mode may be used.
B Only OPEN DES mode may be engaged.
C Only V/S mode may be engaged.
D OPEN DES or V/S mode may be engaged.

A

D

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19
Q

19 Engine start, you forget to return the engine mode selector from IGN START to NORM. What
consequence does that have on the packs?
A They stay closed and the aircraft is unpressurized.
B They stay closed until takeoff, then they open to prevent an unpressurized takeoff.
C Nothing as long as they are still supplied by the APU.
D They open 30 seconds after last engine start valve closure.

A

D

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20
Q

20 At which fuel quantity is the “FUEL L ( R ) WING TK LO LVL” warning triggered on ECAM?
A Total fuel quantity below 500 kg.
B Center tank below 250 kg.
C Any wing tank below 750 kg.
D Any wing tank below 250 kg.

A

C

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21
Q

21 You have moved the flap lever from 1 to 0. On the E/WD “A LOCK” flashes. What is the reason?
A The slats cannot retract because the associated SFCC has failed. The flaps have retracted normally.
B The slats cannot retract, because the AOA is too high. The flaps have retracted normally.
C The slats and flaps are locked in CONF 1+F, because your airspeed is too low.
D The flaps cannot retract because the associated SFCC has failed. The slats have retracted normally.

A

B

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22
Q

22 During cruise flight, autothrust is ON, but the thrust levers are not in the CL detent. In this case
A autothrust will disengage some seconds after the thrust levers are set out of the CL detent.
B autothrust is active and computes thrust limited to the thrust lever position.
C autothrust is armed but not active.
D autothrust is active and computes the thrust up to climb power.

A

B

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23
Q

23 The autoland light is active
A below 200 ft RA.
B only with both AP ON.
C below 350 ft RA.
D also in manual flight with excessive GS or LOC deviation.

A

A

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24
Q

24 You are working on a level 2 failure (amber caution), when the flight warning computer (FWC) notices a
level 3 failure (red warning). What happens?
A After the level 2 failure is finished with the CLR pushbutton, the level 3 failure appears.
B The level 3 failure is put on top of the list.
C Depends on, if the procedure for the level 2 failure is already commenced or not.
D The level 2 failure is cleared and replaced by the level 3 failure.

A

B

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25
Q

25 Is it possible to operate the wing anti ice system with APU bleed on?
A No.
B Yes, but this might result in inadequate deicing of the wings, because the APU bleed temperature is not sufficient. Therefore it is
forbidden.
C Yes, but not in combination with ENG anti ice ON.
D Yes, up to 5000 ft to improve T/O performance.

A

B

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26
Q

26 Accidentally you select the gear lever DOWN at 270 kts. What happens?
A The landing gear operates, the ECAM creates an overspeed warning because VLO is exceeded.
B Nothing, above 260 kts a safety valve cuts off hydraulic supply to the landing gear.
C The landing gear operates normally, because speed is still below VLE.
D This is not possible, the gear lever is blocked above VLO.

A

B

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27
Q

27 Which fuel pump supplies the APU with fuel?
A Always the APU fuel pump.
B The APU fuel pump only, if no tank pump pressure is available.
C Always a tank pump.
D The APU operates with suction feeding.

A

B

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28
Q

28 The thrust reversers are operated
A with green (engine 1) and yellow (engine 2) hydraulic.
B pneumatically with bleed air.
C with yellow (engine 1) and green (engine 2) hydraulic.
D with green hydraulic.

A

A

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29
Q

29 The upper ECAM display unit shows a diagonal line. This indicates a
A FWC 1 failure.
B DMC 1 failure.
C SDAC 1 failure.
D DU (display unit) failure.

A

B

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30
Q

30 Active clearance control for the high and low pressure turbines
A does not exist presently.
B is done mechanically.
C is done with engine oil.
D is achieved by cooling the related turbine cases with bleed air.

A

D

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31
Q

31 FWS SDAC 1+2 FAULT. What information do you still receive from the ECAM?
A Red warnings, engine, fuel parameters and slat/flap position.
B Only the STS page.
C All system pages except the STS page.
D All red warnings and amber cautions.

A

A

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32
Q

32 Which of the following statement is correct?
A After each landing gear cycle, the active LGCIU switches to the other LGCIU.
B LGCIU 1 is active, LGCIU 2 is in standby.
C LGCIU 2 is active, LGCIU 1 is in standby.
D Both LGCIUs are active in parallel.

A

A

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33
Q

33 What is the purpose of the GEN 1 LINE OFF pushbutton on the overhead EMER ELEC PWR panel?
A In EMER ELEC the GEN 1 pushbutton is no longer available, so you can use the GEN 1 LINE OFF pushbutton as backup.
B GEN 1 LINE OFF pushbutton is only used by maintenance.
C During SMOKE CONFIG it allows to disconnect AC BUS 1 from the GEN 1, while still supplying one fuel pump in each wing tank.
D It can disconnect the emergency generator from the emergency generator busses.

A

C

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34
Q

34 The nose takeoff light is switched ON.
A It goes off automatically with gear retraction.
B It must be turned off before gear retraction to prevent a nose gear bay overheat.
C You can leave it on, if the nose gear bay overheats, ECAM creates a caution.
D You can leave it on, it does not create enough heat to result in damages in the nose gear bay.

A

A

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35
Q

35 ECAM creates the caution SMOKE “AVIONICS SMOKE”. After the smoke has disappeared
A the ECAM caution disappears.
B the ECAM caution remains in any case.
C the ECAM caution remains, until the blower and extract pushbuttons are reset.
D the ECAM caution remains, if smoke was sensed for more than 5 minutes, otherwise it disappears.

A

D

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36
Q

36 The message “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM” on the PFDs indicate that you are in
A alternate law (reduced protections).
B alternate law (without protections).
C direct law.
D manual backup conditions.

A

C

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37
Q

37 Accidentally you have pressed the RAT & EMER MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR panel.
The RAT supplies the electrical network. Can you reconnect the engine generators to the AC busses?
A No.
B Yes, press the RAT & EMER MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR panel again.
C Yes, press the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the overhead HYD panel.
D Yes, reset the engine generators by pushing the GEN pushbuttons OFF then ON again.

A

D

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38
Q

38 ILS approach. AP 2 engaged. In 2800 ft the following ECAM message appears: “NAV ILS 2 FAULT”
A AP 2 disengages.
B AP 2 reverts to basic modes HDG and V/S.
C AP 2 stays in GS / LOC modes, PFD 2 shows G/S and LOC scale in red.
D The autoflight system switches to AP 1.

A

C

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39
Q

39 Selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton to ON has the following effect on the outflow valve:
A When the cabin differential pressure is below 1 psi, the outflow valve opens 50%, if it is not controlled manually.
B When the cabin differential pressure is below 1 psi, the outflow valve opens 50%, if it is controlled manually or automatically.
C When the cabin differential pressure is below 1 psi, the outflow valve opens 100%, provided it is not controlled manually.
D When the cabin

A

A

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40
Q

40 The ENG FIRE light and the FIRE light on the pedestal illuminate
A until, in case of a fire, both agents have been discharged.
B as long as a fire warning is active.
C until you push the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM control panel.
D until you press onto the master warning light.

A

B

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41
Q

41 The hydraulic reservoirs are
A pressurized by an electric pump.
B pressurized by bleed air.
C pressurized by differential pressure.
D not pressurized.

A

B

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42
Q

42 A TCAS traffic advisory TA without relative altitude indication of the intruder
A may be very serious, because RA`s are not created in this case.
B is not possible.
C is displayed, if there are too many intruders within the TCAS range.
D will change to a resolution advisory RA if the proximity conditions are met.

A

A

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43
Q

43 On ground with the engines shutdown. You want to adjust the THS setting and operate the trim wheel.
What happens?
A Nothing happens. The GREEN or YELLOW hydraulic system must be pressurized first.
B The THS does not move, but the trim can be preselected with the trim wheel.
C The THS moves, trim can be adjusted with electric motors.
D Nothing happens. One of the three hydraulic systems must be pressurized first.

A

A

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44
Q

44 The transformer rectifier units (TR)
A control the output of the generators.
B monitor battery charging.
C supply the aircraft electrical system with DC current.
D transform DC power from the batteries into AC power.

A

C

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45
Q

45 To test the operation of the APU fire detection and extinguishing system
A the APU must be running.
B the APU may be ON or OFF.
C the APU must be OFF, a running APU would autoshutdown during the test.
D the APU must be OFF, the APU master switch must be ON.

A

B

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46
Q

46 The cabin fixed oxygen system provides the passengers with
A a mixture of cabin air and oxygen from oxygen bottles in the lower fuselage.
B a mixture of cabin air and oxygen from chemical oxygen generators.
C 100% oxygen from oxygen bottles in the lower fuselage.
D 100% oxygen from chemical oxygen generators.

A

B

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47
Q

47 The rudder may be operated
A fully mechanically.
B if either of the three hydraulic systems is working.
C only if the green or blue hydraulic system is functioning.
D only if the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning.

A

B

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48
Q

48 GPWS
A works with flaps 1 or more only.
B can be switched OFF on the OVHD GPWS panel.
C works below 2450 ft RA only, aural warnings only with loudspeaker on.
D is reliable only with NAV ACC HIGH.

A

B

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49
Q

49 Go around after touchdown, reversers still stowed, flaps FULL
A is an absolute NO GO item.
B results in AP OFF with T/O warning, disregard the warning and continue with manual flight.
C if the T/O warning sounds, you have to abort the go around.
D the second AP will disengage.

A

B

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50
Q

50 You are cruising with an A319. Suddenly both CTR TK pumps fail. Is the center tank fuel still usable?
A No.
B Yes, without restriction.
C Yes, but you must apply the fuel gravity feeding procedure.
D Yes, after the wing tanks are empty.

A

A

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51
Q

51 The speedbrake have autoretracted due to high AOA (angle of attack) protection.
A They will extend when out of the high AOA condition after a lever reset.
B They will extend when out of the high AOA condition and after a lever reset for 10 seconds or more.
C They will extend automatically to the speedbrake lever position when out of the high AOA condition.
D They are unusable for the rest of the flight.

A

B

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52
Q

52 Which is the correct statement?
A The engine fire pb closes the LP fuel valve. The engine master switch closes LP and HP fuel valves.
B Engine master pb and engine fire pb close only the LP fuel valve.
C The engine fire pb closes the LP (tank) and HP (engine) fuel valves. The engine master switch closes only the LP fuel valve.
D Engine master pb and engine fire pb close LP and HP fuel valves.

A

A

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53
Q

53 Refueling from the external refueling panel is finished. The ECAM MEMO “REFUELG” disappears
A when the mode selector is switched OFF and the refueling cover on the right hand fuselage is closed.
B when the preselected fuel quantity is reached.
C when the mode selector is switched OFF.
D when the first engine is started.

A

A

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54
Q

54 You are flying in an holding, speed managed and NAV engaged. To leave the holding via the holding fix,
you have to
A press the CLR key.
B activate the “IMM EXIT * “ prompt.
C the holding is automatically canceled, when overflying the holding fix.
D this is not possible.

A

B

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55
Q

55 Where can you check the drift of each ADIRU position relative to the FMGC MIX position?
A On the POSITION MONITOR page.
B On the PROG page.
C On the ADIRU control display unit.
D On the INIT A page.

A

A

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56
Q

56 In case of RADIO NAV RECEIVER STANDBY TUNING
A RMP 1 controls VOR 1 and ADF 1, RMP 2 controls VOR 2 and ADF 2.
B Both RMP`s control all navaids.
C RMP 1 controls ILS 1, RMP 2 controls ILS 2.
D RMP 3 controls only VOR 1, ADF 1 and ILS 1.

A

A

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57
Q

57 The alpha floor protection is active. When out of alpha floor conditions, the protection is cancelled
A automatically.
B when autothrust is disengaged.
C when autothrust is engaged.
D when the thrust levers are set between CLB and IDLE.

A

B

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58
Q

58 To have the blue outer marker (OM) indication displayed on the PFD when overflying the OM,
A the OM frequency must be tuned on the RAD NAV page.
B the respective ILS frequency must be tuned on the RAD NAV page.
C the respective NDB frequency must be tuned on the RAD NAV page.
D nothing must be tuned.

A

D

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59
Q

59 What is the meaning of the green DECEL light in the respective autobrake pushbutton?
A The deceleration rate corresponding to the selected autobrake mode is reached 100%.
B The deceleration rate corresponding to the selected autobrake mode can not be reached.
C 80% of the deceleration rate corresponding to the selected autobrake mode is reached.
D Deceleration is not satisfactory, take over manual brakes.

A

C

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60
Q

60 The ground spoilers are not armed for landing. What happens with the ground spoilers after touchdown?
A They deploy when the ground condition is sensed and all thrust levers are in IDLE.
B They deploy only when one thrust lever at REV and one thrust lever at or near IDLE.
C They do not deploy automatically, but can be engaged manually with the speedbrake lever.
D Only partial lift damping is available.

A

B

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61
Q

61 The rudder pedal disconnect button on the nose wheel steering wheel
A disconnects the rudder pedals from the BSCU.
B disconnects the CAPT steering wheel from the F/O steering wheel.
C disconnects the rudder from the rudder pedals.
D disconnects the nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals.

A

D

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62
Q

62 Landing gear gravity extension requires
A green hydraulic.
B no hydraulic.
C yellow hydraulic.
D blue hydraulic.

A

B

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63
Q

63 The continuous cavalry charge audio identifies only one of the following situations:
A Overspeed for the actual aircraft configuration.
B Fire or low oil pressure on one engine.
C Autopilot disengagement.
D Excessive cabin altitude.

A

C

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64
Q

64 During an autoland approach, the engagement of the second autopilot is possible
A when LAND illuminates on the FMA.
B when the aircraft is stabilized at the glideslope intercept altitude.
C as soon as the localizer has been intercepted.
D after the APPR pushbutton on the FCU has been pressed and has illuminated.

A

D

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65
Q

65 SEAT BELTS AUTO means
A fasten seat belts signs come on automatically when the slats are extended.
B fasten seat belts signs come on automatically when the landing gear is extended.
C fasten seat belts signs come on automatically when the slats or the landing gear are extended.
D fasten seat belts signs come on automatically if normal aircraft electrical power supply fails.

A

C

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66
Q

66 The APU is running, both engines are running too.
A The engine generators supply the electrical network.
B The APU generator supplies the electrical network.
C Engine 1 supplies the AC BUS 1, the APU generator supplies AC BUS 2.
D On ground, the APU supplies the electrical network, in flight the engine generators take over.

A

A

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67
Q

67 You have an abnormal condition, which requires a different approach speed than usual. In this case
ECAM APPR SPD corrections
A must be added to VLS FULL.
B must be added to VLS of the respective configuration.
C must be added to VAPP of the respective configuration.
D must be added to VAPP FULL.

A

A

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68
Q

68 The cabin oxygen masks have deployed and some passengers have pulled their masks. How can you
stop the oxygen flow in the cabin?
A It cannot be stopped.
B It stops automatically when the cabin altitude decreases below 14000 ft.
C Push out the PASSENGERS SYS ON pushbutton on the overhead oxygen panel.
D The cabin attendants must restow the oxygen masks into their containers.

A

A

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69
Q

69 The cabin emergency lighting system comes on
A only if the EMER EXIT LT selector on the overhead panel is set to ON.
B only if the EMER EXIT LT selector on the overhead panel or the EMER pushbutton on the purser panel are set to ON.
C automatically, if the normal cabin lighting system fails.
D automatically, if the normal aircraft electrical power system fails.

A

D

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70
Q

70 The blue hydraulic system has failed. Can the slats and flaps still operate?
A The slats and flaps operate normally.
B The slats and flaps operate at half speed.
C The slats operate at half speed, the flaps operate normally.
D The slats are blocked by the wing tip brakes. The flaps operate normally.

A

C

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71
Q

71 Which computer is responsible for the green dot speed indication?
A FAC 1.
B FAC 1 and as backup FAC 2.
C FAC 1 for PFD 1 and FAC 2 for PFD 2.
D FAC 1 for PFD 2 and FAC 2 for PFD 1.

A

C

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72
Q

72 During takeoff the magenta speed bug shows
A V 1.
B V R.
C V 2.
D V 2 + 10.

A

C

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73
Q

73 Can you fly with an A319 / 320 / 321 over the north pole (range is not a problem)?
A Yes, but only with special emergency equipment.
B Yes, no problem.
C No, the IRS are only certified within the range of 73 (82) degrees latitude.
D Yes, but you have to correct the heading output of the IRS manually.

A

C

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74
Q

74 All tanks are full (A319 / A320).
A With slats extended, the engines are fed directly from the wing tanks. In clean configuration they will be fed directly from the center
tank.
B Center tank fuel is transferred to the wing tanks. To prevent a wing tank overflow, you have to switch the center tank pumps
manually OFF.
C The engines are fed directly from the center tank.
D The engines are fed directly from the wing tanks in any case.

A

A

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75
Q

75 You have to open one cockpit window. Which is the maximum allowed airspeed?
A 250 kts
B 200 kts
C 180 kts
D 230 kts

A

B

76
Q

76 CM 2 presses the takeover pushbutton on his sidestick and keeps it pressed. Thereafter CM 1 presses his
takeover pushbutton and keeps it pressed. Who has control?
A The signals of both sidesticks will be added algebraically.
B CM 2.
C CM 1.
D Depends whether CM 2 has pressed the takeover pushbutton for more than 40 seconds or not.

A

C

77
Q

77 The LAND mode may be left
A only above the decision height if inserted on the MCDU.
B by pushing the APPR pushbutton.
C with any lateral or vertical revision.
D by initiating a go around.

A

D

78
Q

78 You are in an approach. Which conditions or selections have to be set to see the VAPP TARGET on the
PFD? Speed managed and
A AP 1 or AP 2 selected ON.
B FD 1 or FD 2 selected ON.
C autothrust engaged.
D approach phase active.

A

D

79
Q

79 The crossbleed valve is set to AUTO. It opens automatically
A only when APU bleed air is available.
B if one engine bleed air system is switched OFF.
C to regulate the pressure between the LH and RH bleed air pressure.
D when an engine fire pushbutton is pressed.

A

A

80
Q

80 Shortly after takeoff, SRS mode still active, you get a new altitude by ATC. PNF inserts the new altitude
and pulls the ALT selector knob. What happens?
A SRS mode stays active until reaching the ACC ALT on the PERF TO page.
B CLB mode engages, to return to SRS mode push altitude selector knob.
C OPEN CLB mode engages, no way to return to SRS mode as long as thrust levers are not reset into the TOGA notch.
D OPEN CLB mode engages, to return to SRS mode push altitude selector knob.

A

C

81
Q

81 The soft altitude mode
A allows the aircraft to deviate by +/- 50 ft, if ALT CRZ mode and MACH mode are active for at least 2 minutes.
B allows the speed to deviate by +/- 0,01 M, if ALT CRZ mode and MACH mode are active for at least 2 minutes.
C allows the altitude to deviate by +/- 50 ft, if ALT mode is active for at least 2 minutes.
D allows the speed to deviate by +/- 5 kts, if ALT mode is active for at least 2 minutes.

A

A

82
Q

82 The AFT CARGO SMOKE procedure is completed. What happens, if a FWD CARGO SMOKE warning
occurs and the FWD DISCH pushbutton is pushed?
A If the FWD DISCH pushbutton is pressed before the bottles are empty, they discharge their remaining contents into the FWD cargo
compartment.
B Bottle 2 will discharge into the FWD cargo compartment.
C Bottle 1 will discharge into the FWD cargo compartment.
D The bottle is empty. No more extinguishing agent is available.

A

D

83
Q

83 The RWY mode is active
A at every take off.
B only, if a valid LOC signal is received for that runway.
C at every take off, unless the HDG pb is pulled.
D with GPS PRIMARY only.

A

B

84
Q

84 During takeoff the wind indication
A is totally unreliable.
B creates an amber caution, if the tailwind component exceeds 10 kts.
C appears at about 100 kts GS.
D creates a red warning, if the tailwind component exceeds 15 kts.

A

C

85
Q

85 On the DOOR / OXY page you observe an oxygen bottle pressure of 1200 psi and the message REGUL
LO PR.
A 1200 psi is enough pressure, disregard the message.
B REGUL LO PR comes on, if the oxygen bottle pressure is below 1500 psi
C That must be a nuisance warning.
D The pressure in the low pressure circuit is low, switch the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton ON on the overhead panel.

A

D

86
Q

86 Select the right statement concerning FADEC.
A Only if the normal electrical supply fails, the FADEC will supply itself with electricity from an internal generator.
B Each engine is controlled by its own, dual channel computer.
C One central computer controls both engines.
D If the electrical supply to FADEC fails, the respective engine will shutdown.

A

B

87
Q

87 The following message appears on the copilot’s ND: “SELECT OFFSIDE RANGE / MODE” and “MAP
NOT AVAILABLE”. What does it mean?
A The ADIRUs are not yet aligned.
B The F-PLN, which the captain has entered in his FMGC, has not yet been transferred to the copilot’s FMGC.
C Single FMGC operation with the two EFIS control panels not set to the same range and mode.
D Both FMGCs has different F-PLNs, you have to synchronize them.

A

C

88
Q

88 Cabin pressure mode selector in MAN. What happens?
A You have to control the cabin altitude by yourself, by driving the outflow valve manually with the MAN V/S toggle switch.
B You have to set the landing elevation manually with the LDG ELEV selector.
C The outflow valve controls a constant delta p of 8,6 psi.
D The outflow valve, emergency RAM AIR inlet, avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves and the pack control valve closes.

A

A

89
Q

89 You want to test the cockpit voice recorder.
A Push the CVR TEST pushbutton. ACP 1 must be ON.
B Push the CVR TEST pushbutton. The CVR must be ON and the parking brake SET.
C Push the CVR TEST pushbutton. The CVR must be ON.
D Push the CVR TEST pushbutton.

A

B

90
Q

90 The trimmable horizontal stabilizer THS may be operated
A if either of the three hydraulic systems are functioning.
B if the blue hydraulic system is functioning.
C fully mechanically.
D if the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning.

A

D

91
Q

91 The yaw bar on the PFD
A appears during every take off.
B appears only during take off, provided a valid LOC signal is available.
C appears below 30 ft during every takeoff and landing.
D appears below 30 ft during takeoff and landing roll, provided a valid LOC signal is available.

A

D

92
Q

92 How is the engine anti ice system supplied?
A Electrically.
B With compressed bleed air from the respective engine.
C With bleed air from the pneumatic system.
D With APU bleed air.

A

B

93
Q

93 In LAND mode you want to turn onto a heading. This is possible
A with the HDG selector knob on the FCU.
B with manual flight only.
C after TOGA only (GA mode).
D with manual flight or after TOGA (GA mode) only.

A

D

94
Q

94 The auto brake is selected LO. Immediately after touchdown, you notice that the autobrake does not work.
What should you do?
A Switch the A/SKID&NWS switch to OFF.
B Change the active BSCU channel by recycling the A/SKID&NWS switch.
C Recycle the autobrake.
D Initially nothing. In the LO mode it takes four seconds until the autobrake begins to work.

A

D

95
Q

95 Which flight control surfaces are available if all flight control computers fail?
A All surfaces, but in the manual backup mode. Sidestick inputs are now directly transferred to the surfaces.
B THS and spoilers.
C THS and rudder.
D Only the THS.

A

C

96
Q

96 What happens, if you select the blower and extract pushbuttons to OVRD?
A Both fans stop and air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.
B Both fans continue to run.
C The blower fan stops, the extract fan continues to run and air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.
D The blower fan continues to run, the extract fan stops.

A

C

97
Q

97 A primary failure
A is boxed and does not cause secondary failures.
B is not boxed and does not cause secondary failures.
C is boxed and causes secondary failures.
D is not boxed and causes secondary failures.

A

C

98
Q

98 Alpha floor is active
A with A/THR ON only.
B during the entire flight, irrespective of A/THR.
C from lift off until 50 ft RA on final approach in any case.
D from lift off until 100 ft RA on final approach and in normal law only.

A

D

99
Q

99 EGPWS indication on the ND requires
A GPS PRIMARY.
B NAV ACC HIGH.
C maximum range 40 NM on the ND.
D WX radar switched OFF.

A

B

100
Q

100 On ground before engine start. The PTU (power transfer unit) is inoperative. How can the YELLOW
hydraulic system be pressurized?
A With the YELLOW ELEC pump.
B With the YELLOW engine pump.
C With the YELLOW handpump.
D It cannot be pressurized on ground if the PTU is inoperative.

A

A

101
Q

101 During cockpit preparation you notice the OFF light in the ENG 1 GEN pushbutton. What action do you
take?
A Try a reset according to the “Reset of digital computers” list in the QRH.
B Push GEN pushbutton ON according the “white lights out” principle.
C The generator is inoperative. Check MEL.
D No action necessary. The light extinguishes automatically at engine start.

A

B

102
Q

102 The approach phase can be activated
A by overflying the magenta decelerate point symbol on the ND.
B by pushing the respective LSK (6L) on the MCDU PERF page or by overflying the magenta decelerate point symbol (in any
managed mode) on the ND.
C only with speed managed.
D only by pushing the respective LSK (6R) on the MCDU PERF page.

A

B

103
Q

103 What is the meaning of the green APU AVAIL light in the APU master switch?
A The APU is up to speed, the APU bleed valve opens automatically.
B The APU is up to speed, APU bleed air is available with the APU BLEED pushbutton.
C The APU is up to speed and the ECB has taken over full regulation above 95% N.
D The APU is up to speed, the APU generator must be switched ON with the APU GEN pushbutton.

A

B

104
Q

104 Is the nose wheel steering available after gravity gear extension? (-AILA to -AISG)
A Only if the gear lever is selected DOWN.
B Only below 100 kts.
C No. No hydraulic pressure is available for nose wheel steering after gravity gear extension.
D Yes.

A

C

105
Q

105 The active F-PLN is erased when
A the pilot selects the aircraft STS page.
B the wheels touch the runway at landing.
C the aircraft is in ground for more than 30 seconds after landing.
D one engine is shut down at the parking position.

A

C

106
Q

106 The power transfer unit (PTU)
A transfers green hydraulic fluid to the yellow system and vice versa in case of a pressure difference.
B can be switched ON manually on the HYD OVHD panel.
C enables the green hydraulic system to pressurize the yellow hydraulic system and vice versa.
D is inhibited on ground.

A

C

107
Q

107 What happens to an extended spoiler if it loses electrical control?
A It stays in its last position.
B It retracts and remains retracted.
C It is pressed down partially by airloads.
D The respective spoiler on the other wing assumes the same position to prevent an asymmetry.

A

B

108
Q

108 Monitored circuit breakers have a collar in
A black.
B green.
C red.
D amber.

A

B

109
Q

109 PFD 1, ND 1 and the E/WD show a diagonal line. What do you conclude?
A AC BUS 1 failure.
B AC ESS BUS failure.
C DMC 1 failure.
D CRT failure.

A

C

110
Q

110 Data, which can be modified, are displayed on the MCDU in
A green.
B blue.
C white.
D magenta.

A

B

111
Q

111 How do you refuel the A320 from the cockpit?
A REFUEL PWR pushbutton ON. REFUEL CTL pushbutton ON.
B Refueling from the cockpit is not possible on the A320.
C REFUEL PWR pushbutton ON. Preselect blockfuel on refueling panel. REFUEL CTL pushbutton ON.
D Preselect blockfuel on MCDU INIT B page. REFUEL PWR pushbutton ON.

A

C

112
Q

112 What do you order in the pitch channel when you deflect the sidestick in NORMAL LAW?
A Attitude.
B Load factor.
C Pitch rate.
D Vertical speed.

A

B

113
Q

113 Normal law and your indicated airspeed drops below alpha protection speed.
A That is not possible in normal law.
B A/THR disengages.
C Autopilot disengages.
D Bank angle is limited to 33°.

A

C

114
Q

114 Which is the correct statement?
A The autothrust is active when one thrustlever is set between CLB and IDLE.
B The autothrust is active when the thrust levers are set to FLX or TOGA.
C The autothrust is armed when both thrust levers are set between CLB and IDLE.
D The autothrust is armed when both thrust levers are set to FLX or TOGA and becomes active when both thrust levers are set
between CLB and IDLE.

A

D

115
Q

115 Autopilot and autothrust are ON. Accidentally you select a speed far below V ALPHA MAX. What
happens?
A Autothrust disengages.
B At V ALPHA MAX the autopilot disengages.
C Autopilot stays engaged, reaching V ALPHA MAX the alpha floor protection becomes active.
D Irrespective of the selected speed, autothrust maintains VLS.

A

D

116
Q

116 How can you see that the fuel quantity indication (FQI) is in degraded mode?
A Total fuel quantity indication is boxed amber.
B Total fuel quantity indication is dashed across the last two digits on the E/WD, but it is impossible to determine the affected tank.
C Total fuel quantity indication is dashed across the last two digits on the E/WD. Call up the FUEL page on the SD to check the
affected tank.
D Fuel quantity indication of the affected tank flashes on the SD FUEL page.

A

C

117
Q

117 On the FMA you observe the indication 2FD2 in the fifth column. That means
A FMGC 1 inoperative, FD 1 ON, FD 2 ON.
B FD 1 inoperative.
C normal operation, the indication will switch to 1FD2 when FD 1 is switched ON.
D FD1 OFF.

A

A

118
Q

118 Aircraft in takeoff position. SEAT BELT and NO SMOKING signs in AUTO. When do the signs extinguish
after takeoff?
A SEAT BELT signs extinguish at gear up, NO SMOKING signs extinguish when the slats are retracted.
B The signs remain ON, until the corresponding switches are selected OFF.
C All signs remain ON, until the aircraft is in clean configuration.
D NO SMOKING signs extinguish at gear up, SEAT BELT signs extinguish when the slats are retracted.

A

D

119
Q

119 The wing tip brakes (WTB) of the right hand flap system is ON. Consequently
A the flaps are locked in the present position.
B the slats and flaps are locked in the present position.
C only the right hand flaps are locked in the present position.
D if only one WTB is ON, the flaps still drive with half speed.

A

A

120
Q

120 If the TERR pushbutton on the GPWS overhead panel is switched OFF
A EGPWS is switched OFF and the basic GPWS functions are still available.
B no more GPWS functions are available.
C no more terrain data are displayed on the NDs, EGPWS cautions and warnings are still created.
D GPWS modes 2 (excessive terrain closure rate) and 4 (unsafe terrain clearance) are not available.

A

A

121
Q

121 Aircraft on ground, the APU supplies the packs. How is the pack flow regulated?
A Depends on pack flow selector.
B To LO (ECON on A321).
C To HI.
D NORM.

A

C

122
Q

122 Which of the following statement is correct?
A Cabin doors are always opened electrically.
B Cabin door opening is always hydraulically assisted.
C Cabin door opening is always hydraulically damped.
D Normal cabin door opening is hydraulically damped, emergency cabin door opening is hydraulically assisted.

A

D

123
Q

123 Flare mode
A begins in 50 ft RA and reverts pitch to direct law.
B begins in 50 ft RA, memorizes pitch attitude and induces a nose down moment to -2° within 8 seconds.
C is active in AUTOLAND only.
D begins in 50 ft RA, memorizes pitch attitude and induces a nose down moment to -2° within 8 seconds and ROLL reverts to direct
law.

A

B

124
Q

124 How are the cabin oxygen masks being deployed?
A Automatically, when the cabin pressure altitude reaches 12000 ft or manually from the cockpit.
B Only in automatic mode with a cabin pressure altitude > 10000 ft.
C Only manual deployment from the cockpit is possible.
D Automatically, when the cabin pressure altitude reaches 14000 ft or manually from the cockpit.

A

D

125
Q

125 During ADIRS alignment with the IR mode selectors in NAV, the ALIGN lights on the ADIRS CDU flash.
A The ADIRS must be inoperative, you have to call the maintenance.
B This is normal during alignment, no action necessary.
C This is normal as long as the ADIRS have not yet received a position from the MCDU. Insert the correct position and press the
ALIGN IRS prompt on the MCDU INIT A page.
D This is a reminder, that you have to switch the IR mode selector to ATT for alignment.

A

C

126
Q

126 The engine and APU bleed valves are ON. The pneumatic system is now supplied by
A engine and APU bleed air.
B engine bleed air.
C APU bleed air.
D engine or APU bleed air, depending on which source delivers more pressure.

A

C

127
Q

127 How does the engine anti ice valve react to an electrical failure?
A The engine anti ice valve is independent of electrical supply and continues to operate according to the ENG A/I pb.
B It remains in its momentary position.
C It closes.
D It opens.

A

D

128
Q

128 Does the emergency generator depend on hydraulic?
A No.
B Yes, on the green system.
C Yes, on the yellow system.
D Yes, on the blue system.

A

D

129
Q

129 What is the meaning of the amber L/G CTL on the ECAM WHEEL page?
A Landing gear control inoperative.
B Normal landing gear operation.
C Failure of the active BSCU.
D Disagreement between landing gear and gear lever.

A

D

130
Q

130 Manual flight with climb power, autothrust OFF. After level off you forget to reduce power. What happens?
A Reaching the selected cruising altitude, the autothrust engages and takes over speed control.
B The overspeed warning activates. If you do not take corrective actions, the aircraft will leave its design envelope.
C High speed protection activates at VMO + 6 kts. Pitch increases automatically and VMO will be maintained.
D Reaching VMO, autothrust engages and takes over speed control.

A

C

131
Q

131 On the PERF TO page, you have to insert the takeoff flap setting. What is the reason for that insertion?
A The FMGC needs this input for calculation of the V speeds.
B The FMGC does not need this input for any calculation. It is just a reminder for the crew.
C The FMGC calculates the different flap retracting speeds according to the inserted flap setting.
D The FMGC calculates VLS according to the inserted flap setting.

A

B

132
Q

132 EGPWS
A is independent of CM1 QNH setting (this is valid for most of the A320family), it uses the geoaltitude from the GPS.
B is reliable only with GPS primary.
C includes man-made constructions.
D does not show up if WX radar is switched on.

A

A

133
Q

133 The ADIRU`s
A can only work, if both parts, the air data and the inertial reference part are working properly.
B can work, if the air data part is working properly, the inertial reference part may be faulty.
C can work, if the inertial reference part is working properly, the air data part may be faulty.
D are divided into the air data and the inertial reference part. Either of which can work separately in case of a failure.

A

D

134
Q

134 You are in landing configuration. The GPWS
A works normally in all 5 modes.
B does not create warnings anymore.
C creates all warnings except mode 4 (unsafe terrain clearance).
D only creates mode 5 (descent below glideslope) warnings.

A

C

135
Q

135 You switch the APU MASTER switch OFF, but the APU keeps on running. What is the reason?
A The APU does not shutdown as long as the APU BLEED pushbutton is ON. Check the APU BLEED pushbutton and try again.
B To shutdown the APU you must push out the START pushbutton.
C There must be a failure in the system, call maintenance.
D The APU keeps on running for a cooling period of maximum 120 seconds before it shuts down.

A

D

136
Q

136 On the ELEC SD page you observe that the batteries are not connected to the DC BAT bus.
A The batteries are not connected, call maintenance and have it fixed.
B There must be a fault in the battery charge limiters.
C Normal operation, when the batteries are fully charged, the battery charge limiter disconnects them.
D The batteries are switched OFF.

A

C

137
Q

137 The forward and aft cargo doors are operated
A with GREEN hydraulic.
B with BLUE hydraulic.
C with YELLOW hydraulic.
D mechanically.

A

C

138
Q

138 The PROBE / WINDOW HEAT pushbutton
A switches ON the probe and window heat in flight only.
B switches ON the probe and window heat anytime.
C switches ON the probe and window heat on ground before engine start.
D reverts the window heat from low to high power.

A

C

139
Q

139 The FMGC functions are
A flight guidance and flight envelope protection.
B flight management and flight envelope protection.
C flight management and flight guidance.
D flight envelope protection and yaw control.

A

C

140
Q

140 Is it possible to display a failure on ECAM if it is inhibited by the flight phase?
A Yes, by pressing the EMER CANC pb.
B Yes, by pressing the master caution light.
C No.
D Yes, by pressing the RCL pb.

A

D

141
Q

141 How can you obtain a normal indication after a DMC 1 failure?
A After a DMC 1 failure the captains instruments are lost.
B By switching the EIS DMC selector to CAPT 3.
C By switching the ECAM / ND selector to CAPT.
D By switching the EIS DMC selector to F/O 3.

A

B

142
Q

142 The indication on the landing gear indication panel
A is connected to the active LGCIU.
B is connected to LGCIU 1.
C is connected to LGCIU 2.
D is independent of the LGCIU`s.

A

B

143
Q

143 The abnormal attitude law
A does not exist.
B reverts to normal law after recovery.
C reverts to direct law with gear down.
D remains active after recovery with alternate law without protections in pitch and direct law in roll.

A

D

144
Q

144 On which MCDU page do you enter revised load sheet data after engine start?
A FUEL PRED.
B INIT A.
C INIT B.
D PERF.

A

A

145
Q

145 The SRS mode commands
A in normal engine configuration V2 + 10. In case of engine failure current speed or V2, whichever is greater.
B current speed or V2, whichever is greater.
C V2 + 10.
D V2.

A

A

146
Q

146 Normal braking requires
A yellow hydraulic.
B blue hydraulic.
C green hydraulic.
D green or yellow hydraulic.

A

C

147
Q

147 Can you see if a navaid is tuned manually on its display on the ND?
A No.
B Yes, the navaid identification is displayed in big fonts.
C Yes, the navaid identification is suffixed by “R”.
D Yes, the navaid identification is suffixed by “M”.

A

D

148
Q

148 How are the cargo doors operated?
A All cargo doors are hydraulically operated.
B All cargo doors are manually operated.
C Fwd and aft cargo doors are hydraulically operated, bulk cargo door (not A319) manually.
D Fwd and aft cargo doors are electrically operated, bulk cargo door (not A319) manually.

A

C

149
Q

149 ELEC DC EMER CONFIG. When the emergency generator is working, the following DC busses are
supplied
A DC BUS 1.
B DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC ESS BUS.
C DC ESS BUS.
D DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2.

A

C

150
Q

150 The ram air turbine RAT
A can pressurize the green hydraulic system up to 2500 psi.
B can pressurize the blue hydraulic system up to 2500 psi.
C can pressurize the yellow hydraulic system up to 2500 psi.
D deploys automatically in case of a loss of hydraulic pressure.

A

B

151
Q

151 FADEC is powered by
A the hot battery bus.
B an internal alternator above 15% N2.
C the engine generators.
D the battery bus.

A

B

152
Q

152 Before reaching the high pressure fuel pump, fuel is
A heated by bleed air.
B heated by engine oil.
C heated electrically.
D heated by the pressure created from the low pressure fuel pump.

A

B

153
Q

153 After engine start, you forgot to set the engine mode selector back to NORM. What is the consequence for
the ignition?
A The ignition is ON.
B The ignition is OFF on ground and ON in flight.
C The ignition is OFF.
D The ignition is ON, but only one igniter fires.

A

B

154
Q

154 In case of a HYD B ELEC PUMP LO PR warning during flight
A the ram air turbine (RAT) is automatically deployed.
B RAT operation is not possible.
C the RAT remains in its stowed position.
D the RAT must be deployed manually immediately.

A

C

155
Q

155 Alternate braking
A uses blue hydraulic.
B always uses ACCU pressure.
C may be available with anti skid.
D is active if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected OFF.

A

C

156
Q

156 After landing the ground spoilers extend
A only if the speedbrake lever is armed.
B only if at least one thrust lever is in REV.
C if you set the speedbrake lever to FULL.
D even if the speedbrake lever is not armed, provided at least one thrust lever is in REV and the other at or near idle.

A

D

157
Q

157 An ENG FIRE PB is pushed. Is it still possible to operate the pack of the burning engine?
A Yes, with crossbleed AUTO and APU BLEED ON.
B Yes, with crossbleed OPEN and APU BLEED ON.
C Yes, if you set the crossbleed selector to OPEN.
D No, the fire pb closes the pack flow control valve, the pack is inoperative as long as the fire pb is pushed.

A

D

158
Q

158 For an engine fire warning it is necessary that
A one FIRE LOOP detects a fire.
B both FIRE LOOPS detect a fire within 5 seconds.
C both FIRE LOOPS detect a fire.
D FIRE LOOP A detects a fire, fire LOOP B is the standby LOOP in case of LOOP A failures.

A

C

159
Q

159 How can you display a cancelled caution on the E/WD?
A By pushing the EMER CANC pushbutton again.
B By pushing the CLR pushbutton.
C By pushing the STS pushbutton for more than three seconds.
D By pushing the RCL pushbutton for more than three seconds.

A

D

160
Q

160 After engine start, the message NW STRG DISC appears on the ECAM MEMO. What does it indicate?
A A/SKID&NWS is switched OFF.
B There is a failure in the active BSCU.
C The steering pin is still in the towing position.
D The nose wheel steering is inoperative.

A

C

161
Q

161 NAV IR 1 FAULT, IR 1 mode selector switched to ATT. Is there a valid heading output from IR 1?
A Yes, the variation is stored.
B No, but you can enter the exact magnetic heading to restore heading information.
C Yes, the heading is provided by the flux valve.
D No, the heading information and display is lost.

A

B

162
Q

162 Accidentally, you have disconnected IDG1. Is there any possibility to reconnect IDG1?
A No.
B Yes, just push in the IDG1 pushbutton.
C Yes, generator 1 must be switched OFF before the reconnect.
D Yes, engine 1 must be stopped before the reconnect and this will be done by maintenance staff.

A

D

163
Q

163 The groundspeed mini function
A is always active.
B is active with speed managed only.
C is active with speed selected only.
D is active with both FD`s ON only.

A

B

164
Q

164 Cranking may be manually selected by setting
A the engine mode selector to CRANK and the engine master switch to ON.
B the engine master switch to OFF, the engine mode selector to CRANK, and the engine manual start pushbutton to ON.
C the engine master switch to ON, the engine mode selector to CRANK, and the engine manual start pushbutton to ON.
D just the engine mode selector to CRANK.

A

B

165
Q

165 If you press the A/THR instinctive disconnect pushbutton for more than 15 seconds, which statement is
not true?
A A/THR system is permanently disconnected for the remaining flighttime.
B Alpha floor function is lost.
C A/THR system is permanently disconnected, but resetting is possible by pressing the pushbutton again.
D Recovery is possible only on ground.

A

C

166
Q

166 What is the meaning of the amber FAULT light at the engine master switch?
A There is an automatic start abort or a disagreement between the HP fuel valve and its commanded position.
B There is a failure in the cockpit/ground communication.
C You have accidentally started the engines in the wrong sequence.
D You forgot to say:”Engine number 2/1 start.”

A

A

167
Q

167 Is the nose wheel steering available after gravity gear extension? (-AIBA to -AIBE / -AISH to -AIZJ)
A Only, if the gear lever is selected DOWN.
B Only below 100 kts.
C No. No hydraulic pressure is available for nose wheel steering after gravity gear extension.
D Yes, because nose wheel steering uses yellow hydraulic.

A

D

168
Q

168 What does a triple click mean during an autopilot approach?
A A level 3 warning.
B A primary failure has occurred.
C Flaps 3 are set and the gear is not down.
D Landing capability downgrading.

A

D

169
Q

169 Go around during an LVO approach, both autopilots were engaged.
A AP 1 disengages upon initiating the go around.
B Both autopilots stay engaged, you have to disengage one autopilot manually.
C AP 2 disengages when the go around mode (SRS / GA TRK) is disengaged on any axis.
D A go around with both autopilots engaged is not possible.

A

C

170
Q

170 When does the APU intake flap open?
A Only on ground.
B Only in flight.
C In hot and humid conditions.
D Anytime the APU master switch is ON.

A

D

171
Q

171 The alpha lock function
A retracts flaps from CONF 1 to CONF 0 if speed reaches VFE.
B retracts slats from CONF 1 to CONF 0 if speed reaches VFE.
C inhibits slat retraction from CONF 1 to CONF 0 in case of low speed or high AOA.
D inhibits flap retraction from CONF 1 to CONF 0 in case of low speed or high AOA.

A

C

172
Q

172 The audio switching selector is set to F/O 3.
A CM 2 may use his headset and ACP.
B CM 2 may use his headset, new frequencies must be tuned with RMP 3.
C CM 2 has to use the observer headset.
D CM 2 may use his headset and ACP 3.

A

D

173
Q

173 LAND mode can be left
A with TOGA only.
B with manual flight (raw data / FD stays in GS/LOC) or TOGA only.
C with manual flight only.
D with any lateral revision on the FCU.

A

B

174
Q

174 When no EPR information is available, the IAE V2500 engine (A321)
A flames out.
B is degraded to N1 mode.
C is limited to IDLE power after flap retraction.
D cannot be controlled anymore and must be shutdown by the pilots.

A

B

175
Q

175 You forgot to insert the FLEX value on the MCDU PERF TO page. When the thrust levers are set to FLX /
MCT during takeoff, the engines produce
A CLB power.
B a power between CLB and TOGA, depending on the exact thrust lever position.
C MCT power.
D TOGA power.

A

C

176
Q

176 During an LVO approach your status indicates “CAT 3 DUAL” as inoperative system. In this case
A autoland is only allowed if both autopilots are still operative.
B autoland is not allowed, you have to discontinue the approach.
C autoland is allowed, but you have to disengage one of the autopilots.
D autoland is allowed with both autopilots engaged, but you have to refer to the respective CAT 3 SINGLE minimum.

A

D

177
Q

177 Alternate law with reduced protections. Bank angle protection
A is still available like in normal law.
B is replaced by a positive spiral stability for bank angles above 45°.
C is replaced by a positive spiral stability for bank angles above 33°.
D is lost in alternate law.

A

D

178
Q

178 Engine start. You turn the engine mode selector to IGN START and the pack valves close.
A The engine will not start up if the pack valves are in closed position. Call maintenance.
B The pack valves close for engine start and do not reopen until both engines are running.
C The pack valves close for engine start. They reopen 30 seconds after the first engine is started, if the second engine is not started
within these 30 seconds.
D The pack valves close and reopen only, when the engine mode selector is set to NORM.

A

C

179
Q

179 If one autopilot is engaged, which FMGC will be master?
A Always FMGC 1.
B Always FMGC 2.
C The related FMGC.
D The master FMGC switches every flight.

A

C

180
Q

180 After having used the oxygen mask you wish to deenergize the mask microphone. What must you do?
A Stow mask in a safe area outside the stowage box and press RESET on the ACP while pressing the INT/RAD switch to INT.
B Close left hand flap of the stowage container, press the RESET control slider or stow mask properly.
C Press NORMAL / 100% selector into 100% position and quick disconnect coupling of mask mike cable.
D Nothing has to be done. Just put the oxygen mask off and the headset on again.

A

B

181
Q

181 Integrated drive generator (IDG) oil is
A cooled by engine oil.
B cooled by fuel.
C cooled by RAM air.
D not cooled.

A

B

182
Q

182 Which of these conditions must be fulfilled before the SEC F-PLN can be activated?
A You must be in managed guidance.
B You must be in selected guidance.
C On principle you must be in selected guidance, however it is possible in managed guidance as long as both F-PLN`s have a
common active leg.
D The active F-PLN must be deleted.

A

C

183
Q

183 Radio altitude is indicated on the PFD up to maximum value of
A 1000 ft.
B 2500 ft.
C 5000 ft.
D 9300 ft.

A

B

184
Q

184 Fuel dumping
A is possible only for the wing tanks.
B is possible only for the center tank.
C is not possible.
D is possible only with wing tank pumps ON.

A

C

185
Q

185 Autothrust does not disengage
A when both thrust levers are set to idle.
B by pressing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU.
C when the aural “RETARD” warning is announced.
D by pressing the instinctive disconnect pushbutton.

A

C

186
Q

186 The REC MAX altitude is
A displayed on the PERF page and cannot be exceeded.
B displayed on the PROG page.
C displayed on the PERF page.
D displayed on the PERF APP page only.

A

B

187
Q

187 The regulator at your cockpit oxygen mask is set to NORM. The mask now supplies
A 100% oxygen under overpressure.
B 100% oxygen from a chemical oxygen generator.
C 100% oxygen from an oxygen bottle in the lower fuselage.
D a mixture of cabin air and oxygen up to cabin altitude of 35000 ft.

A

D

Ground course (1 decks)

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