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GROL > GROL Licensing > Flashcards

GROL Licensing Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for the out of phase power associated with inductors and capacitors?

A

Reactive Power

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2
Q

The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as:

A

Reluctance

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3
Q

What is the relative dielectric constant for air?

A

1

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4
Q

How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel?

A

Ct = C1 + C2 + C3

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5
Q

How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

A

An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance.

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6
Q

By what factor must the voltage measured in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value?

A

0.9

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7
Q

What is a sine wave?

A

A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by the projection of a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed.

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8
Q

Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will:

A

Double the resistance.

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9
Q

Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect?

A

I = R/E

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10
Q

What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20-watt, 2000-ohm resistor?

A

200 volts

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11
Q

Wat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +- 1.0 ppm?

A

156.52 Hz

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12
Q

What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

A

120 volts AC

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13
Q

746 watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower?

A

One Horsepower

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14
Q

What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RC circuit”? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to:

A

23.7% of the supply voltage.

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15
Q

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series?

A

220 seconds

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16
Q

In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz?

A

200 + j188

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17
Q

What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates

A

2490 ohms, / -51.5 degrees

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18
Q

Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage?

A

250 volts

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19
Q

What is the photoconductive effect?

A

The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction

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20
Q

In figure 3C5 , what capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor?

A

3

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21
Q

What is the ratio of he output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier?

A

2:1

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22
Q

A switching electronic voltage regulator:

A

Switches the control device on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions

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23
Q

What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?

A

TRIAC

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24
Q

What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?

A

Varactor diode

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25
Q

What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?

A

Base, collector, and emitter

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26
Q

An emitter-follower amplifier has:

A

More current gain than common emitter or common base.

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27
Q

What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED?

A

Series resistor

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28
Q

What is the piezoelectric effect?

A

Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage.

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29
Q

What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?

A

Approximately equal to the circuit resistance.

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30
Q

What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit?

A

It has input and output signals 180 degrees out of phase.

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31
Q

What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer?

A

Broadband noise.

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32
Q

In figure 3D10 witha square wave input what would be the output?

A

3

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33
Q

What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts?

A

Zero to 0.8 volts

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34
Q

What is a characteristic of a NAND gate?

A

Produces a logic “0” at its output only when all inputs are logic “1”

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35
Q

In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?

A

High level

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36
Q

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

A

2

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37
Q

What is a biostable multivibrator circuit commonly named?

A

flip-flop

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38
Q

What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix?

A

DRAM - Dynamic Random-Access Memory

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39
Q

In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a “watchdog” timer:

A

Verifies that the microprocessor is executing the program.

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40
Q

What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals?

A

DAC

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41
Q

What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver?

A

The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver.

42
Q

What is the advantage of a GaAsFET preamplifier in a modern VHF radio receiver?

A

High gain and low noise floor

43
Q

What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer?

A

VCO

44
Q

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

A

The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies.

45
Q

How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?

A

Slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth

46
Q

What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver?

A

Gain.

47
Q

What is an m-derived filter?

A

A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter.

48
Q

In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the:

A

Discriminator but before the audio section.

49
Q

What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work?

A

Digital Codes.

50
Q

Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by:

A

Installing resistances in series with spark plug wires.

51
Q

What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff?

A

Class C

52
Q

The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle?

A

180 degrees.

53
Q

What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

A

3

54
Q

What is a pi-network?

A

A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor.

55
Q

What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor?

A

100 watts

56
Q

What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence?

A

Spread-spectrum communication

57
Q

What is the deviation ratio for an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?

A

1.66

58
Q

What type of signals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test?

A

Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation band pass of the transmitter.

59
Q

What is an important factor in pulse-code modulation using time-division multiplex?

A

Synchronization of transmit and receive clock pulse rates.

60
Q

What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50-watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A.

A

177 ampere-hours

61
Q

What current will flow in a 6-volt storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected?

A

0.4995 amps

62
Q

What is the line current of a 7-horsepower motor operating on 120 volts at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficient?

A

57.2 amps

63
Q

What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth?

A

The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well.

64
Q

An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5-watt, what attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occurred?

A

30 db

65
Q

A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals:

A

Equally from all horizontal directions.

66
Q

Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to:

A

Prevent moisture from entering the line.

67
Q

What is the effective radiated power of repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain.

A

126 watts.

68
Q

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as:

A

The slant ranges.

69
Q

Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are:

A

Radials

70
Q

What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport?

A

108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz.

71
Q

What type of encoding is used in an aircrafts mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)?

A

Pulse position modulation.

72
Q

What type of antenna is attached to an aircrafts Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)?

A

An L-band monopole blade-type omnidirectional antenna.

73
Q

What is the function of a commercial aircrafts SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications ______.

A

System where a ground-based transmitter can call a selected aircraft or group of aircraft without the flight crew monitoring the ground-station frequency.

74
Q

What is the purpose of a shunt resistor with an ammeter?

A

It is used to increase the ampere indicating range of the ammeter.

75
Q

Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians?

A

Rubidium Standard

76
Q

How does a spectrum analyzer differ from conventional oscilloscope?

A

The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain.

77
Q

What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?

A

Frequency

78
Q

What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operation of a normal wideband channel on VHF and UHF?

A

5.0 kHz

79
Q

Which of the following is preferred method of cleaning solder from a plated-through circuit-board holes?

A

Use a vacuum device.

80
Q

What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed?

A

Just inside the bubble on a level.

81
Q

The tachometer of a buildings elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential “fix” for the problems?

A

Add a .01 uF capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads.

82
Q

A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially?

A

Separate time slots.

83
Q

The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The ______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow.

A

Link Layer

84
Q

What is a SDR?

A

Software Defined Radio.

85
Q

Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is:

A

+/- 5 kHz

86
Q

What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay?

A

GTO - 15 high-voltage cable.

87
Q

Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true?

A

Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon.

88
Q

What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content?

A

The subject indicator matches that programmed for rejection by the operator.

89
Q

How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA data line?

A

Terminated to ground at the talker and unterminated at the listener.

90
Q

What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates?

A

500 - 2000 pops.

91
Q

What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver?

A

Transmits the angular position of the antenna to the indicator unit.

92
Q

When a RADAR is being operated on the 6-mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate?

A

0.25 PW and 1000 pops

93
Q

To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use:

A

A thin piece of wire as an antenna.

94
Q

Prior to testing an y RADAR system, the operator should first:

A

Assure no personnel are in front of the antenna.

95
Q

What services are provided by the Iridium system?

A

Digital voice and Data at 2.4 kbps.

96
Q

Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite System?

A

AOR-E at 15.5 W, AOR-W at 54 W, POR at 178 E, and IOR at 64.5 E.

97
Q

What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system?

A

It is a store-and-forward system that provides routine and distress communications.

98
Q

How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time?

A

4

99
Q

Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than ____% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure.

A

5

100
Q

What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building?

A

Lighting will jump off of the ground lead because it is not able to make sharp bends.

GROL (2 decks)

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