Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BACTERIOLOGY > GRAM POSITIVE COCCI > Flashcards

GRAM POSITIVE COCCI Flashcards

1
Q

It is a spherical, non-motile grape like cluster gram positive cocci

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

They are non-encapsulated and nonspore former gram positive cocci

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Staphylococcus that cannot ferment glucose (Glucose non-fermenters)

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

“BUNCHES OF GRAPES”

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

It appears creamy, white, or rarely light gold in Mannitol Salt Agar

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

It is a test to differentiate gram positive cocci (Streptococci and Staphylococci)

A

Catalase Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Obligate anaerobe Staphylococcus

A

Staphylococcus saccharolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reaction to Catalase

A

3% H202

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A gram positive cocci that is catalase positive and coagulase negative

A

Micrococcus luteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The colony of Micrococcus appears in what color?

A

Distinct yellow pigmented colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Habitat of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Anterior Nares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give the 3 Clinically important species of Staphylococci

A

S. aureus
S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A modified catalase contains what?

A

Mild Detergent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar colony appears in what color?

A

Yellow/Golden Yellow pigments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Mode of Transmission of Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Traumatic introduction/entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

“Oil Paint appearance”

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

“lemon yellow pigment”

A

Staphylococcus citreus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

“porcelain white pigment”

A

Staphylococcus albus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

“porcelain white pigment”

A

Staphylococcus albus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the color of the colony in K tellurite medium?

A

Jet Black Colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Staphylococcus specie that is human pathogen

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Staphylococcus species that is Animal pathogen

A

(DISH)
S. delphini
S. intermedius
S. schleiferi
S. hyicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Staphylococcus that can be acquired in hospital infections

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Staphylococcus that can cause UTIs in young sexually active females

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is NOSOCOMIAL. What do you mean by Nosocomial?

A

Hospitally acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

It is a dangerous Staphylococcus specie

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Staphylococcus Species that are coagulase positive

A

(DISH)
S. delphini
S. intermedius
S. schleiferi
S. hyicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It produces beta hemolytic (complete hemolysis)

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Beta hemolytic on Blood Agar Plate

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sulfide Indole Motility (SIM) Test appears what in what color if motile?

A

Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A gram positive cocci that is catalase positive and coagulase positive

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Singly, in pairs, & in cluster

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Staphylococcus that is pus formers

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Coagulase is a _____________ factor

A

Clotting factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hyaluronidase is a ____________ factor

A

Spreading factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an enzyme that breaks down fats & oil?

A

Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hemolysin that destroys the platelets and tissues

A

a hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Heat-stable exotoxins that cause diarrhea and vomiting (Food Poisoning)

A

Enterotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Resistant to gastric acid and associated with food poisoning

A

Toxins A-E and G-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

It causes toxic shock syndrome

A

TSST-1 (Toxin F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus that are superantigens

A

TSST-1 and B, C, G, and I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

It causes sloughing off of the skin and is known to cause Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSS) or Ritter’s Disease

A

Exfoliative toxin (epidermolytic toxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

It is also associated with bullous impetigo

A

Exfoliative toxin (epidermolytic toxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Kills polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

Leukocidins (Panton-Valentine leukocidin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

It helps prevent phagocytosis

A

Leukocidins (Panton-Valentine leukocidin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

It is the ingestion of bacteria

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hemolysin that acts on the sphingomyelin of RBC membranes causing lysis

A

B hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hemolysin that causes injury to cells and leukocytes but is less lethal

A

ō hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

It can also break down sebaceous glands

A

Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

It blocks phagocytes

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Types of Hemolysin in Blood Agar: partial/narrow zone

A

Alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Types of Hemolysin in Blood Agar: complete

A

Beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Types of Hemolysin in Blood Agar: non-hemolytic

A

Gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Types of Hemolysin in Blood Agar: wide/double zone

A

A prime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

This bacteria that can be seen in blood agar have only one double zone hemolysin

A

Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Infection of the hair follicle

A

Folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

REDNESS and this can be spread by direct contact and fomites which is highly contagious

A

Bullous impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

It is more likely to occur in renal failure patients

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This syndrome is associated with super absorbent tampons

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This occurs during menstruation and may cause infertility

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

61
Q

The creatinine of the patient with this syndrome may increase because of rapid dehydration

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

62
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome may also cause Rapid Septicemia. What is Rapid Septicemia?

A

Blood Poisoning

63
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is heat stable and can live in high temperature.

TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

64
Q

It contaminates rich foods like potato, salad, or mayonnaise; inadequate refrigeration

A

Enterotoxins A-D (A and D most common)

65
Q

This bacteria can be obtained by unhygienic preparation of foods

A

Staphylococcus aureus

66
Q

It has slime layers and produces biofilms

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

67
Q

Staphylococcus that is coagulase negative and novobiocin sensitive

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

68
Q

It is the resident flora of the skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

69
Q

It can adhere or attach itself to catheter, injection etc. (so it cause UTI)

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

70
Q

Low amounts in urine cultures but still very significant

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

71
Q

Staphylococcus that is present in the lining of the urogenital tract

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

72
Q

It is the second most common coagulase negative staphylococcus

A

Staphylococcus haemolyticus

73
Q

Staphylococcus that is resistant to vancomycin

A

Staphylococcus haemolyticus

74
Q

Staphylococcus that is coagulation negative and novobiocin resistant

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

75
Q

Gram Positive cocci grows easily on what agar?

A

Blood Agar plate (BAP)

76
Q

What media is used to identify Staphylococcus if heavily contaminated?

A

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) and Columbia colistin-nalidixic acid agar (CNA)

77
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) appears what color if POSITIVE?

A

Golden Yellow

78
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) appears what color if NEGATIVE?

A

Phenol red/pink

79
Q

pH indicator of Staphylococcus spp. on Gram Stain

A

Phenol red

80
Q

What is BBL CHROMagar?

A

It is used to identify Staphylococcus especially Staphylococcus aures

81
Q

Staphylococcus aureus can tolerate how many percent of NaCl?

A

10% NaCl

82
Q

They are ‘pinpoint colonies’ and beta hemolytic

A

Streptococcus

83
Q

CATALASE TEST: what happens if you drop H202 onto smear and its bubbling?

A

POSITIVE (most bacteria, O2 generated)

84
Q

CATALASE TEST: what happens if you drop H202 onto smear and there is no bubbling?

A

NEGATIVE (Streptococci and other lactic acid bacteria, no O2 generated)

85
Q

Principle: tests for enzyme catalase

A

2H202 ———–> 2H20 + O2

86
Q

This test uses hydrogen peroxide

A

Catalase Test

87
Q

Catalase Test is positive for what Staphylococcus specie?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

88
Q

Catalase Test is negative for what gram positive cocci?

A

Streptococcus species

89
Q

Positive results for Catalase Test mean there is no rapid effervescence of gas.

TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE
(there is rapid effervescence of gas)

90
Q

If clumping is positive, a tube test should be performed.

TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE
(negative)

91
Q

What method demonstrate free coagulase

A

Tube method

92
Q

What method demonstrate bound coagulase?

A

Slide method

93
Q

What method demonstrate bound coagulase?

A

Slide method

94
Q

COAGULASE TEST: reading within how many hours prevents false negative results?

A

4 hours

95
Q

COAGULASE TEST: reading within how many hours prevents false positive results?

A

20 hours

96
Q

In slide method, if clump is positive, bound coagulase

TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

97
Q

In slide method, if clump is positive, bound coagulase

TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

98
Q

In separating Micrococcus, what disk test should be done?

A

Bacitracin disk test

99
Q

In separating Micrococcus, what disk test should be done?

A

Bacitracin disk test

100
Q

BACITRACIN DISK TEST: Micrococcus

SUSCEPTIBLE or RESISTANT

A

Susceptible

101
Q

BACITRACIN DISK TEST: Coagulase negative Staphylococci

SUSCEPTIBLE or RESISTANT

A

Resistant

102
Q

It is to detect MRSA (Methicillin-resistant S. aureus) and MRSE (Methicillin-resistant S. epidermidis)

A

mecA gene

103
Q

It encodes penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)

A

mecA gene

104
Q

It is a mecA gene that is detected by PCR

A

Gold Standard

105
Q

What disks should be use in Double-zone Test?

A

Erythromycin and Clindamycin disks

106
Q

This test uses two antibiotics

A

Double-zone Test

107
Q

D zone test: Erythromycin

RESISTANT or SUSCEPTIBLE

A

RESISTANT

108
Q

D zone test: Clindamycin

RESISTANT or SUSCEPTIBLE

A

SUSCEPTIBLE

109
Q

Gram-positive cocci that is Catalase negative

A

Streptococci and Enterococci

110
Q

Streptococcus that is in need of oxygen and flesh eating bacteria

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

111
Q

Cell wall structure of Streptococcus spp.

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer

112
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF STREPTOCOCCI: Growth in temperature

A

Academic

113
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF STREPTOCOCCI: can grow 37 degrees celcius

A

Bergey’s

114
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF STREPTOCOCCI: based on hemolysis in blood agar plate

A

Smith and Brown

115
Q

The bacteria can’t grow and antibiotic is effective against bacteria

A

Susceptible

116
Q

The bacteria can grow meaning the antibiotic is ineffective

A

Resistant

117
Q

• PARTIAL lysis of RBCs around colony
• GREENISH discoloration of area around colony

A

Alpha Hemolysis

118
Q

• COMPLETE lysis of RBCs around colony
• CLEAR are around colony

A

Beta hemolysis

119
Q

• NO lysis of RBCs around colony
• NO CHANGE in agar

A

Non-hemolytic

120
Q

• SMALL AREA of intact RBCs around colony
• surrounded by a WIDER ZONE of complete hemolysis

A

Alpha-prime or wide zone

121
Q

REBECCA LANCEFIELD CLASSIFICATION: The Viridans group has no classification since they lacked M protein

TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

122
Q

In what year Rebecca Lancefield developed Lancefield Classification technique?

A

1930s

123
Q

REBECCA LANCEFIELD CLASSIFICATION: How many minutes should we place Streptococci into a dilute acid solution?

A

10 Minutes

124
Q

A gram positive cocci that is facultative anaerobe (oxygen is accessory)

A

Streptococci

125
Q

A gram positive cocci that depends on oxygen for survival

A

Staphylococcus

126
Q

A Gram Positive cocci that its majority are in chains

A

Streptococci

127
Q

It is essential for virulence and has antiphagocytic factor

A

M Protein

128
Q

The patient has pink/strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet Fever

129
Q

A test to determine susceptibility or immunity to scarlet fever by an injection of scarlet fever toxin

test arm - toxin
control arm - toxoid

A

Dick’s Test

130
Q

It determines whether the rashes is due to scarlet fever or not

A

Schultz-Charlton phenomenon

131
Q

Scarlet Fever: Injection of anti-erythrogenic toxin

A

Blanching phenomenon

132
Q

Streptococcus Pyogenes belongs to what Group _?

A

Group A

133
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae belongs to what Group _?

A

Group B

134
Q

It is the normal flora of the female genital tract

A

Group B (Streptococcus agalactiae)

135
Q

It appears to be important factor of Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B) in inhibiting alternative pathway of complement

A. Capsule
B. Hemolysin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Sialic Acid
E. None of the above

A

D. Sialic Acid

136
Q

It prevents the phagocytosis of Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

A

Capsule

137
Q

It is a protein secreted by Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

A

CAMP Factor

138
Q

The normal microbiota of oral cavity

A

Viridans

139
Q

A gram positive cocci, catalase-negative, and has irregular coccoid morphology

A

Leuconostoc bacteria

140
Q

They are mostly alpha hemolytic and mostly penicillin susceptible

A. Leuconostoc
B. Viridans
C. Aerococcus
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. None of the above

A

B. Viridans

141
Q

Abiotrophia & Granulicatella bacteria can grow with other bacteria and can form what colonies?

A

Satellite Colonies

142
Q

This bacteria invades Lobar (lungs)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

143
Q

A gram positive diplococci on blood agar plate, intracellular obligate, capsulated, and alpha hemolytic

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

144
Q

Flesh eating Streptococcus bacteria and its infection is from Upper to Lower extremities

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

145
Q

Erythrogenic toxin and Erysipelas can cause _______ into skin.

A

Redness

146
Q

Redness/Blackening in the lower extremities of a diabetic patient; high glucose

A

Cellulitis

147
Q

What fever can tonsillitis cause if left untreated?

A

Rheumatic fever

148
Q

This Group is mostly zoonotic

A

Group C & G

149
Q

Group D (non entero and enterococci)

  1. bovis - ______________
  2. equinis - _______________
A
  1. bovis - cattle
  2. equinis - horse

BACTERIOLOGY (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions