Grade 4 Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A missile that fires but fails to depart the aircraft is considered a what?
A

A hangfire

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2
Q
  1. A missile that fails to fire when all appropriate switches were selected is considered what?
A

A misfire

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3
Q
  1. What will occur if MX engages the hooks on the BRU-15?
A

The aircraft and the SMS will think there is a weapon loaded on that station

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4
Q
  1. Once a missile has been powered off, software prevents it being powered On again within
    _____ Secs.
A

70 seconds

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5
Q
  1. During LL operations, while performing selective jettison, the ASMS will automatically default to SAFE, all jettison parameters will remain, and the Master Arm Switch will indicate armed. What will need to occur upon link reestablishment with the aircraft?
A

Safe and re-arm weapon system and perform the Selective Jettison checklist from the beginning

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6
Q
  1. In the event the aircraft loses command link/uplink and enters a lost link profile, the laser (LRD or LTM) is automatically set to _______ and __________.
A

Off and Disarmed

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7
Q
  1. In the event of Lost Link during an attack run, the aircraft Master Arm will automatically default to _______ ?
A

Safe

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8
Q
  1. Can you arm the weapons with only a Command Link?
A

Yes

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9
Q
  1. What does SSIU stand for, where is it located, and what does it do?
A

Store Station Interface Unit: mounted in each wing pylon. Controls and monitors power and discretes for weapons and bomb rack at each station

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10
Q
  1. When the LRD is turned on it typically draws (nominal current use) ___ amps ; the same as the AN/DAS-1A turret heater.
A

15 amps

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11
Q
  1. The M905 is ______ fuzed with the GBU -12. To ensure safe separation from the aircraft, the time to arm can be set over a range of seconds. A governor on the _________ prevents its turnings faster than 30 revolutions per second (rps).
A

Tail, anemometer

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12
Q
  1. The M905 can be preset for ‘Functioning Time’ – this provides penetrating capability (milliseconds) by delaying ignition after impact.
A

TRUE

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13
Q
  1. The BRU-15 bomb rack is not to be exposed to temperatures below ______ or ________.
A

-56 Celsius / -69 Fahrenheit

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14
Q
  1. Do not expose an AGM-114P missile when OAT is colder than ____ deg C.
A

-45 degrees C

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15
Q
  1. The primary delivery mode for GBU-12 is _______?
A

CCRP (Continuously Computed Release Point)

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16
Q
  1. For optimum lethality, the correct combination of altitude above target, launch mode, offset angle, and range must be referenced to get desired results. The impact angle will be affected by the _______________________.
A

Launch mode (LOAL-D/H/L) and HAT

17
Q
  1. Which launch mode is ideal for use against a building entrance requiring a horizontal attack?
A

LOAL-L

18
Q
  1. Which launch mode results in a more vertical attack, an option which yields an optimal orientation for a fragmentation sleeve?
A

LOAL-H

19
Q
  1. The AGM-114M warhead: employs a blast frag warhead that contains a ________ _________ for target penetration
A

Fuze delay

20
Q
  1. The AGM-114 requires an acceleration of ___Gs for _____ seconds to arm.
A

10, 1.3

21
Q
  1. Weapons delivery is controlled by the _____ in the GCS and the ______ in the RPA?
A

GSMS

22
Q
  1. An AGM-114P attack will be invalid if it is launched below _______ or above _____ HAT?
A

5k, 25k

23
Q
  1. An AGM-114P attack between 22K HAT and 25K HAT will be ______?
A

Un-assessable

24
Q
  1. What is the difference between the AGM114 variants and when would you use them? And when can you tell when it is sleeved?
A

?

25
Q
  1. Pressing the Emergency Jettison Button will jettison all applicable stores in _____ millisecond intervals?
A

800-900

26
Q
  1. Everything in the SMS should be green for GBU runs, but for the Hellfire what two items may be yellow and still allow the crew to launch?
A

PRF Code and OAT <-IDK, I’d have to look it up in the -34.

27
Q
  1. Can the sensor guide selective jettison and emergency jettison bombs?
A

Yes

28
Q
  1. Due to electrical power limitations, whenever the LRD or the LTM is armed, software overrides the ____________ and the _______________ and prevents the turret heater from being On.
A

turret thermostat, Heater Override function

29
Q
  1. The LRE has a designated HUNG AREA called the
A

TACAN Range near Kandahar

30
Q
  1. When would you ripple fire?
A

separate DPIs with a similar TOI. One A/C launches both and lazes the first missile; a second a/c lazes in the second. Or some HVI that we want to be sure is D.E.A.D, Dead. Or a large group that one missile isn’t enough for.

31
Q
  1. Yellow on the HUD means a discrepancy between the
A

ASMS and GSMS <-just means that there is some degradation that ‘precludes normal launch’. Ref. -34 Pg. 1-4 para. 1.3.1.2.2.2

32
Q
  1. What happens to the SPMA in encrypted mode when it goes lost link? Has it happened, what do you see?
A

<-I can say it hasn’t happened to the 42d, but cant speak for anybody else. As long as command link is not disabled then it doesn’t matter if the aircraft goes lost link, it’s when you disable command link that the encryption gets out of sync causing us to not be able to gain the a/c back.

33
Q
  1. After a misfire, the UAV should loiter in the air if outside temperature on the ground is above ____
A

95 degrees F

34
Q
  1. When will a valid abort be called?
A

If any crewmember or clearance approval authority calls “abort”, if SO cannot get a track prior to 15” TTR AND no “no track engagement” called, If unable to Rifle prior to 500m GR above min, AGM 114 If delaying rifle for SO to gain track will jeopardize TGT PID during TOF or mitigate weapons effects