GPO Final Flashcards by Maikely Pina

In the flash vaporization process, condensate from the HP flash drum is sent to the:

1) MP flash tank
2) Rich solution flash tank
3) Incinerator as fuel
4) Condensate storage tank

1) MP flash tank

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Stabilization by fractionation is a single tower process because:

1) The finished product from the bottom is composed mainly of butane.
2) Only one specification product is required.
3) Precise production of liquid of suitable vapour pressure is not necessary in the process.
4) Two specification products are required.

2) Only one specification product is required.

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Condensate stabilizers are effective at:

1) Removing C1, C2 and C3 and H2S and CO2
2) Fractionization of C3 and C4
3) Fractionization of natural gasoline
4) All of the abov

1) Removing C1, C2 and C3 and H2S and CO2

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Natural gasoline is in demand in the aviation field because:

1) Of the high propane content of the product
2) Of the lean absorption oil content of the product
3) Of the high vapour pressure of the product
4) Of the excellent octane characteristics of the product

4) Of the excellent octane characteristics of the product

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Stabilization by fractionation makes a cut between the lightest liquid component and:

1) Pentane
2) Butane
3) Methane
4) Propane

2) Butane

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Stabilization by fractionation is a single tower process since only one specification product is required.

1) True
2) False

1) True

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In the flash vaporization process, vapour from the condensate stripper is sent to the:

1) Condensate storage tank
2) Rich solution flash tank
3) Incinerator
4) LP flash tank

3) Incinerator

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Stabilization by fractionation makes a cut between the heaviest gas and:

1) Pentane
2) Ethane
3) Propane
4) Butane

1) Pentane

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The removal of the methane, ethane, and propane from the stream and the reduction of butane content:

1) Increases the production of sales gas
2) Raises the condensate vapour pressure and lowers evaporation
losses
3) Decreases the production of sales gas
4) Lowers the condensate vapour pressure but increases evaporation losses

1) Increases the production of sales gas

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Condensate stabilizers produce a product often referred to as:

1) Crude oil
2) Motor fuel
3) Natural gasoline
4) Natural gas liquids

3) Natural gasoline

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In natural gasoline, the maximum allowable butane content, without a penalty, is usually:

1) 15% by volume
2) 0.5% by volume
3) 1.5% by volume
4) 1.75% by volum

3) 1.5% by volume

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To ensure that the vapour pressure can be adjusted to the product customers desired level, gas plant finished gasoline contains small amounts of:

1) Methane
2) Octane
3) Propane
4) Butane

4) Butane

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Equilibrium vaporization occurs when the vapour and liquid phases are in equilibrium at the:

1) Inlet of the fractionation tower
2) Initial temperature and pressure of separation
3) Highest point on the Reid Vapour Pressure scale
4) Final temperature and pressure of separation

4) Final temperature and pressure of separation

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Condensate stabilization through the Flash Vaporization process is most likely to produce which product?

1) Butane and pentane
2) Butane and septane
3) Methane and ethane
4) Ethane and octane

3) Methane and ethane

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What end-use or feed for flash gases is produced in the incinerator fuel stage:

1) H.P Condensate Flash Drum
2) M.P. Condensate Flash Drum
3) L.P. Condensate Flash Tank
4) Condensate Stripper

4) Condensate Stripper

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The Natural Gas Processors Association has established 24 different grades of gasoline based on the:

1) Volatility and Composition of the product
2) Volatility and Reid Vapour Pressure of the product
3) Composition and Reid Vapour Pressure of the product
4) None of the above

2) Volatility and Reid Vapour Pressure of the product

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Flash drums are employed in an inlet separation system to:

1) Eliminate the possibility of hydrate blockings.
2) Obtain the release of vapour contents from the hydrocarbon liquids.
3) Recover all liquids, regardless of the operating conditions in the separator itself.
4) Capture and recycle the vapour contents from the hydrocarbon liquids.

2) Obtain the release of vapour contents from the hydrocarbon liquids.

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A liquid slug at the inlet separator has activated the high level alarm in the control centre. This is also likely to result in:

1) Liquid carry-over into the amine unit.
2) Activation of the raw gas inlet ESD valve.
3) Foaming in the separator.
4) Icing across the dump valve.

2) Activation of the raw gas inlet ESD valve.

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The production from the well, brought into the plant at fairly high rate, is passed to the flare through the separator and later is diverted to the plant, warming up the lines. However, prolonged flaring may cause:

1) The flare lines to freeze with hydrates or plug off.
2) The drain valves to back up.
3) Slugging in the separator vessel.
4) A high level condition.

1) The flare lines to freeze with hydrates or plug off

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On starting up a new plant, it will be necessary to pressurize the gathering lines and all equipment.
1) True 2) False

1) True

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An effective method of controlling maximum liquid levels in separators is: 1) Shutdown of well(s).

2) Reduction of raw gas inlet rates.
3) Opening of the excess liquid control valve.
4) B and C.
5) A, B and C

4) B and C.

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The purpose of a line separator downstream of a primary inlet separator is to:

1) Increase liquid capacity during slug conditions.
2) Increase recovery of flash vapours from hydrocarbon liquids.
3) Produce water carry-over with liquid hydrocarbons.
4) Increase liquid removal from inlet gas streams.

4) Increase liquid removal from inlet gas streams.

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During a process upset, it may be necessary to flare some gas. What potential problem increases the longer the flare valve is open?

1) Hydrates
2) Slugging
3) Corrosion
4) Foaming

1) Hydrates

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In an inlet separator, hydrates formed during prolonged flaring may be eliminated by:

1) Heating the gas stream.
2) Adding methanol to the gas stream.
3) Removing the water from the gas stream.
4) All of the above.

2) Adding methanol to the gas stream.

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A condensate demethanizer is added to a gas plant inlet stream to: 1) Pass on condensate to the stabilizer feed drum. 2) Flash out any remaining light vapours. 3) Recycle the product back to the inlet separator feed drum. 4) All of the above.

4) All of the above.

Identify the process stream in C in the inlet separator below. 1) Raw Inlet Gas 2) Produced Water 3) Dry gas to HP Contactor 4) Liquid Hydrocarbon outlet

3) Dry gas to HP Contactor

It is highly recommended to know the shut down devices that are on an inlet gas facility. 1) True 2) False

1) True

Identify vessel D in the figure below. 1) Inlet Separator 2) Inlet Separator Hydrocarbon Flash Drum 3) Feed Gas Scrubber 4) Inlet Separator Water Flash Drum

4) Inlet Separator Water Flash Drum

When starting up inlet separation equipment, it may be necessary to open the inlet valve wide open to prevent the formation of hydrates in the wellhead, well tubing or processing equipment. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Heating of hydrocarbon liquids in a Dump Separator or Demethanizer will: 1) Eliminate formation of hydrates. 2) Flash light hydrocarbons. 3) Stabilize liquid hydrocarbons. 4) Recover additional liquid hydrocarbons.

2) Flash light hydrocarbons.

In major gas plants, the LPG and gasoline recovery section of the plant is designed to scrub the chilled gas stream with low molecular weight absorption oil and remove most of its liquefiable hydrocarbons and gasoline constituents. One prerequisite in LPG recovery is that both the gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled before the _____________ process. 1) Absorption 2) Dehydration 3) Refrigeration 4) Amine

1) Absorption

Extracted acid gases removed from the gas stream in the sweetening section of a gas plant include all of the following except: 1) Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). 2) Carbonyl sulphide (COS). 3) Mercaptans (RSH). 4) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S).

1) Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).

In a gas plant that has no LPG and gasoline facilities, the gas dehydration method most likely to be used would be one that makes use of: 1) Refrigeration. 2) A trough of liquid desiccants. 3) Glycol solutions. 4) A bed of dry desiccants.

4) A bed of dry desiccants.

The modified Claus method is a sulphur recovery method in which one third of the hydrogen sulphide in the acid gas feed is burned completely to form: 1) Sulphur dioxide. 2) Carbon monoxide. 3) Sulphur monoxide. 4) Carbonyl sulphide.

1) Sulphur dioxide.

To remove water from gas using refrigeration, the gas stream is chilled by means of propane refrigeration to condense the water vapour and the heavier hydrocarbon vapours, such as propane, butane, and pentane. How is the water vapour kept from freezing after condensation? 1) The gas is sprayed with glycol at points ahead of the chillers. 2) The gas is infused with carbon disulphide (CS2). 3) The gas is directed through a bed of solid desiccants. 4) The pre-chilled gas is directed to the bottom of an absorption tower

1) The gas is sprayed with glycol at points ahead of the chillers

The first step in processing the feed gas after it enters the plant is the: 1) Removal of the sour and other undesirable gases from the feed gas stream. 2) Dehydration of the gas to reduce the water content. 3) Conversion of the H2S content to elemental sulphur. 4) Separation of its liquid components.

4) Separation of its liquid components.

Government regulations require sulphur recovery efficiencies of: 1) 100% 2) 95% to 97% 3) 88% to 90% 4) 98% to 99%

4) 98% to 99%

The ______________________ process removes undesirable gases such as hydrogen sulphide (H2S), carbon dioxide (CO2), small quantities of carbonyl sulphide (COS), and carbon disulphide (CS2). 1) Dehydration 2) Gas sweetening 3) Refrigeration 4) Glycol

2) Gas sweetening

Which of the following auxiliaries may be required for a gas processing facility? 1) Garbage disposal, water disposal, bear control 2) Steam generating facilities, electrical generation facilities, water supply 3) Fire station, mail services, refueling station 4) Water heating, electrical generation, garbage disposal

2) Steam generating facilities, electrical generation facilities, water supply

In modern gas plants, what process does the industry generally favour as the best single step for preparing the gas stream for LPG recovery and removal of a large portion of gasoline constituents? 1) Glycol 2) Solid desiccants 3) Condensate stabilization 4) Refrigeration

4) Refrigeration

Of the three auxiliary processes discussed in this module, it is the _________ generation process that is essential to sour gas processing and treatment. 1) Water 2) Steam 3) Electrical

2) Steam

In a deep-cut facility, the LPG recovery process makes use of a: 1) Catalytic reactor and a bauxite catalyst bed. 2) Turboexpander and condensate stabilization. 3) Turboexpander and cryogenic principles. 4) Condensate stabilization facility and cryogenic principles.

3) Turboexpander and cryogenic principles.

Steam generation is absolutely necessary for sour gas processing and treatment. 1) True 2) False

1) True

One pre-requisite in LPG recovery is that: 1) The gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled before the absorption process. 2) Only the gas stream must be chilled before the absorption process. 3) The gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled after the absorption process. 4) Only the lean oil stream must be chilled after the absorption process.

1) The gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled before the absorption process.

The feedstock of acid gases matches with which gas processing plant component? 1) Gas Sweetening 2) Sulphur Plant 3) Condensate Stabilization 4) NGL Fractionation

2) Sulphur Plant

The lean oil from the fractionator bottoms supplies heat to the deethanizer side reboilers before being cooled. It is then: 1) Presaturated with deethanizer residue gas. 2) Mixed with the rich absorption oil in the absorber base. 3) Circulated as lean absorption oil at a fairly low temperature. 4) Injected ahead of the heat exchangers and chillers to prevent hydrate formation

1) Presaturated with deethanizer residue gas.

The feedstock of low temperature natural gas liquids matches with which gas processing plant component? 1) Gas Sweetening 2) Sulphur Plant 3) Condensate Stabilization 4) NGL Fractionation

4) NGL Fractionation

In the chillers, the heavier hydrocarbons are condensed at: 1) 29°C. 2) -39°C. 3) -29°C. 4) -9°C

3) -29°C.

Fractionation is the term used in the: 1) Separation of liquid hydrocarbons from produced water. 2) Removal of mercaptans and water from LPGs. 3) Recovery of NGLs from a natural gas stream. 4) Separation of NGLs into specific hydrocarbon components.

4) Separation of NGLs into specific hydrocarbon components.

The feedstock raw inlet condensate matches with which gas processing plant component? 1) Gas Sweetening 2) Sulphur Plant 3) Condensate Stabilization 4) NGL Fractionation

3) Condensate Stabilization

During fractionation, the resultant propane and butane products are individually treated to: 1) Presaturate the absorption oil before chilling. 2) Remove mercaptans and water before storing. 3) Recover the raw hydrocarbon product from the absorption oil. 4) Prevent hydrate formation and to dry the gas

2) Remove mercaptans and water before storing.

Identify the piece of equipment associated with the LPG recovery process: 1) Catalytic converter 2) LP amine contactor 3) Lean oil absorber 4) Depropanizer

3) Lean oil absorber

In the HP contactor of the gas sweetening stage, the sour gas is contacted with a sweetening agent by: 1) Circulating counter-currently in the towers. 2) Flashing off the methane content in the condensate demethanizer. 3) Refrigerating and mixing with the rich absorption oil in the absorber base. 4) A series of distillations, designed to separate the sour gas from the stream.

1) Circulating counter-currently in the towers.

To separate propane from recovered natural gas liquids tight control of designed _______________ and _______________ must be maintained in the depropanizer. 1) Pressure, flow rate 2) Flow rate, liquid levels 3) Temperature, pressure 4) Liquid levels, temperature

3) Temperature, pressure

In the stabilizer, the light ends are removed from the top and the bottom stabilized condensate product flows to storage to be regenerated in a still for further treating duties. 1) True 2) False

2) False

The lean glycol from the glycol regenerator is returned to the chillers while the water vapour is: 1) Re-circulated to the HP contractor. 2) Vented to the atmosphere. 3) Fed back to the chillers to aid in cooling. 4) Flashed to the reabsorber

2) Vented to the atmosphere.

Identify the piece of equipment associated with the fractionation process: 1) Catalytic converter 2) LP amine contactor 3) Lean oil absorber 4) Depropanizer

4) Depropanizer

The viscosity of sulphur is at its highest viscosity at 154°C. 1) True 2) False

2) False

In Alberta, license requirements governing sulphur recovery from sour gases are established by the: 1) APEGA. 2) WCB. 3) ERCB. 4) Ministry of Mines, Minerals and Resources.

3) ERCB.

The world demand for sulphur is dependent on: 1) Agricultural demand for fertilizers. 2) Sustained economic activity. 3) Demand for petroleum gases. 4) Regulated rates of sulphur from H2S.

2) Sustained economic activity.

The principle sulphate is: 1) Limestone. 2) Pyrite. 3) Gypsum. 4) Calcite

3) Gypsum.

The melting point of sulphur is exactly 119°C. | 1) True 2) False

2) False

The industry that consumes the most sulphur production is: 1) Pulp and paper. 2) Chemical manufacturing. 3) Fertilizer. 4) Petroleum.

3) Fertilizer.

During the early afternoon, a heat sensor alarm has gone off in a sulphur block storage facility. There is obviously a fire somewhere in the sulphur blocks being stored outside. The sensor covers a large number of sulphur blocks. What would be the quickest way to find the fire? 1) Touch the sulphur blocks until you find the hot one. 2) Find the source of the acrid odour. 3) Look for a bright yellow flame. 4) Look for a blue flame.

2) Find the source of the acrid odour.

Elemental sulphur produced from sour gas may be hazardous due to: 1) It being a friable solid which breaks easily. 2) Its characteristic of being extremely hot in liquid form. 3) Its ability to absorb H2S and SO2. 4) The fact that it burns with a soft blue flame invisible in daylight.

4) The fact that it burns with a soft blue flame invisible in daylight.

Sulphur is not attacked by hydrochloric acid, except in the presence of large amounts of: 1) Air. 2) Lead. 3) Zinc. 4) Iron.

4) Iron.

At approximately 154°C the liquid sulphur becomes dark brown in colour, and its: 1) Viscosity is at its minimum. 2) Odour is undetectable by smell. 3) Vaporization rate is drastically reduced. 4) Viscosity is at its maximum.

1) Viscosity is at its minimum.

At which temperature does sulphur reach its highest viscosity? 1) 154°C 2) 293°C 3) 193°C 4) 119°C

3) 193°C

Refer to the graph below. Between the temperature of 120 to 160°C the viscosity of liquid sulphur: 1) Increases. 2) Remains the same. 3) Is at its maximum. 4) Decrease.

4) Decrease.

At normal atmospheric temperature, sulphur appears as a: 1) Yellow and crystalline liquid. 2) Yellow and crystalline solid. 3) Straw-yellow transparent liquid. 4) Dark brown and crystalline solid.

2) Yellow and crystalline solid.

Concentrated sulphuric acid in contact with sulphur will liberate sulphur dioxide at: 1) 200°C. 2) 250°C. 3) 100°C. 4) 1200°C.

1) 200°C

Today the primary reason for conversion of H2S into elemental sulphur is: 1) Economic benefit 2) Manufacturing industry demand for product 3) Government regulations 4) Safe handling of H2S

3) Government regulations

In a refluxed stabilizer when the vapour pressure of the natural gasoline gets too high: 1) The setpoint of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller is raised to increase the fuel to the heater. 2) The setpoint of the stabilizer feed drum pressure controller is raised to increase the pressure in the drum. 3) The setpoint of the stabilizer reflux accumulator level controller is raised to increase the reflux rate to the tower. 4) The setpoint of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller is lowered to decrease the fuel to the heater.

1) The setpoint of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller is raised to increase the fuel to the heater

In order to avoid flame impingement on the tubes of a fired heater: 1) The fuel gas pressure must be increased. 2) An adjustment to the air dampers below the burners is occasionally required. 3) The excess air supplied to the heater must be removed. 4) The air dampers below the burners must be fully closed.

2) An adjustment to the air dampers below the burners is occasionally required.

In a refluxed type of stabilizer, when the vapour pressure of the gasoline becomes too high, it means that the: 1) Set point of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller must be lowered. 2) Butane content is too low. 3) Set point of the stabilizer overhead temperature controller must be lowered. 4) Butane content is too high.

4) Butane content is too high.

The bottom temperature in a condensate stabilizer is kept close to: 1) 400°C. 2) 150°C. 3) 300°C. 4) 200°C.

4) 200°C.

Specific gravity is measured by an instrument called a: 1) Micrometer. 2) Dynamometer. 3) Manometer. 4) Hydrometer.

4) Hydrometer.

To detect the presence of free sulphur in gasoline, plant laboratory personnel conduct a: 1) Reid vapour pressure test. 2) Dryness test. 3) Copper strip test. 4) Specific gravity tes

3) Copper strip test.

The reflux rate to the tower is controlled by a flow controller set by the: 1) Inlet flow at the surge tank. 2) Liquid level of the reflux accumulator. 3) Overhead condensate levels at the damper. 4) Liquid level at the LP contactor.

2) Liquid level of the reflux accumulator.

Flame impingement on the tubes may be indicated by: 1) High temperature alarms. 2) Excess condensate outlet temperature. 3) Visible smoke from the heater's stack. 4) Visible hot spots on the tubes.

4) Visible hot spots on the tubes.

To remove mercaptans from condensate in a stabilization tower, the reflux rate needs to: 1) Be shut off completely. 2) Be increased. 3) Be decreased. 4) Remain constant

2) Be increased.

The condensate to storage temperature in a condensate stabilizer system is maintained in the: 1) 93-121°C range. 2) 66-77°C range. 3) 27-38°C range. 4) 204-232°C range.

3) 27-38°C range.

Regardless of which start-up method is used to start the stabilizer process, the feed tank should be ready to: 1) Receive the flashed vapour and dispose of the condensate. 2) Allow liquid to collect in the top of the stabilizer. 3) Receive condensate and dispose of the flashed vapour. 4) Allow the feed to flow at maximum rate.

3) Receive condensate and dispose of the flashed vapour.

Excessive concentrations of heat at the tube fins in a fired heater may cause: 1) Liquid surging. 2) Internal coking and weak spots. 3) Hydrate formation. 4) External coking and weak spots.

2) Internal coking and weak spots.

The purpose of grounding condensate transport trucks is it: 1) Enables loading pumps to run. 2) Provides truckers indication of tank level. 3) Informs Control Centre of loading operations. 4) Eliminates static electricity

4) Eliminates static electricity

When loading or unloading condensate, any spills must be cleaned up after the truck driver has started his engine and driven off plant property. 1) True 2) False

2) False

The liquid feed to the stabilizer feed drum is usually maintained above 15°C in order to avoid: 1) Contamination of the reflux. 2) Hydrate plugging in the vapour outlet line when the pressure is dropped. 3) Contact between the water and condensate. 4) Hydrate plugging in the vapour outlet line when the pressure is increased.

) Hydrate plugging in the vapour outlet line when the pressure is dropped.

The truck driver is not required to be in attendance during the loading or unloading of condensate. 1) True 2) False

2) False

A gas booster plant is a compression plant that uses a number of compressors to: 1) Decrease the gas pressure for transmission purposes. 2) Strip off the valuable liquefiable products of ethane, propane, butane and gasoline. 3) Pump residue gas at high pressure into the reservoir, promoting recovery of liquid hydrocarbons. 4) Increase the gas pressure for transmission purposes.

4) Increase the gas pressure for transmission purposes.

Gas processing plants must be able to: 1) Withstand high operational pressures. 2) Be completely automated. 3) Remove small amounts of acid gases from the feedstock. 4) Run with completely sealed equipment units that are only accessible to highly trained contract maintenance personnel from outside the company.

1) Withstand high operational pressures.

Identify part A from the three major pieces of equipment contained in a gas cycling plant. 1) Oil Absorber 2) Compression Plant 3) Separation Plant

2) Compression Plant

In the illustration of a Gas Cycling Plant that has been designed with a Gas Sales System (shown below), the residue gas from the absorber is fed through the ___________ and ________________ into the injection well. 1) HP gas coolers, Heater 2) Heater, sales gas separator 3) HP scrubber, compressors 4) Reabsorber, absorber

3) HP scrubber, compressors

Gas processing plants must be able to complete the following functions to ensure that the sales contracts will be met. 1. Acid gas removal 2. Operate at high pressures 3. Handle large volumes of gas 4. Liquefy sulphur 5. Equipment is designed for inspection and maintenance 6. Flare any excess gas that cannot be sent to sales 1) 3, 4, 5, 6 2) 1, 2, 5, 6 3) 1, 2, 3, 5 4) 2, 3, 4, 5

3) 1, 2, 3, 5

Identify part C from the three major pieces of equipment contained in a gas cycling plant. 1) Oil Absorber 2) Compression Plant 3) Separation Plan

1) Oil Absorber

Rich and lean oil streams in gas plants are differentiated by their level of sulphur. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Of the following, which is not an important function of a natural gas plant? 1) To receive the sour natural gas from underground geological reservoirs and remove all objectionable impurities 2) To reduce the water content of raw gas to the level that ensures maximum separation process efficiency 3) To separate and remove certain constituents such as ethane, propane, butane and condensate 4) To repressurize the gas to a specified pressure for transmission purposes

2) To reduce the water content of raw gas to the level that ensures maximum separation process efficiency

The purpose of dehydrating a gas is: 1) To prepare the gas for re-injection back into the formation. 2) To remove the hydrocarbon condensate. 3) To remove H2S. 4) To remove the water.

4) To remove the water.

In the illustration shown below, after the water is separated from the gas flow, the raw gas from the wells enters the gas sweetening process, where the sulphur is ________ and sent to market. 1) Recovered 2) Dehydrated 3) Sweetened 4) Refrigerate

1) Recovered

A plant that is designed to pump residue gas at high pressure into the reservoir to promote the recovery of additional liquid hydrocarbons and to maintain the reservoir pressure at a desired level is known as a gas: 1) Repressuring plant. 2) Booster plant. 3) Stripping plant. 4) Straddle plant

1) Repressuring plant.

Aside from its other processes, a conventional gas processing plant may be equipped with facilities to: 1) Process rich crude oil streams. 2) Convert the hydrogen sulphide to elemental sulphur. 3) Convert the elemental sulphur to hydrogen sulphide. 4) Inject wet gas back into the formation.

2) Convert the hydrogen sulphide to elemental sulphur.

Control of the dewpoint in the sales gas is attained by a: 1) Straddle plant. 2) Deep cut plant. 3) Stripping plant. 4) Dehydration plant

4) Dehydration plant

Since gas plant processes result in drastic gas pressure reduction, gas plants must be capable of _________________ the gas for transmission purposes. 1) Depressurizing 2) Re-pressurizing 3) Removing the gasoline 4) Re-injecting

2) Re-pressurizing

The type of gas plant that receives a rich gas stream, usually from a pipeline carrier, and after removing the liquid hydrocarbons, re-injects the lean gas back to the pipeline is known as a: 1) Gas stripping plant. 2) Gas cycling plant. 3) Gas booster plant. 4) Gas injection plant

1) Gas stripping plant.

The most popular dehydration processes today are solid desiccants, glycol scrubbing, and: 1) Re-injection. 2) Recycling. 3) Refrigeration. 4) Boosting

3) Refrigeration.

In a Claus process straight-through plant that is equipped with condensers and converters using hot gas mixing valves and final stage steam reheat, the acid gas containing hydrogen sulphide enters the sulphur unit through the acid gas knockout drum. The flow then moves to the: 1) No. 1 condenser. 2) 3-way mixing valve. 3) Reaction furnace burner. 4) No. 2 condenser.

3) Reaction furnace burner.

In a split-flow Claus process plant, all of the H2S feed to the furnace is oxidized to sulphur dioxide. The effluent from the furnace equals about: 1) 10% of the 1/3 volume. 2) 20% of the 1/3 volume. 3) 10% of the 2/3 volume. 4) 20% of the 2/3 volume

2) 20% of the 1/3 volume.

In a straight flow-through sulphur recovery unit, combustion in the reaction furnace differs from a split flow process in that the combustion: 1) Occurs in a sub-stoichiometric condition. 2) Occurs at higher temperatures. 3) Occurs at a higher efficiency. 4) Occurs at a lower efficiency.

2) Occurs at higher temperatures.

The purpose of the incinerator is to burn any remaining SO2 to H2S. 1) True 2) False

2) False

The split-flow process works by dividing the acid gas stream into two portions. One portion, which is 1/3 of the total volume, is fed directly into the reaction furnace burner. The remaining 2/3 is fed into the: 1) Tail gas incinerator. 2) First condenser. 3) Waste heat boiler. 4) First converter.

4) First converter.

Liquid sulphur is kept molten in underground sulphur pits. To keep this sulphur in a liquid state, the use of steam coils is used to keep the sulphur liquid. 1) True 2) False

1) True

In a Claus process straight-through plant, when the gas stream leaves the No. 2 condenser, it is mixed with hot gas that is at a temperature of: 1) 896°C. 2) 138°C. 3) 220°C. 4) 480°C.

4) 480°C.

H2S is converted to SO2 in the incinerator furnace by: 1) Catalytic reaction. 2) Combustion at high temperatures. 3) Reaction with remaining SO2. 4) Reaction with fuel gas.

2) Combustion at high temperatures.

The primary purpose of condensers in a sulphur recovery process is: 1) To cool the effluent gas prior to entering the converter beds, thus improving conversion efficiency. 2) Recovery of heat generated in the exothermic reactions occurring in the SRU. 3) Removal of S2 from effluent vapours. 4) To generate steam for use in the processing plant.

3) Removal of S2 from effluent vapours

The acid gas feed to the plant's Sulphur Recovery Unit is made up of 28% CO2 and 72% H2S. The type of sulphur recovery process used would be: 1) Split Flow. 2) Straight Flow. 3) Direct Oxidation. 4) Hot Gas By-Pass.

2) Straight Flow.

The sulphur recycle and the direct oxidation processes are similar to other Claus processes. However, in these two processes, to avoid hydrocarbon contamination of the converter beds, in the sulphur recycle plant: 1) No fuel gas is used to provide combustion. 2) SO2 is added to the stream. 3) CO2 is added to aid in combustion. 4) Sulphur is burned to provide SO2.

4) Sulphur is burned to provide SO2.

All of the following are advantages of a straight through process except one statement. Select the statement that is incorrect. 1) The process is ideally suited to acid gas flows in excess of 50% H2S. 2) Capable of 98 − 99% sulphur recovery. 3) The first converter operates at a much higher temperature improving sulphur recoveries. 4) The process has been simplified with fewer instruments and controls

3) The first converter operates at a much higher temperature improving sulphur recoveries.

In a split flow Sulphur Plant with acid gas having an H2S content of 15%, both air and acid gas are preheated to: 1) Vapourize water. 2) Directly oxidize H2S to SO2. 3) Increase efficiency of sulphur recovery. 4) Stabilize combustion in reaction furnace.

4) Stabilize combustion in reaction furnace

In a very lean feed plant, the effluent gases from the boiler are cooled to: 1) 220°C. 2) 205°C. 3) 370°C. 4) 250°C.

4) 250°C.

Seals on sulphur outlet lines from condensers are used to: 1) Maintain desired temperature in the condenser. 2) Prevent steam mixing with effluent vapours. 3) Prevent effluent gases from being emitted to the atmosphere. 4) Prevent S2 from solidifying.

3) Prevent effluent gases from being emitted to the atmosphere.

The highest level of S2 recovery from the acid gas is observed by: 1) Tight control of the air to acid gas ratio. 2) The lowest fuel requirements in the incinerator stack 3) The highest amount of sulphur produced. 4) The lowest SO2 emission rate from the incinerator stack.

4) The lowest SO2 emission rate from the incinerator stack.

Most plants use the air to acid gas ratio as the primary control for load changes. To trim the air to acid gas ratio when running in a steady condition, sulphur plants can make use of tail gas: 1) Analyzers. 2) Clean-up units. 3) Boosters. 4) Pumps.

1) Analyzers.

The Continuous Stack Emission Monitor records: 1) H2S to SO2 ratio. 2) Air demand. 3) Total SO2 released to the atmosphere. 4) Total SO2 and H2S released to the atmosphere.

3) Total SO2 released to the atmosphere

In Alberta, Alberta Environment requires all sulphur plants to have ambient air quality monitoring done at a specified location: 1) Downwind of the plant. 2) Inside of the plant. 3) Upwind of the plant. 4) In a sheltered location beside the plant.

1) Downwind of the plant.

After the stream has passed through the converter, heat generated from the reactors is transferred to feed water or steam in the condenser. The gases are then cooled to: 1) 13.8°C. 2) 1380°C. 3) 138°C. 4) 1.38°C.

3) 138°C.

When acid gas flow rates, ambient temperatures or the atmospheric pressure change, it may be necessary to adjust the acid gas to air ratio and the acid gas bypass rate in split-flow plants. Ratios of lower than 2:1 indicate insufficient: 1) Air. 2) Hydrogen sulphide. 3) Heat. 4) All of the above.

2) Hydrogen sulphide.

The gas temperature leaving the incinerator is ________ to burn off any remaining H2S. 1) 260°C 2) 138°C 3) 538°C 4) 649°C

4) 649°C

Claus reaction temperature of 232°C is best obtained by adjusting the hot combustion products from the first pass of the sulphur boiler. The temperature of the exit gases is about 18°C higher than the inlet temperature due to the release of: 1) Atmospheric heat. 2) Exothermic heat. 3) Endothermic heat. 4) Intrinsic heat.

2) Exothermic heat.

In sulphur plants where chemical reactions are the backbone of the process, the effect of temperature on the reaction rates is important. In an operating sulphur plant, of the following, the operator is least concerned with the temperature of the: 1) Stack outlet. 2) Sulphur. 3) Condenser. 4) Tail gas.

2) Sulphur.

The sulphur purity test samples are taken from the liquid sulphur drains. The tests performed on samples from these locations determine the content of all of the following except the: 1) Sulphur plant feed gas 2) Carbon dioxide. 3) Sulphur dioxide. 4) Non-acid gas residue components.

1) Sulphur plant feed gas

nowing the amount of H2S in the sulphur plant's acid gas is critical in setting: 1) The reaction furnace design temperature. 2) The correct air to gas ratio in the reaction furnace. 3) The correct air to gas ratio in the incinerator. 4) The amount of Hot Gas by-pass flow to the first converter.

2) The correct air to gas ratio in the reaction furnace.

Burning more than 1/3 of the H2S in the reaction furnace will increase SO2 emissions from the incinerator stack due to: 1) Insufficient H2S to react with SO2 generated. 2) An increased amount of water vapour. 3) Fouling of the catalyst. 4) Insufficient SO2 to react with H2S.

1) Insufficient H2S to react with SO2 generated.

To ensure the complete combustion of H2S and sulphur in the tail gas, the stack outlet temperature is maintained at: 1) 650°C. 2) 538°C. 3) 232°C. 4) 2325°C.

2) 538°C.

In sensitive locations and around large plants, several monitoring stations may be used. A mandatory cutback of the sulphur plant load to 50%, until the pollution levels drop is required when reported SO2 concentrations equal or exceed: 1) 10.2 ppm. 2) 20 ppm. 3) 2.0 ppm. 4) 0.20 ppm.

4) 0.20 ppm

The graph shown shows the various sulphur recovery percentages corresponding to the amount of air fed into the furnace. The upper line shows the absolute stoichiometric limit. If 6% excess air is fed into the furnace, the sulphur recovery rate would increase over the actual rate to: 1) 95%. 2) 98%. 3) 96%. 4) 97%

4) 97%

When obtaining a stock tank oil sample, the sample should be obtained from the: 1) Separator in a plastic bottle after purging the sample valve. 2) Stock tank in a plastic bottle after purging the sample valve. 3) Separator in a plastic bottle before purging the sample valve. 4) Separator in a glass bottle before purging the sample valve.

1) Separator in a plastic bottle after purging the sample valve.

Identify part E of the sampling apparatus in the illustration below: 1) Source valve 2) Purge valve 3) Vent 4) Sample line

3) Vent

When sampling sweet gas, if there is sufficient space to connect the sample cylinder directly to the sample valve using a close nipple, the sample line: 1) Is longer than 2 metres. 2) May be eliminated. 3) Is connected to the separator. 4) Is located on a dead leg.

2) May be eliminated.

Identify part A of the sampling apparatus in the illustration below: 1) Vent 2) Sample Line 3) Liquid sample cylinder position 4) Gas sample cylinder

4) Gas sample cylinder

Identify part F of the sampling apparatus in the illustration below: 1) Vent 2) Sample Line 3) Liquid sample cylinder position 4) Gas sample cylinde

3) Liquid sample cylinder position

To prevent extra lab costs for stock tank oil sample analysis, the lab must be specifically requested to analyze the stock tank sample for only: 1) Pour point, three-point viscosity and distillation. 2) Pour point, three-point viscosity and B.S.& W. 3) Density, pour point and B.S. & W. 4) Density, sulphur content and B.S. & W.

4) Density, sulphur content and B.S. & W.

For samples obtained using the Evacuated Cylinder Method, it is extremely important to take an outage before transport. 1) True 2) False

2) False

H2S content should be determined in the: 1) Lab using a GC. 2) Lab using a mass spectrometer. 3) Field using the Tutweiler method. 4) Field using a mass spectrometer.

3) Field using the Tutweiler method.

For gas, the best sample point is a valve on: 1) Top of a horizontal line close to the separator. 2) The underside of a horizontal line close to the separator. 3) The separator, upstream of any pressure-reducing valve. 4) The separator, downstream of any pressure-reducing valve.

1) Top of a horizontal line close to the separator.

When testing a new gas well, samples should be obtained early in the test: 1) Before the well flow has stabilized. 2) After the well flow has stabilized. 3) By the well testing contractor. 4) By a new employee.

2) After the well flow has stabilized.

For samples from a process flow where a low-pressure, second-stage separator is used and the gas is measured, why is it recommended that Cycle/Purge Method be used to obtain the duplicate samples? 1) Because a sample could be contaminated by air when using the Brine Displacement Method. 2) A water sample should be obtained in a plastic bottle from the separator. 3) Because the H2S content must be determined in the field using the Tutweiler Method. 4) Because a sample could be contaminated by air when the Evacuated Cylinder Method is used.

4) Because a sample could be contaminated by air when the Evacuated Cylinder Method is used.

Pressurized samples may be transported in: 1) Commercial aircraft. 2) Public transport. 3) Company vehicles. 4) Company aircraft

3) Company vehicles.

A gas stream separator must be able to cause a __________ of liquid hydrocarbons. 1) change in flow direction 2) pressure reduction 3) primary-phase separation 4) increase in temperature

3) primary-phase separation

The principle utilized in separation that is used to accelerate separation by throwing the heavier components to the outside and away from the lighter gases is: 1) Absorption. 2) Force of gravity. 3) Impingement. 4) Centrifugal force

4) Centrifugal force

It is more efficient to pump gas-free liquids to a storage area because flash vapour problems can result during pumping and vapour losses from storage tanks are decreased dramatically. 1) True 2) False

1) True

Condensation is: 1) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points. 2) A process that separates a mixture according to weights. 3) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points. 4) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities.

1) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points.

Absorption is: 1) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points. 2) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities. 3) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points. 4) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.

2) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities.

The principle utilized in separation that causes heavier components to disengage from the stream by directing flowing gas against a surface, thus changing its motion is referred to as: 1) Centrifugal force. 2) Impingement. 3) Absorption. 4) Filtration.

2) Impingement.

The force of gravity, distillation, centrifugal force, adsorption and impingement are all principles that may be used to design separators and achieve complete separation of liquid from gases. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Gas expansion improves liquid separation due to: 1) A corresponding drop in temperature will also occur. 2) Gas density is decreased. 3) A corresponding increase in temperature will also occur. 4) Gas velocity will increase.

2) Gas density is decreased.

The well stream has gone through a knockout drum and the resulting gas and liquid flow heads towards further separation. During the operation, a hydrate forms in the out flowing pipe, slowing down the flow and the production of the well. The reason for hydrate formation is: 1) A malfunctioning knockout drum has allowed water to exit the drum. 2) The temperature of the knockout drum is too low and allowed condensation to occur. 3) Knockout drums only remove free water, not all water from the system. 4) The knockout drum is allowing particulate matter to flow through the drum.

3) Knockout drums only remove free water, not all water from the system.

You are engineering a separator upstream of a gas compressor. Of those listed below, the most suitable design would be: 1) Free Water Knockout 2) Horizontal Separator 3) Vertical Separator with a Demister Pad 4) Scrubber

4) Scrubber

The design principle used in a Mist Extractor is: 1) Liquid retention time. 2) Gas velocity. 3) Stream temperature and pressure. 4) Liquid impingement.

4) Liquid impingement.

A scrubber is a separator designed to handle gas streams with: 1) Heavy solids content. 2) Small liquid content. 3) Heavy liquids content. 4) High concentrations of H2S.

2) Small liquid content.

``` The factor in the separation of liquids and gases that affects the viscosity of the fluid and, therefore, its velocity and flow is: 1) Gas velocity. 2) Volume. 3) Gas temperature. 4) Gas pressure. ```

3) Gas temperature.

The amount of water a gas is capable of absorbing before it becomes "saturated" is dependent upon: 1) Gas Temperature. 2) Gas Velocity. 3) Amount of solids in the gas. 4) Whether free water is present.

1) Gas Temperature.

Settling is: 1) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points. 2) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points. 3) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities. 4) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.

4) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.

A drip may be provided near a well for the removal of: 1) Traces of water, gasoline or oil. 2) Entrained liquids by filtration. 3) Heavy solids content. 4) Condensed fine particles from a gas stream.

1) Traces of water, gasoline or oil.

A total liquids knockout vessel is designed to: 1) Handle gas streams with small liquid content. 2) Remove entrained liquids by filtration. 3) Remove liquids from high-pressure gas streams. 4) Remove traces of water, oil and gasoline.

3) Remove liquids from high-pressure gas streams

A scrubber: 1) Is designed to handle gas streams with small liquid content. 2) Is usually installed upstream of compressors. 3) Is designed to remove entrained fine particles from a gas stream. 4) All of the above.

4) All of the above.

``` The factor in the separation of liquids and gases that affects the gas composition and the amount of liquids removed from the stream is: 1) Gas temperature. 2) Gas pressure. 3) Gas expansion. 4) Retention time. ```

2) Gas pressure.

A mist extractor is a separating device that removes entrained liquid and particles by: 1) Force of gravity. 2) Distillation. 3) Filtration or adsorption in depth. 4) Filtration or impingement in depth.

Filtration or impingement in depth

One reason for separating liquids from gases is that: 1) Measurement of gases and liquids separately is required for accuracy. 2) Hydrate formation can be prevented by increasing water content. 3) Hydrocarbons occur only in a gas state. 4) Hydrocarbons occur only in a liquid state.

1) Measurement of gases and liquids separately is required for accuracy.

Fractional distillation is: 1) A process that separates a mixture according to weights. 2) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities. 3) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points. 4) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points.

3) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points.

The main advantage of LTS systems is the high construction costs of equipment rugged enough to withstand very high pressures. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Stage separation is a process in which gaseous and liquid hydrocarbons are separated into vapour and liquid phases by: 1) Two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively higher pressures. 2) Two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively lower pressures. 3) One equilibrium flash at high pressure. 4) Using a knockout drum to store the gaseous HC.

2) Two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively lower pressures.

A pipeline downstream of a well equipped with a low-temperature separation process is experiencing hydrate problems. One possible problem is: 1) Insufficient pressure drop across the choke 2) Separator pressure too high 3) High pipeline pressure 4) Low pipeline pressure

1) Insufficient pressure drop across the choke

Modified low-temperature separation systems utilize injection of a glycol solution with a concentration of: 1) 80%. 2) 10%. 3) 100%. 4) 40%.

1) 80%.

``` In operations where two-stage separation is used, the liquid from this first separator is sent into a second separator operating at: 1) A higher pressure. 2) A lower pressure. 3) The same pressure. 4) A lower temperature. ```

2) A lower pressure.

Free water is defined as: 1) Water that is part of an emulsion. 2)Water produced with the oil that will settle out when the fluids are in a settling space within a vessel. 3) Water produced with the oil that cannot be separated by the force of gravity alone. 4) Water produced with the oil that will not settle out when the fluids are in a settling space within a vessel.

2)Water produced with the oil that will settle out when the fluids are in a settling space within a vessel.

The major components of a low-temperature system are: 1) Free liquid KO, heat exchanger, choke valve and BP measurement. 2) Low-temperature separator, Free liquid KO, heat exchanger and choke valve. 3) Low-temperature separator, free liquid KO, heat exchanger and BP measurement. 4) High-temperature separator, Free liquid KO, heat exchanger and choke valve.

2) Low-temperature separator, Free liquid KO, heat exchanger and choke valve.

A low-temperature separator appears in these basic forms: 1) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and I-beam 2) Vertical, spherical, H-bone and T-bone 3) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and H-bone 4) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and T-bone

4) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and T-bone

The choke in a LTS unit regulates the gas flow through the unit and: 1) Raises the temperature of the stream above that of the hydrate point. 2) Lowers the temperature of the stream below that of the hydrate point. 3) Lowers the temperature of the stream above that of the hydrate point. 4) Raises the temperature of the stream equal to that of the hydrate point.

2) Lowers the temperature of the stream below that of the hydrate point.

Low-temperature separators with glycol injection: 1) Require a warm gas coil at the bottom of the separator since hydrates will form in this system. 2) Produce an overhead vapour lower in water content and some increase in oil recovery. 3) Require high pressure input gas in order to recover condensate. 4) Inject glycol into the gas stream just behind the regenerative heat exchanger.

2) Produce an overhead vapour lower in water content and some increase in oil recovery

In a simple LTS unit, water vapour is removed from the gas stream by: 1) Free liquid KO. 2) Condensation due to cooling of the gas as it expands into the separator. 3) Impact of gas through the separators mist eliminators. 4) Long retention time in the separator.

2) Condensation due to cooling of the gas as it expands into the separator.

The purpose of the LTS is: 1) The separation of liquids from gases by increasing the temperature of the product stream. 2) The separation of gaseous and liquid hydrocarbons by two or more equilibrium flashes. 3) The removal of appreciable quantities of free water from gas wells. 4) The separation of liquids from gases by lowering the temperature of the product stream.

4) The separation of liquids from gases by lowering the temperature of the product stream.

Three-stage separation requires: 1) Three separators and a storage tank. 2) One separator and two storage tanks. 3) Two separators and a storage tank. 4) Two separators and two storage tanks.

3) Two separators and a storage tank

In a low-temperature separator, the heat exchanger performs a: 1) Gas-to-gas heat exchange between the warm outlet gas and cold incoming well effluent. 2) Gas-to-gas heat exchange between the cold outlet gas and warm incoming well effluent. 3) Liquid-to-gas heat exchange between the cold outlet gas and warm incoming well effluent. 4) Liquid-to-gas heat exchange between the warm outlet gas and cold incoming well effluent.

2) Gas-to-gas heat exchange between the cold outlet gas and warm incoming well effluent.

If a volatile condensate, at 10 000 kPa, was discharged directly into an atmospheric storage tank, most of it would: 1) Settle to the bottom of the tank. 2) Immediately vaporize, leaving a very large volume of liquid in the tank. 3) Be captured in the free-water KO drum. 4) Immediately vaporize, leaving very little liquid in the tank.

4) Immediately vaporize, leaving very little liquid in the tank.

The two basic requirements in any low-temperature system are: 1) Availability of a high-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas temperature at the outlet. 2) Availability of a high-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas pressure at the outlet. 3) Availability of a low-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas temperature at the outlet. 4) Availability of a low-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas pressure at the outlet.

1) Availability of a high-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas temperature at the outlet.

Because no separation of condensate takes place in the storage tanks, these tanks do not constitute part of the stage separation. 1) True 2) False

2) False

The main disadvantage of LTS systems is: 1) The system requires constant supervision. 2) Continual water or liquid carry over. 3) High construction costs of high pressure equipment. 4) The decreased condensate recovery.

3) High construction costs of high pressure equipment

Stage separation enables efficient _______________ of H.P. Hydrocarbon liquids. 1) Stabilization 2) Recovery 3) Production 4) Storage

1) Stabilization

A modified LTS unit is most suited for: 1) A well with low wellhead pressure. 2) A well with low production rates. 3) A sour well. 4) A well with high wellhead pressure

1) A well with low wellhead pressure.

Four-stage separation requires: 1) Three separators and a storage tank. 2) Four separators and a storage tank. 3) Two separators and two storage tanks. 4) One separator and three storage tanks.

1) Three separators and a storage tank.

The benefit of Dehydration of gas well production is: 1) Reduction of hydrate formation in pipelines. 2) Recovery of valuable hydrocarbon condensate. 3) Reduction of corrosion concerns in pipelines. 4) Elimination of liquid build-up in pipelines. 5) All of the above.

5) All of the above.

Using the National Topographic Survey System, a description that reads "93-P-3-C-7-A" means: 1) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Block C of Map Unit 3 of Map Sheet Subdivision P of Map Unit 93. 2) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Block C of Map Sheet 3 of Map Unit Subdivision P of Map Unit 93. 3) Subunit A of Unit Subdivision 7 of Block C of Map Sheet 3 of Map Unit P of Map Unit 93. 4) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Map Unit C of Map Sheet 3 of Block Subdivision P of Map Unit 93.

2) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Block C of Map Sheet 3 of Map Unit Subdivision P of Map Unit 93.

The area of a township is: 1) 36 square miles. 2) 100 hectares. 3) 16 square miles. 4) 36 acres.

1) 36 square miles.

As reference markers, the Dominion Land Survey System uses global lines of: 1) Latitude. 2) Political boundary. 3) Longitude. 4) Latitude and longitude.

3) Longitude.

The National Topographic Survey is based on a large area component referred to as a: 1) Map unit. 2) Map sheet. 3) Map block. 4) Map collection.

1) Map unit.

``` The two allowances included in the Dominion Land Survey System used to accommodate access to surveyed land and the curvature of the earth are: 1) Road allowances and Meridians. 2) Meridians and Correction lines. 3) Correction lines and Range lines. 4) Road allowances and Correction lines. ```

4) Road allowances and Correction lines

Correction lines are used: 1) To allow access to all surveyed lands. 2) To realign the townships surveyed between the meridians due to the curvature of the earth. 3) To adjust for errors involved in surveying. 4) For land registration purposes.

2) To realign the townships surveyed between the meridians due to the curvature of the earth.

A township is comprised of: 1) 36 acres of land. 2) 36 sections of land. 3) 36 ranges of land. 4) 36 LSDs.

2) 36 sections of land.

The north and south boundary lines of the township are called: 1) Meridians. 2) Range lines. 3) Township lines. 4) Borders.

3) Township lines.

In a well name, used to identify a specific well, the second word in the name refers to the: 1) Operating company. 2) Legal site description. 3) Designated field. 4) Well partners.

4) Well partners.

In the Dominion Land Survey System: 1) Range lines run parallel to the lines of latitude. 2) Meridians are lines of latitude. 3) Township lines are perpendicular to lines of latitude. 4) Meridians are lines of longitude.

4) Meridians are lines of longitude.

Each section in the Dominion Land Survey System is comprised of: 1) 36 acres. 2) 36 legal subdivisions. 3) 16 hectares. 4) 16 legal subdivisions.

4) 16 legal subdivisions.

The area of a township is comprised of: 1) 6 square miles. 2) 2 square miles. 3) 12 square miles. 4) 36 square miles.

4) 36 square miles.

The Dominion Land Survey System divides areas into: 1) Sections and acres. 2) Townships and sections. 3) Acres and wellsites. 4) Longitude and meridians.

2) Townships and sections.

Most countries use one of three basic systems for land ownership and transfer. In a private conveyancing system, ownership of land must be proved by: 1) Deeds filed in a central registry. 2) Documents that are kept by the owner. 3) Documents that are examined and kept by a government agency. 4) The Indian Oil and Gas Act and Indian Oil and Gas Regulations.

2) Documents that are kept by the owner.

A well, designated with the well number 7-25-23-02 W7, is located in: 1) LSD 7 of Section 25, Township 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian. 2) Section 7 of Township 25, LSD 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian. 3) LSD 7 of Township 25, Section 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian. 4) Township 7 of Section 25, LSD 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.

1) LSD 7 of Section 25, Township 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.

Surface rights give the owner: 1) Title for minerals only. 2) Exemption from EUB regulations. 3) Rights to anything contained below the surface of the ground. 4) The surface of the land and the air above it.

4) The surface of the land and the air above it.

The type of land ownership that grants occupancy of the land for the lifetime of an individual and does not continue beyond death of holder is called: 1) Estate in fee simple. 2) Leasehold estate. 3) Life estate. 4) Contractual.

3) Life estate.

``` The system for land ownership and transfer in which a government official has custody of all original land titles is the: 1) Private conveyancing system. 2) First Nations Land System. 3) Torrens system. 4) Deeds registration system. ```

3) Torrens system.

2) To realign the townships surveyed between the meridians due to the curvature of the earth.

1) LSD 7 of Section 25, Township 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.

Mineral rights refer to: 1) Minerals that are the property of the Crown. 2) Oil, gas and coal that is contained below the surface of the ground. 3) Rights belonging to owners of the surface rights. 4) Gold and silver only.

2) Oil, gas and coal that is contained below the surface of the ground.

The north and south boundary lines of the township are called: 1) Meridians. 2) Range lines. 3) Township lines. 4) Borders.

3) Township lines

In the event that one of the UPS rectifiers fail, it will automatically isolate itself by opening its rectifier: 1) AC output and rectifier DC output breakers. 2) AC input and rectifier DC input breakers. 3) AC output and rectifier DC input breakers. 4) AC input and rectifier DC output breakers.

4) AC input and rectifier DC output breakers.

The environment around the UPS must be kept free of excessive moisture and dirt. 1) True 2) False

1) True

If the "Battery Voltage Low" light of a UPS system should come on, the operator should push the ____________ to give the battery an extra 8-hour charge. 1) Bypass power button 2) Inverter synchronize button 3) Manual transfer button 4) Equalize charge button

4) Equalize charge button

It is important that a UPS be able to carry: 1) 100% of the critical load. 2) 50% of the critical load. 3) 75% of the critical load. 4) 90% of the critical load.

1) 100% of the critical load.

``` To keep corrosive gases away from the electrical contacts, some UPS installations are kept slightly pressurized with: 1) Neutral exhaust gases. 2) Freon. 3) Clean air. 4) Helium. ```

3) Clean air.

A/An ____________ is a device that delivers direct current when it is supplied by alternating current. 1) Inverter 2) Converter 3) Power supply 4) Distorter

2) Converter

The UPS battery may be isolated from the rest of the equipment in its own cabinet with an exhaust fan installed to: 1) Allow for easy replacement during maintenance. 2) Provide easy access for out-of-service rotation. 3) Remove explosive or corrosive gases produced when the battery is being charged. 4) Cool the battery during hot weather conditions.

3) Remove explosive or corrosive gases produced when the battery is being charged.

In a typical system that is supplied by 440 volt, three-phase power, as long as the bypass power produces 60 cycles/second, the inverters will stay synchronized to the: 1) Two rectifiers and two inverters. 2) 15 kVA transformer. 3) Bypass power. 4) 120 V lead-calcium battery bank.

3) Bypass power.

During a power outage to a plant equipped with a UPS, the 440-volt power supply fails and the rectifiers shut down. What happens next? 1) The rectifier automatically isolates itself. 2) The inverter opens its inverter DC input and inverter AC output breakers. 3) The "No Sync To Line" light pulsates. 4) The inverters are supplied with 120 V DC from the battery bank.

4) The inverters are supplied with 120 V DC from the battery bank.

A device, circuit or system that delivers direct current when it is supplied by alternating current is called: 1) An inverter. 2) A transformer. 3) A rectifier. 4) A capacitor.

3) A rectifier.

The inverters of a UPS system are supplied without interruption from a: 1) Lead-calcium battery bank. 2) Lithium battery bank. 3) Carbon-zinc battery bank. 4) Nickel-cadmium battery bank.

1) Lead-calcium battery bank.

A typical uninterruptible power supply system consists of an AC power supply, meters and protective devices, two or more rectifiers and inverters, a make-before-break switching arrangement, a large bank of batteries and: 1) A variable capacitance resistors. 2) A slow-go-to-variance switch. 3) A fast-make transfer switch. 4) A high-speed break-away switch.

3) A fast-make transfer switch.

It may be necessary to switch to bypass power for maintenance on the UPS system. When the circuits on the UPS are supplied with bypass power, and there is a power interruption, the equipment on the UPS will: 1) Shut down. 2) Remain in operation. 3) Be supplied with bypass power. 4) None of the above.

1) Shut down.

Some batteries in a UPS will gradually lose the ability to accept a charge. To overcome this problem, the batteries must be: 1) Inspected daily. 2) Slightly overcharged regularly. 3) Rotated out of service on a regular basis. 4) Completely drained regularly.

2) Slightly overcharged regularly.

A standard UPS is equipped with two rectifiers because: 1) If one should fail, the other rectifier is able to carry the required load. 2) The inverter still on line will be synchronized with, but not connected to, the bypass power. 3) The batteries must be slightly overcharged regularly. 4) The inverters will not stay synchronized with the bypass power.

1) If one should fail, the other rectifier is able to carry the required load.

You have been asked to perform maintenance on the plant's UPS system and have been told that it is necessary to switch to bypass power for maintenance on the UPS system. To know that it is safe to switch to bypass power, the ___________________ must be ___________. 1) "Battery Voltage Low" light, out 2) "No Sync to Line" light, on 3) "Battery Voltage Low" light, on 4) "No Sync to Line" light, out

4) "No Sync to Line" light, out

If both inverters should fail, the fast-make switch will supply the critical circuits from the: 1) 120 V DC power. 2) Bypass power. 3) DC output power. 4) AC input power.

2) Bypass power.

A typical UPS consists of all of the following components except: 1) A supply of DC power from the utility company. 2) A large bank of batteries. 3) A fast-make transfer switch. 4) Two or more inverters.

1) A supply of DC power from the utility company

Large oil and natural gas reservoirs continued to elude exploration companies until May 14, 1914. On that date, the Dingman No. 1 discovery well blew in at: 1) Turner Valley. 2) Leduc. 3) Bow Island. 4) Norman Wells.

1) Turner Valley.

During a gravimetric survey in the stratigraphy illustrated Question 4, where would the gravity meter read the minimum? 1) 5 2) 4 and 6 3) 1 and 9 4) 2 and 8

4) 2 and 8

What type of map is this? 1) Structure contour 2) Net pay 3) Stereo depth 4) Lithofacies

4) Lithofacies

The data for reflection seismic is generated by shock waves. These waves are generated using: 1) Dynamite. 2) A vibroseis truck. 3) Gas exploder. 4) All of the above.

4) All of the above.

In 1857, International Mining and Manufacturing discovered the first Canadian oil well by digging 65 feet into the "gum" beds at Oil Springs in Lambton County in: 1) Northern Alberta. 2) Southern Ontario. 3) Eastern New Brunswick. 4) Southern Newfoundland.

2) Southern Ontario.

A net pay map: 1) Is used to arrange traverses to obtain geological data. 2) Provides a picture of the depositional environments in ancient seas or identifies a possible trap. 3) Is a special type of isopach map that shows the thickness of rock capable of producing oil and/or natural gas. 4) Has lines of equal value representing the topography of subsurface rock layers.

3) Is a special type of isopach map that shows the thickness of rock capable of producing oil and/or natural gas.

``` The preferred geophysical exploration method in areas where a significant amount of drilling has already occurred is: 1) Magnetic surveying. 2) Seismic surveying. 3) Gravimetric surveying. 4) Arial photography. ```

2) Seismic surveying.

In electric logging, the device used for making measurements is a: 1) Geophone. 2) Magnetometer. 3) Sonde.

3) Sonde.

A structure contour map: 1) Is a special type of isopach map that shows the thickness of rock capable of producing oil and/or natural gas. 2) Has lines of equal value representing the topography of subsurface rock layers. 3) Provides a picture of the depositional environments in ancient seas or identifies a possible trap. 4) Is used to arrange traverses to obtain geological data.

2) Has lines of equal value representing the topography of subsurface rock layers.

Surface indications of geologic structures exist at points where formations are exposed, such as in banks of rivers, quarries and sides of cliffs. Measurements are made at these points to determine information about the sub-surface beds. The direction in which the bed extends is known as the: 1) Strike. 2) Drop. 3) Dip. 4) Reach.

1) Strike.

In 1979, the discovery of the Hibernia Oil Field was announced. However, production of the first barrels of oil from this field did not occur until: 1) 1992. 2) 1989. 3) 1981. 4) 1997.

4) 1997.

In gamma ray logging, use is made of the differences in the radioactivity of various kinds of rock. Of the following, the type of rock that gives off the highest levels of gamma radiation is: 1) Shale. 2) Dolomite. 3) Limestone. 4) Sandstone.

1) Shale.

The instruments employed in seismic surveys that sense returning energy waves are: 1) Galvanometers. 2) Geophones. 3) Gravity meters. 4) Sonde.

2) Geophones.

Industry has developed a very sophisticated set of downhole tools that allow a detailed evaluation of the strata penetrated. The electric devices provide a measure of the fluid and type of fluid in a formation, whereas the radioactive and sonic-acoustic devices provide a measure of the formation's: 1) Depth. 2) Capacity. 3) Porosity. 4) Resistivity.

3) Porosity.

``` Reflection seismic is used to map the topography of the subsurface rock layers. It is often used in conjunction with: 1) A net pay map. 2) An isopach map. 3) A lithofacies map. 4) A structure contour map. ```

4) A structure contour map.

The three methods of surveying used for geophysical exploration are: 1) Seismic, Radioactive, Aerial. 2) Magnetic, Aerial, Electric. 3) Sonic, Gravity, Electric. 4) Gravity, Magnetic, Seismic.

4) Gravity, Magnetic, Seismic.

Crude oil is measured by two main standards: 1) Temperature and pressure. 2) Pressure and gravity. 3) Gravity and viscosity. 4) Viscosity and temperature.

3) Gravity and viscosity.

A characteristic of the paraffin group is: 1) Closed chain (benzene ring). 2) Closed chain (cyclic). 3) Open chain (cyclic). 4) Open chain (straight or branched).

4) Open chain (straight or branched).

Which hydrocarbon group is used to manufacture dyes, synthetic chemicals and synthetic drugs? 1) Cycloparaffin group 2) Aromatic group 3) Olefin group 4) Paraffin group

2) Aromatic group

Which of the following natural gas components is considered a contaminant? 1) Helium 2) Nitrogen 3) Carbon dioxide 4) Hydrogen sulphide

4) Hydrogen sulphide

Condensate consists primarily of pentane and heavier hydrocarbons, commonly called C5 plus. 1) True 2) False

1) True

A pure substance composed of two or more elements is called a: 1) Mixture. 2) Molecule. 3) Compound. 4) Valence.

3) Compound.

Diluents are combustible gases that enhance the heating value of sales gas. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Lean sour gas is a type of natural gas that: 1) Contains less than 0.5% H2S. 2) Contains no H2S. 3) Has a high concentration of H2S. 4) Has a low concentration of H2S.

4) Has a low concentration of H2S.

A crude oil with many asphaltine molecules (C40 plus) is considered: 1) A light oil. 2) A paraffin. 3) A heavy oil. 4) A medium oil.

3) A heavy oil.

``` Which hydrocarbon group makes excellent fuels, is the feedstock for petrochemicals and is used for lubricants and waxes? 1) Aromatic group 2) Olefin group 3) Paraffin group 4) Cycloparaffin group ```

3) Paraffin group

Calculate the degrees API for an oil with a relative density of 0.81. Use the formula: 1) 43.19°API 2) 12.35°API 3) 8.10°API

1) 43.19°API

Which of the following natural gas components is considered a diluent? 1) Water 2) Hydrogen sulphide 3) Nitrogen 4) Free liquids

3) Nitrogen

``` A state of matter in which the molecules are loosely bound, move about with high velocities and tend to expand indefinitely is known as a: 1) Liquid. 2) Vapour. 3) Solid. 4) Gas. ```

4) Gas.

A fire has developed in the converter due to an airflow malfunction. What steps should be taken? 1) Push the emergency shutdown button. 2) Shut the manual valves for air and acid gas. 3) Shut down the steam system. 4) Increase blower airflow. 5) A and B. 6) B and C.

5) A and B.

In a sulphur plant, the piece of equipment used to increase the temperature of the converter feed is called the: 1) Waste heat boiler. 2) Reheater. 3) Preheater. 4) Firetube boiler.

2) Reheater.

The heating of the sulphur pit and the rundown lines must be carefully observed. The free flow of the liquid sulphur can be adversely affected because it becomes more viscous at temperatures higher than: 1) 100°C. 2) 150°C. 3) 125°C. 4) 115°C.

2) 150°C.

When starting a sulphur plant what minimum acid gas flow must be established before attempting a start? 1) 50% 2) 30% 3) 75% 4) 20%

2) 30%

When checking the equipment prior to start-up, the seal boxes on the liquid sulphur lines from the condensers should be filled with liquid sulphur up to the: 1) Non-return valves. 2) Sulphur transfer pumps. 3) Overflow weir. 4) Steam tracing and heating lines.

3) Overflow weir.

The piece of sulphur plant equipment that is designed to provide ample cooling to the hot gases and at the same time preheat the feedwater to the sulphur boiler or generate low pressure steam for the process is the: 1) Waste heat boiler. 2) Sulphur sump. 3) Firetube boiler. 4) Sulphur condenser.

4) Sulphur condenser.

Each catalytic stage of a sulphur recovery plant will consist of what type of equipment? 1) Sulphur Boiler, condenser and re-heater 2) Re-heater, catalytic converter, condenser and incinerator 3) Sulphur boiler, re-heater, catalytic converter and condenser 4) Re-heater, catalytic converter and condenser

4) Re-heater, catalytic converter and condenser

The typical life expectancy of the catalyst in a sulphur plant is 10 years. 1) True 2) False

2) False

The tail gas incinerator is a horizontal cylindrical furnace. Inside the incinerator, the wall that is located halfway between the bridge wall and incinerator flue gas outlet and serves as a baffle assisting in the complete combustion of any H2S or other combustibles is called the: 1) Checker wall. 2) Fire wall. 3) Louver wall. 4) Burner wall.

1) Checker wall.

4) Sulphur condenser.

At start-up, the sulphur boilers and condensers must be purged while the air blower is running at half speed; however, excessive purging must be avoided because: 1) The catalyst converters may heat up too quickly. 2) Air may enter into the first converter and cause a fire in the bed. 3) The fuel gas supply to the main burner, pilot light and auxiliary burners will increase. 4) Air is not necessary for the operation of the reheat burners.

2) Air may enter into the first converter and cause a fire in the bed.

You are operating sulphur recovery plant and the flame goes out in the waste heat boiler. It is recommended that a purge be completed with steam rather than air. What hazard exists that would make steam the safer choice? 1) Introducing air will cause a chemical reaction with the steel to form Fe2O3. 2) The air will cause stress cracks to form in the boiler. 3) Introducing air into a hot furnace may cause an explosion. 4) Air will sub-cool the catalyst in the reactor causing premature failure of the catalyst.

3) Introducing air into a hot furnace may cause an explosion.

The stack used in a sulphur plant is usually made of: 1) A steel liner and concrete casing. 2) A mixture of concrete and refractory. 3) Fire brick for the first 1/3 of the height and steel for the remainder. 4) Fire brick liner with concrete casing.

1) A steel liner and concrete casing.

``` The sulphur condenser condenses hot sulphur vapour into a liquid state. What other function does this condenser provide? 1) Generating LP steam. 2) Generating HP steam. 3) Cooling boiler feedwater. 4) Recycling SO2 back to the converters. ```

1) Generating LP steam.

The special drilling procedure which utilizes a large spool of metal tubing for the drill pipe and a mud motor at the bottom of the coil of tubing to turn the drill bit is called the: 1) Top drive procedure. 2) Casing drilling procedure. 3) Whip stocking procedure. 4) Coiled tubing drilling procedure.

4) Coiled tubing drilling procedure.

The drilling procedure where the motor is mounted below the traveling block to enable the pipe to be turned from above rather than on the floor is known as the: 1) Multi-lateral procedure. 2) Top drive procedure. 3) Coiled tube drilling procedure. 4) Whip stocking procedure.

2) Top drive procedure.

``` A directional drilling procedure in which a wedge is placed in the well to direct the drill bit off at an angle is called: 1) Slant drilling. 2) Off-set boring. 3) Whip stocking. 4) Horizontal drilling. ```

3) Whip stocking.

What kind of rig is pictured here? 1) Service Rig 2) Drilling Rig 3) Partial Elevation Rig 4) Slant Hole Drilling Rig 5) None of the above

4) Slant Hole Drilling Rig

The normal rig operating in Western Canada requires the services of: 1) 22 fulltime employees. 2) 12 fulltime employees. 3) 26 fulltime employees. 4) 16 fulltime employees.

4) 16 fulltime employees.

Caustic soda is added to drilling mud: 1) To decrease the pH to reduce pipe corrosion. 2) To thicken and increase the weight of the fluid. 3) To prevent the loss of the fluid to the formation. 4) To raise the pH above 7 to reduce pipe corrosion.

4) To raise the pH above 7 to reduce pipe corrosion.

The type of rotary drill bit pictured here is a: 1) Tooth bit. 2) PDC bit. 3) Button bit. 4) Diamond bit.

3) Button bit.

After the lease is cleared, a subcontractor or service company is hired to dig a pit or cellar which is lined with large diameter pipe to keep the soil from falling around the drilling equipment. The cellar also provides: 1) Air for the wellhead. 2) Information regarding the depth of the formation. 3) Extra vertical space for equipment. 4) A foundation for the drilling rig.

3) Extra vertical space for equipment.

The drilling fluid used in rotary-type drilling serves the following purpose: 1) Supports the load of the drill stem during drilling. 2) Removes the rock cuttings produced by the drill bit. 3) Allows entry of the formation fluids into the hole. 4) All of the above.

2) Removes the rock cuttings produced by the drill bit.

On newer drilling rigs the complex rotary system is replaced by a: 1) Top-drive system. 2) Power swivel. 3) Blowout prevention system. 4) Both a and b.

4) Both a and b.

A dangerous situation is most likely to arise in new areas where a reservoir is penetrated containing gas or oil under a higher pressure than had been estimated. When the first symptoms of a blowout occur, the operator should do all of the following except: 1) Pull the casing string from the wellbore. 2) Add weighting material to the drilling fluid. 3) Apply backpressure to the fluid returning to the surface through the annular space. 4) Close the blowout preventer.

1) Pull the casing string from the wellbore.

All of the following are principle functions of the drill stem of a rotary drilling rig except: 1) To raise and lower the bit from or into the hole. 2) Transfer the rotation from the rotary to the bit downhole. 3) Apply weight to the bit through the mass of the drill collar. 4) Carry the hook and elevators.

4) Carry the hook and elevators.

The swivel: 1) Supports the load of the drill stem during drilling. 2) Transfers power from the rotary to the drill stem. 3) Applies weight to the bit through the mass of the drill collar. 4) Prevents blowouts.

1) Supports the load of the drill stem during drilling.

The blocks and wire line, like the derrick and drawworks, are components of the hoisting system that controls and handles the drilling rig's load. During drilling operations, the load consists of drill pipe and drill collars, with the bit attached to the bottom drill collar. This is collectively referred to as the: 1) Casing string. 2) Deadweight. 3) Scroll string. 4) Drill string.

3) Scroll string.

Blowout preventers are designed to close the well if the drill pipe is either in or out of the well. If there is no pipe in the well during a blowout, the wellbore will be completely shut off by the: 1) Whipstops. 2) Reamers. 3) Blind rams. 4) Fishing tap.

3) Blind rams

The drawworks: 1) Prevent blowouts. 2) Are used to raise and lower the pipe into the well and control the weight on the drill bit. 3) Apply weight to the bit through the mass of the drill collar. 4) Support the load of the drill stem during drilling.

2) Are used to raise and lower the pipe into the well and control the weight on the drill bit.

The square or octagonal-shaped steel tube that is the upper terminus of the drill stem is called the: 1) Kelly. 2) Annulus. 3) Swivel. 4) Drill collar.

1) Kelly.

The term "payback" refers to the: 1) Time required for the income created to surpass the investment outlay. 2) Time required for the income created to equal the investment outlay. 3) Net income realized after all expenses including taxes have been paid out of gross revenues. 4) Gross income realized before all expenses including taxes have been paid out.

2) Time required for the income created to equal the investment outlay.

All of the following are considered expense items except: 1) Costs for engineering 2) Royalties 3) Maintenance 4) Fuels and utilities

1) Costs for engineering

Present value is an indication of the present worth of all future earnings and is useful if you want to know the amount of money needed today to generate a known amount of money at some point in the future. The operation of finding the present value is called: 1) Initial investment discounting. 2) Depreciation. 3) Calculation of net worth. 4) Time discounting.

4) Time discounting.

The government views yearly "expense" items as things that are: 1) Consumed over a number of years, and their value does not depreciate to zero in one year. 2) Taxable as income, for both the current year and for the life of the item. 3) Consumed immediately and whose value depreciates to zero in the year they were used. 4) Purchased for the business regardless of when they are consumed.

3) Consumed immediately and whose value depreciates to zero in the year they were used.

Chemicals, salaries, and telephone and utility bills are all examples of: 1) Capital items. 2) Payback items. 3) Expense items. 4) Taxable income.

3) Expense items.

All of the following are considered as capital items except: 1) Initial spare parts. 2) Start-up costs. 3) Maintenance equipment. 4) Operating personnel wages.

4) Operating personnel wages.

``` When a business files a tax return, items such as wages, raw materials, supplies and rent are considered: 1) Expense items. 2) Capital items. 3) Depreciated items. 4) Taxable assets. ```

1) Expense items.

Chemical costs are considered: 1) A depreciated item. 2) A payback item. 3) An expense. 4) A capital item.

3) An expense.

The loss of value of an item that is not consumed in one fiscal year is called: 1) Payback. 2) A taxable asset. 3) Depreciation. 4) An expense.

3) Depreciation.

All of the following are considered capital items except: 1) Fuels and utilities. 2) Engineering costs. 3) Initial spare parts. 4) Land costs.

1) Fuels and utilities.

The cost of training all personnel to operate a facility prior to the initial start-up is an example of: 1) A payback item 2) A capital item. 3) An expense item. 4) A taxable income.

2) A capital item.

The government views yearly "capital" items as things that are: 1) Consumed over a number of years and their value does not depreciate to zero in one year. 2) Taxable as income, for both the current year and for the life of the item. 3) Consumed immediately and whose value depreciates to zero in the year they were used. 4) Purchased for the business regardless of when they are consumed.

1)Consumed over a number of years and their value does not depreciate to zero in one year.

The term "Profit" refers to: 1) Time required for the income created to equal the investment outlay. 2) Net income realized after all expenses including taxes have been paid out of gross revenue. 3) Time required for the income created to surpass the investment. 4) Gross income realized before all expenses including taxes have been paid out.

2) Net income realized after all expenses including taxes have been paid out of gross revenue

Maintenance costs are considered: 1) A capital item. 2) An expense item. 3) A payback item. 4) A depreciated item.

2) An expense item.

The sample connecting tubing should be made of a non-conducting material or constructed with a built-in ground to: 1) Minimize the effect of static electricity. 2) Provide durability. 3) Support the sampling apparatus. 4) None of the above.

1) Minimize the effect of static electricity.

Before placing a new apparatus into service, it is necessary to check the apparatus for leaks by: 1) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 700 kPa. 2) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 350 kPa. 3) Filling the apparatus with a liquid and pressurizing to 700 kPa. 4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

LP-Gas vapour pressure test results are reported in terms of: 1) kPa at 0 degrees C. 2) Minimum temperature for storage. 3) kPa at test temperature. 4) Minimum temperature for transport.

3) kPa at test temperature.

Determination of the vapour pressure of liquified petroleum gas is important: 1) For safety reasons in determining the maximum storage temperature. 2) For safety reasons in determining the minimum storage temperature. 3) For safety reasons to ensure that the maximum operating design pressure of vessels is not exceeded. 4) In determining the content of the gas.

3) For safety reasons to ensure that the maximum operating design pressure of vessels is not exceeded.

You are reviewing test results from a LPG sampling. Two samples were collected by two different operators in the plant and analyzed in two separate laboratories. The sample was taken from the same test material but the difference in the reported LP-Gas vapour pressure was 4.2 psi. What should be your response to this analysis report? 1) Accept the test results, the difference is within acceptable limits. 2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and redo the test. 3) Reject the test results as being too similar to be acceptable, and redo the test. 4) Accept the test results, the difference doesn't matter in this kind of testing.

2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and redo the test.

What is the first step in completing a vapour pressure test of liquefied petroleum gas? 1) Purge the test apparatus with some LPG. 2) Immediately withdraw 331/3% to 40% of the sample from the test apparatus. 3) Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected test temperature. 4) Ensure the test apparatus is complete and equipped with a suitable pressure gauge. 5) Equipment

5) Equipment

Repeatability is the difference between 2 test results obtained by the same operator. 1) True 2) False

1) True

To convert pressures recorded in psi to pressures in kPa: 1) Multiply by 3.386. 2) Multiply by 0.1333. 3) Multiply by 60.895. 4) Multiply by 6.895.

4) Multiply by 6.895.

What is the last step in completing a vapour pressure test of liquefied petroleum gas? 1) Purge the test apparatus with some LPG. 2)Immediately withdraw 331/3% to 40% of the sample from the test apparatus. 3)Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected test temperature. 4)Ensure the test apparatus is complete and equipped with a suitable pressure gauge. 5)Equipment must be thoroughly cleaned and assembled correctly.

3)Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected | test temperature.

Before placing a new apparatus into service, it is necessary to check the apparatus for leaks by: 1)Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 700 kPa. 2) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 350 kPa. 3) Filling the apparatus with a liquid and pressurizing to 700 kPa. 4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and | pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

The sample connecting tubing should be made of a nonconducting material or constructed with a built-in ground to: 1) Minimize the effect of static electricity. 2) Provide durability. 3) Support the sampling apparatus. 4) None of the above.

1) Minimize the effect of static electricity.

Reproducibility is the difference between 2 single and independent results obtained by different operators working in different labs. 1) True 2) False

1) True

LP-Gas vapour pressure test results are reported in terms of: 1) kPa at 0 degrees C. 2) Minimum temperature for storage. 3) kPa at test temperature. 4) Minimum temperature for transport.

3) kPa at test temperature.

The standard test method for vapour pressure of liquefied petroleum gases is the: 1) Gas Displacement method. 2) Purge Through method. 3) LP-Gas method. 4) Liquid Displacement method.

3) LP-Gas method.

The precision of the testing apparatus is determined by measuring the: 1) Repeatability within 12 kPa and the reproducibility within 19 kPa. 2) Repeatability within 19 kPa and the reproducibility within 12 kPa. 3)Repeatability within 22 kPa and the reproducibility within 19 kPa. 4) Repeatability within 12 kPa and the reproducibility within 9 kPa.

1) Repeatability within 12 kPa and the reproducibility within 19 kPa.

For liquefied petroleum gases, vapour pressure is _____________ measure of the most extreme ________________ conditions under which initial vaporization can be expected to occur. 1) an indirect, high temperature 2) an indirect, low temperature 3) a direct, low temperature 4) a direct, high temperature

2) an indirect, low temperature

What is the last step in completing a vapour pressure test of liquefied petroleum gas? 1) Purge the test apparatus with some LPG. 2) Immediately withdraw 331/3% to 40% of the sample from the test apparatus. 3) Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected test temperature. 4) Ensure the test apparatus is complete and equipped with a suitable pressure gauge. 5) Equipment must be thoroughly cleaned and assembled correctly.

3) Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected test temperature.

When an LPG sample is tested, the testing apparatus is normally immersed in a water bath at: 1) 0 degrees C. 2) 3.7 degrees C. 3) 37.8 degrees C. 4) -3.7 degrees C.

3) 37.8 degrees C.

You are reviewing test results from a LPG sampling. Two samples were collected by two different operators in the plant and analyzed in two separate laboratories. The sample was taken from the same test material but the difference in the reported LP-Gas vapour pressure was 4.2 psi. What should be your response to this analysis report? 1) Accept the test results, the difference is within acceptable limits. 2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and re-do the test. 3) Reject the test results as being too similar to be acceptable, and re-do the test. 4) Accept the test results, the difference doesn't matter in this kind of testing.

2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and re-do the test

In assembling the LPG Vapour Pressure apparatus, you must ensure that the __________________ between the two chambers is open and that the _________ valve is closed. 1) inlet, bleeder 2) bleeder, straight-through 3) inlet, straight-through 4) straight-through valve, bleeder

4) straight-through valve, bleeder

The pressure gauge used for the vapour pressure apparatus must be: 1) Any pressure gauge that you found in the plant. 2) An accurate gauge that is within 20% accurate. 3) An accurate gauge that is within 2% accurate. 4) 200 mm in diameter and a range of 10,000 kPa.

3) An accurate gauge that is within 2% accurate.

The pressure of the sample is recorded prior to removing the apparatus from the water bath and then, when consecutive readings are constant, the pressure is reported as the: 1) Uncorrected LP-Vapour pressure. 2) Corrected LP-Vapour pressure. 3) Gauge pressure. 4) Absolute pressure.

1) Uncorrected LP-Vapour pressure

``` The naturally occurring drive method with the highest efficiency rating as it relates to the drives ability to raise oil to the surface is: 1) Gas cap drive. 2) Enriched gas lift. 3) Dissolved gas drive. 4) Water drive. ```

4) Water drive.

The most commonly used method of secondary recovery is: 1) Miscible flooding. 2) Steam flooding. 3) Fire flooding. 4) Water flooding.

4) Water flooding.

If the well does not flow, its potentials can still be determined by the height to which the oil rises in the pipe and by pressure recorders installed within the equipment. 1) True 2) False

1) True

Normally, a wellhead consists of: 1) Casing, control head and tubing. 2) Casing shoe, control head and tubing. 3) Casing head, tubing head and Christmas tree. 4) Casing head, Christmas tree and tubing.

3) Casing head, tubing head and Christmas tree.

The tubing is run inside the casing: 1) From the wellhead to the battery. 2) From the wellhead to the oil or gas formation. 3) From the wellhead to the casing head. 4) From the wellhead to the Christmas tree.

2) From the wellhead to the oil or gas formation

Naturally occurring drives that help produce fluids to the surface include: 1) Water Drive, Gas Cap Drive and Water Flooding. 2) Water Drive, Gas Cap Drive and Miscible Flooding. 3) Water Drive, Dissolved Gas Drive and Water Flooding. 4) Water Drive, Dissolved Gas Drive and Gas Cap Drive.

4) Water Drive, Dissolved Gas Drive and Gas Cap Drive.

The purpose of an oil and gas well bottom hole pressure test is: 1) To test a well’s ability to produce in a 24-hour period under certain fixed conditions. 2) To initially determine a well’s fluids and its production potentials. 3) To determine the effect of different flow rates on the pressure within the producing zone. 4) To furnish information about the depletion of the producing zone.

4) To furnish information about the depletion of the producing zone.

The purpose of an oil and gas well potential test is: 1) To furnish information about the depletion of the producing zone. 2) To initially determine a well’s fluids and its production potentials. 3) To test a well’s ability to produce in a 24-hour period under certain fixed conditions. 4) To determine the effect of different flow rates on the pressure within the producing zone.

3) To test a well’s ability to produce in a 24-hour period under certain fixed conditions.

The Christmas tree allows: 1) Pumping of substances such as mud, water or oil for killing the well. 2) Flow of oil or gas during normal production. 3) Injection of gas, steam or other media under pressure to stimulate production. 4) All of the above

4) All of the above

Methods to stimulate natural production include: 1) Acidizing, Sand-fracturing and Gas lift. 2) Sand-fracturing, Gas lift and Perforating. 3) Acidizing, Sand-fracturing and Perforating. 4) Acidizing, Gas lift and Perforating.

3) Acidizing, Sand-fracturing and Perforating.

The fluid level determination test is most commonly performed on wells which do not flow and which must be assisted to produce by pumping or some other artificial method. This test involves: 1) The flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead. 2) The sound flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead. 3) The seismic recordings flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead. 4) None of the above.

2) The sound flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead.

The well control head tubing head: 1) Provides a base for the blowout preventers when drilling. 2) Supports the control valves through which the hydrocarbons are flowing. 3) Is designed with single or double wings. 4) Is used to measure the pressure on the tubing.

2) Supports the control valves through which the hydrocarbons are flowing.

``` The artificial lift method that involves injecting a slug of solvent capable of being mixed with the reservoir oil is: 1) Miscible flooding. 2) Water flooding. 3) Fire flooding. 4) Steam flooding. ```

1) Miscible flooding.

Oil and gas well tubing: 1) Facilitates the flow of oil or gas from the reservoir to the surface. 2) Prevents corrosion and wear of the casing. 3) Is cemented in place. 4) Both a and b.

4) Both a and b.

The most commonly used method of secondary recovery is: 1) Miscible flooding. 2) Steam flooding. 3) Fire flooding. 4) Water flooding.

4) Water flooding.

Well completion normally involves: 1) Running casing. 2) Installing a control head. 3) Installing tubing. 4) All of the above.

4) All of the above.

Liquid surging or slugging into a separator can be prevented by: 1) The application of inhibitors. 2) Proper selection and design of the separator. 3) The correct operation of the gathering system. 4) Both B and C.

4) Both B and C.

In general, which of the following factors should be considered when choosing the size and type of separator? 1) Gas flow rate, in cubic metres per day 2) Specific gravities of oil, water and gas 3) Temperatures and pressures at which the separator will operate 4) All of the above

4) All of the above

The size of a separator depends primarily on the _______________ and ______________ of liquids. 1) Type, volume 2) Gas pressure, gas temperature 3) Gas temperature, operating pressure 4) Gas density, gas type

1) Type, volume

Separator selection factors must include: 1) Liquid flow rates. 2) Presence of solids. 3) Temperature and pressure of the separator. 4) All of the above.

4) All of the above.

Controls that are most prevalent on separators are: 1) High liquid level and pressure. 2) High liquid flow. 3) High temperature and low liquid flow. 4) Low liquid flow and high temperature and gas flow.

1) High liquid level and pressure.

One method of remedying the problem of foaming in separators is: 1) Monitoring injected fluids. 2) Closing the liquid inlet. 3) Opening the dump valve. 4) Discharge the foam with the overhead gas.

1) Monitoring injected fluids.

One method of remedying the problem of foaming in separators is: 1) Monitoring injected fluids. 2) Closing the liquid inlet. 3) Opening the dump valve. 4) Discharge the foam with the overhead gas.

1) Monitoring injected fluids.

Which of the following is not a factor that would be considered in choosing the size and type of separator? 1) Gas flow rate, in cubic metres per day 2) Temperatures and pressures at which the separator will operate 3) Location of the gas field 4) All of the above

3) Location of the gas field

Correct liquid level maintenance prevents: 1) Gases entering through liquid inlets. 2) Gases going out through the liquid outlets. 3) Gases mixing with liquids. 4) Entrance of liquids into the separator.

2) Gases going out through the liquid outlets.

The temperature in the separator is different than the fluid temperature entering the separator. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Corrosion in separators may result from exposure to: 1) Carbon dioxide, water and nitrogen. 2) Water, nitrogen and helium. 3) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and water. 4) All of the above.

3) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and water

If the level of liquids rises too high in the separator, the operator should check the: 1) Dump valve controller and temperature controls. 2) Dump valve controller and the control valve block valves. 3) Temperature controls and the control valve block valves. 4) Backpressure controller and temperature controls.

2) Dump valve controller and the control valve block valves.

Plugged or blocked lines to a level control column will cause: 1) Liquid carry-over with the gas. 2) Gas breakthrough with the condensate. 3) Foaming in the separator. 4) False liquid level indications. 5) A and D.

5) A and D.

Liquid surging is the rapid: 1) Rise of temperature of liquids prior to separation. 2) Exit of liquids with the overhead gas. 3) Entry of liquid slugs into the separator from the lower portions of the pipeline. 4) Exit of liquid slugs into the pipeline from the lower portions of the separator.

3) Entry of liquid slugs into the separator from the lower portions of the pipeline.

One method of solving the problem of foaming in separators is: 1) Coating the internal surfaces of the separator. 2) Allowing the foam to discharge with the overhead gas. 3) Cleaning the interior surfaces of the separator. 4) Opening the separator dump valve fully.

3) Cleaning the interior surfaces of the separator.

A type of sediment rock is: 1) Schist 2) Basalt 3) Shale 4) Granite

3) Shale

A type of sediment rock is: 1) Schist 2) Basalt 3) Shale 4) Granite

3) Shale

A structural trap that results from the fracturing of crust rock and the differential movement of the rock causing a closure across the fracture is called: 1) A fault 2) A salt dome 3) An anticline 4) A syncline

1) A fault

Stratigraphic traps result when folds and faults in the earth’s strata create barriers to fluid migration. 1) True 2) False

2) False

The sedimentary rock that does not fall into the clastic rock grouping is: 1) Shale. 2) Sandstone. 3) Siltstone. 4) Dolomite.

4) Dolomite.

The exploration division of a gas company is not concerned with: 1) Geophysical exploration. 2) Acquisition of mineral rights. 3) Drilling to discover new sources of gas and oil. 4) Follow-up (development) drilling to define the size of a discovered pool.

4) Follow-up (development) drilling to define the size of a discovered pool.

``` The three conditions essential for the existence of oil and gas traps include porosity, permeability and _________. 1) seals 2) folds 3) faults 4) tilts ```

1) seals

The sediment rock that does not fall into the nonclastic rock grouping is: 1) Limestone. 2) Shale. 3) Dolomite. 4) Coquina.

2) Shale.

The structural trap in which the rocks in the earth’s crust are folded upward into a long and narrow shape is called: 1) A fault. 2) An unconformity. 3) A salt dome. 4) An anticline.

4) An anticline.

Natural gas was first exported to the US from: 1) Ontario to Detroit. 2) Alberta to Great Falls, MT. 3) New Brunswick to Washington. 4) Quebec to Maine.

1) Ontario to Detroit.

The operation of gas gathering systems, compression stations and large transmission pipelines is the responsibility of the: 1) Exploration, drilling and discovery division. 2) Development and production division. 3) Processing, transmitting, storing and marketing division. 4) Land lease division.

3) Processing, transmitting, storing and marketing division.

Rock that has been subjected to extreme heat or pressure (or a combination of both) such that its mineral composition is altered is referred to as: 1) Sediment rock. 2) Igneous rock. 3) Clastic rock. 4) Metamorphic rock.

4) Metamorphic rock.

Structural traps result when the structure and composition of the reservoir changes in an up-dip (upwardly inclined) and laterally to a nonporous rock. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Permeability within rocks is expressed: 1) As a percentage. 2) In units called darcies or millidarcies. 3) In meters. 4) In feet.

2) In units called darcies or millidarcies

Nonclastic rocks are formed when rocks of any nature are subjected to great heat or pressure. 1) True 2) False

2) False

Nonclastic rocks originate from: 1) Volcanic activity on the earth’s surface. 2) The erosion of rocks into sediments (gravel, sand, silt) that are then combined and hardened. 3) The accumulation and compression of marine organisms and chemical precipitates. 4) Being subjected to great heat and pressure or a combination of both.

3) The accumulation and compression of marine organisms and chemical precipitates.

Permeability of a formation depends on: 1) The depth of a well. 2) The reservoir pressure. 3) The rock grain shape. 4) The thickness of the gas-producing zone.

3) The rock grain shape.

Clastic rocks originate from: 1) Being subjected to great heat and pressure or a combination of both. 2) The accumulation and compression of marine organisms and chemical precipitates. 3) Volcanic activity on the earth’s surface. 4) The erosion of rocks into sediments (gravel, sand, silt) that are then combined and hardened.

4) The erosion of rocks into sediments (gravel, sand, silt) that are then combined and hardened.

eservoir beds are made up of: 1) Shales. 2) Igneous rock. 3) Salts. 4) Sandstone.

2) Igneous rock.

In Alberta, natural gas was first discovered in: 1) Turner Valley. 2) Leduc. 3) Medicine Hat. 4) Calgary.

3) Medicine Hat.

The sediment rock that does not fall into the nonclastic rock grouping is: 1) Limestone. 2) Shale. 3) Dolomite. 4) Coquina.

2) Shale.

Which of the following is not considered a division of the gas industry? 1) Exploration, discovery and drilling 2) Development and Production 3) Separation, Cooling and Compression 4) Processing and Transmission

3) Separation, Cooling and Compression

Choke valves are: 1) On/Off valves used to shut off the flow quickly. 2) Blinds used to prevent flow. 3) Master valves. 4) Needle valves used to control the gas flow at the desired rate.

4) Needle valves used to control the gas flow at the desired rate.

In a sour well, a build-up of pressure in the well casing is usually due to gas leakage through the: 1) Master valve. 2) Isolation packer. 3) Casing wall. 4) Tubing flow valve.

2) Isolation packer.

In hydrate control, the term "remedial methods" implies that: 1) Hydrates are processed as separate feedstocks. 2) The factors causing hydrate formation are removed. 3) Hydrates are inhibited by using either methanol or ethanol. 4) Hydrates are returned to the reservoir.

2) The factors causing hydrate formation are removed

Water coning is often a result of: 1) Producing the well at too high a rate. 2) Producing the well at too low a rate. 3) An increase in pressure. 4) An increase in temperature.

1) Producing the well at too high a rate.

Sulphide stress cracking in tubing is a type of corrosion that results from the reaction of: 1) CO2 with steel. 2) H2S with steel. 3) H2O with steel. 4) N2O with steel.

2) H2S with steel.

Sulphide stress cracking in tubing is a type of corrosion that results from the reaction of: 1) CO2 with steel. 2) H2S with steel. 3) H2O with steel. 4) N2O with steel.

2) H2S with steel.

Hydrates are: 1) Crystalline compounds formed under pressure by the chemical combination of natural gas and water. 2) Crystalline compounds formed under low pressure and temperature. 3) Organic deposits that accumulate in tubing strings. 4) Peptizing agents of asphaltene particles.

1) Crystalline compounds formed under pressure by the chemical combination of natural gas and water.

Corrosion occurs in the flow path of fluid, and it is more severe in fields containing _______ and _________. 1) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide 2) Nitrogen, propane 3) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide 4) Hydrogen peroxide, aluminum hydroxide

1) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide

When diethylene glycol is being used to dehydrate gas in which minor amounts of H2S are present, the vapours from the glycol reboiler are flared off at an approved flare stack. 1) True 2) False

1) True

Glycols are not generally used to dehydrate sour gas because of serious corrosion and environmental problems that may result. 1) True 2) False

1) True

In hydrate control, the term “preventive methods” implies that: 1) The factors causing hydrate formation are removed. 2) Hydrates are inhibited by using amines. 3) The factors causing hydrate formation are controlled. 4) Solid desiccants such as molecular sieves can be used to dehydrate gas at the wellhead.

The factors causing hydrate formation are controlled.

To convert MMCF/D to 103m3/d: 1) Multiply by 6.895 2) Multiply by 28.3179 3) Divide by 746 4) Subtract 32 and divide by 1.8

2) Multiply by 28.3179

Small pressure drops occur in wellhead and pipeline valves. This drop in pressure results in a corresponding drop in gas temperature causing: 1) Decrease in well flow. 2) Frost build-up on valves. 3) Increase in possibility of hydrate formation in the valves. 4) Increase in possibility of hydrate formation in the well tubing.

3) Increase in possibility of hydrate formation in the valves.

Asphaltene is also a serious concern in some producing wells because it: 1) Causes sulphide stress cracking. 2) Accumulates in the pipes and may plug up lines. 3) Causes water coning. 4) Corrodes the tubing strings.

2) Accumulates in the pipes and may plug up lines

Pitting is a type of corrosion that results in: 1) Cracks in the tubing. 2) Air in the casing annulus. 3) Build-up on tubing walls. 4) Craters in the tubing.

4) Craters in the tubing.

Today, sulphide stress cracking in well tubing is prevented primarily by: 1) Corrosion inhibitors. 2) Plastic coatings. 3) Specialty steel alloys. 4) Injection of aluminium hydroxide.

3) Specialty steel alloys

The air supply to the pilot of an indirect gas line heater should be regulated so: 1) The body of the flame is yellow and the tip slightly blue. 2) The body of the flames is orange and the tip slightly blue. 3) The flame appears bright white in colour. 4) The body of the flame is blue and the tip slightly yellow.

4) The body of the flame is blue and the tip slightly yellow.

In selecting a line heater appropriate for a particular application, the following must be considered: 1) Corrosive impurities in the gas. 2) Pressure drop in the heater. 3) Specific gravity of the gas. 4) All of the above.

4) All of the above.

Installing two inlet gas regulators can help prevent the regulators from freezing by: 1) Raising the pressure differential across each regulator. 2) Lowering the pressure differential across each regulator. 3) Reducing plant intake. 4) Increasing plant intake.

2) Lowering the pressure differential across each regulator.

A pipeline rupture will result in a substantial reduction in line pressures. The choke valves on surrounding wells will: 1) Remain at their current settings for the preset flow rates. 2) Close due to likely plant shutdown. 3) Open further to try to maintain pipeline pressures. 4) Close due to pipeline pressure dropping below design operating conditions.

4) Close due to pipeline pressure dropping below design operating conditions.

The surge pot or water saver on the top of a gas line heater: 1) Allows for a larger surface area of water to be exposed to the atmosphere in the heater. 2) Prevents thermal expansion of the water bath. 3) Minimizes evaporation of water and allows for thermal expansion of the water bath. 4) Maximizes evaporation of water in the heater.

3) Minimizes evaporation of water and allows for thermal expansion of the water bath.

When firing up a line heater: 1) Raise the temperature of the heat medium as rapidly as possible. 2) The temperature of the heat medium should not be raised too rapidly 3) Ensure that the fluid level in the heater is below the firetube and thermostat levels 4) Ensure that the burner is aimed along the firetube so that the flame impinges on the firetube

2) The temperature of the heat medium should not be raised too rapidly

In selecting a line heater appropriate for the application, the following must be considered: 1) Volume and specific gravity of the gas to be heated. 2) Temperature of the gas at both the heater inlet and outlet. 3) Pressure drop in the heater. 4) All of the above.

4) All of the above.

``` Choke controllers are positioned after the first pass of a 2-pass indirect heater to _________________ the gas prior to any pressure reduction. 1) Increase the pressure of 2) Pre-heat 3) Control flow of 4) Lower the pressure of ```

2) Pre-heat

A hydrate plug in the well lateral or gathering lines can result in: 1) A burner remaining on all the time. 2) High pressure. 3) Low pressure. 4) Rusting and pitting of the lines.

2) High pressure.

A check valve is installed in each well lateral. In the event of a line break between the heater and the main line, this check will prevent gas from flowing back to the rupture from the main gathering line. 1) True 2) False

1) True

The location of line heaters in a heated gas gathering system is primarily determined by: 1) Gas production rates. 2) Predicted heat loss rates. 3) Coldest ambient temperatures. 4) Pipeline pressure drop.

3) Coldest ambient temperatures.

Flowline heaters are installed and maintained in gas lines to: 1) Remove water by boiling it off. 2) Separate the water from the gas. 3) Elevate and keep the gas temperature at predetermined levels. 4) Remove sulphur dioxide and water.

3) Elevate and keep the gas temperature at predetermined levels.

``` To assist in corrosion control, the water bath is inhibited by the addition of chemicals to ensure that the pH is: 1) Acidic, 2.0 - 4.5. 2) Alkaline, 9.0 - 11.0. 3) Alkaline, 7.5 - 9.5. 4) Acidic, 4.5 - 6.0. ```

3) Alkaline, 7.5 - 9.5.

Before firing up a gas line heater, it is important to make sure that: 1) The fluid level is above the firetube and thermostat levels. 2) The fluid level is below the firetube and thermostat levels. 3) The water bath temperature is well below normal. 4) The water bath is empty and free of any residual water.

1) The fluid level is above the firetube and thermostat levels.

When firing up a line heater: 1) Ensure the burner is aimed along the firetube so the flame impinges on the firetube. 2) Ensure that the fluid level in the heater is below the firetube and thermostat levels. 3) Ensure the burner is aimed along the firetube so the flame does not impinge on the firetube. 4) Raise the temperature of the heat medium as rapidly as possible.

3) Ensure the burner is aimed along the firetube so the flame does not impinge on the firetube.

You are assigned the design development for a wet, sour gas gathering system. The receiving plant is centrally located with the distance to the furthest well being 10 km. The wellsite equipment you would likely use is: 1) Indirect heater, choke valve and hot oil circulating string. 2) Indirect heater, separator and compressor. 3) Indirect heater, oil storage and compressor. 4) Compressor, Separator and choke valve.

1) Indirect heater, choke valve and hot oil circulating string

The single most important step in firing up a heater is: 1) The thermostat is set to correct temperature. 2) Correct level of heat transfer fluid. 3) All fuel gas has been turned off and the heater allowed to ventilate thoroughly. 4) Suitable burner ignition source.

3) All fuel gas has been turned off and the heater allowed to ventilate thoroughly.

Pressure on the fuel gas to the burner should usually be adjusted to between: 1) 15 and 25 kPa. 2) 70 and 85 kPa. 3) 20 and 30 kPa. 4) 35 and 70 kPa.

4) 35 and 70 kPa.

Pressure on the fuel gas to the burner should usually be adjusted to between: 1) 15 and 25 kPa. 2) 70 and 85 kPa. 3) 20 and 30 kPa. 4) 35 and 70 kPa.

4) 35 and 70 kPa.

``` A hi-lo safety valve is installed in the flowline between the well and the heater. This plug valve is closed by a power cylinder operated by: 1) Low pressure fuel gas (20 kPa). 2) A thermostat. 3) An electronic shut-off. 4) High pressure fuel gas (1000 kPa). ```

4) High pressure fuel gas (1000 kPa).

2) The temperature of the heat medium should not be raised too rapidly

4) Coiled tubing drilling procedure.