GPO Final

Question 1

In the flash vaporization process, condensate from the HP flash drum is sent to the:

1) MP flash tank
2) Rich solution flash tank
3) Incinerator as fuel
4) Condensate storage tank

Answer 1

1) MP flash tank

Question 2

Stabilization by fractionation is a single tower process because:

1) The finished product from the bottom is composed mainly of butane.
2) Only one specification product is required.
3) Precise production of liquid of suitable vapour pressure is not necessary in the process.
4) Two specification products are required.

Answer 2

2) Only one specification product is required.

Question 3

Condensate stabilizers are effective at:

1) Removing C1, C2 and C3 and H2S and CO2
2) Fractionization of C3 and C4
3) Fractionization of natural gasoline
4) All of the abov

Answer 3

1) Removing C1, C2 and C3 and H2S and CO2

Question 4

Natural gasoline is in demand in the aviation field because:

1) Of the high propane content of the product
2) Of the lean absorption oil content of the product
3) Of the high vapour pressure of the product
4) Of the excellent octane characteristics of the product

Answer 4

4) Of the excellent octane characteristics of the product

Question 5

Stabilization by fractionation makes a cut between the lightest liquid component and:

1) Pentane
2) Butane
3) Methane
4) Propane

Answer 5

2) Butane

Question 6

Stabilization by fractionation is a single tower process since only one specification product is required.

1) True
2) False

Answer 6

1) True

Question 7

In the flash vaporization process, vapour from the condensate stripper is sent to the:

1) Condensate storage tank
2) Rich solution flash tank
3) Incinerator
4) LP flash tank

Answer 7

3) Incinerator

Question 8

Stabilization by fractionation makes a cut between the heaviest gas and:

1) Pentane
2) Ethane
3) Propane
4) Butane

Answer 8

1) Pentane

Question 9

The removal of the methane, ethane, and propane from the stream and the reduction of butane content:

1) Increases the production of sales gas
2) Raises the condensate vapour pressure and lowers evaporation
losses
3) Decreases the production of sales gas
4) Lowers the condensate vapour pressure but increases evaporation losses

Answer 9

1) Increases the production of sales gas

Question 10

Condensate stabilizers produce a product often referred to as:

1) Crude oil
2) Motor fuel
3) Natural gasoline
4) Natural gas liquids

Answer 10

3) Natural gasoline

Question 11

In natural gasoline, the maximum allowable butane content, without a penalty, is usually:

1) 15% by volume
2) 0.5% by volume
3) 1.5% by volume
4) 1.75% by volum

Answer 11

3) 1.5% by volume

Question 12

To ensure that the vapour pressure can be adjusted to the product customers desired level, gas plant finished gasoline contains small amounts of:

1) Methane
2) Octane
3) Propane
4) Butane

Answer 12

4) Butane

Question 13

Equilibrium vaporization occurs when the vapour and liquid phases are in equilibrium at the:

1) Inlet of the fractionation tower
2) Initial temperature and pressure of separation
3) Highest point on the Reid Vapour Pressure scale
4) Final temperature and pressure of separation

Answer 13

4) Final temperature and pressure of separation

Question 14

Condensate stabilization through the Flash Vaporization process is most likely to produce which product?

1) Butane and pentane
2) Butane and septane
3) Methane and ethane
4) Ethane and octane

Answer 14

3) Methane and ethane

Question 15

What end-use or feed for flash gases is produced in the incinerator fuel stage:

1) H.P Condensate Flash Drum
2) M.P. Condensate Flash Drum
3) L.P. Condensate Flash Tank
4) Condensate Stripper

Answer 15

4) Condensate Stripper

Question 16

The Natural Gas Processors Association has established 24 different grades of gasoline based on the:

1) Volatility and Composition of the product
2) Volatility and Reid Vapour Pressure of the product
3) Composition and Reid Vapour Pressure of the product
4) None of the above

Answer 16

2) Volatility and Reid Vapour Pressure of the product

Question 17

Flash drums are employed in an inlet separation system to:

1) Eliminate the possibility of hydrate blockings.
2) Obtain the release of vapour contents from the hydrocarbon liquids.
3) Recover all liquids, regardless of the operating conditions in the separator itself.
4) Capture and recycle the vapour contents from the hydrocarbon liquids.

Answer 17

2) Obtain the release of vapour contents from the hydrocarbon liquids.

Question 18

A liquid slug at the inlet separator has activated the high level alarm in the control centre. This is also likely to result in:

1) Liquid carry-over into the amine unit.
2) Activation of the raw gas inlet ESD valve.
3) Foaming in the separator.
4) Icing across the dump valve.

Answer 18

2) Activation of the raw gas inlet ESD valve.

Question 19

The production from the well, brought into the plant at fairly high rate, is passed to the flare through the separator and later is diverted to the plant, warming up the lines. However, prolonged flaring may cause:

1) The flare lines to freeze with hydrates or plug off.
2) The drain valves to back up.
3) Slugging in the separator vessel.
4) A high level condition.

Answer 19

1) The flare lines to freeze with hydrates or plug off

Question 20

On starting up a new plant, it will be necessary to pressurize the gathering lines and all equipment.
1) True 2) False

Answer 20

1) True

Question 21

An effective method of controlling maximum liquid levels in separators is: 1) Shutdown of well(s).

2) Reduction of raw gas inlet rates.
3) Opening of the excess liquid control valve.
4) B and C.
5) A, B and C

Answer 21

4) B and C.

Question 22

The purpose of a line separator downstream of a primary inlet separator is to:

1) Increase liquid capacity during slug conditions.
2) Increase recovery of flash vapours from hydrocarbon liquids.
3) Produce water carry-over with liquid hydrocarbons.
4) Increase liquid removal from inlet gas streams.

Answer 22

4) Increase liquid removal from inlet gas streams.

Question 23

During a process upset, it may be necessary to flare some gas. What potential problem increases the longer the flare valve is open?

1) Hydrates
2) Slugging
3) Corrosion
4) Foaming

Answer 23

1) Hydrates

Question 24

In an inlet separator, hydrates formed during prolonged flaring may be eliminated by:

1) Heating the gas stream.
2) Adding methanol to the gas stream.
3) Removing the water from the gas stream.
4) All of the above.

Answer 24

2) Adding methanol to the gas stream.

Question 25

A condensate demethanizer is added to a gas plant inlet stream to:

1) Pass on condensate to the stabilizer feed drum.
2) Flash out any remaining light vapours.
3) Recycle the product back to the inlet separator feed drum.
4) All of the above.

Answer 25

4) All of the above.

Question 26

Identify the process stream in C in the inlet separator below.

1) Raw Inlet Gas
2) Produced Water
3) Dry gas to HP Contactor
4) Liquid Hydrocarbon outlet

Answer 26

3) Dry gas to HP Contactor

Question 27

It is highly recommended to know the shut down devices that are on an inlet gas facility.
1) True 2) False

Answer 27

1) True

Question 28

Identify vessel D in the figure below.

1) Inlet Separator
2) Inlet Separator Hydrocarbon Flash Drum
3) Feed Gas Scrubber
4) Inlet Separator Water Flash Drum

Answer 28

4) Inlet Separator Water Flash Drum

Question 29

When starting up inlet separation equipment, it may be necessary to open the inlet valve wide open to prevent the formation of hydrates in the wellhead, well tubing or processing equipment.
1) True 2) False

Answer 29

2) False

Question 30

Heating of hydrocarbon liquids in a Dump Separator or Demethanizer will:

1) Eliminate formation of hydrates.
2) Flash light hydrocarbons.
3) Stabilize liquid hydrocarbons.
4) Recover additional liquid hydrocarbons.

Answer 30

2) Flash light hydrocarbons.

Question 31

In major gas plants, the LPG and gasoline recovery section of the plant is designed to scrub the chilled gas stream with low molecular weight absorption oil and remove most of its liquefiable hydrocarbons and gasoline constituents. One prerequisite in LPG recovery is that both the gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled before the _____________ process.

1) Absorption
2) Dehydration
3) Refrigeration
4) Amine

Answer 31

1) Absorption

Question 32

Extracted acid gases removed from the gas stream in the sweetening section of a gas plant include all of the following except:

1) Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).
2) Carbonyl sulphide (COS).
3) Mercaptans (RSH).
4) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S).

Answer 32

1) Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).

Question 33

In a gas plant that has no LPG and gasoline facilities, the gas dehydration method most likely to be used would be one that makes use of:

1) Refrigeration.
2) A trough of liquid desiccants.
3) Glycol solutions.
4) A bed of dry desiccants.

Answer 33

4) A bed of dry desiccants.

Question 34

The modified Claus method is a sulphur recovery method in which one third of the hydrogen sulphide in the acid gas feed is burned completely to form:

1) Sulphur dioxide.
2) Carbon monoxide.
3) Sulphur monoxide.
4) Carbonyl sulphide.

Answer 34

1) Sulphur dioxide.

Question 35

To remove water from gas using refrigeration, the gas stream is chilled by means of propane refrigeration to condense the water vapour and the heavier hydrocarbon vapours, such as propane, butane, and pentane. How is the water vapour kept from freezing after condensation?

1) The gas is sprayed with glycol at points ahead of the chillers.
2) The gas is infused with carbon disulphide (CS2).
3) The gas is directed through a bed of solid desiccants.
4) The pre-chilled gas is directed to the bottom of an absorption tower

Answer 35

1) The gas is sprayed with glycol at points ahead of the chillers

Question 36

The first step in processing the feed gas after it enters the plant is the:

1) Removal of the sour and other undesirable gases from the feed gas stream.
2) Dehydration of the gas to reduce the water content.
3) Conversion of the H2S content to elemental sulphur.
4) Separation of its liquid components.

Answer 36

4) Separation of its liquid components.

Question 37

Government regulations require sulphur recovery efficiencies of:

1) 100%
2) 95% to 97%
3) 88% to 90%
4) 98% to 99%

Answer 37

4) 98% to 99%

Question 38

The ______________________ process removes undesirable gases such as hydrogen sulphide (H2S), carbon dioxide (CO2), small quantities of carbonyl sulphide (COS), and carbon disulphide (CS2).

1) Dehydration
2) Gas sweetening
3) Refrigeration
4) Glycol

Answer 38

2) Gas sweetening

Question 39

Which of the following auxiliaries may be required for a gas processing facility?

1) Garbage disposal, water disposal, bear control
2) Steam generating facilities, electrical generation facilities, water supply
3) Fire station, mail services, refueling station
4) Water heating, electrical generation, garbage disposal

Answer 39

2) Steam generating facilities, electrical generation facilities, water supply

Question 40

In modern gas plants, what process does the industry generally favour as the best single step for preparing the gas stream for LPG recovery and removal of a large portion of gasoline constituents?

1) Glycol
2) Solid desiccants
3) Condensate stabilization
4) Refrigeration

Answer 40

4) Refrigeration

Question 41

Of the three auxiliary processes discussed in this module, it is the _________ generation process that is essential to sour gas processing and treatment.

1) Water
2) Steam
3) Electrical

Answer 41

2) Steam

Question 42

In a deep-cut facility, the LPG recovery process makes use of a:

1) Catalytic reactor and a bauxite catalyst bed.
2) Turboexpander and condensate stabilization.
3) Turboexpander and cryogenic principles.
4) Condensate stabilization facility and cryogenic principles.

Answer 42

3) Turboexpander and cryogenic principles.

Question 43

Steam generation is absolutely necessary for sour gas processing and treatment.
1) True 2) False

Answer 43

1) True

Question 44

One pre-requisite in LPG recovery is that:

1) The gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled before the absorption process.
2) Only the gas stream must be chilled before the absorption process.
3) The gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled after the absorption process.
4) Only the lean oil stream must be chilled after the absorption process.

Answer 44

1) The gas stream and the circulating lean oil must be chilled before the absorption process.

Question 45

The feedstock of acid gases matches with which gas processing plant component?

1) Gas Sweetening
2) Sulphur Plant
3) Condensate Stabilization
4) NGL Fractionation

Answer 45

2) Sulphur Plant

Question 46

The lean oil from the fractionator bottoms supplies heat to the deethanizer side reboilers before being cooled.
It is then:

1) Presaturated with deethanizer residue gas.
2) Mixed with the rich absorption oil in the absorber base.
3) Circulated as lean absorption oil at a fairly low temperature.
4) Injected ahead of the heat exchangers and chillers to prevent hydrate formation

Answer 46

1) Presaturated with deethanizer residue gas.

Question 47

The feedstock of low temperature natural gas liquids matches with which gas processing plant component?

1) Gas Sweetening
2) Sulphur Plant
3) Condensate Stabilization
4) NGL Fractionation

Answer 47

4) NGL Fractionation

Question 48

In the chillers, the heavier hydrocarbons are condensed at:

1) 29°C.
2) -39°C.
3) -29°C.
4) -9°C

Answer 48

3) -29°C.

Question 49

Fractionation is the term used in the:

1) Separation of liquid hydrocarbons from produced water.
2) Removal of mercaptans and water from LPGs.
3) Recovery of NGLs from a natural gas stream.
4) Separation of NGLs into specific hydrocarbon components.

Answer 49

4) Separation of NGLs into specific hydrocarbon components.

Question 50

The feedstock raw inlet condensate matches with which gas processing plant component?

1) Gas Sweetening
2) Sulphur Plant
3) Condensate Stabilization
4) NGL Fractionation

Answer 50

3) Condensate Stabilization

Question 51

During fractionation, the resultant propane and butane products are individually treated to:

1) Presaturate the absorption oil before chilling.
2) Remove mercaptans and water before storing.
3) Recover the raw hydrocarbon product from the absorption oil.
4) Prevent hydrate formation and to dry the gas

Answer 51

2) Remove mercaptans and water before storing.

Question 52

Identify the piece of equipment associated with the LPG recovery process:

1) Catalytic converter
2) LP amine contactor
3) Lean oil absorber
4) Depropanizer

Answer 52

3) Lean oil absorber

Question 53

In the HP contactor of the gas sweetening stage, the sour gas is contacted with a sweetening agent by:

1) Circulating counter-currently in the towers.
2) Flashing off the methane content in the condensate demethanizer.
3) Refrigerating and mixing with the rich absorption oil in the absorber base.
4) A series of distillations, designed to separate the sour gas from the stream.

Answer 53

1) Circulating counter-currently in the towers.

Question 54

To separate propane from recovered natural gas liquids tight control of designed _______________ and _______________ must be maintained in the depropanizer.

1) Pressure, flow rate
2) Flow rate, liquid levels
3) Temperature, pressure
4) Liquid levels, temperature

Answer 54

3) Temperature, pressure

Question 55

In the stabilizer, the light ends are removed from the top and the bottom stabilized condensate product flows to storage to be regenerated in a still for further treating duties.
1) True 2) False

Answer 55

2) False

Question 56

The lean glycol from the glycol regenerator is returned to the chillers while the water vapour is:

1) Re-circulated to the HP contractor.
2) Vented to the atmosphere.
3) Fed back to the chillers to aid in cooling.
4) Flashed to the reabsorber

Answer 56

2) Vented to the atmosphere.

Question 57

Identify the piece of equipment associated with the fractionation process:

1) Catalytic converter
2) LP amine contactor
3) Lean oil absorber
4) Depropanizer

Answer 57

4) Depropanizer

Question 58

The viscosity of sulphur is at its highest viscosity at 154°C. 1) True 2) False

Answer 58

2) False

Question 59

In Alberta, license requirements governing sulphur recovery from sour gases are established by the:

1) APEGA.
2) WCB.
3) ERCB.
4) Ministry of Mines, Minerals and Resources.

Answer 59

3) ERCB.

Question 60

The world demand for sulphur is dependent on:

1) Agricultural demand for fertilizers.
2) Sustained economic activity.
3) Demand for petroleum gases.
4) Regulated rates of sulphur from H2S.

Answer 60

2) Sustained economic activity.

Question 61

The principle sulphate is:

1) Limestone.
2) Pyrite.
3) Gypsum.
4) Calcite

Answer 61

3) Gypsum.

Question 62

The melting point of sulphur is exactly 119°C.

1) True 2) False

Answer 62

2) False

Question 63

The industry that consumes the most sulphur production is:

1) Pulp and paper.
2) Chemical manufacturing.
3) Fertilizer.
4) Petroleum.

Answer 63

3) Fertilizer.

Question 64

During the early afternoon, a heat sensor alarm has gone off in a sulphur block storage facility. There is obviously a fire somewhere in the sulphur blocks being stored outside. The sensor covers a large number of sulphur blocks. What would be the quickest way to find the fire?

1) Touch the sulphur blocks until you find the hot one.
2) Find the source of the acrid odour.
3) Look for a bright yellow flame.
4) Look for a blue flame.

Answer 64

2) Find the source of the acrid odour.

Question 65

Elemental sulphur produced from sour gas may be hazardous due to:

1) It being a friable solid which breaks easily.
2) Its characteristic of being extremely hot in liquid form.
3) Its ability to absorb H2S and SO2.
4) The fact that it burns with a soft blue flame invisible in daylight.

Answer 65

4) The fact that it burns with a soft blue flame invisible in daylight.

Question 66

Sulphur is not attacked by hydrochloric acid, except in the presence of large amounts of:

1) Air.
2) Lead.
3) Zinc.
4) Iron.

Answer 66

4) Iron.

Question 67

At approximately 154°C the liquid sulphur becomes dark brown in colour, and its:

1) Viscosity is at its minimum.
2) Odour is undetectable by smell.
3) Vaporization rate is drastically reduced.
4) Viscosity is at its maximum.

Answer 67

1) Viscosity is at its minimum.

Question 68

At which temperature does sulphur reach its highest viscosity?

1) 154°C
2) 293°C
3) 193°C
4) 119°C

Answer 68

3) 193°C

Question 69

Refer to the graph below. Between the temperature of 120 to 160°C the viscosity of liquid sulphur:

1) Increases.
2) Remains the same.
3) Is at its maximum.
4) Decrease.

Answer 69

4) Decrease.

Question 70

At normal atmospheric temperature, sulphur appears as a:

1) Yellow and crystalline liquid.
2) Yellow and crystalline solid.
3) Straw-yellow transparent liquid.
4) Dark brown and crystalline solid.

Answer 70

2) Yellow and crystalline solid.

Question 71

Concentrated sulphuric acid in contact with sulphur will liberate sulphur dioxide at:

1) 200°C.
2) 250°C.
3) 100°C.
4) 1200°C.

Answer 71

1) 200°C

Question 72

Today the primary reason for conversion of H2S into elemental sulphur is:

1) Economic benefit
2) Manufacturing industry demand for product
3) Government regulations
4) Safe handling of H2S

Answer 72

3) Government regulations

Question 73

In a refluxed stabilizer when the vapour pressure of the natural gasoline gets too high:

1) The setpoint of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller is raised to increase the fuel to the heater.
2) The setpoint of the stabilizer feed drum pressure controller is raised to increase the pressure in the drum.
3) The setpoint of the stabilizer reflux accumulator level controller is raised to increase the reflux rate to the tower.
4) The setpoint of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller is lowered to decrease the fuel to the heater.

Answer 73

1) The setpoint of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller is raised to increase the fuel to the heater

Question 74

In order to avoid flame impingement on the tubes of a fired heater:

1) The fuel gas pressure must be increased.
2) An adjustment to the air dampers below the burners is occasionally required.
3) The excess air supplied to the heater must be removed.
4) The air dampers below the burners must be fully closed.

Answer 74

2) An adjustment to the air dampers below the burners is occasionally required.

Question 75

In a refluxed type of stabilizer, when the vapour pressure of the gasoline becomes too high, it means that the:

1) Set point of the stabilizer bottom temperature controller must be lowered.
2) Butane content is too low.
3) Set point of the stabilizer overhead temperature controller must be lowered.
4) Butane content is too high.

Answer 75

4) Butane content is too high.

Question 76

The bottom temperature in a condensate stabilizer is kept close to:

1) 400°C.
2) 150°C.
3) 300°C.
4) 200°C.

Answer 76

4) 200°C.

Question 77

Specific gravity is measured by an instrument called a:

1) Micrometer.
2) Dynamometer.
3) Manometer.
4) Hydrometer.

Answer 77

4) Hydrometer.

Question 78

To detect the presence of free sulphur in gasoline, plant laboratory personnel conduct a:

1) Reid vapour pressure test.
2) Dryness test.
3) Copper strip test.
4) Specific gravity tes

Answer 78

3) Copper strip test.

Question 79

The reflux rate to the tower is controlled by a flow controller set by the:

1) Inlet flow at the surge tank.
2) Liquid level of the reflux accumulator.
3) Overhead condensate levels at the damper.
4) Liquid level at the LP contactor.

Answer 79

2) Liquid level of the reflux accumulator.

Question 80

Flame impingement on the tubes may be indicated by:

1) High temperature alarms.
2) Excess condensate outlet temperature.
3) Visible smoke from the heater’s stack.
4) Visible hot spots on the tubes.

Answer 80

4) Visible hot spots on the tubes.

Question 81

To remove mercaptans from condensate in a stabilization tower, the reflux rate needs to:

1) Be shut off completely.
2) Be increased.
3) Be decreased.
4) Remain constant

Answer 81

2) Be increased.

Question 82

The condensate to storage temperature in a condensate stabilizer system is maintained in the:

1) 93-121°C range.
2) 66-77°C range.
3) 27-38°C range.
4) 204-232°C range.

Answer 82

3) 27-38°C range.

Question 83

Regardless of which start-up method is used to start the stabilizer process, the feed tank should be ready to: 1) Receive the flashed vapour and dispose of the condensate.

2) Allow liquid to collect in the top of the stabilizer.
3) Receive condensate and dispose of the flashed vapour.
4) Allow the feed to flow at maximum rate.

Answer 83

3) Receive condensate and dispose of the flashed vapour.

Question 84

Excessive concentrations of heat at the tube fins in a fired heater may cause:

1) Liquid surging.
2) Internal coking and weak spots.
3) Hydrate formation.
4) External coking and weak spots.

Answer 84

2) Internal coking and weak spots.

Question 85

The purpose of grounding condensate transport trucks is it:

1) Enables loading pumps to run.
2) Provides truckers indication of tank level.
3) Informs Control Centre of loading operations.
4) Eliminates static electricity

Answer 85

4) Eliminates static electricity

Question 86

When loading or unloading condensate, any spills must be cleaned up after the truck driver has started his engine and driven off plant property.
1) True 2) False

Answer 86

2) False

Question 87

The liquid feed to the stabilizer feed drum is usually maintained above 15°C in order to avoid:

1) Contamination of the reflux.
2) Hydrate plugging in the vapour outlet line when the pressure is dropped.
3) Contact between the water and condensate.
4) Hydrate plugging in the vapour outlet line when the pressure is increased.

Answer 87

) Hydrate plugging in the vapour outlet line when the pressure is dropped.

Question 88

The truck driver is not required to be in attendance during the loading or unloading of condensate.
1) True 2) False

Answer 88

2) False

Question 89

A gas booster plant is a compression plant that uses a number of compressors to:

1) Decrease the gas pressure for transmission purposes.
2) Strip off the valuable liquefiable products of ethane, propane, butane and gasoline.
3) Pump residue gas at high pressure into the reservoir, promoting recovery of liquid hydrocarbons.
4) Increase the gas pressure for transmission purposes.

Answer 89

4) Increase the gas pressure for transmission purposes.

Question 90

Gas processing plants must be able to:

1) Withstand high operational pressures.
2) Be completely automated.
3) Remove small amounts of acid gases from the feedstock.
4) Run with completely sealed equipment units that are only accessible to highly trained contract maintenance personnel from outside the company.

Answer 90

1) Withstand high operational pressures.

Question 91

Identify part A from the three major pieces of equipment contained in a gas cycling plant.

1) Oil Absorber
2) Compression Plant
3) Separation Plant

Answer 91

2) Compression Plant

Question 92

In the illustration of a Gas Cycling Plant that has been designed with a Gas Sales System (shown below), the residue gas from the absorber is fed through the ___________ and ________________ into the injection well.

1) HP gas coolers, Heater
2) Heater, sales gas separator
3) HP scrubber, compressors
4) Reabsorber, absorber

Answer 92

3) HP scrubber, compressors

Question 93

Gas processing plants must be able to complete the following functions to ensure that the sales contracts will be met.
1. Acid gas removal 2. Operate at high pressures 3. Handle large volumes of gas 4. Liquefy sulphur 5. Equipment is designed for inspection and maintenance 6. Flare any excess gas that cannot be sent to sales

1) 3, 4, 5, 6
2) 1, 2, 5, 6
3) 1, 2, 3, 5
4) 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer 93

3) 1, 2, 3, 5

Question 94

Identify part C from the three major pieces of equipment contained in a gas cycling plant.

1) Oil Absorber
2) Compression Plant
3) Separation Plan

Answer 94

1) Oil Absorber

Question 95

Rich and lean oil streams in gas plants are differentiated by their level of sulphur.
1) True 2) False

Answer 95

2) False

Question 96

Of the following, which is not an important function of a natural gas plant?

1) To receive the sour natural gas from underground geological reservoirs and remove all objectionable impurities
2) To reduce the water content of raw gas to the level that ensures maximum separation process efficiency
3) To separate and remove certain constituents such as ethane, propane, butane and condensate
4) To repressurize the gas to a specified pressure for transmission purposes

Answer 96

2) To reduce the water content of raw gas to the level that ensures maximum separation process efficiency

Question 97

The purpose of dehydrating a gas is:

1) To prepare the gas for re-injection back into the formation.
2) To remove the hydrocarbon condensate.
3) To remove H2S.
4) To remove the water.

Answer 97

4) To remove the water.

Question 98

In the illustration shown below, after the water is separated from the gas flow, the raw gas from the wells enters the gas sweetening process, where the sulphur is ________ and sent to market.

1) Recovered
2) Dehydrated
3) Sweetened
4) Refrigerate

Answer 98

1) Recovered

Question 99

A plant that is designed to pump residue gas at high pressure into the reservoir to promote the recovery of additional liquid hydrocarbons and to maintain the reservoir pressure at a desired level is known as a gas:

1) Repressuring plant.
2) Booster plant.
3) Stripping plant.
4) Straddle plant

Answer 99

1) Repressuring plant.

Question 100

Aside from its other processes, a conventional gas processing plant may be equipped with facilities to:

1) Process rich crude oil streams.
2) Convert the hydrogen sulphide to elemental sulphur.
3) Convert the elemental sulphur to hydrogen sulphide.
4) Inject wet gas back into the formation.

Answer 100

2) Convert the hydrogen sulphide to elemental sulphur.

Question 101

Control of the dewpoint in the sales gas is attained by a: 1) Straddle plant.

2) Deep cut plant.
3) Stripping plant.
4) Dehydration plant

Answer 101

4) Dehydration plant

Question 102

Since gas plant processes result in drastic gas pressure reduction, gas plants must be capable of _________________ the gas for transmission purposes.

1) Depressurizing
2) Re-pressurizing
3) Removing the gasoline
4) Re-injecting

Answer 102

2) Re-pressurizing

Question 103

The type of gas plant that receives a rich gas stream, usually from a pipeline carrier, and after removing the liquid hydrocarbons, re-injects the lean gas back to the pipeline is known as a:

1) Gas stripping plant.
2) Gas cycling plant.
3) Gas booster plant.
4) Gas injection plant

Answer 103

1) Gas stripping plant.

Question 104

The most popular dehydration processes today are solid desiccants, glycol scrubbing, and:

1) Re-injection.
2) Recycling.
3) Refrigeration.
4) Boosting

Answer 104

3) Refrigeration.

Question 105

In a Claus process straight-through plant that is equipped with condensers and converters using hot gas mixing valves and final stage steam reheat, the acid gas containing hydrogen sulphide enters the sulphur unit through the acid gas knockout drum. The flow then moves to the:

1) No. 1 condenser.
2) 3-way mixing valve.
3) Reaction furnace burner.
4) No. 2 condenser.

Answer 105

3) Reaction furnace burner.

Question 106

In a split-flow Claus process plant, all of the H2S feed to the furnace is oxidized to sulphur dioxide. The effluent from the furnace equals about:

1) 10% of the 1/3 volume.
2) 20% of the 1/3 volume.
3) 10% of the 2/3 volume.
4) 20% of the 2/3 volume

Answer 106

2) 20% of the 1/3 volume.

Question 107

In a straight flow-through sulphur recovery unit, combustion in the reaction furnace differs from a split flow process in that the combustion:

1) Occurs in a sub-stoichiometric condition.
2) Occurs at higher temperatures.
3) Occurs at a higher efficiency.
4) Occurs at a lower efficiency.

Answer 107

2) Occurs at higher temperatures.

Question 108

The purpose of the incinerator is to burn any remaining SO2 to H2S. 1) True 2) False

Answer 108

2) False

Question 109

The split-flow process works by dividing the acid gas stream into two portions. One portion, which is 1/3 of the total volume, is fed directly into the reaction furnace burner. The remaining 2/3 is fed into the:

1) Tail gas incinerator.
2) First condenser.
3) Waste heat boiler.
4) First converter.

Answer 109

4) First converter.

Question 110

Liquid sulphur is kept molten in underground sulphur pits. To keep this sulphur in a liquid state, the use of steam coils is used to keep the sulphur liquid.

1) True 2) False

Answer 110

1) True

Question 111

In a Claus process straight-through plant, when the gas stream leaves the No. 2 condenser, it is mixed with hot gas that is at a temperature of:

1) 896°C.
2) 138°C.
3) 220°C.
4) 480°C.

Answer 111

4) 480°C.

Question 112

H2S is converted to SO2 in the incinerator furnace by: 1) Catalytic reaction.

2) Combustion at high temperatures.
3) Reaction with remaining SO2.
4) Reaction with fuel gas.

Answer 112

2) Combustion at high temperatures.

Question 113

The primary purpose of condensers in a sulphur recovery process is:

1) To cool the effluent gas prior to entering the converter beds, thus improving conversion efficiency.
2) Recovery of heat generated in the exothermic reactions occurring in the SRU.
3) Removal of S2 from effluent vapours.
4) To generate steam for use in the processing plant.

Answer 113

3) Removal of S2 from effluent vapours

Question 114

The acid gas feed to the plant’s Sulphur Recovery Unit is made up of 28% CO2 and 72% H2S. The type of sulphur recovery process used would be: 1) Split Flow.

2) Straight Flow.
3) Direct Oxidation.
4) Hot Gas By-Pass.

Answer 114

2) Straight Flow.

Question 115

The sulphur recycle and the direct oxidation processes are similar to other Claus processes. However, in these two processes, to avoid hydrocarbon contamination of the converter beds, in the sulphur recycle plant:

1) No fuel gas is used to provide combustion.
2) SO2 is added to the stream.
3) CO2 is added to aid in combustion.
4) Sulphur is burned to provide SO2.

Answer 115

4) Sulphur is burned to provide SO2.

Question 116

All of the following are advantages of a straight through process except one statement. Select the statement that is incorrect.

1) The process is ideally suited to acid gas flows in excess of 50% H2S.
2) Capable of 98 − 99% sulphur recovery.
3) The first converter operates at a much higher temperature improving sulphur recoveries.
4) The process has been simplified with fewer instruments and controls

Answer 116

3) The first converter operates at a much higher temperature improving sulphur recoveries.

Question 117

In a split flow Sulphur Plant with acid gas having an H2S content of 15%, both air and acid gas are preheated to: 1) Vapourize water.

2) Directly oxidize H2S to SO2.
3) Increase efficiency of sulphur recovery.
4) Stabilize combustion in reaction furnace.

Answer 117

4) Stabilize combustion in reaction furnace

Question 118

In a very lean feed plant, the effluent gases from the boiler are cooled to: 1) 220°C.

2) 205°C.
3) 370°C.
4) 250°C.

Answer 118

4) 250°C.

Question 119

Seals on sulphur outlet lines from condensers are used to:

1) Maintain desired temperature in the condenser.
2) Prevent steam mixing with effluent vapours.
3) Prevent effluent gases from being emitted to the atmosphere.
4) Prevent S2 from solidifying.

Answer 119

3) Prevent effluent gases from being emitted to the atmosphere.

Question 120

The highest level of S2 recovery from the acid gas is observed by:

1) Tight control of the air to acid gas ratio.
2) The lowest fuel requirements in the incinerator stack
3) The highest amount of sulphur produced.
4) The lowest SO2 emission rate from the incinerator stack.

Answer 120

4) The lowest SO2 emission rate from the incinerator stack.

Question 121

Most plants use the air to acid gas ratio as the primary control for load changes. To trim the air to acid gas ratio when running in a steady condition, sulphur plants can make use of tail gas:

1) Analyzers.
2) Clean-up units.
3) Boosters.
4) Pumps.

Answer 121

1) Analyzers.

Question 122

The Continuous Stack Emission Monitor records:

1) H2S to SO2 ratio.
2) Air demand.
3) Total SO2 released to the atmosphere.
4) Total SO2 and H2S released to the atmosphere.

Answer 122

3) Total SO2 released to the atmosphere

Question 123

In Alberta, Alberta Environment requires all sulphur plants to have ambient air quality monitoring done at a specified location:

1) Downwind of the plant.
2) Inside of the plant.
3) Upwind of the plant.
4) In a sheltered location beside the plant.

Answer 123

1) Downwind of the plant.

Question 124

After the stream has passed through the converter, heat generated from the reactors is transferred to feed water or steam in the condenser. The gases are then cooled to: 1) 13.8°C.

2) 1380°C.
3) 138°C.
4) 1.38°C.

Answer 124

3) 138°C.

Question 125

When acid gas flow rates, ambient temperatures or the atmospheric pressure change, it may be necessary to adjust the acid gas to air ratio and the acid gas bypass rate in split-flow plants. Ratios of lower than 2:1 indicate insufficient:

1) Air.
2) Hydrogen sulphide.
3) Heat.
4) All of the above.

Answer 125

2) Hydrogen sulphide.

Question 126

The gas temperature leaving the incinerator is ________ to burn off any remaining H2S. 1) 260°C

2) 138°C
3) 538°C
4) 649°C

Answer 126

4) 649°C

Question 127

Claus reaction temperature of 232°C is best obtained by adjusting the hot combustion products from the first pass of the sulphur boiler. The temperature of the exit gases is about 18°C higher than the inlet temperature due to the release of:

1) Atmospheric heat.
2) Exothermic heat.
3) Endothermic heat.
4) Intrinsic heat.

Answer 127

2) Exothermic heat.

Question 128

In sulphur plants where chemical reactions are the backbone of the process, the effect of temperature on the reaction rates is important. In an operating sulphur plant, of the following, the operator is least concerned with the temperature of the: 1) Stack outlet.

2) Sulphur.
3) Condenser.
4) Tail gas.

Answer 128

2) Sulphur.

Question 129

The sulphur purity test samples are taken from the liquid sulphur drains. The tests performed on samples from these locations determine the content of all of the following except the:

1) Sulphur plant feed gas
2) Carbon dioxide.
3) Sulphur dioxide.
4) Non-acid gas residue components.

Answer 129

1) Sulphur plant feed gas

Question 130

nowing the amount of H2S in the sulphur plant’s acid gas is critical in setting:

1) The reaction furnace design temperature.
2) The correct air to gas ratio in the reaction furnace.
3) The correct air to gas ratio in the incinerator.
4) The amount of Hot Gas by-pass flow to the first converter.

Answer 130

2) The correct air to gas ratio in the reaction furnace.

Question 131

Burning more than 1/3 of the H2S in the reaction furnace will increase SO2 emissions from the incinerator stack due to:

1) Insufficient H2S to react with SO2 generated.
2) An increased amount of water vapour.
3) Fouling of the catalyst.
4) Insufficient SO2 to react with H2S.

Answer 131

1) Insufficient H2S to react with SO2 generated.

Question 132

To ensure the complete combustion of H2S and sulphur in the tail gas, the stack outlet temperature is maintained at:

1) 650°C.
2) 538°C.
3) 232°C.
4) 2325°C.

Answer 132

2) 538°C.

Question 133

In sensitive locations and around large plants, several monitoring stations may be used. A mandatory cutback of the sulphur plant load to 50%, until the pollution levels drop is required when reported SO2 concentrations equal or exceed:

1) 10.2 ppm.
2) 20 ppm.
3) 2.0 ppm.
4) 0.20 ppm.

Answer 133

4) 0.20 ppm

Question 134

The graph shown shows the various sulphur recovery percentages corresponding to the amount of air fed into the furnace. The upper line shows the absolute stoichiometric limit. If 6% excess air is fed into the furnace, the sulphur recovery rate would increase over the actual rate to:

1) 95%.
2) 98%.
3) 96%.
4) 97%

Answer 134

4) 97%

Question 135

When obtaining a stock tank oil sample, the sample should be obtained from the:

1) Separator in a plastic bottle after purging the sample valve.
2) Stock tank in a plastic bottle after purging the sample valve.
3) Separator in a plastic bottle before purging the sample valve.
4) Separator in a glass bottle before purging the sample valve.

Answer 135

1) Separator in a plastic bottle after purging the sample valve.

Question 136

Identify part E of the sampling apparatus in the illustration below:

1) Source valve
2) Purge valve
3) Vent
4) Sample line

Answer 136

3) Vent

Question 137

When sampling sweet gas, if there is sufficient space to connect the sample cylinder directly to the sample valve using a close nipple, the sample line:

1) Is longer than 2 metres.
2) May be eliminated.
3) Is connected to the separator.
4) Is located on a dead leg.

Answer 137

2) May be eliminated.

Question 138

Identify part A of the sampling apparatus in the illustration below:

1) Vent
2) Sample Line
3) Liquid sample cylinder position
4) Gas sample cylinder

Answer 138

4) Gas sample cylinder

Question 139

Identify part F of the sampling apparatus in the illustration below:

1) Vent
2) Sample Line
3) Liquid sample cylinder position
4) Gas sample cylinde

Answer 139

3) Liquid sample cylinder position

Question 140

To prevent extra lab costs for stock tank oil sample analysis, the lab must be specifically requested to analyze the stock tank sample for only:

1) Pour point, three-point viscosity and distillation.
2) Pour point, three-point viscosity and B.S.& W.
3) Density, pour point and B.S. & W.
4) Density, sulphur content and B.S. & W.

Answer 140

4) Density, sulphur content and B.S. & W.

Question 141

For samples obtained using the Evacuated Cylinder Method, it is extremely important to take an outage before transport. 1) True 2) False

Answer 141

2) False

Question 142

H2S content should be determined in the:

1) Lab using a GC.
2) Lab using a mass spectrometer.
3) Field using the Tutweiler method.
4) Field using a mass spectrometer.

Answer 142

3) Field using the Tutweiler method.

Question 143

For gas, the best sample point is a valve on:

1) Top of a horizontal line close to the separator.
2) The underside of a horizontal line close to the separator.
3) The separator, upstream of any pressure-reducing valve.
4) The separator, downstream of any pressure-reducing valve.

Answer 143

1) Top of a horizontal line close to the separator.

Question 144

When testing a new gas well, samples should be obtained early in the test:

1) Before the well flow has stabilized.
2) After the well flow has stabilized.
3) By the well testing contractor.
4) By a new employee.

Answer 144

2) After the well flow has stabilized.

Question 145

For samples from a process flow where a low-pressure, second-stage separator is used and the gas is measured, why is it recommended that Cycle/Purge Method be used to obtain the duplicate samples?

1) Because a sample could be contaminated by air when using the Brine Displacement Method.
2) A water sample should be obtained in a plastic bottle from the separator.
3) Because the H2S content must be determined in the field using the Tutweiler Method.
4) Because a sample could be contaminated by air when the Evacuated Cylinder Method is used.

Answer 145

4) Because a sample could be contaminated by air when the Evacuated Cylinder Method is used.

Question 146

Pressurized samples may be transported in:

1) Commercial aircraft.
2) Public transport.
3) Company vehicles.
4) Company aircraft

Answer 146

3) Company vehicles.

Question 147

A gas stream separator must be able to cause a __________ of liquid hydrocarbons.

1) change in flow direction
2) pressure reduction
3) primary-phase separation
4) increase in temperature

Answer 147

3) primary-phase separation

Question 148

The principle utilized in separation that is used to accelerate separation by throwing the heavier components to the outside and away from the lighter gases is:

1) Absorption.
2) Force of gravity.
3) Impingement.
4) Centrifugal force

Answer 148

4) Centrifugal force

Question 149

It is more efficient to pump gas-free liquids to a storage area because flash vapour problems can result during pumping and vapour losses from storage tanks are decreased dramatically.

1) True 2) False

Answer 149

1) True

Question 150

Condensation is:

1) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points.
2) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.
3) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points.
4) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities.

Answer 150

1) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points.

Question 151

Absorption is:

1) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points.
2) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities.
3) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points.
4) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.

Answer 151

2) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities.

Question 152

The principle utilized in separation that causes heavier components to disengage from the stream by
directing flowing gas against a surface, thus changing its motion is referred to as:
1) Centrifugal force.
2) Impingement.
3) Absorption.
4) Filtration.

Answer 152

2) Impingement.

Question 153

The force of gravity, distillation, centrifugal force, adsorption and impingement are all principles that may be
used to design separators and achieve complete separation of liquid from gases.
1) True
2) False

Answer 153

2) False

Question 154

Gas expansion improves liquid separation due to:

1) A corresponding drop in temperature will also occur.
2) Gas density is decreased.
3) A corresponding increase in temperature will also occur.
4) Gas velocity will increase.

Answer 154

2) Gas density is decreased.

Question 155

The well stream has gone through a knockout drum and the resulting gas and liquid flow heads towards
further separation. During the operation, a hydrate forms in the out flowing pipe, slowing down the flow and the production of the well. The reason for hydrate formation is:

1) A malfunctioning knockout drum has allowed water to exit the drum.
2) The temperature of the knockout drum is too low and allowed condensation to occur.
3) Knockout drums only remove free water, not all water from the system.
4) The knockout drum is allowing particulate matter to flow through the
drum.

Answer 155

3) Knockout drums only remove free water, not all water from the system.

Question 156

You are engineering a separator upstream of a gas compressor. Of those listed below, the most suitable
design would be:

1) Free Water Knockout
2) Horizontal Separator
3) Vertical Separator with a Demister Pad
4) Scrubber

Answer 156

4) Scrubber

Question 157

The design principle used in a Mist Extractor is:

1) Liquid retention time.
2) Gas velocity.
3) Stream temperature and pressure.
4) Liquid impingement.

Answer 157

4) Liquid impingement.

Question 158

A scrubber is a separator designed to handle gas streams with:

1) Heavy solids content.
2) Small liquid content.
3) Heavy liquids content.
4) High concentrations of H2S.

Answer 158

2) Small liquid content.

Question 159

The factor in the separation of liquids and gases that affects the viscosity of the fluid and, therefore, its
velocity and flow is:
1) Gas velocity.
2) Volume.
3) Gas temperature.
4) Gas pressure.

Answer 159

3) Gas temperature.

Question 160

The amount of water a gas is capable of absorbing before it becomes “saturated” is dependent upon:

1) Gas Temperature.
2) Gas Velocity.
3) Amount of solids in the gas.
4) Whether free water is present.

Answer 160

1) Gas Temperature.

Question 161

Settling is:

1) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points.
2) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points.
3) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities.
4) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.

Answer 161

4) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.

Question 162

A drip may be provided near a well for the removal of:

1) Traces of water, gasoline or oil.
2) Entrained liquids by filtration.
3) Heavy solids content.
4) Condensed fine particles from a gas stream.

Answer 162

1) Traces of water, gasoline or oil.

Question 163

A total liquids knockout vessel is designed to:

1) Handle gas streams with small liquid content.
2) Remove entrained liquids by filtration.
3) Remove liquids from high-pressure gas streams.
4) Remove traces of water, oil and gasoline.

Answer 163

3) Remove liquids from high-pressure gas streams

Question 164

A scrubber:

1) Is designed to handle gas streams with small liquid content.
2) Is usually installed upstream of compressors.
3) Is designed to remove entrained fine particles from a gas stream.
4) All of the above.

Answer 164

4) All of the above.

Question 165

The factor in the separation of liquids and gases that affects the gas composition and the amount of liquids
removed from the stream is:
1) Gas temperature.
2) Gas pressure.
3) Gas expansion.
4) Retention time.

Answer 165

2) Gas pressure.

Question 166

A mist extractor is a separating device that removes entrained liquid and particles by:

1) Force of gravity.
2) Distillation.
3) Filtration or adsorption in depth.
4) Filtration or impingement in depth.

Answer 166

Filtration or impingement in depth

Question 167

One reason for separating liquids from gases is that:

1) Measurement of gases and liquids separately is required for accuracy.
2) Hydrate formation can be prevented by increasing water content.
3) Hydrocarbons occur only in a gas state.
4) Hydrocarbons occur only in a liquid state.

Answer 167

1) Measurement of gases and liquids separately is required for accuracy.

Question 168

Fractional distillation is:

1) A process that separates a mixture according to weights.
2) A process that separates a mixture according to solubilities.
3) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points.
4) A process that separates a mixture according to dew points.

Answer 168

3) A process that separates a mixture according to boiling points.

Question 169

The main advantage of LTS systems is the high construction costs of equipment rugged enough to withstand very high pressures.

1) True
2) False

Answer 169

2) False

Question 170

Stage separation is a process in which gaseous and liquid hydrocarbons are separated into vapour and liquid
phases by:
1) Two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively higher pressures.
2) Two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively lower pressures.
3) One equilibrium flash at high pressure.
4) Using a knockout drum to store the gaseous HC.

Answer 170

2) Two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively lower pressures.

Question 171

A pipeline downstream of a well equipped with a low-temperature separation process is experiencing hydrate problems. One possible problem is:

1) Insufficient pressure drop across the choke
2) Separator pressure too high
3) High pipeline pressure
4) Low pipeline pressure

Answer 171

1) Insufficient pressure drop across the choke

Question 172

Modified low-temperature separation systems utilize injection of a glycol solution with a concentration of:

1) 80%.
2) 10%.
3) 100%.
4) 40%.

Answer 172

1) 80%.

Question 173

In operations where two-stage separation is used, the liquid from this first separator is sent into a second
separator operating at:
1) A higher pressure.
2) A lower pressure.
3) The same pressure.
4) A lower temperature.

Answer 173

2) A lower pressure.

Question 174

Free water is defined as:

1) Water that is part of an emulsion.
2)Water produced with the oil that will settle out when the fluids are in a settling space within a vessel.
3) Water produced with the oil that cannot be separated by the force of
gravity alone.
4) Water produced with the oil that will not settle out when the fluids are
in a settling space within a vessel.

Answer 174

2)Water produced with the oil that will settle out when the fluids are in a settling space within a vessel.

Question 175

The major components of a low-temperature system are:
1) Free liquid KO, heat exchanger, choke valve and BP measurement.
2) Low-temperature separator, Free liquid KO, heat exchanger and choke valve.
3) Low-temperature separator, free liquid KO, heat exchanger and BP
measurement.
4) High-temperature separator, Free liquid KO, heat exchanger and choke valve.

Answer 175

2) Low-temperature separator, Free liquid KO, heat exchanger and choke valve.

Question 176

A low-temperature separator appears in these basic forms:

1) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and I-beam
2) Vertical, spherical, H-bone and T-bone
3) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and H-bone
4) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and T-bone

Answer 176

4) Horizontal, vertical, spherical and T-bone

Question 177

The choke in a LTS unit regulates the gas flow through the unit and:
1) Raises the temperature of the stream above that of the hydrate point.
2) Lowers the temperature of the stream below that of the hydrate point.
3) Lowers the temperature of the stream above that of the hydrate point.
4) Raises the temperature of the stream equal to that of the hydrate
point.

Answer 177

2) Lowers the temperature of the stream below that of the hydrate point.

Question 178

Low-temperature separators with glycol injection:

1) Require a warm gas coil at the bottom of the separator since hydrates will form in this system.
2) Produce an overhead vapour lower in water content and some increase in oil recovery.
3) Require high pressure input gas in order to recover condensate.
4) Inject glycol into the gas stream just behind the regenerative heat exchanger.

Answer 178

2) Produce an overhead vapour lower in water content and some increase in oil recovery

Question 179

In a simple LTS unit, water vapour is removed from the gas stream by:

1) Free liquid KO.
2) Condensation due to cooling of the gas as it expands into the separator.
3) Impact of gas through the separators mist eliminators.
4) Long retention time in the separator.

Answer 179

2) Condensation due to cooling of the gas as it expands into the separator.

Question 180

The purpose of the LTS is:
1) The separation of liquids from gases by increasing the temperature of the product stream.
2) The separation of gaseous and liquid hydrocarbons by two or more equilibrium flashes.
3) The removal of appreciable quantities of free water from gas wells.
4) The separation of liquids from gases by lowering the temperature of the product
stream.

Answer 180

4) The separation of liquids from gases by lowering the temperature of the product
stream.

Question 181

Three-stage separation requires:

1) Three separators and a storage tank.
2) One separator and two storage tanks.
3) Two separators and a storage tank.
4) Two separators and two storage tanks.

Answer 181

3) Two separators and a storage tank

Question 182

In a low-temperature separator, the heat exchanger performs a:
1) Gas-to-gas heat exchange between the warm outlet gas and cold incoming well
effluent.
2) Gas-to-gas heat exchange between the cold outlet gas and warm incoming well
effluent.
3) Liquid-to-gas heat exchange between the cold outlet gas and warm incoming
well effluent.
4) Liquid-to-gas heat exchange between the warm outlet gas and cold incoming
well effluent.

Answer 182

2) Gas-to-gas heat exchange between the cold outlet gas and warm incoming well
effluent.

Question 183

If a volatile condensate, at 10 000 kPa, was discharged directly into an atmospheric storage tank,
most of it would:
1) Settle to the bottom of the tank.
2) Immediately vaporize, leaving a very large volume of liquid in the tank.
3) Be captured in the free-water KO drum.
4) Immediately vaporize, leaving very little liquid in the tank.

Answer 183

4) Immediately vaporize, leaving very little liquid in the tank.

Question 184

The two basic requirements in any low-temperature system are:

1) Availability of a high-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas temperature at the outlet.
2) Availability of a high-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas pressure at the outlet.
3) Availability of a low-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas temperature at the outlet.
4) Availability of a low-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas pressure at the outlet.

Answer 184

1) Availability of a high-pressure gas stream and rigid control of gas temperature at the outlet.

Question 185

Because no separation of condensate takes place in the storage tanks, these tanks do not
constitute part of the stage separation.
1) True
2) False

Answer 185

2) False

Question 186

The main disadvantage of LTS systems is:

1) The system requires constant supervision.
2) Continual water or liquid carry over.
3) High construction costs of high pressure equipment.
4) The decreased condensate recovery.

Answer 186

3) High construction costs of high pressure equipment

Question 187

Stage separation enables efficient _______________ of H.P. Hydrocarbon liquids.

1) Stabilization
2) Recovery
3) Production
4) Storage

Answer 187

1) Stabilization

Question 188

A modified LTS unit is most suited for:

1) A well with low wellhead pressure.
2) A well with low production rates.
3) A sour well.
4) A well with high wellhead pressure

Answer 188

1) A well with low wellhead pressure.

Question 189

Four-stage separation requires:

1) Three separators and a storage tank.
2) Four separators and a storage tank.
3) Two separators and two storage tanks.
4) One separator and three storage tanks.

Answer 189

1) Three separators and a storage tank.

Question 190

The benefit of Dehydration of gas well production is:

1) Reduction of hydrate formation in pipelines.
2) Recovery of valuable hydrocarbon condensate.
3) Reduction of corrosion concerns in pipelines.
4) Elimination of liquid build-up in pipelines.
5) All of the above.

Answer 190

5) All of the above.

Question 191

Using the National Topographic Survey System, a description that reads “93-P-3-C-7-A” means:

1) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Block C of Map Unit 3 of Map Sheet Subdivision P of Map Unit 93.
2) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Block C of Map Sheet 3 of Map Unit Subdivision P of Map Unit 93.
3) Subunit A of Unit Subdivision 7 of Block C of Map Sheet 3 of Map Unit P of Map Unit 93.
4) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Map Unit C of Map Sheet 3 of Block Subdivision P of Map Unit 93.

Answer 191

2) Subunit A of Unit 7 of Block C of Map Sheet 3 of Map Unit Subdivision P of Map Unit 93.

Question 192

The area of a township is:

1) 36 square miles.
2) 100 hectares.
3) 16 square miles.
4) 36 acres.

Answer 192

1) 36 square miles.

Question 193

As reference markers, the Dominion Land Survey System uses global lines of:

1) Latitude.
2) Political boundary.
3) Longitude.
4) Latitude and longitude.

Answer 193

3) Longitude.

Question 194

The National Topographic Survey is based on a large area component referred to as a:

1) Map unit.
2) Map sheet.
3) Map block.
4) Map collection.

Answer 194

1) Map unit.

Question 195

The two allowances included in the Dominion Land Survey System used to accommodate access to surveyed
land and the curvature of the earth are:
1) Road allowances and Meridians.
2) Meridians and Correction lines.
3) Correction lines and Range lines.
4) Road allowances and Correction lines.

Answer 195

4) Road allowances and Correction lines

Question 196

Correction lines are used:

1) To allow access to all surveyed lands.
2) To realign the townships surveyed between the meridians due to the curvature of the earth.
3) To adjust for errors involved in surveying.
4) For land registration purposes.

Answer 196

2) To realign the townships surveyed between the meridians due to the curvature of the earth.

Question 197

A township is comprised of:

1) 36 acres of land.
2) 36 sections of land.
3) 36 ranges of land.
4) 36 LSDs.

Answer 197

2) 36 sections of land.

Question 198

The north and south boundary lines of the township are called:

1) Meridians.
2) Range lines.
3) Township lines.
4) Borders.

Answer 198

3) Township lines.

Question 199

In a well name, used to identify a specific well, the second word in the name refers to the:

1) Operating company.
2) Legal site description.
3) Designated field.
4) Well partners.

Answer 199

4) Well partners.

Question 200

In the Dominion Land Survey System:

1) Range lines run parallel to the lines of latitude.
2) Meridians are lines of latitude.
3) Township lines are perpendicular to lines of latitude.
4) Meridians are lines of longitude.

Answer 200

4) Meridians are lines of longitude.

Question 201

Each section in the Dominion Land Survey System is comprised of:

1) 36 acres.
2) 36 legal subdivisions.
3) 16 hectares.
4) 16 legal subdivisions.

Answer 201

4) 16 legal subdivisions.

Question 202

The area of a township is comprised of:

1) 6 square miles.
2) 2 square miles.
3) 12 square miles.
4) 36 square miles.

Answer 202

4) 36 square miles.

Question 203

The Dominion Land Survey System divides areas into:

1) Sections and acres.
2) Townships and sections.
3) Acres and wellsites.
4) Longitude and meridians.

Answer 203

2) Townships and sections.

Question 204

Most countries use one of three basic systems for land ownership and transfer. In a private conveyancing
system, ownership of land must be proved by:
1) Deeds filed in a central registry.
2) Documents that are kept by the owner.
3) Documents that are examined and kept by a government agency.
4) The Indian Oil and Gas Act and Indian Oil and Gas Regulations.

Answer 204

2) Documents that are kept by the owner.

Question 205

A well, designated with the well number 7-25-23-02 W7, is located in:

1) LSD 7 of Section 25, Township 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.
2) Section 7 of Township 25, LSD 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.
3) LSD 7 of Township 25, Section 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.
4) Township 7 of Section 25, LSD 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.

Answer 205

1) LSD 7 of Section 25, Township 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.

Question 206

Surface rights give the owner:

1) Title for minerals only.
2) Exemption from EUB regulations.
3) Rights to anything contained below the surface of the ground.
4) The surface of the land and the air above it.

Answer 206

4) The surface of the land and the air above it.

Question 207

The type of land ownership that grants occupancy of the land for the lifetime of an individual and does not
continue beyond death of holder is called:
1) Estate in fee simple.
2) Leasehold estate.
3) Life estate.
4) Contractual.

Answer 207

3) Life estate.

Question 208

The system for land ownership and transfer in which a government official has custody of all original land
titles is the:
1) Private conveyancing system.
2) First Nations Land System.
3) Torrens system.
4) Deeds registration system.

Answer 208

3) Torrens system.

Question 209

Correction lines are used:

1) To allow access to all surveyed lands.
2) To realign the townships surveyed between the meridians due to the curvature of the earth.
3) To adjust for errors involved in surveying.
4) For land registration purposes.

Answer 209

2) To realign the townships surveyed between the meridians due to the curvature of the earth.

Question 210

A well, designated with the well number 7-25-23-02 W7, is located in:

1) LSD 7 of Section 25, Township 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.
2) Section 7 of Township 25, LSD 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.
3) LSD 7 of Township 25, Section 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.
4) Township 7 of Section 25, LSD 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.

Answer 210

1) LSD 7 of Section 25, Township 23, Range 2, West of the Seventh Meridian.

Question 211

Mineral rights refer to:

1) Minerals that are the property of the Crown.
2) Oil, gas and coal that is contained below the surface of the ground.
3) Rights belonging to owners of the surface rights.
4) Gold and silver only.

Answer 211

2) Oil, gas and coal that is contained below the surface of the ground.

Question 212

The north and south boundary lines of the township are called:

1) Meridians.
2) Range lines.
3) Township lines.
4) Borders.

Answer 212

3) Township lines

Question 213

In the event that one of the UPS rectifiers fail, it will automatically isolate itself by opening its rectifier:

1) AC output and rectifier DC output breakers.
2) AC input and rectifier DC input breakers.
3) AC output and rectifier DC input breakers.
4) AC input and rectifier DC output breakers.

Answer 213

4) AC input and rectifier DC output breakers.

Question 214

The environment around the UPS must be kept free of excessive moisture and dirt.

1) True
2) False

Answer 214

1) True

Question 215

If the “Battery Voltage Low” light of a UPS system should come on, the operator should push the
____________ to give the battery an extra 8-hour charge.
1) Bypass power button
2) Inverter synchronize button
3) Manual transfer button
4) Equalize charge button

Answer 215

4) Equalize charge button

Question 216

It is important that a UPS be able to carry:

1) 100% of the critical load.
2) 50% of the critical load.
3) 75% of the critical load.
4) 90% of the critical load.

Answer 216

1) 100% of the critical load.

Question 217

To keep corrosive gases away from the electrical contacts, some UPS installations are kept slightly
pressurized with:
1) Neutral exhaust gases.
2) Freon.
3) Clean air.
4) Helium.

Answer 217

3) Clean air.

Question 218

A/An ____________ is a device that delivers direct current when it is supplied by alternating current.

1) Inverter
2) Converter
3) Power supply
4) Distorter

Answer 218

2) Converter

Question 219

The UPS battery may be isolated from the rest of the equipment in its own cabinet with an exhaust fan
installed to:
1) Allow for easy replacement during maintenance.
2) Provide easy access for out-of-service rotation.
3) Remove explosive or corrosive gases produced when the battery is being charged.
4) Cool the battery during hot weather conditions.

Answer 219

3) Remove explosive or corrosive gases produced when the battery is being charged.

Question 220

In a typical system that is supplied by 440 volt, three-phase power, as long as the bypass power produces
60 cycles/second, the inverters will stay synchronized to the:
1) Two rectifiers and two inverters.
2) 15 kVA transformer.
3) Bypass power.
4) 120 V lead-calcium battery bank.

Answer 220

3) Bypass power.

Question 221

During a power outage to a plant equipped with a UPS, the 440-volt power supply fails and the rectifiers
shut down. What happens next?
1) The rectifier automatically isolates itself.
2) The inverter opens its inverter DC input and inverter AC output breakers.
3) The “No Sync To Line” light pulsates.
4) The inverters are supplied with 120 V DC from the battery bank.

Answer 221

4) The inverters are supplied with 120 V DC from the battery bank.

Question 222

A device, circuit or system that delivers direct current when it is supplied by alternating current is called:

1) An inverter.
2) A transformer.
3) A rectifier.
4) A capacitor.

Answer 222

3) A rectifier.

Question 223

The inverters of a UPS system are supplied without interruption from a:

1) Lead-calcium battery bank.
2) Lithium battery bank.
3) Carbon-zinc battery bank.
4) Nickel-cadmium battery bank.

Answer 223

1) Lead-calcium battery bank.

Question 224

A typical uninterruptible power supply system consists of an AC power supply, meters and
protective devices, two or more rectifiers and inverters, a make-before-break switching
arrangement, a large bank of batteries and:
1) A variable capacitance resistors.
2) A slow-go-to-variance switch.
3) A fast-make transfer switch.
4) A high-speed break-away switch.

Answer 224

3) A fast-make transfer switch.

Question 225

It may be necessary to switch to bypass power for maintenance on the UPS system. When the
circuits on the UPS are supplied with bypass power, and there is a power interruption, the
equipment on the UPS will:
1) Shut down.
2) Remain in operation.
3) Be supplied with bypass power.
4) None of the above.

Answer 225

1) Shut down.

Question 226

Some batteries in a UPS will gradually lose the ability to accept a charge. To overcome this
problem, the batteries must be:
1) Inspected daily.
2) Slightly overcharged regularly.
3) Rotated out of service on a regular basis.
4) Completely drained regularly.

Answer 226

2) Slightly overcharged regularly.

Question 227

A standard UPS is equipped with two rectifiers because:

1) If one should fail, the other rectifier is able to carry the required load.
2) The inverter still on line will be synchronized with, but not connected to, the bypass power.
3) The batteries must be slightly overcharged regularly.
4) The inverters will not stay synchronized with the bypass power.

Answer 227

1) If one should fail, the other rectifier is able to carry the required load.

Question 228

You have been asked to perform maintenance on the plant’s UPS system and have been told that
it is necessary to switch to bypass power for maintenance on the UPS system. To know that it is
safe to switch to bypass power, the ___________________ must be ___________.
1) “Battery Voltage Low” light, out
2) “No Sync to Line” light, on
3) “Battery Voltage Low” light, on
4) “No Sync to Line” light, out

Answer 228

4) “No Sync to Line” light, out

Question 229

If both inverters should fail, the fast-make switch will supply the critical circuits from the:

1) 120 V DC power.
2) Bypass power.
3) DC output power.
4) AC input power.

Answer 229

2) Bypass power.

Question 230

A typical UPS consists of all of the following components except:

1) A supply of DC power from the utility company.
2) A large bank of batteries.
3) A fast-make transfer switch.
4) Two or more inverters.

Answer 230

1) A supply of DC power from the utility company

Question 231

Large oil and natural gas reservoirs continued to elude exploration companies until May 14, 1914. On that
date, the Dingman No. 1 discovery well blew in at:

1) Turner Valley.
2) Leduc.
3) Bow Island.
4) Norman Wells.

Answer 231

1) Turner Valley.

Question 232

During a gravimetric survey in the stratigraphy illustrated Question 4, where would the gravity meter read the minimum?

1) 5
2) 4 and 6
3) 1 and 9
4) 2 and 8

Answer 232

4) 2 and 8

Question 233

What type of map is this?

1) Structure contour
2) Net pay
3) Stereo depth
4) Lithofacies

Answer 233

4) Lithofacies

Question 234

The data for reflection seismic is generated by shock waves. These waves are generated using:

1) Dynamite.
2) A vibroseis truck.
3) Gas exploder.
4) All of the above.

Answer 234

4) All of the above.

Question 235

In 1857, International Mining and Manufacturing discovered the first Canadian oil well by digging 65 feet into the “gum” beds at Oil Springs in Lambton County in:

1) Northern Alberta.
2) Southern Ontario.
3) Eastern New Brunswick.
4) Southern Newfoundland.

Answer 235

2) Southern Ontario.

Question 236

A net pay map:

1) Is used to arrange traverses to obtain geological data.
2) Provides a picture of the depositional environments in ancient seas or identifies a possible trap.
3) Is a special type of isopach map that shows the thickness of rock capable of producing oil and/or natural gas.
4) Has lines of equal value representing the topography of subsurface rock layers.

Answer 236

3) Is a special type of isopach map that shows the thickness of rock capable of producing oil and/or natural gas.

Question 237

The preferred geophysical exploration method in areas where a significant amount of drilling has already
occurred is:
1) Magnetic surveying.
2) Seismic surveying.
3) Gravimetric surveying.
4) Arial photography.

Answer 237

2) Seismic surveying.

Question 238

In electric logging, the device used for making measurements is a:

1) Geophone.
2) Magnetometer.
3) Sonde.

Answer 238

3) Sonde.

Question 239

A structure contour map:

1) Is a special type of isopach map that shows the thickness of rock capable of producing oil and/or natural gas.
2) Has lines of equal value representing the topography of subsurface rock layers.
3) Provides a picture of the depositional environments in ancient seas or identifies a possible trap.
4) Is used to arrange traverses to obtain geological data.

Answer 239

2) Has lines of equal value representing the topography of subsurface rock layers.

Question 240

Surface indications of geologic structures exist at points where formations are exposed, such as in banks of rivers, quarries and sides of cliffs. Measurements are made at these points to determine information about the sub-surface beds. The direction in which the bed extends is known as the:

1) Strike.
2) Drop.
3) Dip.
4) Reach.

Answer 240

1) Strike.

Question 241

In 1979, the discovery of the Hibernia Oil Field was announced. However, production of the first barrels of oil from this field did not occur until:

1) 1992.
2) 1989.
3) 1981.
4) 1997.

Answer 241

4) 1997.

Question 242

In gamma ray logging, use is made of the differences in the radioactivity of various kinds of rock. Of the
following, the type of rock that gives off the highest levels of gamma radiation is:
1) Shale.
2) Dolomite.
3) Limestone.
4) Sandstone.

Answer 242

1) Shale.

Question 243

The instruments employed in seismic surveys that sense returning energy waves are:

1) Galvanometers.
2) Geophones.
3) Gravity meters.
4) Sonde.

Answer 243

2) Geophones.

Question 244

Industry has developed a very sophisticated set of downhole tools that allow a detailed evaluation of the
strata penetrated. The electric devices provide a measure of the fluid and type of fluid in a formation,
whereas the radioactive and sonic-acoustic devices provide a measure of the formation’s:
1) Depth.
2) Capacity.
3) Porosity.
4) Resistivity.

Answer 244

3) Porosity.

Question 245

Reflection seismic is used to map the topography of the subsurface rock layers. It is often used in
conjunction with:
1) A net pay map.
2) An isopach map.
3) A lithofacies map.
4) A structure contour map.

Answer 245

4) A structure contour map.

Question 246

The three methods of surveying used for geophysical exploration are:

1) Seismic, Radioactive, Aerial.
2) Magnetic, Aerial, Electric.
3) Sonic, Gravity, Electric.
4) Gravity, Magnetic, Seismic.

Answer 246

4) Gravity, Magnetic, Seismic.

Question 247

Crude oil is measured by two main standards:

1) Temperature and pressure.
2) Pressure and gravity.
3) Gravity and viscosity.
4) Viscosity and temperature.

Answer 247

3) Gravity and viscosity.

Question 248

A characteristic of the paraffin group is:

1) Closed chain (benzene ring).
2) Closed chain (cyclic).
3) Open chain (cyclic).
4) Open chain (straight or branched).

Answer 248

4) Open chain (straight or branched).

Question 249

Which hydrocarbon group is used to manufacture dyes, synthetic chemicals and synthetic drugs?

1) Cycloparaffin group
2) Aromatic group
3) Olefin group
4) Paraffin group

Answer 249

2) Aromatic group

Question 250

Which of the following natural gas components is considered a contaminant?

1) Helium
2) Nitrogen
3) Carbon dioxide
4) Hydrogen sulphide

Answer 250

4) Hydrogen sulphide

Question 251

Condensate consists primarily of pentane and heavier hydrocarbons, commonly called C5 plus.

1) True
2) False

Answer 251

1) True

Question 252

A pure substance composed of two or more elements is called a:

1) Mixture.
2) Molecule.
3) Compound.
4) Valence.

Answer 252

3) Compound.

Question 253

Diluents are combustible gases that enhance the heating value of sales gas.

1) True
2) False

Answer 253

2) False

Question 254

Lean sour gas is a type of natural gas that:

1) Contains less than 0.5% H2S.
2) Contains no H2S.
3) Has a high concentration of H2S.
4) Has a low concentration of H2S.

Answer 254

4) Has a low concentration of H2S.

Question 255

A crude oil with many asphaltine molecules (C40 plus) is considered:

1) A light oil.
2) A paraffin.
3) A heavy oil.
4) A medium oil.

Answer 255

3) A heavy oil.

Question 256

Which hydrocarbon group makes excellent fuels, is the feedstock for petrochemicals and is used for
lubricants and waxes?
1) Aromatic group
2) Olefin group
3) Paraffin group
4) Cycloparaffin group

Answer 256

3) Paraffin group

Question 257

Calculate the degrees API for an oil with a relative density of 0.81. Use the formula:

1) 43.19°API
2) 12.35°API
3) 8.10°API

Answer 257

1) 43.19°API

Question 258

Which of the following natural gas components is considered a diluent?

1) Water
2) Hydrogen sulphide
3) Nitrogen
4) Free liquids

Answer 258

3) Nitrogen

Question 259

A state of matter in which the molecules are loosely bound, move about with high velocities and tend to
expand indefinitely is known as a:
1) Liquid.
2) Vapour.
3) Solid.
4) Gas.

Answer 259

4) Gas.

Question 260

A fire has developed in the converter due to an airflow malfunction. What steps should be taken?

1) Push the emergency shutdown button.
2) Shut the manual valves for air and acid gas.
3) Shut down the steam system.
4) Increase blower airflow.
5) A and B.
6) B and C.

Answer 260

5) A and B.

Question 261

In a sulphur plant, the piece of equipment used to increase the temperature of the converter feed is called the:

1) Waste heat boiler.
2) Reheater.
3) Preheater.
4) Firetube boiler.

Answer 261

2) Reheater.

Question 262

The heating of the sulphur pit and the rundown lines must be carefully observed. The free flow of the liquid
sulphur can be adversely affected because it becomes more viscous at temperatures higher than:
1) 100°C.
2) 150°C.
3) 125°C.
4) 115°C.

Answer 262

2) 150°C.

Question 263

When starting a sulphur plant what minimum acid gas flow must be established before attempting a start?

1) 50%
2) 30%
3) 75%
4) 20%

Answer 263

2) 30%

Question 264

When checking the equipment prior to start-up, the seal boxes on the liquid sulphur lines from the
condensers should be filled with liquid sulphur up to the:
1) Non-return valves.
2) Sulphur transfer pumps.
3) Overflow weir.
4) Steam tracing and heating lines.

Answer 264

3) Overflow weir.

Question 265

The piece of sulphur plant equipment that is designed to provide ample cooling to the hot gases and at the
same time preheat the feedwater to the sulphur boiler or generate low pressure steam for the process is the:
1) Waste heat boiler.
2) Sulphur sump.
3) Firetube boiler.
4) Sulphur condenser.

Answer 265

4) Sulphur condenser.

Question 266

Each catalytic stage of a sulphur recovery plant will consist of what type of equipment?

1) Sulphur Boiler, condenser and re-heater
2) Re-heater, catalytic converter, condenser and incinerator
3) Sulphur boiler, re-heater, catalytic converter and condenser
4) Re-heater, catalytic converter and condenser

Answer 266

4) Re-heater, catalytic converter and condenser

Question 267

The typical life expectancy of the catalyst in a sulphur plant is 10 years.

1) True
2) False

Answer 267

2) False

Question 268

The tail gas incinerator is a horizontal cylindrical furnace. Inside the incinerator, the wall that is located
halfway between the bridge wall and incinerator flue gas outlet and serves as a baffle assisting in the
complete combustion of any H2S or other combustibles is called the:
1) Checker wall.
2) Fire wall.
3) Louver wall.
4) Burner wall.

Answer 268

1) Checker wall.

Question 269

The piece of sulphur plant equipment that is designed to provide ample cooling to the hot gases
and at the same time preheat the feedwater to the sulphur boiler or generate low pressure steam
for the process is the:
1) Waste heat boiler.
2) Sulphur sump.
3) Firetube boiler.
4) Sulphur condenser.

Answer 269

4) Sulphur condenser.

Question 270

At start-up, the sulphur boilers and condensers must be purged while the air blower is running at
half speed; however, excessive purging must be avoided because:
1) The catalyst converters may heat up too quickly.
2) Air may enter into the first converter and cause a fire in the bed.
3) The fuel gas supply to the main burner, pilot light and auxiliary burners will
increase.
4) Air is not necessary for the operation of the reheat burners.

Answer 270

2) Air may enter into the first converter and cause a fire in the bed.

Question 271

You are operating sulphur recovery plant and the flame goes out in the waste heat boiler. It is
recommended that a purge be completed with steam rather than air. What hazard exists that
would make steam the safer choice?
1) Introducing air will cause a chemical reaction with the steel to form Fe2O3.
2) The air will cause stress cracks to form in the boiler.
3) Introducing air into a hot furnace may cause an explosion.
4) Air will sub-cool the catalyst in the reactor causing premature failure of the
catalyst.

Answer 271

3) Introducing air into a hot furnace may cause an explosion.

Question 272

The stack used in a sulphur plant is usually made of:

1) A steel liner and concrete casing.
2) A mixture of concrete and refractory.
3) Fire brick for the first 1/3 of the height and steel for the remainder.
4) Fire brick liner with concrete casing.

Answer 272

1) A steel liner and concrete casing.

Question 273

The sulphur condenser condenses hot sulphur vapour into a liquid state. What other function
does this condenser provide?
1) Generating LP steam.
2) Generating HP steam.
3) Cooling boiler feedwater.
4) Recycling SO2 back to the converters.

Answer 273

1) Generating LP steam.

Question 274

The special drilling procedure which utilizes a large spool of metal tubing for the drill pipe and a mud motor
at the bottom of the coil of tubing to turn the drill bit is called the:
1) Top drive procedure.
2) Casing drilling procedure.
3) Whip stocking procedure.
4) Coiled tubing drilling procedure.

Answer 274

4) Coiled tubing drilling procedure.

Question 275

The drilling procedure where the motor is mounted below the traveling block to enable the pipe to be turned
from above rather than on the floor is known as the:
1) Multi-lateral procedure.
2) Top drive procedure.
3) Coiled tube drilling procedure.
4) Whip stocking procedure.

Answer 275

2) Top drive procedure.

Question 276

A directional drilling procedure in which a wedge is placed in the well to direct the drill bit off at an angle is
called:
1) Slant drilling.
2) Off-set boring.
3) Whip stocking.
4) Horizontal drilling.

Answer 276

3) Whip stocking.

Question 277

What kind of rig is pictured here?

1) Service Rig
2) Drilling Rig
3) Partial Elevation Rig
4) Slant Hole Drilling Rig
5) None of the above

Answer 277

4) Slant Hole Drilling Rig

Question 278

The normal rig operating in Western Canada requires the services of:

1) 22 fulltime employees.
2) 12 fulltime employees.
3) 26 fulltime employees.
4) 16 fulltime employees.

Answer 278

4) 16 fulltime employees.

Question 279

Caustic soda is added to drilling mud:

1) To decrease the pH to reduce pipe corrosion.
2) To thicken and increase the weight of the fluid.
3) To prevent the loss of the fluid to the formation.
4) To raise the pH above 7 to reduce pipe corrosion.

Answer 279

4) To raise the pH above 7 to reduce pipe corrosion.

Question 280

The type of rotary drill bit pictured here is a:

1) Tooth bit.
2) PDC bit.
3) Button bit.
4) Diamond bit.

Answer 280

3) Button bit.

Question 281

After the lease is cleared, a subcontractor or service company is hired to dig a pit or cellar which is lined
with large diameter pipe to keep the soil from falling around the drilling equipment. The cellar also provides:
1) Air for the wellhead.
2) Information regarding the depth of the formation.
3) Extra vertical space for equipment.
4) A foundation for the drilling rig.

Answer 281

3) Extra vertical space for equipment.

Question 282

The drilling fluid used in rotary-type drilling serves the following purpose:

1) Supports the load of the drill stem during drilling.
2) Removes the rock cuttings produced by the drill bit.
3) Allows entry of the formation fluids into the hole.
4) All of the above.

Answer 282

2) Removes the rock cuttings produced by the drill bit.

Question 283

On newer drilling rigs the complex rotary system is replaced by a:

1) Top-drive system.
2) Power swivel.
3) Blowout prevention system.
4) Both a and b.

Answer 283

4) Both a and b.

Question 284

A dangerous situation is most likely to arise in new areas where a reservoir is penetrated containing gas or oil under a higher pressure than had been estimated. When the first symptoms of a blowout occur, the operator should do all of the following except:
1) Pull the casing string from the wellbore.
2) Add weighting material to the drilling fluid.
3) Apply backpressure to the fluid returning to the surface through the annular
space.
4) Close the blowout preventer.

Answer 284

1) Pull the casing string from the wellbore.

Question 285

All of the following are principle functions of the drill stem of a rotary drilling rig except:

1) To raise and lower the bit from or into the hole.
2) Transfer the rotation from the rotary to the bit downhole.
3) Apply weight to the bit through the mass of the drill collar.
4) Carry the hook and elevators.

Answer 285

4) Carry the hook and elevators.

Question 286

The swivel:

1) Supports the load of the drill stem during drilling.
2) Transfers power from the rotary to the drill stem.
3) Applies weight to the bit through the mass of the drill collar.
4) Prevents blowouts.

Answer 286

1) Supports the load of the drill stem during drilling.

Question 287

The blocks and wire line, like the derrick and drawworks, are components of the hoisting system that controls and handles the drilling rig’s load. During drilling operations, the load consists of drill pipe and drill collars, with the bit attached to the bottom drill collar. This is collectively referred to as the:

1) Casing string.
2) Deadweight.
3) Scroll string.
4) Drill string.

Answer 287

3) Scroll string.

Question 288

Blowout preventers are designed to close the well if the drill pipe is either in or out of the well. If there is no
pipe in the well during a blowout, the wellbore will be completely shut off by the:
1) Whipstops.
2) Reamers.
3) Blind rams.
4) Fishing tap.

Answer 288

3) Blind rams

Question 289

The drawworks:

1) Prevent blowouts.
2) Are used to raise and lower the pipe into the well and control the weight on the drill bit.
3) Apply weight to the bit through the mass of the drill collar.
4) Support the load of the drill stem during drilling.

Answer 289

2) Are used to raise and lower the pipe into the well and control the weight on the drill bit.

Question 290

The square or octagonal-shaped steel tube that is the upper terminus of the drill stem is called the:

1) Kelly.
2) Annulus.
3) Swivel.
4) Drill collar.

Answer 290

1) Kelly.

Question 291

The term “payback” refers to the:
1) Time required for the income created to surpass the investment outlay.
2) Time required for the income created to equal the investment outlay.
3) Net income realized after all expenses including taxes have been paid out of gross
revenues.
4) Gross income realized before all expenses including taxes have been paid out.

Answer 291

2) Time required for the income created to equal the investment outlay.

Question 292

All of the following are considered expense items except:

1) Costs for engineering
2) Royalties
3) Maintenance
4) Fuels and utilities

Answer 292

1) Costs for engineering

Question 293

Present value is an indication of the present worth of all future earnings and is useful if you want
to know the amount of money needed today to generate a known amount of money at some point
in the future. The operation of finding the present value is called:
1) Initial investment discounting.
2) Depreciation.
3) Calculation of net worth.
4) Time discounting.

Answer 293

4) Time discounting.

Question 294

The government views yearly “expense” items as things that are:
1) Consumed over a number of years, and their value does not depreciate to zero in
one year.
2) Taxable as income, for both the current year and for the life of the item.
3) Consumed immediately and whose value depreciates to zero in the year they were
used.
4) Purchased for the business regardless of when they are consumed.

Answer 294

3) Consumed immediately and whose value depreciates to zero in the year they were
used.

Question 295

Chemicals, salaries, and telephone and utility bills are all examples of:

1) Capital items.
2) Payback items.
3) Expense items.
4) Taxable income.

Answer 295

3) Expense items.

Question 296

All of the following are considered as capital items except:

1) Initial spare parts.
2) Start-up costs.
3) Maintenance equipment.
4) Operating personnel wages.

Answer 296

4) Operating personnel wages.

Question 297

When a business files a tax return, items such as wages, raw materials, supplies and rent are
considered:
1) Expense items.
2) Capital items.
3) Depreciated items.
4) Taxable assets.

Answer 297

1) Expense items.

Question 298

Chemical costs are considered:

1) A depreciated item.
2) A payback item.
3) An expense.
4) A capital item.

Answer 298

3) An expense.

Question 299

The loss of value of an item that is not consumed in one fiscal year is called:

1) Payback.
2) A taxable asset.
3) Depreciation.
4) An expense.

Answer 299

3) Depreciation.

Question 300

All of the following are considered capital items except:

1) Fuels and utilities.
2) Engineering costs.
3) Initial spare parts.
4) Land costs.

Answer 300

1) Fuels and utilities.

Question 301

The cost of training all personnel to operate a facility prior to the initial start-up is an example of:

1) A payback item
2) A capital item.
3) An expense item.
4) A taxable income.

Answer 301

2) A capital item.

Question 302

The government views yearly “capital” items as things that are:

1) Consumed over a number of years and their value does not depreciate to zero in one year.
2) Taxable as income, for both the current year and for the life of the item.
3) Consumed immediately and whose value depreciates to zero in the year they were used.
4) Purchased for the business regardless of when they are consumed.

Answer 302

1)Consumed over a number of years and their value does not depreciate to zero in one year.

Question 303

The term “Profit” refers to:

1) Time required for the income created to equal the investment outlay.
2) Net income realized after all expenses including taxes have been paid out of gross revenue.
3) Time required for the income created to surpass the investment.
4) Gross income realized before all expenses including taxes have been paid out.

Answer 303

2) Net income realized after all expenses including taxes have been paid out of gross revenue

Question 304

Maintenance costs are considered:

1) A capital item.
2) An expense item.
3) A payback item.
4) A depreciated item.

Answer 304

2) An expense item.

Question 305

The sample connecting tubing should be made of a non-conducting material or constructed with a built-in
ground to:
1) Minimize the effect of static electricity.
2) Provide durability.
3) Support the sampling apparatus.
4) None of the above.

Answer 305

1) Minimize the effect of static electricity.

Question 306

Before placing a new apparatus into service, it is necessary to check the apparatus for leaks by:

1) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 700 kPa.
2) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 350 kPa.
3) Filling the apparatus with a liquid and pressurizing to 700 kPa.
4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

Answer 306

4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

Question 307

LP-Gas vapour pressure test results are reported in terms of:

1) kPa at 0 degrees C.
2) Minimum temperature for storage.
3) kPa at test temperature.
4) Minimum temperature for transport.

Answer 307

3) kPa at test temperature.

Question 308

Determination of the vapour pressure of liquified petroleum gas is important:

1) For safety reasons in determining the maximum storage temperature.
2) For safety reasons in determining the minimum storage temperature.
3) For safety reasons to ensure that the maximum operating design pressure of vessels is not exceeded.
4) In determining the content of the gas.

Answer 308

3) For safety reasons to ensure that the maximum operating design pressure of vessels is not exceeded.

Question 309

You are reviewing test results from a LPG sampling. Two samples were collected by two different operators in the plant and analyzed in two separate laboratories. The sample was taken from the same test material but the difference in the reported LP-Gas vapour pressure was 4.2 psi. What should be your response to this analysis report?

1) Accept the test results, the difference is within acceptable limits.
2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and redo the test.
3) Reject the test results as being too similar to be acceptable, and redo the test.
4) Accept the test results, the difference doesn’t matter in this kind of testing.

Answer 309

2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and redo the test.

Question 310

What is the first step in completing a vapour pressure test of liquefied petroleum gas?

1) Purge the test apparatus with some LPG.
2) Immediately withdraw 331/3% to 40% of the sample from the test apparatus.
3) Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected test temperature.
4) Ensure the test apparatus is complete and equipped with a suitable pressure gauge.
5) Equipment

Answer 310

5) Equipment

Question 311

Repeatability is the difference between 2 test results obtained by the same operator.

1) True
2) False

Answer 311

1) True

Question 312

To convert pressures recorded in psi to pressures in kPa:

1) Multiply by 3.386.
2) Multiply by 0.1333.
3) Multiply by 60.895.
4) Multiply by 6.895.

Answer 312

4) Multiply by 6.895.

Question 313

What is the last step in completing a vapour pressure test of liquefied petroleum gas?
1) Purge the test apparatus with some LPG.
2)Immediately withdraw 331/3% to 40% of the
sample from the test apparatus.
3)Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected
test temperature.
4)Ensure the test apparatus is complete and
equipped with a suitable pressure gauge.
5)Equipment must be thoroughly cleaned and
assembled correctly.

Answer 313

3)Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected

test temperature.

Question 314

Before placing a new apparatus into service, it is necessary to check the apparatus for leaks by:
1)Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to 700 kPa.
2) Filling the apparatus with a gas and pressurizing to
350 kPa.
3) Filling the apparatus with a liquid and pressurizing to
700 kPa.
4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and
pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

Answer 314

4) Filling the apparatus with a gas and

pressurizing to 3500 kPa.

Question 315

The sample connecting tubing should be made of a nonconducting material or constructed
with a built-in ground to:
1) Minimize the effect of static electricity.
2) Provide durability.
3) Support the sampling apparatus.
4) None of the above.

Answer 315

1) Minimize the effect of static electricity.

Question 316

Reproducibility is the difference between 2 single and independent results obtained by different operators working in different labs.

1) True
2) False

Answer 316

1) True

Question 317

LP-Gas vapour pressure test results are reported in terms of:

1) kPa at 0 degrees C.
2) Minimum temperature for storage.
3) kPa at test temperature.
4) Minimum temperature for transport.

Answer 317

3) kPa at test temperature.

Question 318

The standard test method for vapour pressure of liquefied petroleum gases is the:

1) Gas Displacement method.
2) Purge Through method.
3) LP-Gas method.
4) Liquid Displacement method.

Answer 318

3) LP-Gas method.

Question 319

The precision of the testing apparatus is determined by measuring the:
1) Repeatability within 12 kPa and the reproducibility within 19 kPa.
2) Repeatability within 19 kPa and the reproducibility within 12 kPa.
3)Repeatability within 22 kPa and the reproducibility within 19 kPa.
4) Repeatability within 12 kPa and the reproducibility
within 9 kPa.

Answer 319

1) Repeatability within 12 kPa and the reproducibility within 19 kPa.

Question 320

For liquefied petroleum gases, vapour pressure is _____________ measure of the most extreme ________________ conditions under which initial vaporization can be expected to occur.

1) an indirect, high temperature
2) an indirect, low temperature
3) a direct, low temperature
4) a direct, high temperature

Answer 320

2) an indirect, low temperature

Question 321

What is the last step in completing a vapour pressure test of liquefied petroleum gas?
1) Purge the test apparatus with some LPG.
2) Immediately withdraw 331/3% to 40% of the sample from the test apparatus.
3) Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected test temperature.
4) Ensure the test apparatus is complete and equipped with a suitable pressure
gauge.
5) Equipment must be thoroughly cleaned and assembled correctly.

Answer 321

3) Record LPG vapour pressure at the selected test temperature.

Question 322

When an LPG sample is tested, the testing apparatus is normally immersed in a water bath at:

1) 0 degrees C.
2) 3.7 degrees C.
3) 37.8 degrees C.
4) -3.7 degrees C.

Answer 322

3) 37.8 degrees C.

Question 323

You are reviewing test results from a LPG sampling. Two samples were collected by two different operators in the plant and analyzed in two separate laboratories. The sample was taken from the same test material but the difference in the reported LP-Gas vapour pressure was 4.2 psi. What should be your response to this analysis report?

1) Accept the test results, the difference is within acceptable limits.
2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and re-do the test.
3) Reject the test results as being too similar to be acceptable, and re-do the test.
4) Accept the test results, the difference doesn’t matter in this kind of testing.

Answer 323

2) Reject the test results as being too different to be acceptable, and re-do the test

Question 324

In assembling the LPG Vapour Pressure apparatus, you must ensure that the
__________________ between the two chambers is open and that the _________ valve is closed.
1) inlet, bleeder
2) bleeder, straight-through
3) inlet, straight-through
4) straight-through valve, bleeder

Answer 324

4) straight-through valve, bleeder

Question 325

The pressure gauge used for the vapour pressure apparatus must be:

1) Any pressure gauge that you found in the plant.
2) An accurate gauge that is within 20% accurate.
3) An accurate gauge that is within 2% accurate.
4) 200 mm in diameter and a range of 10,000 kPa.

Answer 325

3) An accurate gauge that is within 2% accurate.

Question 326

The pressure of the sample is recorded prior to removing the apparatus from the water bath and
then, when consecutive readings are constant, the pressure is reported as the:
1) Uncorrected LP-Vapour pressure.
2) Corrected LP-Vapour pressure.
3) Gauge pressure.
4) Absolute pressure.

Answer 326

1) Uncorrected LP-Vapour pressure

Question 327

The naturally occurring drive method with the highest efficiency rating as it relates to the drives ability to
raise oil to the surface is:
1) Gas cap drive.
2) Enriched gas lift.
3) Dissolved gas drive.
4) Water drive.

Answer 327

4) Water drive.

Question 328

The most commonly used method of secondary recovery is:

1) Miscible flooding.
2) Steam flooding.
3) Fire flooding.
4) Water flooding.

Answer 328

4) Water flooding.

Question 329

If the well does not flow, its potentials can still be determined by the height to which the oil rises in the pipe and by pressure recorders installed within the equipment.

1) True
2) False

Answer 329

1) True

Question 330

Normally, a wellhead consists of:

1) Casing, control head and tubing.
2) Casing shoe, control head and tubing.
3) Casing head, tubing head and Christmas tree.
4) Casing head, Christmas tree and tubing.

Answer 330

3) Casing head, tubing head and Christmas tree.

Question 331

The tubing is run inside the casing:

1) From the wellhead to the battery.
2) From the wellhead to the oil or gas formation.
3) From the wellhead to the casing head.
4) From the wellhead to the Christmas tree.

Answer 331

2) From the wellhead to the oil or gas formation

Question 332

Naturally occurring drives that help produce fluids to the surface include:

1) Water Drive, Gas Cap Drive and Water Flooding.
2) Water Drive, Gas Cap Drive and Miscible Flooding.
3) Water Drive, Dissolved Gas Drive and Water Flooding.
4) Water Drive, Dissolved Gas Drive and Gas Cap Drive.

Answer 332

4) Water Drive, Dissolved Gas Drive and Gas Cap Drive.

Question 333

The purpose of an oil and gas well bottom hole pressure test is:
1) To test a well’s ability to produce in a 24-hour period under certain fixed conditions.
2) To initially determine a well’s fluids and its production potentials.
3) To determine the effect of different flow rates on the pressure within the
producing zone.
4) To furnish information about the depletion of the producing zone.

Answer 333

4) To furnish information about the depletion of the producing zone.

Question 334

The purpose of an oil and gas well potential test is:

1) To furnish information about the depletion of the producing zone.
2) To initially determine a well’s fluids and its production potentials.
3) To test a well’s ability to produce in a 24-hour period under certain fixed conditions.
4) To determine the effect of different flow rates on the pressure within the producing zone.

Answer 334

3) To test a well’s ability to produce in a 24-hour period under certain fixed conditions.

Question 335

The Christmas tree allows:

1) Pumping of substances such as mud, water or oil for killing the well.
2) Flow of oil or gas during normal production.
3) Injection of gas, steam or other media under pressure to stimulate production.
4) All of the above

Answer 335

4) All of the above

Question 336

Methods to stimulate natural production include:

1) Acidizing, Sand-fracturing and Gas lift.
2) Sand-fracturing, Gas lift and Perforating.
3) Acidizing, Sand-fracturing and Perforating.
4) Acidizing, Gas lift and Perforating.

Answer 336

3) Acidizing, Sand-fracturing and Perforating.

Question 337

The fluid level determination test is most commonly performed on wells which do not flow and which must
be assisted to produce by pumping or some other artificial method. This test involves:
1) The flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead.
2) The sound flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead.
3) The seismic recordings flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead.
4) None of the above.

Answer 337

2) The sound flare created by a small explosion at the wellhead.

Question 338

The well control head tubing head:

1) Provides a base for the blowout preventers when drilling.
2) Supports the control valves through which the hydrocarbons are flowing.
3) Is designed with single or double wings.
4) Is used to measure the pressure on the tubing.

Answer 338

2) Supports the control valves through which the hydrocarbons are flowing.

Question 339

The artificial lift method that involves injecting a slug of solvent capable of being mixed with the reservoir oil
is:
1) Miscible flooding.
2) Water flooding.
3) Fire flooding.
4) Steam flooding.

Answer 339

1) Miscible flooding.

Question 340

Oil and gas well tubing:

1) Facilitates the flow of oil or gas from the reservoir to the surface.
2) Prevents corrosion and wear of the casing.
3) Is cemented in place.
4) Both a and b.

Answer 340

4) Both a and b.

Question 341

The most commonly used method of secondary recovery is:

1) Miscible flooding.
2) Steam flooding.
3) Fire flooding.
4) Water flooding.

Answer 341

4) Water flooding.

Question 342

Well completion normally involves:

1) Running casing.
2) Installing a control head.
3) Installing tubing.
4) All of the above.

Answer 342

4) All of the above.

Question 343

Liquid surging or slugging into a separator can be prevented by:

1) The application of inhibitors.
2) Proper selection and design of the separator.
3) The correct operation of the gathering system.
4) Both B and C.

Answer 343

4) Both B and C.

Question 344

In general, which of the following factors should be considered when choosing the size and type of separator?

1) Gas flow rate, in cubic metres per day
2) Specific gravities of oil, water and gas
3) Temperatures and pressures at which the separator will operate
4) All of the above

Answer 344

4) All of the above

Question 345

The size of a separator depends primarily on the _______________ and ______________ of liquids.

1) Type, volume
2) Gas pressure, gas temperature
3) Gas temperature, operating pressure
4) Gas density, gas type

Answer 345

1) Type, volume

Question 346

Separator selection factors must include:

1) Liquid flow rates.
2) Presence of solids.
3) Temperature and pressure of the separator.
4) All of the above.

Answer 346

4) All of the above.

Question 347

Controls that are most prevalent on separators are:

1) High liquid level and pressure.
2) High liquid flow.
3) High temperature and low liquid flow.
4) Low liquid flow and high temperature and gas flow.

Answer 347

1) High liquid level and pressure.

Question 348

Controls that are most prevalent on separators are:

1) High liquid level and pressure.
2) High liquid flow.
3) High temperature and low liquid flow.
4) Low liquid flow and high temperature and gas flow.

Answer 348

1) High liquid level and pressure.

Question 349

One method of remedying the problem of foaming in separators is:

1) Monitoring injected fluids.
2) Closing the liquid inlet.
3) Opening the dump valve.
4) Discharge the foam with the overhead gas.

Answer 349

1) Monitoring injected fluids.

Question 350

One method of remedying the problem of foaming in separators is:

1) Monitoring injected fluids.
2) Closing the liquid inlet.
3) Opening the dump valve.
4) Discharge the foam with the overhead gas.

Answer 350

1) Monitoring injected fluids.

Question 351

Which of the following is not a factor that would be considered in choosing the size and type of separator?

1) Gas flow rate, in cubic metres per day
2) Temperatures and pressures at which the separator will operate
3) Location of the gas field
4) All of the above

Answer 351

3) Location of the gas field

Question 352

Correct liquid level maintenance prevents:

1) Gases entering through liquid inlets.
2) Gases going out through the liquid outlets.
3) Gases mixing with liquids.
4) Entrance of liquids into the separator.

Answer 352

2) Gases going out through the liquid outlets.

Question 353

The temperature in the separator is different than the fluid temperature entering the separator.

1) True
2) False

Answer 353

2) False

Question 354

Corrosion in separators may result from exposure to:

1) Carbon dioxide, water and nitrogen.
2) Water, nitrogen and helium.
3) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and water.
4) All of the above.

Answer 354

3) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and water

Question 355

If the level of liquids rises too high in the separator, the operator should check the:

1) Dump valve controller and temperature controls.
2) Dump valve controller and the control valve block valves.
3) Temperature controls and the control valve block valves.
4) Backpressure controller and temperature controls.

Answer 355

2) Dump valve controller and the control valve block valves.

Question 356

If the level of liquids rises too high in the separator, the operator should check the:

1) Dump valve controller and temperature controls.
2) Dump valve controller and the control valve block valves.
3) Temperature controls and the control valve block valves.
4) Backpressure controller and temperature controls.

Answer 356

2) Dump valve controller and the control valve block valves.

Question 357

Plugged or blocked lines to a level control column will cause:

1) Liquid carry-over with the gas.
2) Gas breakthrough with the condensate.
3) Foaming in the separator.
4) False liquid level indications.
5) A and D.

Answer 357

5) A and D.

Question 358

Liquid surging is the rapid:

1) Rise of temperature of liquids prior to separation.
2) Exit of liquids with the overhead gas.
3) Entry of liquid slugs into the separator from the lower portions of the pipeline.
4) Exit of liquid slugs into the pipeline from the lower portions of the separator.

Answer 358

3) Entry of liquid slugs into the separator from the lower portions of the pipeline.

Question 359

One method of solving the problem of foaming in separators is:

1) Coating the internal surfaces of the separator.
2) Allowing the foam to discharge with the overhead gas.
3) Cleaning the interior surfaces of the separator.
4) Opening the separator dump valve fully.

Answer 359

3) Cleaning the interior surfaces of the separator.

Question 360

A type of sediment rock is:

1) Schist
2) Basalt
3) Shale
4) Granite

Answer 360

3) Shale

Question 361

A type of sediment rock is:

1) Schist
2) Basalt
3) Shale
4) Granite

Answer 361

3) Shale

Question 362

A structural trap that results from the fracturing of crust rock and the differential movement of the rock
causing a closure across the fracture is called:
1) A fault
2) A salt dome
3) An anticline
4) A syncline

Answer 362

1) A fault

Question 363

A structural trap that results from the fracturing of crust rock and the differential movement of the rock
causing a closure across the fracture is called:
1) A fault
2) A salt dome
3) An anticline
4) A syncline

Answer 363

1) A fault

Question 364

Stratigraphic traps result when folds and faults in the earth’s strata create barriers to fluid migration.

1) True
2) False

Answer 364

2) False

Question 365

The sedimentary rock that does not fall into the clastic rock grouping is:

1) Shale.
2) Sandstone.
3) Siltstone.
4) Dolomite.

Answer 365

4) Dolomite.

Question 366

The exploration division of a gas company is not concerned with:

1) Geophysical exploration.
2) Acquisition of mineral rights.
3) Drilling to discover new sources of gas and oil.
4) Follow-up (development) drilling to define the size of a discovered pool.

Answer 366

4) Follow-up (development) drilling to define the size of a discovered pool.

Question 367

The three conditions essential for the existence of oil and gas traps include porosity, permeability and
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
1) seals
2) folds
3) faults
4) tilts

Answer 367

1) seals

Question 368

The sediment rock that does not fall into the nonclastic rock grouping is:

1) Limestone.
2) Shale.
3) Dolomite.
4) Coquina.

Answer 368

2) Shale.

Question 369

The structural trap in which the rocks in the earth’s crust are folded upward into a long and narrow shape is called:

1) A fault.
2) An unconformity.
3) A salt dome.
4) An anticline.

Answer 369

4) An anticline.

Question 370

Natural gas was first exported to the US from:

1) Ontario to Detroit.
2) Alberta to Great Falls, MT.
3) New Brunswick to Washington.
4) Quebec to Maine.

Answer 370

1) Ontario to Detroit.

Question 371

The operation of gas gathering systems, compression stations and large transmission pipelines is the
responsibility of the:
1) Exploration, drilling and discovery division.
2) Development and production division.
3) Processing, transmitting, storing and marketing division.
4) Land lease division.

Answer 371

3) Processing, transmitting, storing and marketing division.

Question 372

Rock that has been subjected to extreme heat or pressure (or a combination of both) such that its mineral
composition is altered is referred to as:
1) Sediment rock.
2) Igneous rock.
3) Clastic rock.
4) Metamorphic rock.

Answer 372

4) Metamorphic rock.

Question 373

Structural traps result when the structure and composition of the reservoir changes in an up-dip (upwardly inclined) and laterally to a nonporous rock.

1) True
2) False

Answer 373

2) False

Question 374

Permeability within rocks is expressed:

1) As a percentage.
2) In units called darcies or millidarcies.
3) In meters.
4) In feet.

Answer 374

2) In units called darcies or millidarcies

Question 375

Nonclastic rocks are formed when rocks of any nature are subjected to great heat or pressure.

1) True
2) False

Answer 375

2) False

Question 376

Nonclastic rocks originate from:

1) Volcanic activity on the earth’s surface.
2) The erosion of rocks into sediments (gravel, sand, silt) that are then combined and hardened.
3) The accumulation and compression of marine organisms and chemical precipitates.
4) Being subjected to great heat and pressure or a combination of both.

Answer 376

3) The accumulation and compression of marine organisms and chemical precipitates.

Question 377

Permeability of a formation depends on:

1) The depth of a well.
2) The reservoir pressure.
3) The rock grain shape.
4) The thickness of the gas-producing zone.

Answer 377

3) The rock grain shape.

Question 378

Clastic rocks originate from:

1) Being subjected to great heat and pressure or a combination of both.
2) The accumulation and compression of marine organisms and chemical precipitates.
3) Volcanic activity on the earth’s surface.
4) The erosion of rocks into sediments (gravel, sand, silt) that are then combined and hardened.

Answer 378

4) The erosion of rocks into sediments (gravel, sand, silt) that are then combined and hardened.

Question 379

eservoir beds are made up of:

1) Shales.
2) Igneous rock.
3) Salts.
4) Sandstone.

Answer 379

2) Igneous rock.

Question 380

In Alberta, natural gas was first discovered in:

1) Turner Valley.
2) Leduc.
3) Medicine Hat.
4) Calgary.

Answer 380

3) Medicine Hat.

Question 381

The sediment rock that does not fall into the nonclastic rock grouping is:

1) Limestone.
2) Shale.
3) Dolomite.
4) Coquina.

Answer 381

2) Shale.

Question 382

Which of the following is not considered a division of the gas industry?

1) Exploration, discovery and drilling
2) Development and Production
3) Separation, Cooling and Compression
4) Processing and Transmission

Answer 382

3) Separation, Cooling and Compression

Question 383

Choke valves are:

1) On/Off valves used to shut off the flow quickly.
2) Blinds used to prevent flow.
3) Master valves.
4) Needle valves used to control the gas flow at the desired rate.

Answer 383

4) Needle valves used to control the gas flow at the desired rate.

Question 384

In a sour well, a build-up of pressure in the well casing is usually due to gas leakage through the:

1) Master valve.
2) Isolation packer.
3) Casing wall.
4) Tubing flow valve.

Answer 384

2) Isolation packer.

Question 385

In hydrate control, the term “remedial methods” implies that:

1) Hydrates are processed as separate feedstocks.
2) The factors causing hydrate formation are removed.
3) Hydrates are inhibited by using either methanol or ethanol.
4) Hydrates are returned to the reservoir.

Answer 385

2) The factors causing hydrate formation are removed

Question 386

Water coning is often a result of:

1) Producing the well at too high a rate.
2) Producing the well at too low a rate.
3) An increase in pressure.
4) An increase in temperature.

Answer 386

1) Producing the well at too high a rate.

Question 387

Sulphide stress cracking in tubing is a type of corrosion that results from the reaction of:

1) CO2 with steel.
2) H2S with steel.
3) H2O with steel.
4) N2O with steel.

Answer 387

2) H2S with steel.

Question 388

Sulphide stress cracking in tubing is a type of corrosion that results from the reaction of:

1) CO2 with steel.
2) H2S with steel.
3) H2O with steel.
4) N2O with steel.

Answer 388

2) H2S with steel.

Question 389

Hydrates are:

1) Crystalline compounds formed under pressure by the chemical combination of natural gas and water.
2) Crystalline compounds formed under low pressure and temperature.
3) Organic deposits that accumulate in tubing strings.
4) Peptizing agents of asphaltene particles.

Answer 389

1) Crystalline compounds formed under pressure by the chemical combination of natural gas and water.

Question 390

Corrosion occurs in the flow path of fluid, and it is more severe in fields containing _______ and _________.

1) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
2) Nitrogen, propane
3) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide
4) Hydrogen peroxide, aluminum hydroxide

Answer 390

1) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide

Question 391

When diethylene glycol is being used to dehydrate gas in which minor amounts of H2S are present, the
vapours from the glycol reboiler are flared off at an approved flare stack.
1) True
2) False

Answer 391

1) True

Question 392

Glycols are not generally used to dehydrate sour gas because of serious corrosion and environmental
problems that may result.
1) True
2) False

Answer 392

1) True

Question 393

In hydrate control, the term “preventive methods” implies that:
1) The factors causing hydrate formation are removed.
2) Hydrates are inhibited by using amines.
3) The factors causing hydrate formation are controlled.
4) Solid desiccants such as molecular sieves can be used to dehydrate gas at the
wellhead.

Answer 393

The factors causing hydrate formation are controlled.

Question 394

To convert MMCF/D to 103m3/d:

1) Multiply by 6.895
2) Multiply by 28.3179
3) Divide by 746
4) Subtract 32 and divide by 1.8

Answer 394

2) Multiply by 28.3179

Question 395

Small pressure drops occur in wellhead and pipeline valves. This drop in pressure results in a corresponding
drop in gas temperature causing:
1) Decrease in well flow.
2) Frost build-up on valves.
3) Increase in possibility of hydrate formation in the valves.
4) Increase in possibility of hydrate formation in the well tubing.

Answer 395

3) Increase in possibility of hydrate formation in the valves.

Question 396

Asphaltene is also a serious concern in some producing wells because it:

1) Causes sulphide stress cracking.
2) Accumulates in the pipes and may plug up lines.
3) Causes water coning.
4) Corrodes the tubing strings.

Answer 396

2) Accumulates in the pipes and may plug up lines

Question 397

Asphaltene is also a serious concern in some producing wells because it:

1) Causes sulphide stress cracking.
2) Accumulates in the pipes and may plug up lines.
3) Causes water coning.
4) Corrodes the tubing strings.

Answer 397

2) Accumulates in the pipes and may plug up lines

Question 398

Pitting is a type of corrosion that results in:

1) Cracks in the tubing.
2) Air in the casing annulus.
3) Build-up on tubing walls.
4) Craters in the tubing.

Answer 398

4) Craters in the tubing.

Question 399

Today, sulphide stress cracking in well tubing is prevented primarily by:

1) Corrosion inhibitors.
2) Plastic coatings.
3) Specialty steel alloys.
4) Injection of aluminium hydroxide.

Answer 399

3) Specialty steel alloys

Question 400

The air supply to the pilot of an indirect gas line heater should be regulated so:

1) The body of the flame is yellow and the tip slightly blue.
2) The body of the flames is orange and the tip slightly blue.
3) The flame appears bright white in colour.
4) The body of the flame is blue and the tip slightly yellow.

Answer 400

4) The body of the flame is blue and the tip slightly yellow.

Question 401

In selecting a line heater appropriate for a particular application, the following must be considered:

1) Corrosive impurities in the gas.
2) Pressure drop in the heater.
3) Specific gravity of the gas.
4) All of the above.

Answer 401

4) All of the above.

Question 402

Installing two inlet gas regulators can help prevent the regulators from freezing by:

1) Raising the pressure differential across each regulator.
2) Lowering the pressure differential across each regulator.
3) Reducing plant intake.
4) Increasing plant intake.

Answer 402

2) Lowering the pressure differential across each regulator.

Question 403

A pipeline rupture will result in a substantial reduction in line pressures. The choke valves on surrounding
wells will:
1) Remain at their current settings for the preset flow rates.
2) Close due to likely plant shutdown.
3) Open further to try to maintain pipeline pressures.
4) Close due to pipeline pressure dropping below design operating conditions.

Answer 403

4) Close due to pipeline pressure dropping below design operating conditions.

Question 404

The surge pot or water saver on the top of a gas line heater:
1) Allows for a larger surface area of water to be exposed to the atmosphere in
the heater.
2) Prevents thermal expansion of the water bath.
3) Minimizes evaporation of water and allows for thermal expansion of the water bath.
4) Maximizes evaporation of water in the heater.

Answer 404

3) Minimizes evaporation of water and allows for thermal expansion of the water bath.

Question 405

When firing up a line heater:

1) Raise the temperature of the heat medium as rapidly as possible.
2) The temperature of the heat medium should not be raised too rapidly
3) Ensure that the fluid level in the heater is below the firetube and thermostat levels
4) Ensure that the burner is aimed along the firetube so that the flame impinges on the firetube

Answer 405

2) The temperature of the heat medium should not be raised too rapidly

Question 406

In selecting a line heater appropriate for the application, the following must be considered:

1) Volume and specific gravity of the gas to be heated.
2) Temperature of the gas at both the heater inlet and outlet.
3) Pressure drop in the heater.
4) All of the above.

Answer 406

4) All of the above.

Question 407

Choke controllers are positioned after the first pass of a 2-pass indirect heater to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
the gas prior to any pressure reduction.
1) Increase the pressure of
2) Pre-heat
3) Control flow of
4) Lower the pressure of

Answer 407

2) Pre-heat

Question 408

A hydrate plug in the well lateral or gathering lines can result in:

1) A burner remaining on all the time.
2) High pressure.
3) Low pressure.
4) Rusting and pitting of the lines.

Answer 408

2) High pressure.

Question 409

A check valve is installed in each well lateral. In the event of a line break between the heater and the main
line, this check will prevent gas from flowing back to the rupture from the main gathering line.
1) True
2) False

Answer 409

1) True

Question 410

The location of line heaters in a heated gas gathering system is primarily determined by:

1) Gas production rates.
2) Predicted heat loss rates.
3) Coldest ambient temperatures.
4) Pipeline pressure drop.

Answer 410

3) Coldest ambient temperatures.

Question 411

The location of line heaters in a heated gas gathering system is primarily determined by:

1) Gas production rates.
2) Predicted heat loss rates.
3) Coldest ambient temperatures.
4) Pipeline pressure drop.

Answer 411

3) Coldest ambient temperatures.

Question 412

Flowline heaters are installed and maintained in gas lines to:

1) Remove water by boiling it off.
2) Separate the water from the gas.
3) Elevate and keep the gas temperature at predetermined levels.
4) Remove sulphur dioxide and water.

Answer 412

3) Elevate and keep the gas temperature at predetermined levels.

Question 413

To assist in corrosion control, the water bath is inhibited by the addition of chemicals to ensure that the pH
is:
1) Acidic, 2.0 - 4.5.
2) Alkaline, 9.0 - 11.0.
3) Alkaline, 7.5 - 9.5.
4) Acidic, 4.5 - 6.0.

Answer 413

3) Alkaline, 7.5 - 9.5.

Question 414

Before firing up a gas line heater, it is important to make sure that:

1) The fluid level is above the firetube and thermostat levels.
2) The fluid level is below the firetube and thermostat levels.
3) The water bath temperature is well below normal.
4) The water bath is empty and free of any residual water.

Answer 414

1) The fluid level is above the firetube and thermostat levels.

Question 415

When firing up a line heater:
1) Ensure the burner is aimed along the firetube so the flame impinges on the
firetube.
2) Ensure that the fluid level in the heater is below the firetube and thermostat
levels.
3) Ensure the burner is aimed along the firetube so the flame does not impinge on the firetube.
4) Raise the temperature of the heat medium as rapidly as possible.

Answer 415

3) Ensure the burner is aimed along the firetube so the flame does not impinge on the firetube.

Question 416

You are assigned the design development for a wet, sour gas gathering system. The receiving plant is
centrally located with the distance to the furthest well being 10 km. The wellsite equipment you would likely
use is:
1) Indirect heater, choke valve and hot oil circulating string.
2) Indirect heater, separator and compressor.
3) Indirect heater, oil storage and compressor.
4) Compressor, Separator and choke valve.

Answer 416

1) Indirect heater, choke valve and hot oil circulating string

Question 417

The single most important step in firing up a heater is:

1) The thermostat is set to correct temperature.
2) Correct level of heat transfer fluid.
3) All fuel gas has been turned off and the heater allowed to ventilate thoroughly.
4) Suitable burner ignition source.

Answer 417

3) All fuel gas has been turned off and the heater allowed to ventilate thoroughly.

Question 418

Pressure on the fuel gas to the burner should usually be adjusted to between:

1) 15 and 25 kPa.
2) 70 and 85 kPa.
3) 20 and 30 kPa.
4) 35 and 70 kPa.

Answer 418

4) 35 and 70 kPa.

Question 419

Pressure on the fuel gas to the burner should usually be adjusted to between:

1) 15 and 25 kPa.
2) 70 and 85 kPa.
3) 20 and 30 kPa.
4) 35 and 70 kPa.

Answer 419

4) 35 and 70 kPa.

Question 420

A hi-lo safety valve is installed in the flowline between the well and the heater. This plug valve is closed by a
power cylinder operated by:
1) Low pressure fuel gas (20 kPa).
2) A thermostat.
3) An electronic shut-off.
4) High pressure fuel gas (1000 kPa).

Answer 420

4) High pressure fuel gas (1000 kPa).

Question 421

When firing up a line heater:
1) Raise the temperature of the heat medium as rapidly as possible.
2) The temperature of the heat medium should not be raised too rapidly
3) Ensure that the fluid level in the heater is below the firetube and thermostat
levels
4) Ensure that the burner is aimed along the firetube so that the flame impinges
on the firetube

Answer 421

2) The temperature of the heat medium should not be raised too rapidly

Question 422

The special drilling procedure which utilizes a large spool of metal tubing for the drill pipe and a mud motor
at the bottom of the coil of tubing to turn the drill bit is called the:
1) Top drive procedure.
2) Casing drilling procedure.
3) Whip stocking procedure.
4) Coiled tubing drilling procedure.

Answer 422

4) Coiled tubing drilling procedure.