GPD Flashcards

1
Q

Mental Health - Public Place
Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003
S.297, Duration?
S.298 - Stipulations

A
  • Police may remove a person to a POS from a public place, where:
    1) they reasonably suspect the person has a mental disorder
    2) the person is in immediate need of care or treatment
    3) it is in their interests or the interests of the public to remove them to a POS
  • Person may be detained at POS for up to 24 hours.
  • Upon relying on s.297, Police must ensure info is shared with Local Authority where POS is, persons nearest relative, and mental welfare commission (within 14 days for the latter )
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2
Q

Mental Health - Private place
A)Protocol
B)Police Powers

A

A) Police have no authority to remove in this case. Try to seek assistance from family member or Community Triage Service.
A GP or MHO has to attend who has powers to detain and remove to POS, or apply for warrants and orders.
B) Power of entry is only created by:
-Warrants or Removal Orders obtained by MHO (S.292-294)
-P&FRA2012 S.20

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3
Q

Prot. of Vuln. Adults and Groups - Definitions
‘Adult at risk’
‘Harm’

A
  • Individuals over 16 y/o who are unable to safeguard themselves, their property rights or other interests, are at risk of HARM, and owing to them having a disability etc which makes them more vulnerable
  • Physical harm, psychological harm, conduct which would cause self harm, property harm
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4
Q
Prot. of Vuln. Adults and Groups
-Council measures, Can make application to Sheriff for:
A)Assessment Order
B) Removal Order
C) Banning Order
A

A) Allows Council to conduct private interview and medical. no power to detain. 7 day validity.
B) Authorises removal where there is a serious risk of harm if not moved. Must be actioned within 72 hours.
-Order expires after 7 days and person cannot be detained.
C)Granted against another to protect vulnerable person from serious harm. 6 month validity. Can also get interim banning orders pending full one.

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5
Q

Prot. of Vuln. Adults and Groups

- Police Powers

A
  • If Sheriff has granted council officer a warrant to visit and examine vulnerable person(72 hour validity from granting), constable can use reasonable force for entry
  • Power of arrest may be attached to a banning order.
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6
Q

Dealing with Death
A)Medical
B)Unexplained medical
C) Police Reportable

A

A)Where someone dies of natural, foreseeable causes. There will be little to no police involvement and it is healthcare professionals responsibility
B) Generally sudden deaths - If necessary, it is Dr’s responsibility to report death to COPFS. Police may assist in assessment of death, but not take the lead.
C) Our responsibility to report to COPFS deaths of the following nature: Suspicious, accidental, drugs, suicide, unexplained if <18 y/o, suicide, death in custody.

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7
Q

Dealing with Death - Police response to:
A)Medical and Unexplained Medical
B)Police Reportable

A

A)-Duty of deceased Dr to issue death cert.
-You can contact Dr on behalf on NOK (who if not traced, Police reportable)
-If death occurs outwith GP hours, contact NHS 24.
-Remain at locus until Dr or funeral director arrives.
B)-Secure scene and protect evidence
-Set up scene entry log
-Notify Sgt and CID

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8
Q

Dealing with Death - Info to record at scene

A
  • Time and date of arrival
  • Position and description of body
  • Counter contamination measures taken
  • Deceaseds clothing
  • Particulars of witnesses
  • Details of anyone else at locus
  • Any other relevant observations
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9
Q

Missing Persons - Definitions
‘Mis Per’
‘Concern for’

A

A)Anyone who’s whereabouts are unknown and:

  • the circumstances are out of character OR
  • the context suggests the person may be subject to crime OR
  • the person is at risk of harm to themselves or others

B) A person who’s whereabouts are known or believed to be known and there are concerns of risk of harm to the individual.

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10
Q

Missing Person
A) Initial info to Obtain for investigation
B) Additional lines of enquiry

A

A)- Record circumstances and search home address and last place person was seen.

  • Risk assess - consider police dogs etc
  • Submit PNC marker request

B) CCTV, ANPR, visit school / work address, friends, media appeal?

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11
Q

Missing Person - Risk Assessment Grading
A)Low
B)Medium
C)High

A

A) There is no apparent threat of danger to subject or public, no proactive involvement required.
B)Risk posed is likely to place subject in danger or they are a threat to themselves or others. Some proactive involvement required.
C) Risk posed is immediate and there are substantial grounds for believing subject is in danger due to their own vulnerability or belief that there is risk to the public

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12
Q

Domestic Abuse - Definition

A

Any form of physical, verbal, sexual, psychological or financial abuse which might amount to criminal conduct & which takes place within the context of a relationship. The relationship will be between partners or ex-partners. The abuse can take place in the home, or elsewhere, including online.

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13
Q

Domestic Abuse (S) Act 2018
-S.1
-S.1 Defence
S.5 Aggravation

A

A) Person commits offence if:
i)They engage in a course of behaviour which is abusive of partner or ex
ii) That a reasonable person would consider it likely to cause physical or psychological harm
iii) That they intended to do it or were reckless as to the result.
B) Behaviour was reasonable
C) If the offence involves (includes, seen by, heard by) a child of the victim.

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14
Q
Domestic Abuse - Police Powers
A) Dealing with the Accused
B) Court options
C)Occupancy Rights
D) Intterdicts
A

A) Will be arrested and released on undertaking or held in custody.
B)Guilty plea will be dealt wit their and then. If ‘Not guilty’ plea he will be released with bail conditions
C) Right to, if in occupation, continue to occupy property, and if not, to enter and in either case to do so with a child of the family.
D) Issues under civil law to prevent wrongful or illegal conduct and there can be a power of arrest attached. Arrest if reasonable cause to suspect suspect is breaching interdict or if there would be risk of further Domestic abuse.

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15
Q

Sporting Events - Terms in context of Crime Law (Consolidation) Act 95

1) ‘Designated sports ground and events’
2) ‘Relevant Area’
3) ‘Period of Event’
4) ‘Controlled container’
5) ‘Controlled article or substance’

A

1) Scottish Ministers must designate the sport and the ground. All senior football grounds are designated.
2) Any part that spectators are granted access on payment or from which game can be viewed directly
3) Two hours before the start of an event or advertised start to 1 hour after.
4) A ‘controlled container’ means a container of any description which:
- is or was capable of holding liquid AND
- is made from a material which if thrown or propelled, could cause injury
5) Flares, smokes, fireworks etc

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16
Q

Sporting Events

1) Explain ‘presumption of contents’
2) Offences at designated events under Criminal Law (cons) Act 95 S.20

A

1) Any liquid in a container will be presumed to be what the description states
2) Offence to be within or attempt to enter, the relevant area, during the period of a sporting event, with:
- a controlled container
- any alcohol
- any firework etc
- are drunk

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17
Q

Sporting Events - Offences regarding Public Transport

1) Applies to what and when?
2) Offences : S.19 (1) Crim Law (Con) (S) Act 95

A

1) -Relates to entire journey to and from the designated sporting event.
- Includes supporters buses or trains hired for purpose
- Doesnt include private motor cars.

2) Offence to: - be drunk or in possession of alcohol,
- while on a public service vehicle or train
- which is being principally used for carrying passsengers
- to or from a designated sporting event.

-Also an offence for the operator or driver to PERMIT the above.

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18
Q

Sporting Events -

1) Minibuses
2) Defence for drivers of vehicles

A

1) If minibus is constructed or adapted to carry >8 passengers and is used for principal purpose of transporting 2 or more passengers, then the Criminal Law 95 S.19 will apply.
2) They must prove It occurred without their consent or connivance and they took reasonable action to prevent offence from occurring

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19
Q

Sporting Events - Police Powers, Criminal Law 95 S.21

A

Gives Constable power to:

  • Stop and Search vehicles if S.19 offence suspected
  • Enter designated sporting events for its duration
  • Search anyone reasonably suspected under S.19 or S.20
  • Seize container if it is a controlled container or suspected of containing alcohol
  • Seize fireworks etc
  • Arrest people suspected of committing a S.19 or S.20 offence
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20
Q

Sporting Events - Football Banning Orders

A
  • Where a person >16 is convicted of an offence which involves violence and disorder and is football related a FBO may be imposed.
  • Can be made on conviction or on Summary Application by Police
  • Prohibits person from entering any football ground in UK, for a set time and is punishable by imprisonment if breached
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21
Q

Protecting Children - CYP (S) ACT 1939 s.12

A

Creates offence for:

  • any person aged 16 or over
  • who has parental responsibilities for, or charge or care of a child or young person (person under 16) AND
  • wilfully ill treats, neglects abandons or exposes him or her in a manner
  • likely to cause unnecessary suffering or injury to health (mental or physical)
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22
Q

Protecting Children - CYP (S) ACT 1939 s.12 - Terms

1) Parental Responsibilities
2) Charge
3) Care

A

1)All mothers have these automatically.
fathers will if: 1) they married to mother at birth of child 2) conferred by Court 3) Agreed responsibilities with Mum, legally registered 4) If birth after 04/05/06, he is registered as father on birth certificate (CORRECT)

2) Person who has been delegated rights by those who have parental rights or responsibilities
3) In possession or control

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23
Q

Protecting Children - Police Action at incident/locus

A

-Immediately ensure safety of children
-Contact SAS if required
Contact PPU/CID
-Contact social work
-Note conditions of property and people and attitude of persons present
-note living conditions

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24
Q

Child Offenders
A) Define ‘Child’
B) When may a child be prosecuted?

A

A)Any person who is <16 or is 16 but not 18 and under a supervision requirement

B) Lord Advocate’s guidelines state a child will only be prosecuted if

  • crime is solemn
  • offence would result in a child over 15 being DQ’d from driving
  • a 16-17 y/o supervision order has been terminated.
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25
Q

Child Offenders

-Procedure for Reporting (5 methods)

A

1 - Submission of Childs details via VPD
2-Informal warning. Done via vid and way of recording incident.
3-Restorative Warning - Children’s Hearing may impose supervision requirements
4 - Reporting - Child will be C+C’d but not arrested. Report sent to PF or Children’s Reporter
5- Arrest - (see next slide)

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26
Q

Child Offenders - Arrest

A

Child should only be arrested if

  • crime is serious
  • it is necessary to remove them from bad associations, or
  • liberation would defeat the ends of justice.

If child is to be held then they must be held in a place of safety other than a Police station unless

  • it is impractical to hold them elsewhere
  • child is so unruly that they cannot be held elsewhere
  • should not be released for their physical or mental health
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27
Q

Children - Statutory grounds for Referral

Grounds for Supervision Order (main ones)

A

-Lack of parental care means childs health or development will be impaired, or likely to suffer as a result (CYP S12)
-Crim Procedure (S) A 95 Sched 1 offence committed in respect of child or they have link to offender
-child is likely to be exposed to DA or person who’s conduct would harm them
-child has committed offence or is abusing substances
-child is not attending school
child is beyond control of relevant person
- Childs conduct is severely affecting their safety, health or development

28
Q

Children - Absconders

1) Children’s Hearing (S) Act 2011 S.169 (Absconding from Place)
2Children’s Hearing (S) Act 2011 S.170 (Absconding from Person)
3)Warrants

A

1) Applies when a child requires to be kept in a particular place and they abscond or fail to return, then the Police can arrest and return.
2) Where a person has control of a child and the child absconds from that person, the Police may arrest and return.
3) Where there are reasonable grounds to believe a child is within a premises in this context, court may grant a warrant to search for them.

29
Q

Children - Harbouring Absconders

1) Children’s Hearing (S) Act 2011

A

Creates offence for person to knowingly:

  • Assist or induce a child to abscond
  • harbour or conceal a child who has absconded
  • prevent a child from returning to a place of safety, a relevant place or person conveying him to such a place.
30
Q

Antisocial Behaviour (S) Act 2004

1) ASBOS
2) S.7
3) Breaches and Police Powers (s.9)

A

1) Exist to protect public from behaviour that is likely to cause alarm or distress. Person must be >12 y/o. Local authority and landlord can apply in consultation with Police to Sheriff Court for order.
2) Interim order can immediately be imposed to provide protection from ASB
3) Offence under S.9 to breach ASBO.
If person is 12-16, report to PF & Children’s Reporter.
Report an adult in normal way.
if breach occurs in conjunction with another offence , breach will only be an aggravator of the other offence.

31
Q

Antisocial Behaviour (S) Act 2004
DISPERSAL AREAS
1) Imposition
2) Requirements for validity

A

1) Officer of Superintendent or above, if he has reasonable grounds to believe public has been ALARMED or DISTRESSED by presence or behaviour of groups in public places AND behaviour is persistent, significant and serious, he may on consultation with local authority designate a dispersal area
2) Specified period of order is 3 months max, and notice must be put in paper and at locus detailing dispersal area.

32
Q
Antisocial Behaviour (S) Act 2004 
DISPERSAL AREAS
1) PC Powers
2) Offence S.21(2)
3)Exemptions
A

1)If PC has reasonable grounds to believe public have been ALARMED or DISTRESSED by presence or behaviour of group of 2 or more persons in a public place, he may:
A)Require them to disperse
B)Direct them to leave the area if they do not live in the are
C) Not return for up to 24 hours.
2) to knowingly and without reasonable excuse contravene a direction of the nature above.
3) - Those engaged in conduct which is lawful (trade union disputes etc)
-Those taking part in a legal procession

33
Q

Antisocial Behaviour (S) Act 2004
CLOSURE OF PREMISES
A) Closure notice and Effect
B) Serving of notice

A

A)After consultation with local authority, senior police officer may authorise notice where there are reasonable grounds for believing
-At any time in prior 3 months a person has engaged in ASB AND
-use of premises is associated with occurrence of relevant harm.
Effect is nobody can enter apart from residents of property and owner.

B) Constable must fix notice to all entrances, any outbuildings and to the person in control of the premises.

34
Q
Antisocial Behaviour (S) Act 2004 
CLOSURE OF PREMISES
A) Closure Order
B) Offences (S.37)
C) Police Powers (S.37)
A

A)Closure order in respect of Closure Notice shall be applied for to Sheriff by SPO, which would authorise closure for up to 3 months.
-Constables may do anything to secure premises and enter and use reasonable force to effect order.

B) To remain on or enter premises, without reasonable excuse, where closure notice or order are in effect.

C) May arrest

35
Q

Firearm Definitions

1) Firearm
2) Ammunition

A

1) A lethal barrel weapon of any description from which a bullet shot or other missile can be discharged & includes any ‘prohibited weapon’, whether lethal barrelled or not, any ‘component part’ of such a lethal or prohibited weapon or any ‘accessory’ to such a weapon, which are designed to adapt or diminish sound or flash caused by firing a weapon
2) Any ammunition for any firearm and includes; grenades, bombs and other like missiles, whether capable of use with a firearm or not.

36
Q

Firearms - Prohibited weapons

Firearms Act 1968 S.5(1)

A
  • All firearms designed or adapted for continuous fire
  • Most rifles which are capable of rapid fire (excl. .22 calibre rifles)
  • Most shotguns capable of rapid fire whose overall size makes them easy to conceal on a person
  • Any firearm disguised as another object
  • Any rocket launcher or similar
  • Any air weapon which is vulnerable to conversion
  • Any firearm with a barrel length <30cm or overall length <60cm
  • any other weapon designed to discharge noxious liquid or gas.
37
Q

Firearms

1) ‘Component parts’
2) ‘Accessories’

A

1) Essential parts for firing - trigger, barrel, recoil spring
2) Anything designed or adapted to diminish the sound

38
Q

Firearms

1) Firearms Act 68 S.2 ‘Shotgun’
2) Firearms Act 68 S.1 - Rifles

A

1) A shotgun is a smooth-bore gun, not being an air weapon, which has:
- a barrel length not less than 24 inches in length
- barrel bore not exceeding 2 inches in diameter
- a magazine capable of holding no more than 2 cartridges
2) Max .22 calibre

39
Q

Firearms - Certificates

1) Firearms (rifles) - Firearms Act 68 S.27
2) Shotguns - “ “ “ S. 28
3) Revocation

A

1)Certificate granted where CC is satisfied that:
a) Applicant is fit to be entrusted with S.1 Firearm (rifle)
b) Applicant is not a prohibited person
c) Applicant has good reason for having firearm or ammo as stated in application
d)Applicant can have firearm without danger to public safety or peace
2) Same as b)-d) above, specifying in c) that good reasons are objectives like shooting vermin or sporting events.
3) Rifles - if a) - d) above not satisfied
Shotguns - if b) or d) not satisfied.

40
Q

Firearms - Certificates

1) Production - firearms Act 68 S.48
2) Failure to Produce

A

1)PC may demand certificate from anyone they believe to be in possession of a S.1 firearm , ammo or shotgun.
2) If person fails to produce, PC may seize ammo and weapons, and demand person name and address.
Failure to tender name and address is an offence under this Section.

41
Q

Firearms - Offences - Firearms Act 1968

1) Section 19
2) Section 20

A

1) Creates offence for any person to have with them, in a public place, without lawful authority or reasonable excuse, any of the following
a) loaded shotgun b) air weapon c) any other firearm loaded or not if they have ammo, d) imitation firearm
2) Creates offence for any person in possession of firearm or imitation firearm to trespass onto land or buildings without reasonable excuse.

42
Q

Firearms - Offences - Firearms Act 1968 - S.47

1) Stop and Search Powers
2) Offence

A

1) If PC has reasonable cause to suspect a person is in possession of a firearm or ammo in public OR they are about to commit a S.20 offence, Constable may
a) require person to hand over ammo and firearm for examination
b) search and detain person
3) stop and search any vehicle

2) Offence to not hand over ammo and firearm for examination.

43
Q

Firearms - Reckless Discharge

A

ACACL for any person to recklessly discharge a firearm, whether or not injury is caused.

44
Q

Public Order - Processions

a) When are they permitted?
b) Offences - Civic Gvt (S) Act 82 S.65

A

a)On written receipt and after consultation with CC, the local authority may grant permission for a procession, prohibit it, or impose condition?
b)Offence for organiser of procession to hold it in contravention of conditions or prohibitions OR
for any person to take part if they refuse to desist after requirement to.

45
Q

Public Order - Processions

a) Public Order Act 86 S.12 - Police Powers
b) Offences

A

a) Where procession is likely to cause: serious public disorder, serious damage to property, serious disruption to life of community, or intimidation of others with a view to compelling them not to do something lawful, the SPO may impose directions or conditions to prevent this
b) Offence for anyone to knowingly fail to comply, for incite someone to fail to comply.

46
Q

Public Order - Public Assemblies
Assembly means..
a) Public Order Act 86 S.14 - Police Powers
b) Offences

A

An assembly of 20 or more persons in public place which is wholly or partly open to the air.

a) Most SPO has power to impose conditions on number of protesters, location and duration, if serious disorder or intimidation is likely.
b) Offence for anyone to knowingly fail to comply, for incite someone to fail to comply.

47
Q

Public Order - Trespassory Assemblies
a) Criminal Justice & Public Order Act 94 S.70 (Prohibition powers)
b) Offences
C) Police Powers

A

A)A CC who reasonably believes an assembly will be held on land without permission of occupier AND may result in serious disruption to life of community or significant damage to site, may apply apply to relevant council for order to prohibit assembly for a 5 mile radius and for 4 days.

b) Offence to organise, take part in or incite someone to take part in a prohibited assembly
c) Arrest

48
Q

Public Order - Trespassing with Purpose of Residing on Land
a) Criminal Justice & Public Order Act 94 S.61 (Requirement/Definition)
b) Offences
C) Police Powers

A

a) Where lawful occupier has asked 2 or more trespassers to leave, and has taken reasonable steps to do so, SPO may direct them to leave if ANY of following conditions are satisfied: 1) they have caused damage to land or property 2) they have been threatening, abusive or insulting to occupier or family or employees 3) they have at least 6 vehicles on land
b) Offence to fail to comply with SPO’s instruction
c) Arrest

49
Q

Public Order - Aggravated trespassing
a) Criminal Justice & Public Order Act 94 S.68 (Aggravated trespass)
b) Police powers
C) Offences

A

a) Offence for anyone trespassing on land in open air to do anything intended to intimidate, obstruct or disrupt persons from enjoying lawful activity on land
b) SPO may direct persons to leave if they reasonably believe:- They have, are or intend to commit agg. trespass.
- Two or more people are trespassing with common goal of (a) above.
c) Offence to fail to comply with direction ASAPractical AND having left, to return as a trespasser within 3 months.

50
Q

Public Order - Mobbing and Rioting

a) Definition
b) Essential Elements
c) Reality

A

a) A mob is a group of persons acting together for a common illegal purpose, to the alarm of the lieges, and in breach of the peace.
b) There was a concourse, acting together to defy legal authority, to alarm of lieges
c) Difficult to prove in court, easier to libel BOTP.

51
Q

Public Order - Stop and Search - Criminal justice and Public Order Act 1994 S.60

1) When authorised?
2) Limitations?
3) Powers conferred on Police
4) Related offences?

A

1) If Inspector or above reasonably believes that:
- Incidents involving serious violence may take place at locality and it is expedient to give S.60 authorisation to prevent AND
- that people in area are carrying offensive weapons are doing so without good reason.
2) 24 hours max, Superintendent can extend by 24 hours further.
3) Stop and search people and vehicles without grounds. Require people to remove identity concealing clothing. Seize offensive instruments, weapons and concealing clothing.
4) To fail to stop, stop vehicle, or to remove concealing item of clothing.

52
Q

Court Procedures

1) What ways can you speak in court?
2) Who needs to attend interim diet?
3) purpose of interim diet

A

1) Solicitor, in writing, in person
2) only the accused (to plea)
3) to check if trial will go ahead onset date
Crown can highlight issues and problems regarding witnesses
Accused can change plea
Parties can agree evidence in advance

53
Q

Alcohol definition

A

Spirits, wine, beer, cider or any other fermented, distilled or spiritous liquor but does not include alcohol of a strength of 0.5% or less, at the time of its sale

54
Q

Liquor - Licensed Premises

Content of Operating Plan

A
  • Description of activities to be carried out on premises
  • statement of the times during which it is proposed that alcohol be sold on the premises
  • statement as to whether alcohol is to be sold for consumption on premises, off premises, or both
  • statement as to times at which any other activities in addition to sale of alcohol are to be carried out on the premises
  • info as to the proposed premises capacity
  • info identifying premises manager
  • Any other info relating to premises
55
Q

Liquor - Licensed Premises

Operating Plan - Children

A

Where alcohol is to be sold on premises, operating plan must state:

  • Age of children or young persons to be allowed entry
  • Times at which they are to be allowed entry
  • Parts of premises to which they may be allowed entry
56
Q

Liquor - Licensed Premises

5 Licensing Objectives

A
Preventing crime and disorder
Securing public safety
Preventing public nuisance
Protecting and improving public health
Protecting children from harm
57
Q

Liquor - Licensed Premises

LSA 05 S.63 - Offence relevant time sale and removal of alcohol out with hours

1) Offence
2) Caveats

A

1) a person commits a offence if out with licensed hours, any person
- sells or allows alcohol to be sold on licensed premises
- allows alcohol to be consumed on licensed premises
- allows alcohol to be taken from premises

2) -alcohol consumed within 15 mins of end of licensed hours
- alcohol taken away was sold during licensing hours and is taken away in a sealed container
- person taking alcohol resides on premises iris a guest
- consumption is with a meal at any time within 30 mins of licensed hours of it was sold in that period for consumption with meal
- sale is to a trader for trade

58
Q

Liquor - Licensed Prises

Ordinary Mandatory Conditions

A
  • Alcohol is sold only in accordance with operating plan
  • Any activity is in accordance with operating plan
  • All staff dispensing alcohol have undergone period of in-house training
  • No irresponsible drinks promotions or price variations lasting less than 72 hours
59
Q

Liquor - Licensed Premises

Late Opening Premises Conditions

A

If premises had capacity of at least 250 people and regularly provides between 1-5am live music, facilities for dancing or adult entertainment, or when fully occupied is likely to have more standing than seated it MUST

  • have a personal license holder on premises from 1am
  • person trained in first aid present
  • write policies regarding evacuation
  • CCTV installed approved by CC
  • Supervised toilets
60
Q
Liquor - Offences (Children and Young People) Various offences in  Licensing (S) Act 2005
A) S102
B) S103
C) S104 A+B
D)S105
E)S106
F)S107
G)S108
H)S109
A

A) To sell alcohol to child or YP
B) allowing sale of alcohol to child or YP
C)Adult to buy alcohol for child or YP (caveats if for private place or YP consuming with meal)
D) For child or YP to buy or attempt to buy alcohol
E) For child or YP to consume alcohol on relevant premises
F)for responsible person to allow alcohol to be sold,served, supplied by child or YP unsupervised
G) same as F, but for delivery by or to a child or YP
H) offenceto send child or YP to obtain alcohol

61
Q
Liquor - Offences 
Drunkenness and other offences LSA 2005 
A) S111
B) S112
C)S113
D)S114
E)S115
F) S116
A

A)Attempt to enter or be drunk or relevant premises
B)Obtaining alcohol for drunk person
C) for responsible person to sell alcohol to drunken person
D) for premises manager and staff to be drunk
E)to be drunk and behave in a disorderly manner
F) refusing to leave

62
Q

Liquor - Offences
Civic Gvt (S)Act 82 S50
Drunkenness in public
3 things

A

1) Offence for any person in a public place to be drunk and incapable of taking care of themselves, whilst not in the care or protection of some suitable person
2) Offence to be in a public place drunk and in charge of a child apparently under 10 yo
3) Offence to be in a public place drunk and in possession of firearm

63
Q

Liquor - Offences
Crime and Punishment (S) Act 97
S 61 -

A

Confiscation of Alcohol from persons under 18 in ‘public places(this includes places that public do not have access, but persons have unlawfully gained access to)’

This power extends to people over 18 were suspected it is for consumption by people under 18

Cons take may require person hands of alcohol and tenders name and address. Offence not to do so.

Constable will inform person of his suspicion ad that failure to comply is an offence.

Power of arrest if failure to comply

64
Q

Liquor - Miscellaneous

1) LSA 2005 S.94 - Exclusion Orders
2 )S.95 - Breach

A

1) where a person is convicted of a violent offence, committed on or in the immediate vicinity of a licensed premises, court may make an order prohibiting their entry to that or other licensed premises

If that Order isn’t made, licence holder may apply to Sheriff for it to be made

2) Offence committed, may be removed and potentially imprisoned up to 1 month

65
Q
Liquor - Miscellaneous 
Closure Orders
A) S97(1) LSA 05 - Standard
B) S97(2) LSA 05 - Emergency
C) S99 - Emergency extension
A

A) Licensing Board may make closure order on application of Constable above Inspector, if they are satisfied on likelihood of disorder in premises vicinity, it is in the interests of safety

B) Inspector or above may make emergency closure order where

  • there is or is likely to be disorder on or in vicinity or licensed premises and
  • closure is necessary in interest of public safety and
  • risk is such that it is necessary to do so immediately without making application

Comes into force where responsible person is given notice and will last for 24hrs tops.

C) Inspector may extend by 24 hours if conditions in B) are continuing