GP Review Questions Flashcards
Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?
A. The client would like to retire by age 60.
B. The client would like to provide a fully paid education program for his/her child.
C. The client will gift $14,000 to a parent each year.
D. The client has a low risk tolerance.
C - The other answers are qualitative data.
What types of specific information should be gathered in the planning process in regards to the client's life insurance contracts? I. Retirement account values II. Property insured III. Premium and dividend options IV. Policy loans V. Ownership A. All of the above B. II, III, IV, V C. III, IV, V D. III, IV E. I, II, III
C - ‘Retirement account value’ and ‘property insured’ don’t apply to life insurance contracts. One might argue that the cash value of life insurance could be used as a retirement resource. If the client has inadequate retirement savings, the planner might consider the cash value as a source. However, I, III, IV, and V is not a choice.
Therefore, Answer C is the best answer.
Which of the following is a client weakness?
A. Having no guardianship provisions for minor children
B. Having no debt
C. Having a standard of living within budget
D. Saving for retirement at age 55
A - Lack of guardianship for minor children is always a major weakness.
Dr. Walters, age 64, wants to retire next year. He has asked you do a retirement projection. He is asking for an impossible retirement income payout based on all his usable assets. In order to meet his projections, you will have to use very high return assumptions. What should you do?
A. Do nothing
B. Run the projections using only your normal return assumptions
C. Run the projections using both your normal return assumptions and necessary assumptions to meet his required retirement income payout
D. Refer him to your worst enemy in town
C - Remember this is a financial planning test. Answer C is being a financial planner. NOTE: Decline him as a client could be an answer on the exam, but even then you should consider Answer C to be the best answer. Welcome to the test. Answer D is Zahn humor.
Which of the following is not an example of qualitative data?
A. Client’s priorities
B. Client’s personal and financial goals
C. Client’s desired retirement date
D. Fair market value (FMV) of the client’s assets
D - Since a client’s desired retirement date is subjective, the selection of the appropriate time horizon is considered qualitative. Answer D is clearly quantitative.
Completing the data survey on the client’s family members (family tree) allows the financial planner to determine which of the following?
I. The potential life expectancy of the client
II. The insurability of the client
III. The special needs of the client’s family members
IV. The net worth of the client
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, II, IV
D. II, III
E. III, IV
A - The data survey (family tree) includes information such as date of birth and health. The net worth would be quantitative data obtained from the client’s financial statement.
Learning about a client's health should help the financial planner determine which of the following? I. Retirement needs II. Life insurance needs III. Disability needs IV. Estate tax consequence A. All of the above B. I, II C. II, Ill D. Ill, IV
A - Health affects retirement, life insurance, and disability needs. The client’s life expectancy would impact the estate tax consequences.
In the gathering-client-data step of financial planning process, there are two types of data. Which of the following is an example of qualitative data? A. Client's date of birth B. Amounts invested in stocks and bonds C. Client would like to retire by age 65 D. Names of financial advisors E. Copy of ILIT
C - The ability of the financial advisor might be considered qualitative but when you can retire is a quality of life Issue.
During the first meeting with a client, the financial planner and client need to mutually define the scope of the engagement before any financial planning services are rendered. Which of the following should be defined?
I. The financial planner’s compensation arrangements
II. The responsibilities of the client
III. The duration of the engagement
IV. The services to be provided
V. Information which would limit the scope of the engagement
A. All of the above
B. I, Ill, IV, V
C. I, II, V, V
D. I, IV, V
A - The duration (or time) and the scope can be limited.
When can a CFP certificant reveal confidential information?
I. To comply with legal process
II. In connection with a civil dispute between a CFP designee and a client
III. To defend the CFP designee against charges of wrongdoing
IV. Even if it causes irreparable harm to the client
V. With the client’s consent
A. All of the above
B. I, II, V
C. I, III, V
D. I, V
A - Irreparable harm - your client is getting a divorce. You are asked in court about your knowledge of his or her assets. You have to answer.
The Standards of Professional Conduct clarifies that the Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility applies to which of the following?
A. All CFP Board certificants
B. Financial Planners
C. Candidates who are registered with the CFP Board
D. Individuals who have been certified In the past and retain the right to reinstate their CFP certification without passing the current CFP Board Certification Examination
A - Compliance requires CFP Board certificants to comply with the code.
Which of the following is a true statement?
A. The Principle of Objectivity states that the interests of the CFP designee and the client are of equal importance.
B. A CFP certificant may not provide references consisting of current or former clients since this would violate the rule of confidentiality.
C. There is no requirement to disclose conflicts of interest that develop after the professional relationship is under way.
D. Compensation disclosure to ongoing clients must be furnished biannually.
B - As written, this is a true statement. If we added to the question that a client gives permission to use their name as a reference, then one may use them as a reference. Conflicts of interest always need to be disclosed.
Which of the following is/are true about CFP Board Code of Ethics, Part I?
I. It covers the seven principles.
II. It covers the rules.
III. It covers general statements and professional goals.
IV. It applies to specific activities performed by CFP Board designees.
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, IV
D. III
E. IV
B - Part I covers the seven principles. Part II covers the rules. Answer IV applies to the rules, not the principles.
During the analyzing and evaluating step of financial planning, which of the following would likely occur?
I. Development of a statement of financial condition
II. Identification of strengths and weaknesses
III. Identification of goals and objectives
IV. Identification of recommendations on investments
A. I, II
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III
A - Answer III is wrong. Identifying goals is part of the data gathering step. Answer IV is wrong. Making recommendations on investments is part of the developing and presenting planning recommendations step. It comes before implementation.
Toby Adams CFP is meeting with a new client. He wants to establish and define the relationship. What are his obligations to the client?
I. To disclose his exact commissions on the potential sale of life insurance
II. To define the time frame for the engagement
III. To give the client a brochure about the firm
IV. To explain the client’s responsibilities
A. All of the above
B. I , II, IV
C. II, III
D. II, IV
E. Ill, IV
D - Toby must discuss how he will be compensated, but he does not need to disclose the exact commissions he could receive from the sale of life insurance products. A brochure is not required.
Conflicts of Interest are disclosed under which principle and rule? I. Objectivity II. Fairness III. Professionalism IV. 2.2 V. 6.1 A. I, IV B. I, V C. II, IV D. II, V E. III, V
C - Conflicts of interest are spelled out in Fairness and Rule 2.2. Very Picky.
Under the CFP Board’s Financial Planning Practice Standards, which of the following actions must take place prior to providing any personal financial planning services?
I. The CFP certlficant shall obtain sufficient and relevant quantitative Information and documents applicable to the scope of the engagement and the services being provided.
II. A client’s personal and financial goals, needs, and priorities relevant to the scope of the engagement and the services to be provided shall be mutually defined by the financial planning practitioner and the client.
III. An engagement letter covering the services to be provided must be signed by both the financial planning practitioner and the client.
IV. The scope of the engagement shall be mutually defined by the financial planning practitioner and the client.
A. I, II, III
B. II, IV
C. I, III, JV
D. I, II, IV
D - An engagement letter, while advisable and recommended, is not required.
Roughly a dozen times a year, Bruce Leonard, a CFP certificant, encounters clients having serious cash flow and net worth deficits. He generally recommends they consider bankruptcy. Typically, the clients ask Bruce for a referral to a bankruptcy attorney. Bruce generally refers such clients to Mark Mason Esq. Bruce has no formal arrangement with Mr. Mason, but Mr. Mason pays Bruce $150 in cash for every referral who becomes a bankruptcy client. Which of the following statements best reflects the ethical aspect of this situation?
A. Acceptance of any referral fees clearly violates the Principle of Fairness found in the Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility.
B. Acceptance of any referral fees does not violate the Principle of Fairness found in the Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility If the nature and source of the referral fee is disclosed in writing to each client referred.
C. Referral fees to attorneys do not violate the Principle of Fairness found In the Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility because they do not involve product commissions with potential to compromise the Principle of Objectivity.
D. Bruce has no obligation to research Mr. Mason’s competence providing Mr. Mason holds a valid legal license.
B - The code does not prohibit a planner from accepting referral fees; however, the source and nature, but not the amount of such fees, must be disclosed. The code does not distinguish whether the planner’s side compensation represents commissions or referral fees. The Principle of Diligence requires the planner to research the competence of other professionals to which the planner refers clients. Mr. Mason could be an estate planning attorney and know very little about bankruptcy law.
Practice standard 400-2 refers to which of the Following?
A. Objectivity
B. Competence
C. Analysis and evaluation of the client’s financial status
D. Development of the recommendations
D - Practice standards refer to steps in the personal financial planning process. Analysis and evaluation is Practice Standards 300. Practice Standard 400-2 is Development of Financial Planning Recommendations.
A prospective client calls and tells you a mutual fund that she is considering purchasing will pay a huge capital gain in a few weeks. What questions should you as a financial planner ask this client at this point?
I. What is the client’s date of birth?
II. What are her investment objectives?
III. What other investments does she have?
IV. Will she take the capital gains in cash or reinvest?
V. What is the client’s investment experience to date?
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. IV
D. All of the above
D - All the questions are important. However, the only possible answer is all of the above.The age of the client could be important. The client could be a child. The account is an UTMA. The parent is the custodian.
Which of the following are inflows for the cash flow statement? I. Savings II. Insurance premiums III. Inheritance received IV. Trust income received V. Alimony received A. All of the above B. I, II, IV C. II, IV, V D. III, IV, V E. None of the above
D - Savings and insurance premiums are not inflows.
At what value are assets shown on the statement of financial position? A. Market value B. Replacement value C. Current fair market value D. Market value less any encumbrances E. Appraised value
C Fair market value
Which of the following are not cash/cash equivalents? I. Mutual Funds II. Money market accounts III. III. Cash under mattress IV. CDs with long maturity remaining V. Publicly traded stock A. I, II, IV B. I, IV, V C. II, III D. III, IV, V E. IV, V
B - The mutual fund and the stock fluctuate in value. The long-term CDs entail a penalty if they are converted into cash.
Tom is debt-free. He used $4,000 from his money market account to contribute to a Roth IRA. From his cash flow, he invested $25,000 in a new mutual fund fund during the year. In addition, due to good investment choices, his existing investments plus his home grew in value by $100,000. What was his change in net worth for the year? A. $29,000 B. $100,000 C. $121,000 D. $125,000 E. $129,000
D - The Roth investment ($4,000) was offset by a decrease in this money market, resulting in no change to net worth. If the Roth had been funded from cash flow, net worth would have increased. Mutual fund ($25,000) plus investment growth ($100,000) equals $125,000.