GP/public health Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of HTN

A
  • Essential/primary = no cause
  • Secondary = Renal disease, Obesity, Pregnancy induced/pre-eclampsia, Endocrine - particularly Conns (renin:aldosterone blood test)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Diagnosis of HTN

A
  1. Measure blood pressure in both arms in clinic
  2. If BP above 140/90, take 2nd measurement. If 2nd substantially lower, take 3rd.
  3. Ambulatory bp monitoring to confirm diagnosis (could be white coat HTN or stress)
    = 2 measurements/per hr during waking hours. Use average of atleast 13 measurements.
  4. If home blood pressure monitoring preferred (or ABPM not tolerated) record 2 consecutive BP, atleast 1 minute apart. Recorded in morning and evening and taken for atleast 4 days.

HTN diagnosis confirmed in people with clinic BP of 140/90 mmHg AND ABPM/HBPM of 135/85mmHg+.

  • Stage 2 hypertension: Clinic BP > 60/100 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average BP > 150/95 mmHg
  • Severe hypertension: Clinic BP >180/120 admit for specialist assess if:
    signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema (accelerated hypertension) or
    life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mx of HTN

A
  • Lifestyle: healthy diet, stopping smoking, reducing alcohol, caffeine and salt intake and taking regular exercise.
  • Medical management is offered to:
    All patients with STAGE 2 hypertension (140/90)
    All patients UNDER 80 years old with stage 1 hypertension that ALSO have a Q-risk score of 10% or more, diabetes, renal disease, cardiovascular disease or end organ damage.

Step 1: Aged less than 55 and non-black use A. Aged over 55 or black of African or African-Caribbean descent use C.
Step 2: A + C. (Alternatively A + D or C + D.) If black then use an ARB instead of A.
Step 3: A + C + D
Step 4: A + C + D + additional (see below)

For step 4, if the serum potassium is less than or equal to 4.5 mmol/l consider a potassium sparing diuretic such as spironolactone. If the serum potassium is more than 4.5 mmol/l consider an alpha blocker (e.g. DOXAZOSIN) or a beta blocker (e.g. atenolol).

A – ACE inhibitor (e.g. ramipril 1.25mg up to 10mg once daily)
B – Beta blocker (e.g. bisoprolol 5mg up to 20mg once daily)
C – Calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine 5mg up to 10mg once daily)
D – Thiazide-like diuretic (e.g. INDAPAMIDE/METOLOAZONE 2.5mg once daily)
ARB – Angiotensin II receptor blocker (e.g. candesartan 8mg to up 32mg once daily)
Angiotensin receptor blockers are used in place of an ACE inhibitor if the person does not tolerate ACE inhibitors (commonly due to a dry cough) or the patient is black of African or African-Caribbean descent. ACE inhibitors and ARBs are not used together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Further tests for HTN

A
  • End Organ Damage -> heart attack, heart failure, kidney problems, eye problems, dementia, metabolic syndrome

NICE recommend all patients with a new diagnosis should have:
- Urine albumin:creatinine ratio for proteinuria and dipstick for microscopic haematuria to assess for kidney damage
- Bloods for HbA1c, renal function and lipids
- Fundus examination for hypertensive retinopathy
- ECG for cardiac abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

S/E of antihypertensives

A
  • All = Erectile dysfunction
  • ACEi = Dry cough, low BP, Kidney damage, hyperkalaemia. CI by renal artery stenosis and hyperkalaemia.
  • Ca2+ blockers = Ankle oedema, flushed, constipation, headache
  • Thiazides = hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia - kidney damage, gout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Complications of HTn

A

MI, HF,Stroke
PVD
CKD, dementia, metabolic syndrome, eye damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Px of heart failure

A
  • Dyspnoea + fatigue
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
  • Signs: tachycardia, tachynpoea, gallop rhythm (S3 present), narrow pulse pressure, displaced apex
  • LHF Sx: pulmonary oedema, orthopnoea (accum in lungs), cough - may have pink, frothy sputum.
    Signs: Pleural effusion
  • RHF Sx: Liver enlargement, nausea, peripheral oedema/ankle swelling/bloating.
    Signs: Raised JVP, hepatomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dx of HF

A
  • NT-proBNP:
    High -> specialist assessment in 2 weeks.
    Raised -> specialist assessment within 6 weeks.
  • Echocardiogram = gold standard -> Ejection fraction less than 40%
  • ECG (MI, arrhythmias, old MI = Q wave)
  • CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CXR of HF

A

A mnemonic to remember chest x-ray findings in heart failure is ABCDE:

A: alveolar oedema (perihilar/bat-wing opacification)
B: Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema)
C: cardiomegaly (cardiothoracic ratio >50%) – may be difficult to assess on an AP film
D: dilated upper lobe vessels
E: effusions (i.e. pleural effusions – blunted costophrenic angles with meniscus sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of HF

A
  • Ischaemic Heart Disease
  • Valvular Heart Disease (commonly aortic stenosis)
  • Hypertension
  • Arrhythmias (commonly atrial fibrillation)
  • High output cardiac failure: pregnancy, anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tx of HF

A
  • ACE inhibitor (e.g. ramipril)
  • Beta Blocker (e.g. bisoprolol)
  • Aldosterone antagonist when symptoms not controlled with A and B (spironolactone)
  • Loop diuretics (e.g. furosemide)

Extra;s:
- ARB if dont tolerate ACEi (e.g. cough)
- Cautious of beta blocker in asthmatics, PAD, bradycardic pts
-If have pre-existing IHD will need extra meds - aspirin, Calcium channel blocker
- U&Es monitored whilst on diuretics, ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists as all three medications can cause electrolyte disturbances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mental capacity act 5 principles

A
  1. Adults assumed to have capacity unless proven
  2. Must be given all possible help to assess and communicate capacity
  3. Making an unwise decision does not mean a person lacks capacity
  4. Decisions made for someone who lacks capacity must be done in their best interests
  5. Should be the least restrictive of basic rights/freedom
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a deprivation of liberty

A
  • person is under continuous supervision and control and is not free to leave, and the person lacks capacity to consent to these arrangements.
  • provide pt with a representative, give pt right to challenge a DOL through court of protection
  • provide mechanism for DOLS to be reviewed and monitored regularly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Delirium vs dementia

A

Factors favouring delirium over dementia:
-impairment of consciousness
- fluctuation of symptoms: worse at night, periods of normality
- abnormal perception (e.g. illusions and hallucinations)
- agitation, fear
- delusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rules of Gillick competency regarding giving contraception to under 16 year old

A
  1. Girl under 16 will understand advice
  2. Cannot persuade to tell parents
  3. Likely to continue having intercouse w/wout
  4. Unless she recieves contraceptive advice her physical +/- mental health will suffer
  5. Best interests require contraception without parental consent
    - girl under 13 always considered too young for gillick competence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When to alert police regarding sexual activity of minor

A

You should usually share information about abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving any child or young person, including that which involves:

a) a young person too immature to understand or consent
b) big differences in age, maturity or power between sexual partners
c) a young person’s sexual partner having a position of trust
d) force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment, either to engage in sexual activity or to keep it secret
e) drugs or alcohol used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity when they otherwise would not
f) a person known to the police or child protection agencies as having had abusive relationships with children or young people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Notifiable disease

A

Measles, Malaria, Encephalitis/meningococcal septicaemia/meningitis, cholera, diphtheria, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, Rubella, TB, Whooping cough, Yellow fever, Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of TB

A
  • Primary: first infection of lungs. Usually can kill and clear infection. Immune system may encapsulate sites = latent TB.
  • Secondary: If host becomes immunocompromised, initial infection may become reactivated.
  • Miliary TB: disseminated, severe disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Px of TB

A
  • progressive, worsening of symptoms
  • Lungs (most common): Cough with or without haemoptysis, dyspnoea
  • Lymph nodes: lymphadenopathy
  • Systemic: Fever, Lethargy, Night sweats
  • CNS: Spinal pain
  • Skin: Erythema nodosum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dx of TB

A
  • prev, latent or active TB: Mantoux test and interferon‑gamma release assay.
  • Active disease:

-CXR
-Sputum smear - +ve in Ziehl Neelsen
- Sputum culture (gold)
- NAAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx of TB

A

The standard therapy for treating active tuberculosis is:
first 2 months (RIPE)
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

Continuation phase - next 4 months
Rifampicin
Isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Complications of Tx of TB

A
  • rifampicin:
    hepatitis, red/orange secretions
  • isoniazid
    peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
  • pyrazinamide
    hyperuricaemia causing gout
  • ethambutol
    optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment
  • Rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide are all associated with hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RF for osteoporosis

A

Steroid use, Hyperthyroidism/hyperparathyroidism
Alcohol + tobacco use
Thin (low BMI)
Testosterone low
Early menopause
Renal or liver failure
Erosive bone diseases
Dietary (low calc./malabso/DMT1)

24
Q

Ix for osteoporosis

A
  • FRAX: risk of fracture in 10 years (for female >65, male >75)
  • DEXA scan: bone density - done at hip
  • T-score: BMD compared to that of a healthy young adult.
    >-1 = normal, -1–2.5 = osteopenia, <-2.5 = osteoporosis, <-2.5+fracture = severe osteoporosis
  • Z score: corrected to pt age
25
Q

Mx of osteoporosis

A
  1. Calcichew + bisphosphonates (1st)
    - HRT/Denosumab/Raloxifene (2nd line)
26
Q

3 domains of public health

A
  1. Health protection: measures to control infectious disease risk and environmental hazards
  2. Health improvement: social interventions aimed at preventing disease, promoting health and reducing inequality
  3. Improving services: organisation and delivery of safe, high quality services
27
Q

Determinants of health inequality

A

Place of residence, Religion, Occupation, Gender, Race/ethnicity, Education, Socio-economic status, Social capital/resources

28
Q

Equality vs Equity

A

Equality = concerned with equal shares
Equity = what is fair and just

  • Horizontal: equal treatment for equal need
  • Vertical: unequal treatment for unequal need
29
Q

What are the 3 different approaches to a health needs assessment

A
  1. Epidemiological
  2. Comparative
  3. Corporate
30
Q

Epidemiological approach to health needs assesment

A
  • defines problem and size of problem
  • looks at current services
  • recommends improvements
  • limitation: data may be poor/inadequate. Doesnt consider felt need
31
Q

Comparative approach to health needs assessment

A
  • Compares services available between 2 areas/populations. Cheap, quick.
  • limitations: data available may vary in quality, may be hard to find comparable populations
32
Q

Corporate approach to health needs assessment

A
  • Takes into account views of any groups that may have an interest eg. patients, health professionals, media, politicians and asks what they think is needed.
  • limitations: Blurs the difference between need and demand. Vulnerable to influence by political and personal views.
33
Q

Bradshaw’s Types of need

A
  • Felt - what people want/perceptions from normal health, but not necessarily expressed
  • Expressed - no. of people vocalising/demanding/using a service
  • Normative need - Based on expert judgement
  • Comparatives - based on needs of people with similar attributes
34
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A
  1. Self-actualization: desire to become the most that one can be
  2. Esteem: respect, self-esteem, status, recognition, freedom
  3. Love + belonging: friendship, intimacy, family, sense of connection
  4. Safety needs: personal security, employment, resources, health, property
  5. Physiological needs: air, water, food, shelter, sleep, clothing, reproduction
  • A person can only move on to addressing the higher-level needs when their basic needs are adequately fulfilled. (pyramid)
35
Q

Types of resource allocation

A
  • Egalitarian: provide all care that is necessary and required to everyone. (+) Equal for everyone but (-) economically restricted.
  • Maximising: based solely on consequence. (+) Resources allocated to those likely to receive most benefit. (-) Those with less need recieve nothing
    -Libertarian: Each individual responsible for own health. (+) Onus on patient, therefore pt may be more engaged. (-) Not all diseases are self-inflicted.
36
Q

What is the transtheoretical model/stages of change (models of behaviour change)

A
  • 5 core stages of behaviour change. With fluid movement between these stages (back and forth).
    1. Pre-contemplation (not considered)
    2. Contemplation
    3. Preparation
    4. Action
    5. Maintenance
37
Q

What is the theory of planned behaviours model

A
  • different factors/beliefs come together to give a person the INTENTION to change. The person then plans and coordinates the behaviour.
  • 3 core components:
    1. Personal Attitude (smoking costs a lot)
    2. Subjective norms (my GF doesn’t approve)
    3. Percieved behavioural control (I know i could stop with a bit of help)
  • predictor is INTENTION
38
Q

What is the health belief model (models of behaviour change)

A
  • Ability to change behaviour is based on how patient percieves following:
    1. susceptibility to ill health
    2. severity of ill health
    3. benefits of behaviour change
    4. barriers to taking action
39
Q

What are the 4 components of negligence

A
  1. Was there duty of care
  2. Was there a breach in that duty
  3. Was the patient harmed
  4. Was the harm due to the breach in care

Bolams rule: a test that is judged by the medical professional’s peers. They must be able to show that any medical professional who was in the same position as them would have done the same, giving the same outcome.
Bolitho rule:

40
Q

Swiss cheese model of error

A
  • It likens human systems to multiple slices of Swiss cheese, stacked side by side, in which the risk of a threat becoming a reality is mitigated by the differing layers and types of defenses which are “layered” behind each other. - Therefore, in theory, lapses and weaknesses in one defense do not allow a risk to materialize, since other defenses also exist, to prevent a single point of failure.
41
Q

What is the three bucket model of error

A
  • that frontllne staff can help to stop errors and unsafe practice occurring
    If they adopt a risk-aware and ‘error-wise’ mindset.
  • The ‘buckets’ In the model represent ‘self’, ‘context’ and ‘task’. The model’s contention Is that the possibility of error or unsafe action In
    any given situation depends to a large extent on how much ‘bad stuff’ Is In those three buckets at any particular time.
  • self - lack of knowledge/skill/expertise
  • context - physical environment/equipment/layout
  • task - complexity/rare events
42
Q

What is an error ‘never event’

A

= a serious, largely preventable patient safety incident
- medical -> wrong route of chemo
- surgical -> wrong site

43
Q

Screening criteria

A
  1. Important disease
  2. Natural history of the disease must be understood (detectable risk factors, disease markers)
  3. Simple, safe, precise and validated test
    - high postitive predictive value (proportion of those with a positive screening test result truly have disease is high)
  4. Acceptable to the population
  5. Effective treatment from early detection with better outcomes than late detection
  6. Policy of who/should receive treatment.
44
Q

What is a cohort study

A
  • Observational PROSPECTIVE study - looks at groups of people and see what happens to them and what RF’s they are exposed to, over time.

(+) can assess many risk factors and outcomes over time.
(-) very time consuming and expensive

45
Q

What is a Case control study

A
  • RETROSPECTIVE observational study looking for causes of a disease.
  • Compares participants with disease (CASE) and people without (CONTROL) and looks for their exposure to risk factors

(+) QUICK, good for rare outcomes
(-) Difficult finding appropriately matched controls, prone to information bias (recalling risk factors) and selection bias. Difference between association and cause.

46
Q

What is a cross-sectional study

A
  • Snapshot data of those with and without disease to find associations at a SINGLE POINT IN TIME.

(+) Quickest and cheapest method, used to determine prevalence.
(-) Do not permit distinction between cause and effect, less likely to include those who recover quickly, not useful for rare outcomes.

47
Q

What is a randomised control trial

A
  • Experimental study - controlled by the researcher.
  • Participants randomly allocated into a intervention or control group to study the effect of the intervention (GOLD STD).

(+) LOW RISK BIAS, comparative
(-) TIME CONSUMING/expensive, ethical issues, little incentive to stay in control group

48
Q

How to work out sensitivity and specificity

A
  • Sensitivity = TP/TP+FN
    (wedding in a TeePee = feeling sensitive. TeePee - pyramid shaped, like the division)
  • Specificity = TN/TN+FP
    (opposite)

True positive = no. cases correctly identified as pt
False positive = no. cases incorrectly identified as pt
True negative = no. cases correctly identified as healthy
False negative = no. cases incorrectly identified as healthy

49
Q

What are the 4 questions which make up the CAGE questionnaire?

A
  • Have you ever thought you needed to cut down on your drinking?
  • Have you ever become angry / annoyed at people criticising your drinking?
  • Do you ever feel guilty about your drinking?
  • Have you ever had an eye-opener in the morning to ease your hangover?
50
Q

Types of bias

A
  • Selection bias: discrepancy of who is involved
  • Information bias: recall (past events incorrectly remembered), measurement (different equipment), observor, reporting (reporter doesnt tell truth)
  • publication bias: some trials more likely to be published than others
  • Lead-time bias: Overestimation of survival duration due to earlier detection by screening than clinical presentation.
  • Length-time bias: Overestimation of survival duration due to the relative excess of cases detected that are slowly progressing
51
Q

What is a cofounder

A

= risk factors, other than those being studied, that influence the outcome

52
Q

Factors to assess causality;
Plausability
Strength of association
Temporal relationship
Consistency
Specificity
Dose response
Altered by experimentation

A
  • Plausibility: reasonable biological mechanism to explain relationship.
  • Strength of association: the stronger the association between a RF and outcome, more likely the relationship is to be casual
  • Temporal relationship: exposure must precede outcome/onset
  • Consistency: different situations/samples with consistent findings strengthen casual link.
  • Specificity: cause leads to a single effect, not multiple
  • Dose response relationship/biological gradient: if dose response is seen, more likely association is casual.
  • Altered by experimentation: i.e. reduces if risk withdrawn
53
Q

Types of prevention

A
  • Primary prevention: Avoid a health problem before it arises
  • Secondary prevention: Detect a health problem at an early stage reducing long term effects
  • Tertiary prevention: Reduce chronic effects of a health problem
  • Quaternary prevention: Identify patient at risk of overmedicalisation
54
Q

Methods of emergency contraception

A

Levonorgestel (Levonelle)
- Taken within 72 hrs
- Can resume hormonal contraception immediately after
- Single dose (1.5mg). Doubled for BMI>26 or 70+kg.
- can take more than once per cycle

Ulipristal (Ella one)
- 120 hours
- Any hormonal contraception should be used 5 days after. Barrier must be used in meantime
- 30mg oral dose.
- Contraind. in Severe asthma
- can take more than once per cycle
- Breastfeeding needs to be delayed a week

IUD
- 5 days of UPSI or up to 5 days after ovulation
- Don’t need any more contraception

55
Q

What are the 3 main types of health behaviours

A
  • Health behaviour – behaviour aimed to prevent disease (e.g. eating healthy)
  • Illness behaviour – behaviour aimed at seeking remedy (e.g. going to the doctor)
  • Sick role behaviour – any activity aimed at getting well (e.g. taking prescribed medications, resting)

Health behaviours can also be health impairing or health promoting

56
Q

What is meant by “nudge” theory?

A

Changing the environment to make the best/healthiest option the easiest

For example placing fruit next to the checkouts at supermarkets instead of sweets, opt-out schemes such as pensions

57
Q

Scoring systems:
CHADSVASc
ABCD2
Wells
QRisk3

A
  • Used to determine the need to anticoagulate (stroke risk) a patient in atrial fibrillation
  • Risk of stroke after a TIA
  • risk of developing a DVT: 2(low), 2-6(interm.), 6+(high)
  • QRisk3 calculates an individuals 10-year risk of having a heart attack or stroke