GP Endocrinology and Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

List some causes of hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimotos
post partum
iodine deficiency
drug induced e.g. amiodarone
surgery
secondary - any disease of hypothalamus or pituitary

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2
Q

Describe hashimotos thyroiditis?

A

most common cause of hypothyroidism, it is an autoimmune conditions where antibodies attack the thyroid

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3
Q

Describe postpartum thyroiditis?

A

condition after birth where the woman becomes transiently hyperthyroid followed by hypothyroidism 3-4 months post-partum, most women recover spontaneously and don’t need treatment but it should be noted that the hypothyroid phase is associated with postnatal depression

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the developing world?

A

iodine deficiency

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimotos

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6
Q

List some clinical features of hypothyroidism?

A

• Cold skin and cold intolerance
• Bradycardia
• Dry skin, coarse and sparse hair
• Decreased appetite but weight gain
• Constipation
• Macroglossia and a deep voice
• Slow reflexes
• Menorrhagia
• Fluid retention and oedema
• Loss of libido

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7
Q

Investigations for hypothyroidism?

A

• In primary hypothyroidism there is an increased TSH and a decreased fT4/T3
• In secondary hypothyroidism there is a decreased TSH and a decreased fT4/T3
• Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO) will be present in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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8
Q

Management of hypothyroidism?

A

• If there is a fixable underlying cause e.g. iodine deficiency or drug that can be stopped or secondary cause with pituitary or hypothalamus that can be fixed – do so
• Those with Hashimotos etc are given replacement therapy with levothyroxine (T4) for life
• Starting dose depends on severity, age and fitness of the patient, 100ug daily for young and fit patients is given and for older patients they are started on 50ug and increased gradually to 100ug
• The aim of therapy is to restore T4 and TSH to normal range
• Those with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis are at higher risk of developing other auto-immune diseases
• Should also be noted that women require higher thyroid hormone replacement during pregnancy

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9
Q

What is a myxoedema coma?

A

severe hypothyroidism deterioration that typically affects elderly women

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10
Q

Presentation of myxoedema coma?

A

• Presents with hypothermia, severe cardiac failure (bradycardia, heart block, T wave inversion, prolonged QT), hypoventilation, hypoglycaemia and hyponaetremia

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11
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 diabetes causes?

A

type 1
• Absolute insulin deficiency
• Auto-immune attack of beta cells which produce insulin in the pancreas

type 2
• Relative insulin deficiency
• Predominantly insulin resistance

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12
Q

Which groups tend to get type 1 diabetes?

A

• Tends to present in first 5 decades
• Big peak at school age
• There is genetic susceptibility and HLA types
• Associated with other organ specific auto-immune diseases such as thyroid, coeliacs, Addison’s and pernicious anaemia

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13
Q

Presentation of type 1 diabetes?

A

• Usually acute onset of symptoms and can present as DKA
• Weight loss
• Severe polyuria and polydipsia
• Polyphagia
• Fatigue
• Weakness
• Doesn’t usually present with diabetic complications as presentation is so acute

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14
Q

Investigations for type 1 diabetes?

A

• Can be diagnosed on clinical grounds if random plasma glucose is more than 11mmol/L
• Type 1 antibodies test – have 95% sensitivity when combined – GAD, IA-2, ZnT8
• Measure C peptide, not useful for diagnosis as it takes time to decrease but can be useful to confirm type 1 diagnosis later on (C peptide is a byproduct of insulin and will be reduced in type 1 as you produce no insulin)

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15
Q

Management of type 1 diabetes?

A

if type 1 is suspected you need to refer the adult or child to same day diabetes care team in hospital to confirm diagnosis and provide immediate care

insulin treatment

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16
Q

Insulin treatment in type 1 options?

A

There are 3 main groups:

1) Rapid acting/ short acting
2) Intermediate/ long acting
3) Mixtures

• A multiple injection regimen with a short acting insulin and a longer acting insulin is suitable for most adults and allows flexibility
• With a twice daily regimen you need a fixed diet
• Insulin pumps are another option, where continuous short acting insulin is delivered by a wearable pump, mealtimes can be programmed and can choose different settings
• Most insulin is given by subcutaneous injection and sites need to be rotated to reduce risk of lipohypertrophy (abdomen, arm, thigh)

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17
Q

Why do insulin sites need to be rotated?

A

to avoid lipohypertrophy

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18
Q

List 4 complications of insulin therapy?

A

lipohypertrophy
scarring
weight gain
hypos

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19
Q

What are some techniques to evaluate metabolic control of diabetes?

A

• Finger prick – glucose capillary – only provides a snapshot so doesn’t always give full picture
• Glycated haemoglobin – HbA1c – measures blood glucose control over a long time
• Flash glucose monitoring and continuous glucose monitoring – device worn that measures interstitial glucose

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20
Q

Risk factors for type 2 diabetes?

A

• Obesity
• Genetic susceptibility (more so than in type 1)
• South-east Asia have higher rates in slimmer adults
• Family history
• Associated with hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, hyperglycaemia and PCOS (so must check for these)

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21
Q

Presentation of type 2 diabetes?

A

• May present asymptomatic from screening or incidental finding in hospital
• Usually doesn’t present acutely and there are often signs of microvascular complications already
• Symptoms include polydipsia, polyuria, thrush, weakness, fatigue, blurred vision, infections, complications e.g. neuropathy and retinopathy

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22
Q

What can persistent hyperglycaemia be defined as?

A

• HbA1c of 48 mm/mol or above
• Fasting plasma glucose of 7.0mm/L or above
• Random plasma glucose of 11.1mmol/L or above
• OGTT of 11.1mmol/L or above

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23
Q

Management of type 2 diabetes?

A

Lifestyle changes – diet, increase physical activity, stop smoking

Drug Treatments
• Metformin is first line (however it is contraindicated in renal impairment)
• Sulfonylureas (e.g. gliclazide, glipizide) are first line in those who are intolerant to metformin or have contraindications, can also be considered as an add on treatment
• In those with cardiovascular disease offer an SGLT-2 inhibitors (e.g. canagliflozin, dapagliflozin and empagliflozin) as these are proven to have cardiovascular benefit in addition to metformin
• If metformin is ineffective consider dual therapies with DPP-4 inhibitors (e.g. sitagliptin, saxagliptin) or sulfonylureas (e.g. gliclazide)
• GLP agonists for those with a BMI > 30 in combination as 3rd or 4th line therapy, these can facilitate weight loss (injectable drug) e.g. liraglitide, semaglutide
• Insulin is last line in type 2 diabetes when control cannot be achieved any other way

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24
Q

HbA1c targets in type 2 diabetes?

A

• 48mmol/mol is target for those on no drug therapy or those on drug therapy that doesn’t cause hypos
• 53mmol/mol is target for those on drug therapies that cause hypoglycaemia (e.g. sulfonylureas)

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25
Q

List some complications of diabetes?

A

• Macrovascular complications – stroke, MI, peripheral vascular disease, atherosclerosis risk all increased

Microvascular complications
- diabetic eye disease
-nephropathy
-neuropathy

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26
Q

What are the main types of neuropathy that you can get in diabetes?

A

peripheral - glove and stocking distribution
autonomic - gastroparesis

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27
Q

Testing for diabetic nephropathy?

A

• Earliest evidence is microalbuminuria, need special dipsticks or radio-immunoassay to detect
• Progression to intermittent albuminuria then persistent proteinuria
• All patients with diabetes should have urinary albumin concentration and serum creatinine measured at diagnosis and at regular intervals, usually annually

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28
Q

First line drug for diabetic nephropathy?

A

ACEi (or ARB if intolerant)

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29
Q

Explain what osteoporosis is?

A

• Disease characterized by low bone mass and micro architectural deterioration of the bone tissue leading to enhanced bone fragility and an increase in fracture risk
• Osteoporosis = bone mineral density > 2.5 standard deviations below the mean of normal young subjects

30
Q

Define osteoporosis and osteopenia?

A

• Osteoporosis = bone mineral density > 2.5 standard deviations below the mean of normal young subjects
• Osteopenia = 1-2.5 standard deviations below the adult mean

31
Q

When do most people reach their peak bone mass?

A

Most people reach their peak bone mass in there 20s and after this there is a slow decline (the higher your peak bone mass, the more you can lose before becoming osteoporotic)

32
Q

List risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

risk increases with age
occurs more in women due to oestrogen deficiency post menopause
caucasians and asians are more at risk
those who have had previous fracture
family history (genetics affects bone mass a lot)
earlier menopause
amenorrhoeic women due to exercise/ anorexia
long term steroid therapy
being obese is protective
lack of strength/ weight bearing exercise
alcohol excess and smoking are associated with increased risk of osteoporosis

33
Q

Presentation of osteoporosis?

A

it causes no symptoms so will only present when there is a fracture

34
Q

Define a low trauma fracture?

A

a fracture caused by a fall from standing height or less

35
Q

What scan is used to assess osteoporosis?

A

DEXA scan

36
Q

Explain the scores DEXA scans generate?

A

• A DEXA scan generates a T score and a Z score
• The T-score is a comparison of a person’s bone density with that of a healthy 30-year-old of the same sex
• The Z-score is a comparison of a person’s bone density with that of an average person of the same age and sex
• Z scores tend not to be used formally to diagnose osteoporosis
• The T score is the one that if you score -2.5 or less then you have osteoporosis, score of -1 to -2.5 is osteopenia

37
Q

Management of osteoporosis

A

lifestyle: strength exercises, avoid excess alcohol, smoking cessation, fall prevention

diet: ensure adequate calcium intake, vitamin D supplementation

HRT

Steroid bone protection

bisphosphonates are first line drugs (e.g. alendronate and risedronate)

Denosumab (monoclonal antibody injection)

teriparatide (Parathyroid hormone)

38
Q

What is first line drug for osteoporosis?

A

bisphosphonates e.g. alendronate and risedronate

39
Q

What is anaemia and what is a marker for it?

A

• Reduced total red cell mass
• Hb concentration is a marker for this

40
Q

Anaemia is classed as Hb below _____

A

• In men aged over 15 years — Hb below 130 g/L.
• In non-pregnant women aged over 15 years — Hb below 120 g/L.
• In children aged 12–14 years — Hb below 120 g/L

41
Q

Describe the structure of haemoglobin?

A

there are many hb molecules in one red cell
HbA (adult haemoglobin) consists of 2 alpha and 2 beta globin chains, each globin chain has a haem group attached (prosthetic group)
The heme group consists of Fe2+ in a flat porphyrin ring
One oxygen molecule binds to one Fe2+ (ferrous iron)

42
Q

List some causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

acute blood loss, anaemia of chronic disease, marrow infiltration/ fibrosis, endocrine disease and the haemolytic anaemias

43
Q

(Hypochromic) microcytic anaemia’s due to ____

A

• This is due to deficient Hb synthesis
• The defects in Hb results in small cells because the cells keep dividing as they try to accumulate Hb because there isn’t an adequate one to trigger them to stop dividing

44
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

• The most common cause is iron deficiency
• All causes however can be remembered by TAILS (thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency, lead poisoning and sideroblastic anaemia)
• Thalassaemias are genetic conditions affecting globin chain synthesis
• Sideroblastic anaemia can be congenital or acquired and there is impaired incorporation of iron to form haem

45
Q

2 classifications of macrocytic anaemia? what is it due to?

A

megaloblastic and non-megaloblastic
in megaloblastic there is a problem with nuclear maturation (so cells dont get smaller as they mature like they are supposed to)
not sure why cells are big in non-megaloblastic

46
Q

Two main causes of megaloblastic anaemia?

A

B12 and folate deficiencies

47
Q

Symptoms and signs of anaemia?

A

SYMPTOMS:
- Can be asymptomatic
- Fatigue
- Headaches
- Fainting
- Breathlessness
- Anaemia can exacerbate cardiorespiratory problems in the elderly and cause angina, intermittent claudication and palpitations

SIGNS:
- Pallor (particularly of mucous membranes)
- Tachycardia
- Systolic flow murmur
- Cardiac failure

48
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

• It may be due to diet, malabsorption or chronic blood loss or a combination of all 3 (e.g. a poor intake plus small blood loss – neither on their own may cause deficiency but combined there is an issue)
• The main causes of chronic blood loss include menorrhagia and GI bleeding (worry about a GI cancer), another potential cause is haematuria

49
Q

In what groups are there higher iron demands?

A

There are higher iron demands in menstruating women, pregnancy and adolescents, so these groups are more likely to become iron deficient

50
Q

List some specific signs of iron deficiency?

A

Brittle nails, koilonychia (spoon nails), atrophy of the papillae of the tongue, angular stomatitis and brittle hair

51
Q

Which biochemical test is best for investigating total body iron stores?

A

serum ferritin

52
Q

Serum ferritin below _____ confirms diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia but should bear in mind ______

A

• In all people a serum ferritin level of less than 30 micrograms/L confirms the diagnosis of iron deficiency
• However, ferritin levels are raised in infection and inflammation making it more difficult to interpret in these scenarios

ie. in practice:
serum ferritin below 30 confirms iron deficiency
however serum ferritin above 30 does not rule it out, therefore then go on to do further iron studies

53
Q

Management of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

• Cause of iron deficiency anaemia needs determined and treated
• Iron replacement is also recommended and in adults they are given oral ferrous sulfate tablets
• These tablets can cause some GI side effects such as nausea, diarrhoea or constipation
• Sodium feredetate is a liquid solution used in children

54
Q

What is a megaloblast?

A

an abnormally large nucleated red cell precursor with an immature nucleus

55
Q

Explain why megaloblasts cause an anaemia?

A

Compared to normal precursors megaloblasts have reduced division and increased apoptosis which is what causes the anaemia (because there are less of these bigger red cells due to the reduced division and increased apoptosis)

56
Q

The large cell size in megaloblastic anaemia is not caused by an increase in cell size but _______

A

a failure of cells to get smaller

57
Q

What are the two main causes of megaloblastic anaemia?

A

B12 and folate deficiency

58
Q

B12 is present in __________
Folate is present in _________

A

B12 - meat, fish, milk, cheese and eggs
Folate - liver, leafy green veg and some fortified cereals

59
Q

_______ secreted by gastric parietal cells is what allows B12 to be absorbed, it is absorbed in the _____

A

intrinsic factor
ileum

60
Q

Folate is absorbed in the _____

A

duodenum and jejenum

61
Q

Body stores of B12 and folate are what? What does this mean?

A

Body stores of B12 are 2-4 years but folate only 4 months, so symptoms of B12 deficiency take longer to manifest

62
Q

List some causes of B12 deficiency?

A

• Diet (vegan)
• Pernicious anaemia
• Surgical resection of the small bowel
• Gastrectomy

63
Q

What is the most common cause of B12 deficiency in adults?

A

pernicious anaemia

64
Q

What is pernicious anaemia and what other conditions is it associated with?

A

• Pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of B12 deficiency in adults and it is an autoimmune condition causing destruction of gastric parietal cells resulting in intrinsic factor deficiency causing malabsorption of B12
• Pernicious anaemia is associated with a family or personal history of other autoimmune diseases particularly hypothyroidism, vitiligo and Addisons

65
Q

List some causes of folate deficiency?

A

• Diet – more common in alcoholics who may have a very poor diet
• Malabsorption in coeliacs or Crohns
• Excess utilisation e.g. haemolysis, exfoliating dermatitis, pregnancy, some malignancies
• Certain drugs such as anti-epileptics can cause a folate deficiency

66
Q

List some clinical features of B12 and folate deficiency?

A

symptoms of anaemia but specifically for B12 and folate:
• Patient may be mildly jaundiced
• Glossitis – beefy red sore tongue
• B12 neuropathy: posterior dorsal column abnormalities, peripheral neuropathy, psychiatric manifestations (these neurological disturbances may be irreversible)

67
Q

Investigations for B12 and folate deficiency?

A

• Can check for serum B12 or folate levels
• With pernicious anaemia can check for anti-gastric parietal cell and anti-intrinsic factor

68
Q

Treatment of B12 and folate deficiency?

A

• B12 deficiency: IM B12 injections can be given, at first they are given several doses over a few weeks and then the patient is given doses every three months for the rest of their life
• Folate deficiency can be corrected by giving 5mg folic acid daily, this should be taken for at least 4 months to replace body stores, any underlying cause should be treated and if it can’t then the person should continue on folic acid supplements
• There isn’t any particular harm in starting B12 or folate before confirmation so if the person is very ill it is better to start the vitamins because the neurological symptoms can be irreversible

69
Q

Explain anaemia of chronic disease?

A

• A multifactorial pathophysiology with inflammation as central process
• Common (2nd only to iron deficiency) as a cause for anaemia worldwide
• Not all mechanisms occur in all cases
• Inflammatory stimulus e.g. infection, auto-immunity or malignancy activates monocytes and T cells which release cytokines e.g. TNF alpha, IFN gamma
• These can cause anaemia through a number of mechanisms
• Normocytic anaemia is the most common but microcytic anaemia can occur if the cytokines cause the liver to increase hepcidin causing a relative iron deficiency

70
Q

What are some symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

sweating
feeling tired
dizziness
feeling hungry
tingling lips
feeling shaky or trembling
a fast or pounding heartbeat (palpitations)
becoming easily irritated, tearful, anxious or moody
turning pale

late symptoms:
weakness
blurred vision
confusion or difficulty concentrating
unusual behaviour, slurred speech or clumsiness (like being drunk)
feeling sleepy
seizures or fits
collapsing or passing out