Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3a > GP > Flashcards

GP Flashcards

1
Q

Stage 1 HTN:

A

≥140/90

OR

ABPM daytime average reading of ≥135/85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stage 2 HTN:

A

≥160/100

OR

ABPM daytime average reading of ≥ 150/95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Severe HTN:

A

≥180 diastolic
OR
≥110 diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is ‘essential’ HTN?

A

Primary idiopathic HTN i.e. cause unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give 2 causes of secondary HTN:

A

Most commonly due to kidney or endocrine problems, for example:

  1. CKD (e.g. due to diabetes)
  2. Cushing’s syndrome (hypersecretion of corticosteroids)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give 4 unmodifiable risk factors for HTN:

A
  1. Increasing age
  2. Family history
  3. Diabetes
  4. Ethnicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is malignant HTN? How does it present (3 signs/symptoms):

A

AKA accelerated phase HTN

A rapid rise in BP leading to vascular damage

Px:

  • Severe HTN
  • Headaches with visual disturbance
  • Bilateral retinal haemorrage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What investigations should be carried out when diagnosing HTN? (4)

A
  1. Ambulatory BP monitoring over 24 houus
  2. Fasting glucose
  3. Cholesterol levels
  4. Other tests to look for potential end organ damage e.g. proteinuria, fundoscopy, ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you treat malignant HTN (AKA accelerated phase HTN)?

A

Admit for specialist treatment and urgent investigations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the first and second line treatments for HTN in someone with type 2 DM?

A

1st: ACEi (ramipril) or ARB (candesartan)
2nd: Add a CCB (amlodipine or nifedipine) or thiazide-like diuretic (bendroflumethiazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the first and second line treatments for HTN in someone without DM2 who is <55 years old and not black African or of African-Carribean family origin?

A

1st: ACEi (ramipril) or ARB (candesartan)
2nd: Add a CCB (amlodipine or nifedipine) or thiazide-like diuretic (bendroflumethiazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the first and second line treatments for HTN in someone without DM2 who is 55 years or older?

A

1st: CCB (amlodipine or nifedipine)
2nd: Add an ACEi or ARB or thiazide-like diuretic (bendroflumethiazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the first and second line treatments for HTN in someone who is black African or of African-Carribean family origin?

A

1st: CCB (amlodipine or nifedipine)
2nd: Add an ACEi or ARB or thiazide-like diuretic (indapamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the third line treatment for HTN in all groups?

A

A + C + D = ACEi/ARB and CCB and Diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What medication might you add to a patient’s treatment once you have confirmed they have resistant HTN? (They are already on A+C+D)

A

Low dose spironlactone (if blood potassium is <4.5)

OR

Alpha-blocker or Beta-blocker (if blood potassium >4.5)

Also seek expert advise!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of drug is indapamide?

A

A thiazide-like diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of drug is doxazosin?

A

An alpha-blocker (used in fourth line tx of HTN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name 3 drugs that increase the risk of idiopathic intracranial hypertension:

A
  1. combined oral contraceptive pill
  2. steroids
  3. tetracyclines e.g. lymecycline
  4. vitamin A
  5. lithium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What group of people typically experience idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A

Young overweight females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give 4 typical features of idiopathic intracranial HTN;

A
  1. Headache
  2. Blurred vision
  3. Papilloedema
  4. Enlarged blind spot
  5. Sixth nerve palsy (may be present)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which anti-HTN medication should not be prescribed to those suffering with gout?

A

Do not give thiazide-like diuretics, they exacerbate gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the max dose of amlodipine you can give for HTN?

A

10mg per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What side effect is commonly complained of when taking an ACEi?

A

Dry cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of diuretic is furosemide?

A

Loop diuretic: inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the ascending loop of henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of diuretic is spironolactone?

A

Potassium-sparing diuretic: acts on aldosterone-responsive segments of the distal nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Give 5 symptoms of heart failure:

A
  1. Breathlessness
  2. Fatigue
  3. Ankle swelling
  4. Nocturnal cough (+/- pink sputum)
  5. Orthopnea (breathless lying flat)
  6. Nocturnal wheeze
  7. Syncope
  8. Anorexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give 5 signs of heart failure:

A
  1. Raised JVP
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Tachypnoea
  4. Pulmonary rales (fine crackles indicating fluid in small airways)
  5. peripheral oedema
  6. Pleural effusion (dull to percussion, diminished or absent breath sounds, confirm with CXR)
  7. Hepatomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What might pink frothy sputum and a nocturnal cough indicate?

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Give 3 causes of left sided heart failure:

A
  1. Ischaemic heart disease (most common)
  2. Long standing HTN leading to LVH
  3. Dilated cardiomyopathy
  4. Aortic stenosis
  5. Other cardiomyopathies: hypertrophic, restrictive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Give 3 causes of right-sided heart failure:

A
  1. Left sided heart failure
  2. Left to right shunt e.g. ASD, VSD
  3. Chronic lung disease (cor pulmonale = raises pulmonary blood pressure, increased pressure needed to pump blood out of RV, leads to RVH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 signs of right sided heart failure:

A
  1. Raised JVP
  2. Hepatosplenomegaly
  3. Ankle oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

3 signs of left sided heart failure:

A
  1. Paroxysmal dysponea
  2. Wheeze
  3. Weight loss
  4. Cold peripheries
  5. Dysponea & poor exercise tolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Signs of heart failure on CXR: (5)

A 
A - alveolar oedema (bat wings)
B - kerley b lines 
C - cardiomegaly
D - dilated upper lobe vessels
E - pleural effusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Non-pharmacological management of chronic heart failure: (3)

A
  1. Lifestyle management (smoking cessation, exercise, reduce alcohol intake, fluid and salt restriction)
  2. Annual influenza and single pneumococcal vaccination
  3. Frequent monitoring: renal function, functional capacity, fluid status, cardiac rhythm, cognitive status, nutritional status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

First, second and third line pharmacological management of a patient with chronic heart failure:

A

First line: ACEi and beta-blocker

Second line: aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone)

3rd line: ivabradine or sacubitril-valsartan or digoxin or hydralazine

Diuretics are also used to manage symptoms of fluid overload BUT they have no proven affect on reducing mortality

NB: Baseline and repeat U&Es are needed to monitor ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What medication might you offer a patient with chronic heart failure who has found that their symptoms are not improving on furosemide, ramipril and bisoprolol?

A

Offer a low dose aldosterone antagonist e.g. spironalactone or eplerenone

NB: Mineralcorticoid/aldosterone receptor antagonists (MRAs) antagonise aldosterone, increasing Na excretion via diuresis, ultimately decreasing cardiac afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What might you offer a patient with chronic heart failure who wants to stop their ACEi because it gives them a dry cough?

A

Offer an ARB instead, e.g. candesartan

NB: patient must have normal renal function and normal serum potassium to start on an ARB

38
Q

Name 2 drugs to use in the management of acute heart failure:

A
  1. Furosemide - 40-80mg IV
  2. GTN spray - 2 puffs sub-lingual

Start on beta blockers and ACEi/ARB after 48 hours once stable

NB: Do NOT give GTN if systolic BP <90

39
Q

Give 5 keys things to do when managing acute heart failure:

A
  1. Sit patient upright
  2. Ventilate
  3. Monitor ECG
  4. Monitor BP: aim for systolic of 90-100
  5. Give diuretic & GTN spray
40
Q

Sacubitril-valsartan is used as a third line treatment for chronic heart failure, what criteria must be met in order to prescribe it?

A
  1. Left ventricular fraction <35%
  2. Symptomatic heart failure despite use of ACEi or ARB

Initiate following an ACEi or ARB wash out period!

41
Q

Describe the 4 NYHA levels of heart failure:

A
  1. No limitation of physical activity, no undue tiredness/SOB/palpitations
  2. Slight limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest. Ordinary activity causes some tiredness/palpitations/SOB.
  3. Comfortable at rest but minimal activity causes tiredness/palpitations/SOB
  4. Unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Tired and SOB at rest. Increased discomfort on moving.
42
Q

Give 4 essential investigations for chronic heart failure:

A
  1. NT-proBNP (informs how urgently further tests are needed)
  2. Imaging: echo & CXR
  3. Cardiomyopathy screen:
    - serum iron and copper (haematochromatosis and wilson’s)
    - Rheumatoid factor, ANCA/ANA, ENA, dsDNA
    - Serum ACE (sacoidosis)
    - Serum-free light chains (amyloidosis)
  4. Other bloods: FBC, U&E, TFTs, troponin, lipids, HbA1c, TFTs
43
Q

What blood tests are included in a cardiomyopathy screen?

A

Cardiomyopathy screen:

  • serum iron and copper (haematochromatosis and wilson’s)
  • Rheumatoid factor, ANCA/ANA, ENA, dsDNA (for autoimmune disease)
  • Serum ACE (sacoidosis)
  • Serum-free light chains (amyloidosis)
44
Q

Hypothyroidism:

  1. Example cause
  2. 5 symptoms
  3. Treatment
A
  1. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis:
    - autoimmune
    - high TSH
    - anti-TPO and anti-Tg antibodies
  2. Symptoms:
    - weight gain
    - hoarse voice
    - intolerance of cold
    - low mood
    - constipation
    - carpal tunnel
  3. Levothyroxine
45
Q

Hyperthyroidism:

  1. Example cause
  2. 5 symptoms
  3. Treatment
A
  1. Grave’s disease:
    - High T3 and T4
    - Low TSH
    - TSH-Rab antibodies
  2. Symptoms:
    - Weight loss
    - Tremor
    - Diarrhoea
    - Periorbital oedema
    - Tachycardia/arrhythmias
  3. Carbimazole or propylthiouracil, thyroidectomy
46
Q

Pathogenesis of type 2 DM:

A

Insulin resistance and progressive insulin secretion failure.

Decreased uptake of glucose intro muscle and fat after eating.

Failure to suppress lipolysis.

47
Q

Genes associated with Dm1:

A

HLA DR3/4

48
Q

How do you differentiate between type I and II DM in practice?

A

Type I:
Younger onset
Presence of islet cell antibodies (ICA) and GADs
More likely to get DKA/ketouria

49
Q

Pre-diabetes diagnostic criteria:

A
  1. HbA1c 42-47 mmol/l
  2. Fasting glucose 6.1-6.9 mmol/l
  3. OGTT at 2 hours 7.8-11.1 mmol/l
50
Q

Diabetes diagnostic criteria:

A

HbA1c >48
Random glucose >11
Fasting glucose >7
OGTT 2 hours >11

51
Q

How frequently should individuals with DM2 have their HbA1c checked?

A

Every 3 to 6 months at first, until it stabilizes on unchanging therapy

Then every 6 months

52
Q

What is the target HbA1c value for an individual with DM2, controlled by diet, exercise +/- one drug?

A

48

unless! Using a medication associated with hypoglycaemia, in which case aim for: 53

53
Q

First, second and third line treatment for DM2:

A

1st: Metformin titrated from 500mg OD
2nd: add a sulfonlyurea, pioglitazone, DPP-4 inhibitor or SGLT-2 inhibitor
3rd: Add another second line drug, or try metformin plus insulin instead

54
Q

3 notable side effects of metformin:

A
  1. Diarrhoea
  2. Abdominal pain
  3. Lactic acidosis

Does not typically cause hypos!

55
Q

How do metformin and pioglitazone work?

A

Increase insulin sensitivity and decrease liver production of glucose.

Do NOT typically cause hypos.

56
Q

Example of a sulfonylurea:

How does it work?

A

Gliclazide

Stimulates insulin release frrom the pancreas

57
Q

Why is gliclazide monotherapy avoided?

A

Increased risk of CVD and MI

58
Q

Example of a DPP-4 inhibitor:

How does it work?

A

Sitagliptin
Increases GLP-1 activity, which increases insulin secretion, inhibits glucagon production and slows absorption in the GI tract

59
Q

Example of a GLP-1 mimetic:

How does it work?

A

Exenatide (SC injection)

Mimics GLP-1 hormon, which increases insulin activity, inhibits glucagon production and slows absorption in the GI tract

60
Q

IBS:

  1. Presentation
  2. Tx:
A
  1. 6 month hx of:
    - abdo pain/discomfort
    - bloating
    - relieved by defecation or wind
    - altered freq. or form
    - mucus
    - aggravated by eating
  2. Diet advice, lifestyle advise, loperamide, antispasmodics, laxatives, SSRIs, TCAs
61
Q

Ulcerative Colitis:

  1. Histology
  2. Symptoms
  3. Treatment
A
  1. Starts at the rectum and spreads continuously:
    - red inflamed mucosa
    - goblet cell delpletion
    - crypt abcesses
  2. Bowel changes, systemic features (fever, weight loss, anorexia, malaise)
  3. Inducing remission:
    - first line = mesalazine
    - second line = prednisolone
    Maintaining remission:
    - mesalazine
    - azathioprine
    - mercaptopurine
62
Q

Chrohn’s:

1. Histology:

A
  1. Any part of gut to anus:
    - skip lesions
    - transmural inflammation
    - granulomas
    - cobblestone mucosa
  2. Inducing remission:
    - first line: prenisolone or hydrocortisone
    - second line: azathioprine etc.
    Maintaining remission:
    - first line: azathioprine
    - second line: methotrexate, infliximab etc.
63
Q

When should someone with epigastric pain be referred for endoscopy to rule out gastric cancer?

A 
If they are experiencing dysphagia or if they are over 55 with any ALARMS symptoms:
A - anaemia
L - loss of weight
A - anorexia
R - recent onset
M - melaena
S - swallowing difficulties
64
Q

Management of GORD: (7)

A
  1. Lifestyle: decrease alcohol and tobacco
  2. PPI e.g. omeprazole
  3. H2 blocker e.g. ranitidine
  4. Antiacid e.g. magnesium trisilicate mix
  5. Avoiding eating <3hrs before bed
  6. Raise bed head
  7. H.pylori erradication
65
Q

Investigations for coeliac:

A

Must eat gluten containing diet before investigations!

  1. total IgA
  2. IgA tTG
  3. EMAs
  4. DGPs
  5. Biopsy
  6. FBC (anaemia)
  7. Iron, ferritin, folate level
66
Q

Two types of colorectal cancer:

A
  1. Familial adenomatous polyposis: due to mutations in the APC tumour suppressor gene
  2. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (NHPCC): affects genes that code for DNA repair proteins
67
Q

What tests are done in bowel cancer screening?

A

Faecal occult blood test (FOB) or the new faecal immunochemical test (FIT)

68
Q

Who is offered bowel cancer screening?

A

All adults aged 60 to 74 are invited to use a home testing FOB kit every two years

In some areas anyone aged over 55 is offered a one off screening flexible sigmoidoscopy

69
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

Pain greater in the RIF than LIF when pressing on the LIF

Indicates appendicits

70
Q

Symptoms of appendicitis:

A
  1. Starts as periumbilical pain that moves to the RIF
  2. Tender with guarding
  3. Rebound tenderness
  4. Tachycardia
  5. Fever
  6. Peritonism
  7. Anorexia
  8. Constipation
71
Q

What is charcot’s triad?

A

A sign of acute cholangitis (infection of the biliary tree):

  1. Fever (with chills)
  2. Right upper quadrant pain
  3. Jaundice (with dark urine, pale stools and pruritus)
72
Q

5 radiological features of osteoarthritis:

A
  1. joint space narrowing
  2. osteophyte formation (bony projections)
  3. subarticular sclreosis
  4. subchondral cysts (fluid filled sacs in the joint space)
  5. abnormalities of the bone contour/outline
73
Q

Diagnostic features of osteoarthritis: (3)

A
  1. Over 45 years old
  2. Activity related pain
  3. No morning stiffness or morning stiffness but it lasts <30 minutes
74
Q

What is gout?

A

Deposition of monosodium urate monohydrate cyrstals within joints.

Monosodium urate is dervied from purine breakdown.

75
Q

Causes of gout:

A

Hyperuricaemia caused by:

  1. Overproduction e.g. psroasis, excessive meat eating, hyperlipidaemia
  2. Under excretion e.g. alcohol, HTN, renal problems
76
Q

Above what concentration of uric acid are crystals likely to form (causing gout)?

A

Above 0.36

77
Q

How do you treat gout?

A 
Immediate relief:
1. elevate
2. ice pack
3. steroids
Prevention:
1. weight loss
2. low purine diet
3. allopurinol
4. NSAIDs
78
Q

What causes osteoporosis?

A

Can be primary (relating to menopause or increasing age) or secondary (range of causes including IBD, cushing’s iatrogenic)

Lack of oestrogen causes increased bone resportion and decreased bone deposition.

Lack of calcium causes inccreased bone resporption.

79
Q

What does FRAX calculate?

A

The ten year probability of a major osteoporotic fractice in people aged 40 to 90

80
Q

5 examples of drugs that can increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures:

A
  1. Long term depot injections
  2. Long term antidepressants
  3. PPIs
  4. Pioglitazone (anti-diabetic tx)
  5. Some AEDs e.g. carbamazapine
81
Q

Components of FRAX: (12)

A 
Age
Weight
Sex
Height
Prev fracture
Prev hip fracture
Smoker
Glucocorticoids
RA
Secondary osteoporosis
Alcohol 3 or more units/day
BMD
82
Q

What are the values for a normal, osteopenic, osteoporotic and severely osteoporotic T score?

A

Normal = >-1
Osteopenia = -1 to -2.5
Osteoporosis = Less than -2.5
Severe osteoporosis = Less tjan -2.5 plus a fracture

83
Q

Who should you use FRAX on?

A

Women >65
Men >75
Younger patients with risk factors e.g. previous fragility fracture, hx of falls, low BMI, long term steroids, endo or rheum disorders

84
Q

What is polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

An inflammatory condition that causes pain and stiffness in the:

  • shoulders
  • pelvic girdle
  • neck

Strongly associated with GCA

85
Q

NICE diagnostic criteria of polymyalgia rheumatica: (5)

A

At least two weeks of:

  1. BIL shoulder pain that may radiate to the elbow
  2. BIL pelvic girdle pain
  3. Worse with movement
  4. Interferes with sleep
  5. Morning stiffness for at least 45 mins

Can also include systemic features: low mood, weight loss, low grade fever

86
Q

How do you treat polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

15mg of prednisolone per day
Assess in 1 week - should show good response
Assess again in 3-4 weeks - should see 70% improvement
Continue until symptoms fully controlled then decrease slowly

87
Q

What type of hypersensitivty reaction is involved in asthma?

A

type 1

88
Q

Asthma management in adults:

A

Step UP when: using SABA ≥3 times/week or waking up at night once a week with symptoms

Step DOWN when: well controlled with no symptoms at all

  1. Salbutamol PRN
  2. Add ICS e.g. beclametasone
  3. Add a LABA e.g. salmeterol
  4. Increase ICS
  5. Increase ICS again, consider an LTRA
89
Q

What is CURB-65?

A 
Criteria for managing pneumonia, one point for each of:
C - confusion
U - urea >7
R - resp rate >30
B - BP <90 sys or <60 dias
65 - ≥ 65 years old
90
Q

What action is required for following CURB-65 scores?
0 to 1
2
3-5

A

0 to 1 = treat in community
2 = consider inpatient treatment
3 to 5 = inpatient admission with possible ITU care

91
Q

How do you treat low severity community acquired pneumonia?

A

Five days of amoxicillin

3a (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions