Gout and Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

What is gout?

A

A type of inflammatory arthritis that causes pain, discomfort and damage to joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes gout?

A

Deposition of monosodium urate crystals formed by excess uric acid. The crystals are formed from excess uric acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is uric acid?

A

Breakdown product of purine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the risk factors for developing gout?

A
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Medicines that raise uric acid
  • Obesity
  • Weight gain
  • Hypertension
  • Dyslipidaemia
  • Alcohol consumption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which drugs lead to raised uric acid levels?

A
  • Aspirin
  • Ciclosporin
  • Cytotoxic medicines
  • Diuretics
  • Ethambutol
  • Levodopa
  • Pyreizinamide
  • Ribavaran & Interferon
  • Teriparatide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first line treatment for gout?

A

NSAIDs - start at high dose then taper 24 hours after resolution of attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drug can be used in gout patients when NSAIDs are contraindicated?

A

Colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does Colchicine work?

A

Arrests assemble of microtubules in neutrophils and inhibits many cellular functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the side effects of colchicine?

A
  • Abdominal cramps

- Nausea & vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should colchine be used with caution?

A

In chronic heart failure patients - can constrict blood vessels and stimulate central vasomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When would a corticosteroid be used in gout patients?

A

When NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated or ineffective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give examples of corticosteroids used in gout

A
  • Methlypredinisolone acetate

- Triacinalone acetonide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What the aim of gout prophylaxis?

A

Aim is to maintain serum uric acid levels below saturation point of monosodium urate - if serum rate is low then crystal deposits dissolves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which drugs can be used prophylactically in gout patients?

A
  • Allopurinol
  • Febuxostat
  • Uricosuric medicines: Benzbromarone and Pegloticase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does allopurinol work?

A

Inhibits xanthine oxidase which reduces production of uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does of allopurinol should be given to patients with normal renal function?

A

100mg daily and increase every 2/3 weeks till optimum serum levels are reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does allopurinol interact with?

A

Azathioprine

Mercaptopurine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which patients is febuxostat indicated for?

A

Patients with chronic hyperuricaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the potential ADRs associated with febuxostat?

A
  • Respiratory infection
  • Nausea
  • Diarrhoea
  • Headache
  • Liver function abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do uricosuric medicines work?

A

Increase excretion of gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give examples of uricosuric medicines

A

Sulphinpyrazone
Probenacid
Benzbromarone
Pegloticase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which lifestyle changes should be considered in gout patients?

A
  • Moderate physical exercise
  • Weight loss
  • Purine intake shouldn’t exceed 200mg a day
  • Avoid: shellfish, offal and sardines
  • Reduce alcohol intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why are vitamins and minerals required in the body?

A

They play a key role as co-factors or co-enzymes in mot metabolic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give examples of water soluble vitamins

A
Vit C - ascorbic acid
Vit B1 - Thiamine 
Vit B2 - Riboflavin 
Vit B3 - Niacin / Nicotinic acid
Vit B5 - Pantothenic acid 
Vit B6 - Pyridoxine 
Vit B7 - Biotin 
Vit B9 - Folic acid 
Vit B12 - Cyanocobalamin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Give examples of fat soluble vitamins
Vit A - retinol Vit D - Cholecalciferol Vit E - 𝜶 tocopherol Vit K - Phytomendione
26
Where are water soluble vitamins absorbed?
In the duodenum
27
Where are fat soluble vitamins absorbed?
In the ileum
28
What absorbed Vit B12?
Intrisic factor in the ileum
29
Apart from the diet, what is another source of Vit D?
Sunlight
30
What does Vit A deficiency cause?
Poor night vision
31
What does Vit B1 deficiency cause?
Wenies encephalopathy
32
What does Vit B7 deficiency cause?
Hair loss | Anaemia
33
What does Vit B9 deficiency cause?
Megaloblastic anaemia | Neural tube defects
34
What does Vit B12 deficiency cause?
Pernicious anaemia | Peripheral neuropathy
35
What does Vit C deficiency cause?
Painful joints | Scurvy
36
What does Vit D deficiency cause?
Rickets | Osteoporosis
37
What does Vit K deficiency cause?
Abnormal clotting
38
What do folic acid supplements do in pregnancy?
Prevent neural tube defects - spina bifida
39
What dose of folic acid should given to a woman with no previous history of neural tube defects?
400µm OD until 12th week
40
When should a woman be given a dose of 5mg folic acid?
- Previous history of neural tube defects | - Epilepsy / on anti-epileptics
41
What are minerals and trace elements required for?
- Formations of bones and teeth - Body fluids and tissues - Enzyme systems - Nerve function - Blood constituents
42
Give examples of minerals
- Calcium - Magnesium - Phosphorous - Sodium - Potassium Required in large amounts
43
Give examples of trace elements
``` Iron Zinc Iodine Fluoride Selenium Copper ```
44
What does potassium and magnesium deficiency cause?
Cardiac arrhythmias
45
What does calcium and magnesium deficiency cause?
Osteoporosis Muscle cramps Tetany
46
What does zinc deficiency cause?
Hair loss | Poor wound healing
47
What does iron deficiency cause?
Anaemia
48
What does copper deficiency cause?
Wilson's disease
49
What are the problems associated with supplements?
``` Toxicity / accumulation Supplements are expensive Complacency No control because of legal status Difficult to offer advice as they are not medicines ```
50
What does folic acid interact with?
Methortrexate
51
What does vitamin C interact with?
Iron
52
What are the consequences of malnutrition?
- Weakness and loss of muscle mass - Apathy and depression - Reduced immune system - Poor wound healing - Increased morbidity and mortality
53
What are the normal feeding aims?
Energy: 25-35 kcal / kg / day Protein: 0.8 - 1.5g / kg / day Fluid: 30 - 35ml / kg / day
54
Which methods can be used to feed patients
- Normla diet - Enteral nutrient - IV fluids - Parenteral nutrition
55
How is enteral nutrition administered?
Via GIT
56
What are the benefits of EN?
- More physiological - Less risk of infection - Maintain GIT - Gut bacteria translocation - Lower cost - Easier for home patients - Patient ease - Calorie control
57
Which patients would benefit from EN?
- Patients with eating / swallowing difficulties - Severe intestinal malabsorption - Increased nutritional requirements - Eating disorders - Self neglecting patients
58
What are the routes of EN administration?
Oral Naso gastric tube Percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy (tube passed through abdominal wall) Percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy
59
What are the problems associated with EN?
- diarrhoea - regurgitation - abdominal distention - blocked feeding tube - problems with the pump - taste & acceptability - dislocation
60
How should drugs be administered in EN patients?
- Use liquid preparation where possible - Give each drug separately - Flush with >20ml water before and after - Crushed tablets may block tube - Not MR or e/c
61
Which drug directly interact with EN feed?
``` Ciprofloxacin Albumin antacids Theophylline Phenytoin Penicillamine ```
62
When should TPN be used?
- When EN is not an option - When patient can't take food in orally - Digestion / absorption problems - Unavailable GIT
63
What are short term indications for TPN?
- waiting for feeding tubes - bowel obstruction - excisional surgery - ICU patients with multi-organ system failure - severe pancreatitis - pre-term neonates - acute intestinal failure
64
What are long term indications for TPN?
- radiation enteritis - Crohns disease - motility disorders - bowel infarction - cancer surgery - chronic intestinal failure
65
How is short term TPN administered?
via Venflon
66
How is long term TPN administered?
Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) Hickman line Central line : intrajugular, subclavian, femoral
67
What needs to be monitored when a patient is on TPN?
``` Clinical history U&Es Glucose Vitamins LFTs FBS Trace elements Fluid balance Weight Line iste ```
68
What are TPN complications?
- air embolism / insertion problems - catheter blockage - line infections - metabolic problems - bone disease - re-feeding syndrome
69
What is re-feeding syndrome?
It is characterised by abnormalities in fluid balance, glucose metabolism, vitamin deficiency, hypophosphatemia, hypermagnesaemia and hypokalaemia
70
How is re-feeding syndrome prevented?
By introducing feed at no more than 50% of the normal requirements. Start at 10kcal / kg / day and increase slowly to meet full needs by 4-7 days