GOS questions Flashcards
1
Q
Exemption 11498 allows us to:
A
Operate temporarily without the certificates of registration or airworthiness on board
2
Q
CPS is authorized to conduct what type of operations
A
All of the above
- Domestic
- Supplemental
- Flag
3
Q
You can fly off airways provided that you
A
All of the above
- stay within the operational service volume of the facilities used
- stay within standard route width and MEA criteria, and have adequate navigational facilities
- are cleared by ATC
4
Q
You are landing at an uncontrolled airport and what to cancel IFR. As long as you have appropriate weather and are within 10 NM or have the runway in sight it is OK? true or false
A
False
5
Q
You are landing at a controlled airport and want to cancel IFR. In addition to appropriate weather, what other conditions must be met
A
All of the above
- operation within class B, C, or D
- within 10 NM of the destination airport in class E
- use radar-monitored traffic advisories and be in direct communication with ATC
6
Q
The visibility for takeoff is 1600’ RVR. What is necessary for you to takeoff
A
Either B or C would be sufficient
- HIRL, or CL, or RCLM
- adequate visual reference
7
Q
The visibility for takeoff is 1200’ RVR. What is necessary for you to take off
A
A and B
- a minimum of two RVR reports, excluding the “far end” RVR
- HIRL, or CL, or RCLM during daytime, CL or HIRL for night
8
Q
If TDZ RVR and rollout RVR are 1000’ you need operative runway CL and RCLM to takeoff. True or false
A
False
9
Q
If the TDZ, MID, and rollout RVRs are all 600’ you need runway HIRL and CL to take off. True or false
A
True
10
Q
CPS may never use an airport in class G airspace for an alternate. True or False
A
False
11
Q
An aircraft has been involved in an accident and you have been assigned to ferry it to IAD. The NTSB must first release it and the local FSDO must be notified. True or False
A
True
12
Q
As long as the FSDO is notified within 24 hours, a cat C or D DMI may have its time extended. True or false
A
False
13
Q
To determine takeoff minimums, CPS uses
A
The takeoff minimums poblished in the Lido charts, but never less than 500/500/500 RVR
14
Q
At airports that do not have operating ATC facilities and where it is not otherwise possible for the flight crew to obtain an IFR clearance, a flight may take off and depart under VFR provided
A
All of the Above
- flight crew obtians IFR clearnace as soon as practical after T/O but not farther than 50 NM from origin
- Visiblity greater than 1 SM during day, greater than 2 SM for night
- fligth remains in VMC at all times while VFR
15
Q
Which type of IAP is approved by the operations specifications
A
RNAV (GPS)
16
Q
To conduct IFR terminal operations in class G
A
All of the Above
- airport must be served by authorized IAP
- airport must have approved Wx source
- PIC must be able to obtain traffic advisories and status of airport services/facilities
17
Q
What is required to accept a visual approach
A
All of the Above
- be in B, C, or D airspace, or within 35 NM of class E airport
- adherence to could clearance requirements
- must keep visual contact with either airport OR aircraft to be followed
18
Q
According to Ops Specs, when can an aircraft use single FMS as sole means of en route nav
A
All of the Above
- redundant airborne equipment is installed and operational
- capability exists at any point to safely return to airway
- any flight operated off-airway routing is operated under ATC radar control
19
Q
What is the approved procedure used to derive alternate Wx mins by CPS
A
Option 1/ Option 2
20
Q
What is the furthest point from an uncontrolled field where CPS can cancel IFR and land VFR
A
there is no distance requirement if the crew can maintain visual reference with the landing surface
21
Q
What are the CPS-authorized areas of operations
A
- The 48 contiguous U.S and Alaska
- DC
- Canada
- Mexico
22
Q
Your flight was scheduled to arrive at an airport that is class D, but because of Mx, Wx, or ___ delays, you may arrive when the airspace is class G or untowered class E
A
ATC
23
Q
You have departed the gate at Minneapolis and are going to KMOT (class D but reverts to class G at night). Before takeoff, systems control calls you back to the gate to pick up a rev pax. You notice that you will arrive at KMOT after it becomes class G with the delay. Can you depart
A
Yes. The ops specs allow us to land at KMOT at any time
24
Q
You have departed the gate at Minneapolis and are going to KHDN (class E but reverts to class G at night). Before takeoff, systems control calls you back to the gate to pick up a rev pax. You notice that you will arrive at KHDN after it becomes class G with the delay. Can you depart
A
Yes. The ops spec specifically allow us to land at KHDN at any time
25
You wish to use an airport for an alternate that has four approaches: ILS 30 200-1/2, VOR 30 600-2, VOR 12 400-3/4, NDB 12 600-2. The wind is 210 at 10-16. What is the lowest ceiling and vis you could use for an alternate
600' -1 1/4
26
Before takeoff, tower says, ".... MID RVR 500, ROLLOUT RVR 600, TDZ RVR OTS." published mins for the runway are 500/500/500. Can you depart
Yes. One transmissometer can fail, but if the other two are at or above 500 RVR the flight may depart
27
According to the Ops Specs, which is/are the controlling RVR report(s) for landing
Touchdown
28
While doing Option 2, you sed two Cat 1 approaches and got mins to be 400-1. For this to be a legal alternate, the forecast Wx would have to be at or above what
400' and 1 sm
29
To conduct terminal arrival VFR ops at class C airports, the lowest ceiling to maintain basic cloud clearance is? (assume pattern altitude is 1500')
2000'
30
Which of the following is not an approved alternate source of Wx
FISDL
31
Unless the pilot calls 866-460-0150 to initiate an ASAP report, all reports must be submitted within 24 hrs for a domestic flight, or 48 hrs for an international flight. true or false
False
32
Under which of the following situatoins should a pilot submit an ASAP
All of the above
- possibe FAR violation
- possible SOP violation
- significant safety issues
33
The following are valid acceptance criteria for ASAP reporting, EXCEPT
The ASAP report must be submitted within 72 hrs.
34
an emergency/irregularity (crew) report must be submitted for each occurrence of
All of the above
- interruption of a flight caused by a known or suspected Mx problem
- anytime an emergency has been declared
- a situation that may bring attention to company ops for prompt FAA investigation
35
When an armed law enforcement officer (LEO) travels on a CPS flight, the letters TWW will appear on his/her gate pass. true or false
True
36
You have an hour on the ground between legs and the entire crew wants to leave to get a sandwich. You should
Secure all the access doors
37
After getting a sandwich, you arrive back to you unattended airplane. You should:
do a walk-around security inspection of the flight deck and wheel wells
38
When operating above FL250, each flight crewmember must be provided with and continually use an oxygen mask. True or false
False
39
A critical phase of flight is:
B and C
- from engine start through climb out of 10,000 MSL
- Descent out of 10,000 MSL through the completion of the parking check
40
while making a turn on the ground, pilots are required to clear the direction of the turn and to verbalize it. When airborne the direction also must either be cleared visually (VMC) or by TCAS, but without verbalization. True or false
True
41
Sterile cockpit procedures are in effect when
A and B
- descending through 10,000' MSL
- Departing cruise altitude, if below 10,000' MSL
42
Reading materials not related to the actual operation of the flight shall not be read in the cockpit during any operational phase of a flight. True or False
true
43
The flight attendant(s) must be on board all CPS aircraft in order to begin boarding. True or False
True
44
If all booked pax are on board, system control or station ops may authorize a CPS aircraft to depart the date up to ___ mins before scheduled departure time
10
45
Who has the highest jumpseat priority of these four people
an FAA inspector
46
A station agent may delay a flight without approval from systems control for up to ____ mins from scheduled departure time
10
47
During critical phases of flight, one crewmember may leave his/her station for physiological needs. True or False
false
48
Once an aircraft has left the gate but is still on the ground, systems control can recall a flight for everything except
Non-revenue passengers from other airlines
49
Per the FOM, turns after takeoff are not authorized below
400'
50
The critical phase of flight
begins with engine start and ends at 10000' MSL, or cruise altitude if it is less than 10,000'
51
You are the PIC and disagree with System control concerning the release. You should
ask for a phone patch to the system/duty chief pilot's office, or if not available then the most appropriate individual authorized to provide operational guidance listed in the FOM
52
You are the PIC and disagree with System control concerning the release. You should
ask for a phone patch to the system/duty chief pilot's office, or if not available then the most appropriate individual authorized to provide operational guidance listed in the FOM
53
Even if ACARS is operational, the PNF shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate company frequency using VHF 2 at all times unless it is being used to receive ATIS or a clearance. True or False
false
54
While holding at runway 24 in IFR conditions, the tower clears you for takeoff and on course. You should
follow the published departure procedure
55
If your takeoff clearance in visual conditions include the phrase "cleared on course" you should:
unless it is noted otherwise in the departure section of the AIP, turn on course when altitude and obstruction clearance permit, and then via the flight plan
56
The flight crew should contact dispatch and the station of intended landing any time there is an ATC delay or holding beyond 15 minutes. True or False
true
57
You are at the de-ice pad. Your holdover time begins
When final application of the de-ice/anti-ice fluid starts
58
Flight must pass at least 5 miles from a known thunderstorm and not takeoff and land if a thunderstorm is occurring within the airport boundary. True or False
False
59
Hold fuel computations is based on ___ at holding airspeed
10,000' MSL
60
Company reserve fuel is defined as the fuel that will provide more than 45 min of engine operation at long-range cruise power settings at 10,000' MSL. True or False
True
61
Contingency fuel is
All of the above
- designed to accommodate unplanned events
- is not required by regulation
- is determined for each flight
62
When using the manual weight and balance procedure, the official copy of the dispatch release must be filed at the crew's domicile within how long
7 days
63
When using the ACARS weight and balance procedure, the official copy of the dispatch release must be filed at the crew's domicile within how long
Never. It has already been filed by dispatch electronically
64
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true regarding exemption 17347
Both B and C
- the ceiling is not a factor in determining destination legality
- at the first alternate, the conditional ceiling AND visibility must be no lower than half that required to designate an alternate
65
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true regarding exemption 17347
Both B and C
- the ceiling is not a factor in determining destination legality
- at the first alternate, the conditional ceiling AND visibility must be no lower than half that required to designate an alternate
66
Which statement is true with regard to holdover times
Once a holdover time is exceeded, a pre-takeoff contamination check must be completed
67
What is a FALSE statement concerning CPS policy regarding Wx radar
radar must be operative for all night IMC ops
68
Which of the following is required for the dispatch release
minimum fuel
69
if braking action is reported as NIL, CPS pilots may
No of the above
- Only take off
- only land
- take off and/or land
70
When it comes to windshear
all of the above
- flights must not takeoff nor conduct the final approach segment when ATC issues micorburst
- If microburst alert issued for a runway, a go-around must be initiated
- when windshear analysis, PIREP, or airplane performance predics loss of airspeed, an approach should not be attempted
71
Al inop equipment listed in the MEL except NEF's are required to be listed on the Dispatch release. True or False
True
72
If a takeoff alternate airport is required for takeoff, the alternate airport must be
within 1 hr from the departure point, at normal cruising speed, in still air, with one engine inop
73
On your dispatch release, you see that you have 600 lbs of holding fuel. How is holding fuel computed
at 10,000' MSL at holding airspeed
74
Marginal Wx will require a second alternate if the:
ceiling or vis at the destination and alternate is forecast to be at its minimum value at their respective ETA's
75
The forecast for your destination states: FM 1000 4SM BR SCT 012 TEMPO 1214 1/4SM FG. The ETA at the destination is 1500z. ILS cat 1 vis is 1/2. In order to depart, regulations require that you dispatch under 17347. True or False
True
76
An alternate has been designated on a release. While examining the Wx that the alternate, the PIC notices a TAF and RAMTAF available at the ETA. The TAF indicates a lower vis than the RAMTAF. According to the FOM, which forecast would you use
TAF. The FOM states the more restrictive Wx must be used to determine if an alternate is legal
77
What items are required to be on a Dispatch release per Compass policy
```
Aircraft ID
Flight #
departure, intermediate, destination, and alternates
type of operation
minimum fuel supply
DMI's
crewmember names and ID's
```
78
Because compass flights are always dispatched under IRF, we always need an alternate on the release regardless of the Wx. True or False
false
79
Icing conditions can exist with indicated OAT as high as +10 C. True or False
True
80
SIGMET reports severe turb. but all forecasts indicate only moderate turb:
you can fly into the affected area unless a legitimate PIREP reports severe turb.
81
Revalidation of a dispatch release for 121 domestic ops is necessary if
the flight departs an originating station after a two hr delay
82
At what point on the release must the most restrictive Wx source be applied
alternate
83
An alternate is NOT required for dispatch if the destination Wx forecast is for conditions of
At least 2000' ceiling above the airport elevation and at least 3 miles vis for at least one hr before and after the ETA
84
Dispatch under 17347 is allowed if, at your ETA
the CONDITIONAL vis is no less than 1/2 that required for the approach at the destination, 1/2 that required to designate an alternate and at or above alternate designation requirements for the 2nd alternate
85
To be legally dispatched under 17347, the destination's main body forecast at the ETA must indicate ceiling and vis are at or above landing minimums. True or False
false
86
When both prevailing vis and RVR are reported for the particular runway you would use for takeoff, which of the two would be controlling
RVR
87
a second alternate is required if the ceiling or vis is forecast to be at landing mins at the destination and the first alternate
True
88
Which of the following are not required on the dispatch release
Void time
89
A convective SIGMET for severe thunderstorms would restrict CPS aircraft from flying into that area. True or False
False
90
Whenever there is a question of fuel supply being adequate for a particular operation due to wind or Wx, a flight may be released to an airport other than the intended destination. True or False
True
91
On the E175m the max difference that can exist between your indicated fuel contents and the dispatch release planned fuel figure, before the release must be amended is
+/- 200 lbs
92
Visible moisture can be defined as
moisture through which you have less than 1 sm vis, or when moisture can be seen forming/running off areas of the aircraft
93
According to the FOM, CPS aircraft are certified to takeoff and land in moderate freezing rain and heavy freezing drizzle. True or False
False
94
After a flight is en route who is responsible to ensure the Wx is updated as necessary to conduct a safe flight
Dispatcher and PIC
95
determination of suitability for an alternate airport includes the effects of wind on runways under consideration. What is the max tailwind that could be forecasted and still be suitable to use any of the runway
10 knots
96
If the Wx conditions at your departure airport are below the lowest cat 1 landing mins for the runway in use
CPS policy requires the dispatch release to list a takeoff alternate
97
Wind shear is best described as an extreme change in wind direction and/or speed in a very short distance in the atmosphere. True or False
True
98
When does the radar system need to be checked
Pilots do not specifically check the radar since it performs a self-test upon aircraft power up
99
While doing Option 1, you used a circling maneuver and derived O1/O2 minimums of 900-2. For this particular airport to be legally listed as an alternate, the forecast Wx must be at or above____
1000' and 3
100
While doing option 1 you used a circling maneuver with plate mins of 800 and 1. Fro this airport to be legally listed as an alternate, the forecast Wx must be at or above___
1200' and 3
101
After declaring to ATC "minimum fuel" you should
proceed with no deviations from the planned route of flight
102
after declaring to ATC "emergency fuel" you should
All of the above
- decide whether or not to divert
- state fuel remaining in minutes
- land immediately and expect priority handling
103
You are cleared for takeoff from a runway intersection that is not shown on the TLR, what should you do
Take off if you have data for a more restrictive intersections
104
CPS pilots must be stabilized by 1000' above TDZE, except when specified by normal operating procedures for a particular aircraft in the AOM. True or False
False
105
The Wx for a circling approach must be
at or above 1000' and 3, or the MDA, and/or a higher visibility required of the published circling maneuver for the approach, whichever is higher
106
When planning to circle for landing, you notice the MDA is 1,100' HAA. What altitude should you circle
1,100' HAA
107
CPS policy regarding landing criteria is that touchdown must occur within the first____ feet or the first 1/3 of the runway or ALD, whichever is less
3000'
108
Approaching Boston you get this ATIS: 19007 Knots..... Approach informs you to expect ILS 33L hold short 4L. Assuming the VASI is operational and you have the airport analysis/AeroData for the runway, can you land and hold short? Yes or No
No
109
You are inside the outer marker at 700' AGL on approach to runway 17 at PHL. Tower then clears you to land on runway 17 and hold short of 27R. Assuming you have the airport analysis data, can you land and hold short. Yes or No
No
110
You are inside the outer marker at 1200' AGL on approach to runway 17 at PHL. Tower then clears you to land on runway 17 and hold short of 27R. Assuming you have the airport analysis data, can you land and hold short. Yes or No
Yes
111
Never enter a fate parking area unless directed by a marshaling agent or illuminated parking device. True or False
True
112
To enter a gate parking area
All of the above
- a marshaling agent or illuminated parking device is mandatory
- marshallers will normally be assisted by two wing walkers who will provide clearance in the parking area
- one wing walker assisting the marshaller is acceptable when there is no threat to personal safety or threat of damage to the aircraft
113
A pushback crew normally consists of a marshaller, tug driver, and two wing walkers. True or false
False
114
Taxiing within 10 feet of equipment requires a guide person. True or false
True
115
Taxiing within 5 feet of equipment is only permitted with a guide person. True or false
False
116
for a visual approach when an ILS is available, the FOM states that you must stay on the ILS glide slope between the outer marker and the middle marker. True or false
True
117
All CPS turbojet aircraft must have both engines shut down for refueling. True or false
False
118
What is the minimum ceiling and vis for landing and holding short of an active runway
1,000'/3
119
The crew should organize their activities to be at the aircraft no later than ___ minutes prior to departure
40
120
You have accepted a LAHSO from the tower and they have also informed you that the PAPI is OTS. What is the lowest the Wx can be for accepting this approach
1,500' and 5 sm
121
during refueling, it is appropriate to
Use radios only
122
Surface movement guidance and control system (SMGCS) is used at airports with landing mins below 1200' RVR. True or false
true
123
When conducting LAHSO operations without a VASI or PAPI what is the lowest Wx minimums authorized
1500' and 5 sm
124
Which of the following is not requires to be carried by CPS flight crew members for flight ops
Airplane Flight Manual (AFM)
125
In the situation where airport analysis data/AeroData is not available for the intersection from which you are being cleared to depart
You may depart at the cleared intersection if airport analysis/AeroData is available for that runway for an intersection that is more restrictive
126
For a visual approach when an ILS is available, a pilot may descend below G/S between the outer marker and middle marker. True or False
False
127
If an ILS is not available for a visual approach but the VASI is, the pilot must stay on the VASI glide path until lower is needed for landing in the touchdown zone. True or False
True
128
After intercepting G/S at the published G/S inercept altitude, the tower states TDZ RVR 1,600. What action is required, assuming that approach says RVR 1800 or 1/2.
The approach can be continued, but landing is only allowed if the flight crew determines that the flight vis is above landing minimums
129
On a precision approach, the final approach is defined by a Maltese Cross. True or False
False
130
any of the following visual references may be used to descend below the MDA/DA except:
Rotating Beacon
131
Which of the following are NOT allowed to be used as a visual reference for descent below the DA/MDA
runway centerline lights
132
The plug/winterization kits should normally be installed after the last flight of the day and removed just prior to start when the forecast temp is to go below 5C, or anytime there is freezing precip falling or forecasted. True or False
False
133
Show time at an outstation is normally how long before scheduled departure
45 minutes
134
RVSM airspace is any airspace or route between_____ and _____ inclusive
290, 410
135
When operating in RVSM airspace and when given a climb or descent to a new flight level, the aircraft should not be allowed to overshoot or undershoot the cleared FL by more than _____ ft.
150'
136
When operating within a foreign country, CPS flight crew members will comply with air traffic rules of the foreign country and local airport rules, except when part 121 or CPS policy is more restrictive. True or False
True
137
You have been scheduled for a turnaround time of 100 minutes. If the actual turn time is under 90 minutes, you do not have to go through Canadian customs. true or false
False
138
When operating in Canada, a reflective safety vest is required for all pre- and post-flight walkarounds. True or false
True
139
Per the FOM, if the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000' appropriate emergency procedures will be initiated. True or False
True
140
An emergency exists when, in the opinion of the PIC, the dispatcher, and/or ATC, the safe completion of the flight is in doubt. True or False
True
141
If you lose 2-way comms, you should alert ATC by squawking 7700. True or false
false
142
If a pax was to lose consciousness due to an extreme illness and dies while on board a CPS aircraft, the flight may not depart until released by:
Local law enforcement or the cornoer
143
If you shut down an engine en route, the FOM states that you should divert to the nearest suitable airport in point of time and if there is more than one airport to choose from:
All of the Above
- the airport should have a precision approach to a suitable runway
- the airport should have a non-precision approach to a suitable runway and the Wx should be at least 2000' and 3 sm
- circling approaches in IMC are discouraged and should be flown only as a last resort
144
The first aid kit may be used:
if a person is injured and needs basic first aid attention
145
the PIC must authorize the use of the emergency med kit unless used by
All of the Above
- FA's
- Flight crewmembers
- Qualified medical personnel
146
Which acronym refers to the CPS policy regarding briefing the FA in an abnormal or emergency situation
TEST items
147
After an accident or incident, the PIC must
Both A and C
- ensure the aircraft is secured
- pull the electronic CB's for the FDR and CVR in accordance with teh FOM
148
You have been assigned to ferry an aircraft. What does the special flight permit allow you to do
Both B and C
- Fly to a base where repairs/alterations may be made
- fly an aircraft that is not airworthy
149
Your ferry flight is on an aircraft with flight characteristics that may have been appreciably changed or its operation in flight substantially altered. Who may go with you
The CA, FO, and any persons essential to the operation of the aircraft
150
Short-term escalation allows Mx to exceed certain maintenance check-time criteria. True or False
True
151
Short-term escalation allows Mx to extend DMI deferral periods. True or False
False
152
The PIC should ensure that the logbook contains:
All of the Above
- an airworthiness release sign off on the first page
- at least three unused log pages before departing a maintenance base
- no open write-ups since that last airworthiness release
153
You should perform a VOR check prior to the first flight of the day if it's either the 1st or 15th, or if the aircraft is being returned to service after not being in operation through either date. True or False
True
154
A MEL is restrictive when:
All of the above:
- the deferral may allow continued flight with limitations or restrictions to the use of equipment
- there is any "remark and/or exemption" in the MEL that requires the aircraft to be flow at variance with the dispatch release
- there are (O), (M), or (M/FC) procedures of any kind
155
A MEL is restrictive when:
there are (O), (M), or (M/FC) procedures to be performed
156
A maintenance acceptance flight can be done under IMC. True or False
True
157
You receive a dispatch release with no DMI's. During your preflight you discover a maintenance discrepancy, write it up and call maintenance. You are required to revalidate the dispatch release. True or False
False
158
While taxiing out, the GPWS announces "Terrain, terrain " and the radar altimeter fluctuates 200 feet. What are the required actions
Follow the procedures in the MECHANICAL IRREGULARITY ACTION CHART in Chapter 19 of the QRH
159
A category D MEL can be deferred for how long
120 days
160
An item on the airplane has failed and is deferred IAW the MEL. It has been noted as a category B item. It must be repaired within __ calendar days, not including the day of discovery
3
161
A crew leaving an airplane with an open entry in the discrepancy block of the flight log will leave the logbook open to the page and place it on the PIC's seat. True or False
True
162
Today is May 18. A cat C MEL was deferred on May 16. When is the aircraft no longer legal to operate without having an extension for the DMI
May 27th
163
A condition that results in the intermittent CAS message or Pushbutton light, including flickering caution/warning lights, are to be considered possibly operating outside design parameters and therefore should be considered as a possible mechanical irregularity. True or False
True
164
A FA is allowed to reset a tripped circuit breaker located in the cabin. True or False
False
165
Unless advised that circumstances dictate otherwise, the gate agent will begin pax boarding 35 mins prior to scheduled departure time for the first flight of the day departing a station, and 30 mins prior to scheduled departure for all other flights. True or False
True
166
CPS does not allow the carriage of live animals. True or False
False
167
A difficulty seating a handicapped person has been referred to the CRO. What does CRO stand for
Complaint Resolution Officer
168
Unaccompanied minors are age 2 to 12. True or False
False
169
a child restraint system is allowed abord CPS aircraft provided
All of the above
- It is an approved system which bears the labels outlined in the Ops manual
- A parent, guardian, or a personal attendant provides it
- the parent, guardian, or personal attendant accompanies the child
170
CPS may not carry high-risk pax. True or False
False
171
When does the fasten seatbelt sign have to be on
During taxi, takeoff, landing, and any other time considered necessary by the PIC
172
Concerning a pax with a disability who is not qualified to occupy an exit row seat and refuses to move from the seat:
The PIC is required to contact the company CRO
173
Concerning a disruptive pax who has verbally abused a FA and refused to comply with regs while still at the gate:
The PIC should call airport security and have the pax removed from the aircraft
174
An animal carried in the cargo compartment of a CPS aircraft may only be carried in the aft cargo compartment True or False
False
175
If a pax objects to a service animal, the CSA must advise the pax for the rights of the disabled traveler and, if necessary, find another seat for the objecting pax or remove that pax from the aircraft. True or False
true
176
In accordance with CPS policy, what is the max amount of dry ice that is permitted for an individual to bring into the cabin as a carry-on
5.5 lbs
177
According to CPS policy, which of the following HAZMAT materials are allowed onboard
Wheel Chair batteries, dry ice, and small amounts of small arms ammunition for personal use
178
What oxygen equipment may be carried and used by a passenger onboard a CPS flight
an oxygen concentrator on the approved list in the compass FAM
179
CPS policy states that no person may act as a crew member within how long after the consumption of alcohol
12 hours
180
You may not act as a crewmember within 24 hours of SCUBA diving below a depth of 10' True or False
true
181
what are the flight limitations after a crewmember donated blood
24 hours
182
when flying, unless you are issued with a temporary confirmation document or an FAA temporary authorization fax, you must always carry:
All of the above
- a current and valid pilot certificate
- current and valid medical
- a CPS ID badge
183
According to Part 117, each flight crewmember must have at least 30 consecutive hrs off from all duty in an 168 consecutive hr period. True or False
true
184
In accordance with CPS policy, a pilot must submit a copy of their medical certificate to flight ops
By 5pm of the 25th day of the month in which the medical is due
185
After having a blood test, how long before you can fly again
there is no limitation for a blood test
186
A CPS pilot may not be scheduled to fly more than _____ hours between required rest periods
Either A or B, depending on duty-on time
- 8
- 9
187
you have inadvertently left your pilot and medical certificates at home. They are current and the Company has a copy in the files
You can fly your flight if yo obtain a "temporary confirmation doc" from CPS or a Temporary Authorization fax from the FAA
188
Upon completing a formal portion of training such as IOE., each crewmember will contact Crew Scheduling as soon as possible. True or False
True
189
You must have at least 3 takeoffs/landings within the preceding 90 days to act as a flight crew member. True or False
True
190
Taking off from from Missoula, MT.... Can a low-time SIC perform this takeoff
No, Missoula is a special airport
191
A PIC without 100 hrs. in Part 121 ops is the type of airplane they are operating, may be dispatched and fly Cat 1 approaches under exemption 17203 without adding 100' and 1/2 sm to minimums if
All of the above
- the flight crew and aircraft are current and qualified for cat II ops, and Cat II procedures are used for the approach
- The flight crew uses the approach coupler until DA or initiation of missed approach
- vis less than 4000 RVR (3/4), crosswind exceeding 15 knots, and braking action reported less than good are ALL NOT true at the destination airport
192
A PIC without 100 hrs part 121 ops in the type of airplane they are operating, and is flying an aircraft with a Cat II downgrade:
A & C
- must be dispatched adding 1/2 sm to published vis minimums at destination
- must fly the approach adding 1/2 sm and 100' to the minimums at destination and must not use minimums lower than 300/1 at the alternate
193
A high mins PIC is flying in a Cat II aircraft to a destination with vis at 3600 RVR, the crosswind component is 16 knots, and braking action is reported as FAIR. The PIC:
Both A & B
- must add 100' and 1/2 sm to the minimums at the destination to fly the approach
- In the event of a missed approach and diversion, the PIC is not required to add to the alternate minimums but must never fly minimums lower than 300/1 at the alternate
194
Which of the following is a special airport
Hayden, Colorado
195
At which airport is a low-time SIC prohibited from performing a takeoff
KDCA
196
A low-time SIC can take off and land if
Reported RVR is 4500'
197
What are the requirements for maintaining currency at CPS
3 takeoffs and landings within the previous 90 days
198
How do you know your See Gee calculator is the current version
By referencing the AOM I, chapter 8 Weight and Balance
199
A heavy checked bag weighs twice as much as a normal check bag. True or False
True
200
What must be completed in ACARS in order to be able to SEND* and acquire a weight and balance solution
Initialization, T/O conditions, and all amber fields in the LOADSHEET pages
201
When non-standard weights are entered on ACARS, that section of the cabin on LOADSHEET 1/2 has a green asterisk displayed next to its passenger weights to indicate that additional weight is being tallied for that section. True or False
True
202
The use of the CARGO DETAIL sub-pages for ACARS Weight and Balance:
requires a checked bag entry number both FWD and AFT even if is zero, but heavy and cargo are optional.
203
According to the average weight program, a seeing-eye dog weighs 80 lbs. True or False
true
204
On the fifth of october, seven adults, one 13 year old, and one two year old are on board. How much do they weigh
1602 lbs
205
how much does a thirteen year old child weigh
as much as a regular pax with respect to the season
206
according to the average weight program, how much does a FA weight
170 lbs
207
According to the average weight program, how much would a three year old that is in a CRS weigh
82lbs (summer) or 87 lbs (winter) + 0 lbs for the CRS
208
a carry on bag weighs ___ lbs when stored under the seat
0 lbs
209
Generally speaking, for better performance it is imperative to "clean up" the aircraft when encountering windshear. True or False
False
210
In executing a missed approach prior to reaching the MAP or DA, fly the instrument procedure to the MAP at an altitude at or above the MDA or DA before executing a turning maneuver. True or False
True
211
Approaching Philly, approach states: cleared ILS 17, circle to land 27R. Assuming your approach speed is 134 knots, what is the furthest you should deviate from the runway ends to ensure obstruction clearance
1.7 miles
212
You are number one for takeoff and after several attempts to contact tower for the departure clearance you realize that you have complete radio failure. You look at the tower and observe a flashing white light. What does the tower want you to do
Return to the original starting point at the gate
213
What are the speed ranges for cat A,B,C,D and E aircraft, respectively
<90 knots, 91-120, 121-140, 141-165, greater that or equal to 166 knots
214
While returning to IAD, center tells you, descend and maintain 8000, proceed direct to PEFER and hold as published. What is the max holding speed
230 knots
215
The max allowable indicated airspeed while operating below class B airspace is
200 knots
216
Basic VFR requirements at night in class E airspace while cruising at 8000' are
3 miles
217
at KMSP ground clears you to taxi runway 12R. This clearance permits you to cross any active runway except for 12R. True or False
false.
218
If you have been provided with two sources of Wx for you destination and you are trying to determine if you are legal to depart, which statement is true
The least restrictive Wx source may be used to determine legality at ETA
