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Pathology > Goljan > Flashcards

Goljan Flashcards

1
Q

What do we find in lab. for pre/eclampsia? BUN Uric Acid Serum Creatinine GFR transaminases

A

BUN increased uric acid increased creatinine increased GFR decreased transaminases increased Schistocytes/anemia/thrombocytopenia

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2
Q

Should GFR be increased or decreased in normal pregnancy?

A

Increased

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3
Q

Should BUN be increase or decreased in normal pregnancy?

A

decreased in normal pregnancy

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4
Q

What is the clinical picture of eclampsia?

A

same as pre-eclampsia but w/ seizures or convulsions

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5
Q

What is the clinical presentation of pre-eclampsia?

A

hypertension proteinuria pitting edema

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6
Q

Tx for Eclampsia?

A

Magnesium Sulfate

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7
Q

What two substances are vasodilators in pre-eclampsia?

A

PGE1 N.O.

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8
Q

What are two substances in pre-eclampsia that are vasoconstrictors?

A

Angiotensin II TXA2

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9
Q

What substances are decrease in pre-eclampsia?

A

PGE1 and NO

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10
Q

What two substances are increased in pre-eclampsia?

A

Angiotensin II TXA2

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11
Q

What is the Diagnosis if pregnant woman presents w/ pre-eclampsia in first trimester?

A

hydatidiform mole

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12
Q

When does pre-eclampsia and eclampsia occur? trimester…

A

3rd trimester

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13
Q

What organism causes chorioamnionitis?

A

Step. agalactiae

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14
Q

What part of the eye is affected w/ Kayser-Fleischer rings?

A

outer part of decemet cornea

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15
Q

What are the symptoms of degeneration of the lenticular nuclei?

A
  • chorea - rigidity - basal ganglia dementia
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16
Q

What nuclei is attacked in Wilson’s Dz?

A

lenticular nuclei degeneration

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17
Q

What is the Tx of Wilson’s Dz?

A

penicillamine

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18
Q

What are some of the clinical manifestations of Wilson’s Dz?

A

Kayser-Fleishcher rings in eye

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19
Q

What is ceruloplasmin?

A

protein that binds to Copper low ceruloplasmin so can’t bind Copper - so increase of Cu in blood

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20
Q

What is Wilson’s Dz?

A

defect in Copper (Cu+) secretion into bile - bile is Copper deficient or - defect in synthesis of ceruloplasmin

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21
Q

What is the Tx of hemochromatosis?

A

phlebotomy

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22
Q

What are the manifestations of hemochromatosis?

A
  • bronze skin
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23
Q

What is the best screening test?

A

increase serum ferritin

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24
Q

What are the laboratory findings of hemochromatosis?

A
  • increase serum iron - decrease TIBC - increase % saturation - increase serum ferritin
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25
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of hemochromatosis?

A

autosomal recessive

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26
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

A

unrestricted reabsorption of IRON (small bowel)

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27
Q

Other cause of FHF?

A

Reye’s Sx

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28
Q

What is the MCC of FHF? (organism)

A

virus

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29
Q

What is the MCC of FHF? (drug)

A

acetaminophen

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30
Q

What is fulminant hepatic failure (FHF)?

A

acute liver failure w/ encephalopathy within 8 weeks of hepatic dysfunction

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31
Q

Can O.C. cause hepatocellular CA?

A

Yes

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32
Q

What drugs (3) causes hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

1) Vinyl Chloride 2) Aflatoxin (Aspergillus mold) 3) Thorotrast

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33
Q

What drug causes Liver Cell Adenoma?

A

Oral Contraceptives

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34
Q

What drug causes angiosarcoma of the liver?

A

Vinyl Chloride

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35
Q

What drug causes fibrosis in the liver?

A

methotrexate

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36
Q

What drugs cause steatosis? fatty liver… 2

A

1) Amiodarone 2) Methotrexate

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37
Q

Name two drugs that cause cholestasis?

A

1) oral contraceptives 2) anabolic steroids

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38
Q

Name drug that causes acute hepatitis? (4)

A

1) Isoniazid 2) Halothane 3) acetaminophen 4) methyldopa

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39
Q

What cancer is related to 1ry sclerosing pericholangitis?

A

MCC of cholangiocarcinoma

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40
Q

What is the clinical picture of 1ry sclerosing pericholangitis?

A

jaundice

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41
Q

What disease causes primary slcerosing pericholangitis?

A

ulcerative colitis - complication of

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42
Q

How do you acquire primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

autoimmune, granulomatous destruction of bile ducts in triads

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43
Q

What immunoglobulins and markers detect primary biliary cirrhosis?

A
  • increase anti-mitochrondrial Ab - increase IgM
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44
Q

What are the symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis?

A
  • pruritus - increase AP and GGT - no jaundice until later
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45
Q

What are the symptoms in obstructive jaundice?

A
  • hypercholesterolemia - light colored stools - urine w/ conjugated bilirubin - increase alkaline phosphatase (AP) and gamma-glutamyltransferas (GGT)
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46
Q

MCC of obstructive jaundice?

A

stone in common bile duct

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47
Q

What is very characteristic microscopically?

A

fibrosis aroudn terminal hepatic venules

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48
Q

What is seen in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

mallory bodies you will have a bad body!! Mal (lory) Body!

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49
Q

What is the ratio of ALT and AST in alcoholics?

A

You are an ASS because you drink AST > ALT

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50
Q

Why are alcoholics prone to gout?

A

Ketoacids and Lactic Acid compete w/ uric acid for excretion in the kidneys so Uric Acid Accumulates!

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51
Q

Why is ketoacidosis sometimes present in alcoholics?

A

NADH once again favors conversion of: Acetoacetate to B-Hydroxybutyrate (ketoacids)

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52
Q

What is the sequence to make TG (VLDL) from 1,3 DPG?

A

1,3 DPG to Glyceraldehyde-3-P to DHAP to Glycerol-3-P + FA makes TG

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53
Q

Why is there esteatosis?

A

alcohol is converted to acetaldehyde and acetate and acetyl coA which makes free fatty acids - increase in NADH2 favors glycerol-3-p

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54
Q

Why does hypoglycemia occur in alcoholics?

A

again increase in NADH makes conversion of pyruvate to lactate decrease in pyruvate can’t go back to gluconeogenesis

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55
Q

Why is there a build up of lactate in alcoholics?

A

high levels of NADH make pyruvate go into lactate (increases anion gap)

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56
Q

Where is alcohol dehydrogenase found?

A

in cytosol and mitochondria

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57
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?

A

an alcohol dehydrogenase

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58
Q

What drug is used in Tx of alcoholism?

A

Antabuse or Disulfiram

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59
Q

What is disulfiram rx?

A

nausea/vomiting, flushing after ingestion of alcohol

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60
Q

What causes disulfiram reaction?

A

acetaldehyde build up

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61
Q

Where is the most important site of metabolism of OH in liver?

A

cytosol

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62
Q

What are the factors of Alcholo liver disease?

A

1) amount of OH 2) duration of intake 3) more damage in females

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63
Q

Are fatty change and alcoholic hepatitis reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible

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64
Q

What alcoholic disease is irreversible?

A

cirrhosis

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65
Q

When do we find Councilman Bodies?

A

Hepatitis

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66
Q

What are dead hepatocytes called?

A

Councilman Bodies

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67
Q

Symmptoms of post-hepatic obstruction?

A

1) painful liver 2) congested liver 3) ascites 4) portal hypertension

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68
Q

What is the MCC of post-hepatic obstruction?

A

Polycythemia vera!

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69
Q

What is Budd-Chiari Sx?

A

hepatic vein thrombosis

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70
Q

What is a cause of post-hepatic obstruction?

A

1) Budd-Chiari syndrome 2) Polycythemia vera 3) Oral Contraceptives

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71
Q

Do you find hepatomegaly in pre or post-hepatic obstruction?

A

Post-hepatic!!!

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72
Q

What are two clinical manifestations of PRE-hepatic obstruction?

A

1) portal vein thrombosis 2) ascites/varices

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73
Q

What is the MCC of congestive hepatomegaly?

A

Right Heart Failure (H.F.)

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74
Q

Tx for Schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

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75
Q

What is the definitive host of Schistosoma mansoni?

A

Snails imagine photographer taking pics of snails (he is a mason!)

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76
Q

What causes portal hypertension, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites and esophageal varices?

A

Schistosomiasis

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77
Q

What is the main characteristic in the laboratory of Clonorchiasis?

A

Eosinophilia

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78
Q

What is the Tx of Clonorchiasis?

A

Praziquantel

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79
Q

How do you get Clonorchiasis?

A

Ingestion of infected fish w/ larvae

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80
Q

What is another name for Clonorchis sinensis?

A

Chinese Liver Fluke

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81
Q

What organism causes cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Clonorchis sinensis

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82
Q

Tx for Echinococcosis?

A

Albendazole

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83
Q

Humans are what type of host for Echinococcosis?

A

intermediate host

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84
Q

Who is the definitive host of Echinococcosis?

A

Sheep Dog

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85
Q

Tx for Hepatic Amebiasis?

A

Metronidazole

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86
Q

What causes a single abscess in the right lobe of the liver?

A

E. histolytica

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87
Q

What organism causes spontaneous peritonitis in children?

A

Step. pneumoniae

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88
Q

What organism causes spontaneous peritonitis in adults?

A

E. coli

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89
Q

What two viruses are associated w/ hepatocellular CA?

A

B and C hepatitis

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90
Q

What is a healthy carrier?

A

carries HBsAg but is negative for HBeAg/HBV-DNA

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91
Q

What marker for HBV determines a chronic carrier?

A

HBsAg for more than 6 months

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92
Q

What is considered when anti-HBcIgM is converted to HBcIgG?

A

patient has old infection

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93
Q

Markers for HBV infection is active?

A

HBe and HBV-DNA antigens are excellent markers of infectivity

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94
Q

What is the marker that the patient will recover from HBV?

A

HBV-DNA poymerase leaves before HBsAg

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95
Q

What is the first serology to appear in HBV?

A

HBsAg

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96
Q

What marker do you get after HBV vaccine?

A

anti-HBs

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97
Q

What segment does Cronh’s attack?

A

Cronh=Complete all layers and also all the GI tract mouth to anus

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98
Q

What segment does UC attack?

A

rectum; does not involve other areas of GI tract

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99
Q

What is involved in Cronh’s Dz in 80%?

A

Terminal Ileum Affected

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100
Q

What does UC primarily target?

A

rectum

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101
Q

What layers does Cronh’s Dz comprise?

A

all layers it is transmural

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102
Q

What layers does UC comprise?

A

musocal and submucosal

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103
Q

Ulcerative Colitis vs. Cronh’s Dz

A

UC vs. Crohn’s

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104
Q

What is the MC fistula?

A

Colovesical Fistula

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105
Q

What is the MCC of fistulas in the GI tract?

A

diverticula

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106
Q

What is associated with embolism of transmural small bowel?

A

hear disease and atrial fibrillation

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107
Q

MC place of pathology in entire GI tract?

A

Sigmoid colon includes: - cancer - polyps (except Peutz-Jegher’s) - diverticular disease

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108
Q

What disease has the term left sided apendicitis?

A

sigmoid diverticula

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109
Q

What is the MCC of iron deficiency in newborn?

A

Mecke’s Diverticulum bleeding GI

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110
Q

What is asscoaited w/ angiodysplasia?

A

von Willebrand’s Dz Aortic Stenosis

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111
Q

What is the 2nd MCC of hematochezia?

A

angiodysplasia

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112
Q

What is the MCC of hematochezia?

A

Diverticulosis

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113
Q

What parasite in the soil penetrates the skin?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis he is strong!!!

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114
Q

What is the Tx for D. latum?

A

Praziquantel got the prize for the fish!

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115
Q

What problems does D. latum give humans?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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116
Q

What is the reservoir for Dyphyllobotrium latum?

A

Fish — lake trout

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117
Q

What parasite causes bowel obstruction?

A

Ascaris Lumbricoides

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118
Q

What is seen in the stool of Strongyloidse stercoralis?

A

rhabditiform larvae

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119
Q

What is the Tx fro D. latum?

A

praziquantel

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120
Q

What does D. latum cause?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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121
Q

What is the reservoir of diphyllobothrium latum?

A

fish— lake trout

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122
Q

What is the Tx of Trichuris trichura?

A

Albendazol

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123
Q

What organism causes rectal prolapse in children?

A

Trichuris trichura

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124
Q

What is the life cycle of G. lamblia?

A

cysts attach to small intestine mucosa

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125
Q

What is the MCC of diarrhea from protozoa in the U.S.?

A

Giardia lamblia

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126
Q

What test is used to detect C. parvum?

A

String Test

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127
Q

What is the MCC of diarrhea in AIDS?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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128
Q

What are trophozoites phagocytosed RBCs?

A

Entameba histolytica (Ameba)

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129
Q

What is the MC contaminant of blood transfusions?

A

Yersenia enterocolitica

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130
Q

What organism is associated w/ HLA-B27 spondyloarthropathy and uremic Sx?

A

Shigella

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131
Q

What is the MCC of diarrhea, cholecystitis and pancreatitis in AIDS?

A

Cytomelagolvirus (CMV)

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132
Q

What are some common diseases that cause osmotic diarrhea?

A

lactase deficiency laxatives

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133
Q

Is there mucosal inflammation in secretory diarrhea?

A

No mucosal inflammation

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134
Q

What are some disease that cause secretory diarrhea?

A

Vibrio cholerae (via adenylate cyclase) E. coli (via guanylate cyclase) Rotavirus Carcinoid Sx

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135
Q

What is osmotic diarrhea?

A

high volume w/ osmolality lower than that of plasma

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136
Q

What is secretory diarrhea?

A

high volume w/ osmolality similar to plasma

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137
Q

What diarrhea is high volume?

A

secretory and osmotic

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138
Q

What diarrhea’s are low volume?

A

Invasive diarrhea

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139
Q

What is the #1 organism in invasive enterocolitis?

A

Campylobacter

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140
Q

What is the best test for invasive diarrhea?

A

fecal leukocytes (+)

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141
Q

What are the three classifications of diarrhea?

A

1) invasive 2) secretory 3) osmotic

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142
Q

What is the best (cheapest) screening test to determine malabsorption problem?

A

stool for fat

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143
Q

What is the pathology of Whipple’s Dz?

A

blunting of villi in jejunum and ileum

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144
Q

What is the pathology of Celiac Dz?

A

Atrophy of villi in Duodenum and Jejunum

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145
Q

What is another Dz that involves malabsorption?

A

Whipple Dz

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146
Q

What is the best test to detect Celiac Dz?

A

anti-gliadin Ab

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147
Q

What is associated with dermatitis herpetiform?

A

Celiac Dz

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148
Q

What is the main symptom of leiomyoma?

A

bleeding

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149
Q

What is the MC location for Leiomyoma?

A

stomach

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150
Q

What is the MC benign tumor of GI tract?

A

Leiomyoma

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151
Q

What is the 2nd MC extranodal site of extranodal lymphoma?

A

peyer’s patches

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152
Q

What is the MC extranodal site of extranodal lymphoma?

A

stomach

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153
Q

What is a kind of diffuse type linitis plastica? attacks the ovaries as well?

A

Krukengerg Tumor

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154
Q

Where else can you find signet ring cells?

A

both ovaries since linitis plastica metastasizes via hematogenous route

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155
Q

What type of cells do you see in linitis plastica?

A

Signet Ring Cells

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156
Q

What is a picture of a stomach that is really hard petrified almost?

A

Linitis plastica Stomach Cancer diffuse type

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157
Q

Why is there black melena?

A

Acid acts on HB and converts it into Hematin Hematin is black pigment that stains fecal matter

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158
Q

What does ZE secrete?

A

gastrin increases acid in stomach

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159
Q

What is Zollinger Ellison’s (ZE) Sx?

A

malignant islet cell tumor

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160
Q

Patient that wakes up at night w/ epigastric pain?

A

Most likely duodenal ulcer

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161
Q

Why is the pain referred to the shoulder in perforated duodenal ulcer?

A

because the diaphragm is irritated and has the same dermatome and embryology at C4 (phrenic nerve)

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162
Q

What is the first step in managemente of duodenal ulcer that has perforated?

A

Flat X-ray

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163
Q

What is the presentation of duodenal ulcer w/ perforation?

A

patient w/ epigastric pain that irradiates to the left shoulder

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164
Q

What is the MC complication of duodenal ulcer?

A

Bleed and perforation

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165
Q

What other pathologies are associated w/ dudoneal ulcer?

A

MEN I Zollinger-Ellison Sx

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166
Q

What blood group is associated w/ duodenal ulcer?

A

Blood group O

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167
Q

What is the malignant potential for a duodenal ulcer?

A

0% malignancy so never biopsied!

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168
Q

When is pain in gastric ulcer?

A

Greater fater eating

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169
Q

When is the pain in duodenal ulcer?

A

Decreases w/ meal/eating

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170
Q

What must be done w/ gastric ulcer?

A

Biopsy to rule out gastric CA!

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171
Q

Does gastric ulcer predispose to CA?

A

NO! Gastic CA may bleed and may be confused w/ gastric ulcer!

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172
Q

Where is the ulcer and cancer located in gastric ulcer?

A

lesser curvature of antum

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173
Q

What type of gastritis does H. pylori cause?

A

Type B Atrophic Gastritis

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174
Q

What does H. pylori predispose to/cause? 2 things

A

AdenoCA of stomach Malignant Lymphoma

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175
Q

What part of the stomach does H. pylori infect?

A

pyloric antrum

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176
Q

What type of gastritis is pernicious anemia?

A

Type A atrophic gastitis

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177
Q

What part of the stomach is affected by pernicious anemia?

A

Body and Fundus

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178
Q

What is an analog of PGE2?

A

Misoprostol cytoprotective

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179
Q

What are the three functions of PGE2?

A

1) increase blood flow to mucosa 2) increase secretion of mucous 3) increase HCO3- cytoprotective

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180
Q

Main difference between congenital pyloric stenosis and duodenal atresia?

A

Bile containing fluid in Duodenal Atresia Also duodenal atresia associated w/ Down Sx polyhydramnios seen in mother in Duodenal Atresia

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181
Q

MCC of hematemesis?

A

duodenal ulcer 2) gastric ulcer 3) esophageal varices

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182
Q

What is the MC esophageal CA in developing countries and where is it located in the esophagus?

A

Squamous CA Mid-esophagus

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183
Q

What is the MCC of primary cancer in the esophagus in the U.S.? What part of the esophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma of distal esophagus

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184
Q

What is the MCC of Boerhaave’s Sx?

A

Endoscopy procedure!!!

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185
Q

What is the name of the RUPTURE of the DISTAL esophagus?

A

Boerhaave’s Sx

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186
Q

When does Mallory Weiss Sx occur?

A

Alcoholics bulimia

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187
Q

What is the name of the TEAR of the DISTAL esophagus?

A

Mallory Weiss Sx

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188
Q

What are other causes of esophagitis?

A

Herpes (multinucleated cells w/ intranuclear inclusions) CMV (single nucleurs w/ largo basophilic inclusion)

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189
Q

What is the MC organism causes esophagitis?

A

Candida

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190
Q

What vein is most likely to have varices in esophagus?

A

left gastric coronary vein (from portal) azygous vein

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191
Q

What is the problem in GERD?

A

relaxed LES acid injury leads to Barrett’s esophagus and then distal AdenoCA

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192
Q

What laboratory test do you use to diagnostie CREST Sx?

A

ANA (70-90%) anti-SCL-70 (70%) topoisomerase I anti-centromere antibodies (30%)

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193
Q

What does CREST stand for?

A

Calcinosis Raynaud’s Phenomenum Esophageal Motility Dysfunction Sclerodactyly Telangiectasias

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194
Q

HOw are achalasia and progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS)/ CREST Sx similar?

A

both have relaxation of LES absence of esophageal motility manometry best diagnostic measure

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195
Q

What sign do we see in the X-ray of achalasia?

A

bird’s beak in barium study dilation of proximal esophagus

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196
Q

What is the function of VIP?

A

relax the LES

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197
Q

What is substance is missing in the myenteric ganglion of achalasia?

A

VIP (vasointestinal peptide)

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198
Q

What is absent in achalasia?

A

absent relaxation absent myenteric ganglion cells

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199
Q

What is the pathogenesis of achalasia?

A

failure of relaxation of LES sphincter

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200
Q

What are the S/S of Zenker’s Diverticulum?

A

bad breath food collects in pouches

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201
Q

What is weak in Zenker’s Diverticulum?

A

cricopharyngeus muscle weakness

202
Q

What is weakness in the esophageal wall called?

A

Zenker’s Diverticulum

203
Q

What are the causes of polyhydramnios?

A
  • TE fistula - Anacephaly - duodenal atresia (Down/ALL)
204
Q

What is the VATER Sx?

A

Vertebral Abnormalities Anus Imperforated TE fistula Renal Disease/Radius abnormality

205
Q

What is connected in TE fistula?

A

Trachea and Stomach!!! Distal Esophagus arises from Trachea

206
Q

What are signs/symptoms (S/S) of Trachesophageal Fistula (TE) in babies?

A

apsiration of milk into trachea - abdominal distention

207
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of fistula in pregnancy?

A

Polyhydramnios (excess fluid) fetus is not reabsorbing it through mouth

208
Q

What is wrong in tracheosophageal fistula? (what ends blindly?)

A

Proximal esophagus ends blindly

209
Q

MC congenital esophageal disorder?

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

210
Q

What is the MCC of odynophagia in HIV?

A

esophagitis caused by Candida albicans Aids Defining

211
Q

What does it mean when you have dysphagia for both solids and liquids?

A

peristalisis problem

212
Q

What does it mean when you have dysphagia for solids but not liquids?

A

Mechanical Obstruction

213
Q

What is associated with iron deficiency and dysphagia for solids?

A

Plummer-Vinson

214
Q

What three diseases have disphagia for liquids?

A

really bad… 1) plummer vinson 2) esophageal CA 3) Barrett’s Esophagus (ulceration and stricture)

215
Q

Why is myasthemia gravis on the upper esophagus?

A

Upper 1/3 of esophagus is striated muscle

216
Q

What Dz is involved in dyspaghia for solids but in the Upper esophagus?

A

polymyositis myasthemia gravis

217
Q

What disease is common to dysphagia fro solids? (lower esophagus)

A

Achalasia MC progressive systemic sclerosis/CREST Sx

218
Q

When is surfactant at it’s peak?

A

35 weeks

219
Q

When does synthesis of surfactant begin?

A

28th week

220
Q

Where is surfactant stored?

A

lamellar bodies

221
Q

Where is surfactant made?

A

Type II neumocytes

222
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Respiratory Distress Syndrome in Newborns?

A

Atelectasis due to loss of surfactant

223
Q

When do you see atelectasis?

A

usually 24-36 hrs post surgery

224
Q

What is found in the physical exploration of Atelectasis?

A
  • dullness to percussion - absent tactile fremitus
225
Q

What is synergistic with smoking in Laryngeal CA?

A

Alcohol ingestion smoking + alcohol = bad combo

226
Q

Risk factor for Laryngeal CA?

A

smoking

227
Q

What happens when no primary cancer is found in cervical lymph node metastasis?

A

nasopharynx should be biopsied

228
Q

What three compounds increase surfactant?

A

1) thyroxin 2) prolacitn 3) glucocorticoid

229
Q

What is the cause of Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma?

A

EBV common in Chinese

230
Q

What does Mucor sp. invade?

A

frontal lobes

231
Q

Why does Mucor species prevail in sinusitis of Diabetic patients?

A

Ketoacidosis cuases proliferation

232
Q

What is a common finding of sinusitis in diabetics?

A

Mucor sinusitis

233
Q

What sinus is involved in adults w/ sinusitis? children?

A

mAxilary ADULTS ethmoid children ethmall

234
Q

What is the complication of Sleep Apnea?

A

Pulmonary Hypertension - vasoconstrictive effects of chronic hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis called COR-PULOMONALE

235
Q

Newborn that turns cyanotic when breast feeding; cries and turns back to pink. Diagnosis?

A

Choanal Atresia

236
Q

Causes of Hypoxemia w/ normal A-a gradient?

A
  • barbiturates OD - epiglottitis (Upper Airway Obstr.) - Amyotrophics Lat. Sclerosis (ALS)
237
Q

Patient w/ fibromyalgia and develops asthma, what is the cause of this?

A

Aspirin induced asthma block PG but still produce Leukotriene build up LT C-D-E4 buildup (potent bronchoconstrictors)

238
Q

What is the diagnosis of a child w/ Nasal Polyps? Test for?

A

Sweat Test Cystic Fibrosis (CF) until proven otherwise

239
Q

Where do infactions of the lung occur?

A

Lower lobes i.e. more perfusion

240
Q

What is more prominent at the base of the lungs? Vent. or Perf.

A

Perfusion

241
Q

Where is ventilation most prominent in the lungs?

A

Apex

242
Q

When is A-a gradient indicative of pulmonary pathology?

A

when A-a grad = >30

243
Q

How do you calculate the A-a gradient?

A

Alveolar PO2= 21%O2(Atm. P-47) - pCO2/0.8 A= (.21)(713)- 40/0.8) Usually A=100 A-a a=95 Normal A-a grad= 5-30

244
Q

When does the murmur approach to S1?

A

decrease in preload less blood

245
Q

What is the characteristic murmur of mitral valve prolapse?

A

mid-systolic click

246
Q

What is the pathogenesis of mitral valve prolapse?

A

increase/accumulation of dermatan sulfate

247
Q

What is associated w/ Alzheimer’s Dz?

A

Depression

248
Q

What disease is associated with cardiac rhabdomyoma?

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

249
Q

What is a benign tumor of the heart that arises from cardiac muscle? MC in age?

A

Cardiac Rhabdomyoma infants and children

250
Q

MC benign tumor of cardiac origin? Location?

A

Cardiac Myxoma Left atirum

251
Q

What is the MC site of metastasis to cardiac tissue?

A

pericardium

252
Q

What kind of genetics does hypertrophic cardiomyopathy have?

A

autosomal dominant

253
Q

What is the problem in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

mutation in heavy chain of beta-myosin and troponins

254
Q

What is the MCC of constrictive pericarditis?

A

TB worldwide

255
Q

What is Kussmaul’s sign?

A

neck vein distension on inspiration blood refluxes to jugular vein instead of entering RA

256
Q

What other sign is seen in pericarditis?

A

Kussmaul’s Sign

257
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

decrease in >10mmHG in systole during inspiration

258
Q

What disease involves hypotension assciated w/ pulsus paradoxus?

A

pericarditis

259
Q

What is the MCC of pericarditis?

A

Coxsackievirus again!

260
Q

What is the difference between myocarditis and pericarditis?

A

pericarditis adds AMI and Dressler’s syndrome

261
Q

What other pathogens cause myocarditis?

A

Borrelia (Lyme Dz) T. cruzi (Chagas) Tichinella spiralis (trichinosis)

262
Q

What is the MCC of viral myocarditis?

A

Coxsackievirus

263
Q

What two diseases are involved w/ mucin-producing sterile vegetations?

A

tumors of colon and pancreas Marantic vegetations

264
Q

What DZ has sterile vegetations covered on valvular surfaces?

A

SLE -libman sacks endocarditis

265
Q

What is associated w/ Libman Sacks endocarditis?

A

SLE

266
Q

What are the clinical findings in infective endocarditis?

A

1) type III; HS - Roth Spots retina - splinter hemorrhage - glomerulonephritis w/ RBC casts

267
Q

What is the MCC valve involved in infective endocartitis?

A

mitral valve

268
Q

What is the MCC of infective endocartitis in prosthetic devices?

A

Staph. epidirmidis

269
Q

What is the MCC of infective endocartitis in colon cancer and ulcerative colitis?

A

Strep. bovis

270
Q

What is the MCC of infective endocartitis in I.V. drug user?

A

Staph. aureus

271
Q

What is the MCC of infective endocartitis?

A

Strep. viridians

272
Q

What is the MCC of sudden death in young people?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

273
Q

What causes congestive cardiomyopathy? MC Drug? MC vitamin. def?

A
  • idiopathic (MC) - doxorubicin/cocaine - thiamine deficiency (Alcoholics) - hypothyroidism
274
Q

What is the MC cardiomyopathy?

A

congestive (dilated) cardiomyopathy

275
Q

What murmur is heard in AV/PV regurgitation?

A

high pitched diastolic murmur directly after S2

276
Q

What murmur is heard in MV/TV regurgitation?

A

Pansystolic murmur

277
Q

When do Mitral Valve and tricuspid valve occur?

A

Opening Snap in mid-diastole

278
Q

What mumurs are heard in systole with crescendo-decrescendo fashion??

A

Stenosis AV/PV (atrial valve/pulmonary valve)

279
Q

What causes flushing and diarrhea in carcinoid Sx?

A

serotonin

280
Q

Which on is protein rich? Transudate or Exude?

A

Exude extra proteins inside the fluid

281
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

EBV

282
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Primary CNS lymphoma?

A

EBV in AIDS pat.

283
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for osteogenic sarcoma?

A

retinoblastoma radiation

284
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for medullary CA thyroid?

A

MEN IIa/IIb

285
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for papillary CA of thyroid?

A

Ionization Radiation

286
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Malignant lymphoma thyroid?

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

287
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for choriocarcinoma?

A

Complete Hydatidiform Mole

288
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for surface derived ovarian CA?

A

nulliparity because of increase of ovulatory cycles

289
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for vagina/cervix clear cell?

A

diethylestilbestrol

290
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for dysgerminoma/gonadoblastoma?

A

Turner Sx XO dysgerminoma XO/XY gonadoblastoma

291
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for breast CA?

A

age >50 excess estrogen: 1) nulliparity 2) early menarche 3) late menopause 4) obesity

292
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for seminoma?

A

cryptorchid testis semi-descended testis semi noma

293
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for hepatocellular CA?

A

HBV or HCV cirrhosis

294
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for pancreas?

A

polycyclic HOC

295
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Colon adenoCA?

A

preexisting polyps tubular and villous adenoma

296
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Stomach AdenoCA?

A

Helicobacter pylori

297
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for distal esophagus?

A

barret’s disease

298
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for larynx CA?

A

polycyclic HOC (hydrocarbons)

299
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Nasopharyngela CA?

A

EBV

300
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Kaposi’s Sacroma?

A

HHV-8

301
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for BCC, SCC, melanoma?

A

UVB light

302
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with malignant lymphoma?

A

Alkylating agents

303
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with SCC of scrotum?

A

tar, soot, oil (chimney sweeper)

304
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with SCC of penis?

A

Smegma in uncircumcised male

305
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with acute leukemia?

A

benzene

306
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with TCC of bladder? (2)

A

cyclophosphamide b-naphthylamine (dye and rubber indus.)

307
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with SCC of skin, lung CA, liver angiosacroma?

A

Arsenic

308
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with breast cancer and cervical cancer?

A

Oral Contraceptives

309
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with pleural mesothelioma?

A

Asbestos

310
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with Lung CA? (4)

A

uranium asbestos chromium nickel

311
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with colorectal cancer?

A

Lithocholic acid secondary bile acid

312
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with stomach AdenoCA?

A

nitrosamines and nitrosamides

313
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma, SCC of oropharynx and upper/mid esophagus?

A

Alcohol

314
Q

Where is the murmur best heard for PDA?

A

between the shoulder blades

315
Q

What is the Tx for closure of PDA in newborn?

A

indomethacin

316
Q

What keeps PDA open in fetus?

A

PGE2

317
Q

What murmur is heard in PDA?

A

machine like murmur during systole and diastole

318
Q

What viral infection is involved w/ PDA?

A

rubella

319
Q

What are the three A’s in ASD?

A

Adults Alchohol Fetal Sx ALL from Down Syndrome

320
Q

What is the MC congenital heart disease in adults?

A

a is for ASD

321
Q

What is the MC congenital heart disease in children?

A

VSD very small dudes :)

322
Q

What pathology is associated with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Turner Sx

323
Q

What two diseases have Mitral Valve Prolapse?

A

Marfan’s Sx Ehlers Danlos

324
Q

What valve is involved in a mid-systolic click?

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse it clicks half way since the chordae restrain it

325
Q

What valve is affected with a pansystolic (holosytolic) murmur?

A

Mitral Regurgitation

326
Q

What are five signs of Rheumatic fever?

A

1) Carditis 2) Migratory polyarthritis 3) Subcutaneous Nodules 4) Erythema Marginatum 5) Sydenham’s Chorea

327
Q

How long after a group A step. pharyngitis does Rheumatic Fever occur?

A

1-5 weeks after episode

328
Q

WHat are Aschoff Bodies?

A

central fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by reactive histiocytes

329
Q

What are two common findings in myocarditis?

A

aschoff bodies Anitschkow Cells the two Russians

330
Q

What do the antibodies react to in Group A Steptococcus?

A

Ab react to M proteins

331
Q

What organism is involved in Rheumatic Fever?

A

group A Strepto Step. pyogenes

332
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity is Rheumatic Fever?

A

Type II

333
Q

What MCC of death in rheumatic fever?

A

Myocarditis

334
Q

What deffect has opening snap during diastole?

A

Mitral Stenosis Snap Stenosis

335
Q

What RNA virus causes hepatocellular CA?

A

HCV not HBV!!! HBV is DNA virus

336
Q

What virus is associated w/ hepatocelluar CA?

A

HBV

337
Q

What CA does EBV is associated with?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma CNS lymphoma in AIDS Mixed Cellularity Hodgkin’s Nasopharyngeal CA

338
Q

What two genes are knocked out by HPV 16, 18?

A

E6 and E7 produced by HPV E6 inhibits TP53 E7 inhibits RB suppressor gene

339
Q

What DNA virus is associated w/ TP53 suppersor gene?

A

HBV and HPV 16,18 E6 inhibits it

340
Q

WHat RNA virus is associated with TP53 suppressor?

A

HTLV-1 T cell leukemia and lymphoma virus!

341
Q

What region of the face does BCC and SCC occur?

A

BCC top of the face upper lips SCC below lower lips

342
Q

What CA presenst w/ Calcitonin increase? Symp.?

A

Medullary CA of Thyroid hypocalcemia

343
Q

What CA presents w/ inc. in B-hCG? Symp?

A

Choriocarcinoma (Testis) gynecomastia

344
Q

What CA manifests increase in erythropoietin? Clinical?

A

Renal AdenoCA primary SCC of lung Breast CA hypercalcemia

345
Q

What CA manifests w/ ACTH increase? Clinical Symptoms?

A

SCC of lung Medullary CA of Thyroid Clin: Cushing Sx

346
Q

WHat CA manifests w/ ADH increase? What do you find clinically?

A

SCC of lung Hyponatremia

347
Q

What CA manifests Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis? (Sterile Vegetations on Mitral Valve)

A

Mucous-secreting pancreatic and colorectal CA

348
Q

What CA is associated w/ superficial migratory thrombophlebitis?

A

pancreatic carcinoma Troussau sign (he had it himself, self-diagnosed)

349
Q

What CA is associated w/ hypertrophic osteoarthropathy?

A

Lung CA

350
Q

What CA is associated w/ sudden appearance of seborrheic keratosis?

A

“Sudden” Stomach Adenocarcinoma

351
Q

WHat CA is associated w/ myasthenia gravis?

A

Eaton-Lambert Sx SCC of lung

352
Q

What CA is associated w/ hypercalcemia?

A

primary SCC of lung Renal Adeconcarcinoma PTH-like peptide

353
Q

What virus is associated w/ TP53?

A

HBV and HTLV-1(T cell leukemia and lymphoma) HPV 16,18 HPV16 inhibits TP53 RB inhibited by HPV 18

354
Q

What is another disease that involves TP53?

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia syceptibility to malignant lymphoma

355
Q

What disease is associated with BCL-2?

A

b-cell lymphoma B C L -2 Follicular Lymphoma t14;18

356
Q

What is the function of BCL-2 genes?

A

prevents the leakage of cytochrome c (signal for apoptosis)

357
Q

What are the genes fo anti-apoptosis?

A

BCL-2 genes

358
Q

What is the function of RB gene?

A

G1 to S phase inhibitor

359
Q

What is the APC gene function?

A

Prevents nuclear transcription - degrades catenin; an activator of nuclear transcription

360
Q

What is the function of BRCA 1/2 gene?

A

Regulates DNA repair

361
Q

What is the function of TP53?

A

G1 to S phase inhibitor

362
Q

What suppressor gene is asscoiated w/ retinoblastoma, osteogenic sarcoma and breast CA?

A

RB

363
Q

What SG is associated w/ familial polyposis: color cancer?

A

APC

364
Q

What SG is assciated w/ breast, ovary and prostate CA?

A

BRCA 1 BRCA 2

365
Q

What suppressor gene (SG) is associated w/ lung, colon, breast and Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

TP53

366
Q

What are the inactivation of suppressor genes?

A

TP53, RB, APC and BRCA1/2

367
Q

What POC amplifies breasts??? imagine that…

A

ERB-B2 Breast bigger two!

368
Q

What virus is associated w/ SIS POC and w/ Osteogenic Sarcoma?

A

EBV

369
Q

What two POC activate translocation?

A

ABL and c-MYC

370
Q

What two POC activate point mutation?

A

RET and RAS

371
Q

What two POC amplify?

A

ERB-B2 and N-MYC

372
Q

What does N-MYC activate?

A

Amplification

373
Q

What does MYC activate?

A

c-MYC translocation t(8;14)

374
Q

What does ABL activate?

A

translocation t(9;22)

375
Q

What does RAS activate?

A

Point Mutation

376
Q

What does RET Activate?

A

Point Mutation

377
Q

What does ERB-B2 activate?

A

Amplification

378
Q

What does SIS activate?

A

Overexpression

379
Q

What two POC have the same fx of nuclear transcription?

A

c-MYC and N-MYC

380
Q

What two POC have the same function of Receptor Synthesis?

A

ERB-B2 and RET

381
Q

WHat fx does RAS has?

A

GTP signal transduction

382
Q

What fx does N-MYC have?

A

Nuclear transcription

383
Q

What fx does MYC have?

A

Nuclear Transcription

384
Q

WHat fx does RET have?

A

Receptor Synthesis

385
Q

What fx does ABL has?

A

Non-receptor TK activity

386
Q

What fx does ERB-B2 has?

A

Receptor Synthesis

387
Q

What function does SIS have?

A

GF synthesis (Growth Factor)

388
Q

WhatPOC is associated w/ pancreatic CA?

A

RAS

389
Q

What POC is associated w/ MEN IIa/IIb Syndromes?

A

RET

390
Q

What POC is associated w/ colon CA?

A

RAS

391
Q

What POC is associated w/ Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

c-MYC MYC

392
Q

What POC is associated w/ CML?

A

ABL

393
Q

What POC is associated w/ lung CA?

A

RAS

394
Q

What POC is associated w/ Neuroblastoma?

A

N-MYC

395
Q

What POC is associated w/ Astrocytoma?

A

SIS

396
Q

What POC is associated w/ Breast CA?

A

ERB-B2

397
Q

What POC is associated w/ Leukemia?

A

RAS

398
Q

What Protoconcogene (POC) is associated w/ osteogenic sarcoma?

A

SIS

399
Q

Who is the universal acceptor?

A

AB no antibodies to attack those cells

400
Q

Who is the universal donor?

A

Group O

401
Q

What is associated w/ duodenal ulcer?

A

group O blood

402
Q

What blood group has greatest incidence of gastric carcinoma?

A

group A

403
Q

What does group AB has?

A

nothing just like new borns and old people

404
Q

What does group B has?

A

anti A-IgM

405
Q

What anti bodies have blood A?

A

anti B

406
Q

What anti bodies does blood group O have?

A

anti A-IgM anti B-IgM anti AB- IgG

407
Q

What is the best test for vWF diases?

A

ristocetin cofactor assay

408
Q

What factor involved in intrinsic pathway?

A

XII, XI, IX, VIII

409
Q

What factor involved in extrinsic pathway?

A

VII

410
Q

What are two other diseases that has Bleed Time increased and decreased platelets?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

411
Q

What is elevated in Idiopathic Thrombocytogenic Purpura? Decreased?

A

Bleeding Time increased platelets decreased

412
Q

What is elevated in a person taking aspirin?

A

Bleeding Time elevated

413
Q

What is elevated on hemophilia A?

A

VIII deficient aPTT increased (intrinsic pathway)

414
Q

What is elevated in vWF disease?

A

Elevated Bleeding Time (platelet adh. problem) aPTT increased

415
Q

What does a classic RS cell look like?

A

two mirror image nuclei w/ eosinophilic nucleolus surrounded by a clear halo

416
Q

What CD maker’s do you use to detect RS cells?

A

CD15 and CD30; you got to be able to REED by 15 and 30

417
Q

What are Reed-Sternberg Cells?

A

transformed germinal center B cells

418
Q

What are the cells of Hogkin’s L. called?

A

Reed-Sternberg Cells

419
Q

What are the characteristic cells in Hodgkin’s Lymjphoma?

A

association w/ EBV; cutaneous anergy to common antigens

420
Q

What is the Starry Sky?

A

macrophages w/ phagocytosed apoptotic bodies

421
Q

What do you see in Burkitt’s?

A

Starry Sky Apparence

422
Q

What does the American variant involve? (Burkitt’s)

A

GI, ovaries and retroperitoneum

423
Q

What does the African variant involve? (Burkitt’s)

A

Jaw

424
Q

What gene association is found in Burkitt’s?

A

EBV translocation t8;14 African Jaw

425
Q

What gene is associated with Follicular Lymphoma?

A

Translocation t14;18 overexpression of bcl-2 Follicular Think Fourteen Fo Fo

426
Q

What CA diseminates to para-aortic nodes?

A

Testicular CA and Burkitt’s Lymphoma

427
Q

What is the left supraclavicular node called?

A

Virchow’s Node

428
Q

What is associated with Right Supraclavicular Nodes?

A

Lung Mets and Esophageal CA; Hodgkin’s lymphoma

429
Q

What is associated with Left Supraclavicular Nodes?

A

Abdominal and Pancreatic CA

430
Q

What are histiocytes and where are they located?

A

Part of the Lymphatic system in sinuses; skin (Langherhan’s Cells); Red Pulp in Spleen

431
Q

Where are T cells located?

A

ParacorTex; periarteriolar sheat in spleen

432
Q

Where are B cells located in lymph nodes?

A

Germinal Follicles; Peripheral areas of spleen (white pulp)

433
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Brittle bone Dz Defect in osteoclasts no marrow, severa anemia

434
Q

Mechanism of blue sclera?

A

Color of veins is blue Seein the coroidal veins that give the color to the sclera since there is very little collagen I

435
Q

Tx for acute?

A

Tetracycline

436
Q

Tx for chronic?

A

Ceftriaxone

437
Q

What is babesia microti?

A

intracellular erythrocytic parasite similar to ring falciparum

438
Q

What percent of lyme infected have babeiosis?

A

20% of patients have babeiosis

439
Q

Ticks carry both dz?

A

Lyme and Babesia

440
Q

Hemolytic Anemia? What do you see in this patient?

A

Babesia Micro

441
Q

MC cranial nerve involved with Lyme Dz?

A

VIIth nerve

442
Q

Any patient with bilateral bell-spalsy?

A

Lyme Dz until proven otherwise

443
Q

Septic arthritis?

A

MC gonorrhea (GC) Gonoccocus…

444
Q

What components do you need to kill Gonorrhea?

A

C5-C9

445
Q

STD?

A

Sinovitis

446
Q

Patient with hot joint, pustule on palm aspirated and found gram neg. dipplococci?

A

Disseminated Gonococchemia

447
Q

Chlamydia triggered HLA-B27?

A

Yes, it made Reiter become active - Ulcerative colitis can also be an environmental factor - psoriasis - shigella

448
Q

Same patient develops pain on Achilles Tendon? Conjunctivitis

A

Reiter’s Sx HLA-27 (+) patient

449
Q

Patien w/ disuria, sterile piuria?

A

Non-specific urethritis chlamydia No culture in urine

450
Q

What enzyme is absent and what accumulates?

A

Homgentisic Acid builds up homogentisic oxidase

451
Q

What is the inheritance of alkaptonuria?

A

autosomal recessive

452
Q

Dz with degenerative arthritis in vertebral columns, pee turns black? cartilage is turns black

A

Alkaptonuria

453
Q

What is the mechanism of uric acid accumulation/gout in alcoholics?

A

Patients with alcoholism are under metabolic acidosis -All the acids compete in the excrition of proximal tubule Alcoholics contain b-hydroxybutiric acid, lactic acid so they compete with uric acid to be excreted

454
Q

What is the mech. of Allopurinol?

A

Block Xanthine Oxidase

455
Q

Overproducer of uric acid?

A

Allopurinol

456
Q

What drug do you give for underexcretion of uric acid?

A

Probenecid Sulfanpirizone

457
Q

Tx for Gout?

A

Indomethacine

458
Q

What are some effects of long teng methotrexate tx? i.e. Arhtritis Tx

A

Macrocytic Anemia Hypersegmented Neutrophils Also causes: Intersitial Fibrosis of the Lung

459
Q

What is the Tx of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Methotrexate

460
Q

Syndrome with rheumatoid arthritis with nodes in the lungs?

A

Kaplan Sx

461
Q

What is it called when you get a patient with rheumatoid arthritis that expresses dry mouth and dry eyes?

A

Schoegrem Sx

462
Q

Which on is symmetrical? Rheumatoid or Osteoarthritis?

A

Rheumatoid

463
Q

What is the synovial tissue that grows over the articulate cartilage called?

A

Pannus Not to be confused with Tophus that is found in Gout

464
Q

Where is rhematoid factor found?

A

In synovial fluid

465
Q

What is rheumatoid factor? (RF)

A

IgM Ab against IgG

466
Q

What is a Heberden Node?

A

Inflamation of DIP

467
Q

What are PIP joints inflamed called?

A

Bouchard Node Pouchard

468
Q

What joints are involved in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

MCP + PIP

469
Q

What joints are involved in Osteoarthritis?

A

DIP + PIP

470
Q

Yellow Crystals?

A

Gout Monosodium urate

471
Q

Blue Crystals?

A

Pseudublue Pseudogout - Blue is Calcium pyrophosphate

472
Q

What crystals are positively birefringent?

A

Positively Blue in color so it is Calcium Pyrophosphate Crystals (CPPC) for Pseudogout

473
Q

What crystal is negatively birefringent?

A

Negative is Yellow in color so it’s Monosodium Urate for Gout

474
Q

Gout or Pseudogout? How do you tell?

A

Positively Birefringement (Blue color) Pseudogout Negatively Birefringement (Yellow color) Gout

475
Q

Which ALL type has best prognosis?

A

t(12;21)

476
Q

Where do T cells metastasize in ALL?

A

Anterior Mediastinal mass or acute leukemia

477
Q

Where do B cells metastasize in ALL?

A

CNS and testicles think B is for Brain and Balls!

478
Q

What is a positive marker for ALL?

A

CALLA; CD10 Common ALL Antigen and TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase) You are Caller No. 10!!!

479
Q

What is the most common subtype of ALL?

A

pre-B (80%)

480
Q

What is the most common cancer and leukemia in children?

A

ALL

481
Q

What are other positive tests for CML?

A

philadephia chromosome and bcr-ABL fusion gene

482
Q

What is the most specific test for CML?

A

decrease LAP (Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase)

483
Q

What is afected in chromosome 22 for CML?

A

bcr (break cluster region) bcr-ABL fusion gene

484
Q

What chromosome is CML found in? What is the name of the chromosome?

A

Chromosome 22; Philadelphia Chromosome

485
Q

What is the translocation of ABL protooncogene?

A

t9;22

486
Q

What leukemia is associated with ABL protooncogene?

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

487
Q

What is the frequency of acute leukemias ?

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (M2) 30-40% Acute Promyelocytic (M3) 5-10%, Acute Monocytic (M5) 10%

488
Q

Which leukemia has translocation t9;22?

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

489
Q

What is the age distribution of all leukemias?

A

ALL (0-14) AML (15-39) AML (40-60) CML (40-60) CLL (>60 years old)

490
Q

What leukemia is cured/reverse with Vitamin A (Retinol)?

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)

491
Q

What are auer rods?

A

fused azurophilic granules on cytosol of blast cells

492
Q

What leukemia has auer rods?

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (M2/M3)

493
Q

What leukemia has gum infiltration?

A

Acute Monocytic Leukemia (M5)

494
Q

In which leukemia do you find DIC?

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)

495
Q

What leukemia has translocation t(15;17)

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)

496
Q

What is the specific Tx for falciparum?

A

IV quinidine or quinine plus doxycycline Falciparum is the FALSE QUEEN (quinidine)

497
Q

What is the Tx for all except falciparum?

A

Chloroquine plus primaquine

498
Q

What drug do you use for resistant falciparum?

A

Mefloquine ME FLOr resistant Falciparum

499
Q

Prophylaxis Tx for malaria?

A

Chloroquine

500
Q

What do you find in the lab work for falciparum malariae?

A

Blood smears with organisms inside RBC, falciparum ring form and gametocytes (banana shape)

Pathology (3 decks)

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