Go Off, King Flashcards
What information would you find in the Drug Abuse and Dependence section of the package insert?
-med’s schedule classification, abuse and tolerance potential, if it’s a controlled substance
What information would you find in the Overdosage section of the package insert?
-signs, symptoms, and treatment options for an overdose
What information would you find in the product description section of the package insert?
-chemical name, structure, inactive ingredients
What information would you find in the clinical pharmacology section of the package insert?
-how it works, absorbed, and metabolized (explanations of various studies)
What information would you find in the nonclinical toxicology section of the package insert?
-cancer risks and effects on fertility
What information would you find in the clinical studies section of the package insert?
-information about how the drug works
What information would you find in the How Supplied section of the package insert?
-all the dosage forms, colors, shapes, markings, special storage rules
What information would you find in the Patient Counseling section of the package insert?
-the most important patient counseling points
What information would you find in the Contraindications section of the package insert?
-when a drug shouldn’t be used
What information would you find in the Drug Interactions section of the package insert?
-if a drug shouldn’t be used with another med
What information would you find in the Adverse reactions section of the package insert?
-what side effects it causes (constipation)
What information can you find in the Indications and Usage section of the package insert?
-what diseases/conditions the drug has been approved to treat
What information can you find in the Dosage and Administration section of the package insert?
- what drug dose to use for certain patients
- provides special dosing schedules and administration requirements
What information can you find in the Use in Specific Populations section of the package insert?
-safety concerns when using during pregnancy
What does the OrangeBook list?
-which generics are equivalent to which drugs
What do therapeutic equivalents have?
-identical active ingredients, strength, dosage forms, absorption, and release
A rating code is made of how many letters?
2
In a rating code, what are the options for the first letter and what do they mean?
- A= therapeutic equivalent
- B= not a therapeutic equivalent
In a rating code, what does the second letter demonstrate?
dosage form
What is the most common rating code?
AB
What is a benefit of Facts and Comparisons eAnswers?
you can do side by side comparisons of drugs
What is the downfall of Facts and Comparisons eAnswers?
it’s outdated
True or False: Prescriber’s Digital Preference log is no longer published
true
The USP-NF contains what information?
defines the standards of meds, dosage forms, drug substances, inactive ingredients
The handbook on injectable drugs is also called what?
Trissel’s
Trissel’s provides info on what?
If two parenteral drugs can be administered together
In rating codes, what do the letters A, N, P, and T mean when they are the second letter?
A= oral N= aerolization P= injectable T= topical
The FDA is a subset of which government department?
Health and Human Services
What is the FDA responsible for?
approval of Rx and OTC meds, labeling, and drug manufacturing standards
What is the CDC responsible for?
providing regulation for infection control, publishing the requirements for vaccines and national health issues
What is the DEA responsible for?
enforcing laws and regulations for controlled substances and illegal drugs, and requirements for dispensing and refilling controlled substances
What was the result of the Food and Drug Cosmetic Act of 1938?
before selling, manufacturers have to prove a drug’s purity, strength, and safety
What was the result of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906?
prohibited manufacturers from misbranding (false labeling) and adultering meds (contaminated)
What act created 2 classes of medications?
Duraham-Humphrey Act of 1951
What act led to us using child-resistant packaging on most meds?
Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970
True or False: sublingual nitroglycerin requires childproof packaging
false
True or False: oral contraceptives and hormonal treatments don’t require childproof packaging because of their memory aid packaging
True
Do inhalers require childproof packaging?
No
PPPA Act of 1970 says what about childproof packaging?
it can be opened by 90% of adults but not by 80% of kids younger than 5
When did the FDA start requiring package inserts?
1970
In an outpatient pharmacy, info has to be dispensed how frequently?
before every refill
In an inpatient pharmacy, info has to be dispensed how frequently?
before the first dose and once every 30 days
What does NDC stand for?
National Drug Code
NDCs are how many digits?
10
The first three digits of the NDC are what?
The Labeler Code: Manufacturer or Distributor
The middle three digits of the NDC are what?
The Product code: name, strength, and dosage form
The last three digits of the NDC are what?
Package code: size and type of packaging
How do the amount of digits in an NDC section vary?
Labeler= 4/5 product= 3/4 package= 1/2
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Act of 1984 is also called what?
the Hatch-Waxman Act
What was the result of the Hatch-Waxman Act?
- abbreviated new drug applications (ANDA) for generic meds
- still must prove generic is safe, effective, and performs like name brand
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA 90) resulted in what?
-requires pharmacists to discuss info about meds with patients
Most dietary supplements are not considered drugs, but are considered what?
vitamins, minerals, and herbs
When did the FDA begin requiring solid oral dosage forms to have marking/imprints on the product?
1995
What governs the sharing of private information?
HIPPA
What are the three main rules of HIPPA?
- protect patient info
- use and disclose only the necessary amount of protected info
- patients have rights to approve who can access or use their medical info
Name, DOB, address, phone number, medical record, insurance info, etc. are all part of what?
Protected Health Info (PHI)
A handout with information on a medication’s significant risks is called what?
Medguide
Medguides are for what kinds of drugs?
Ones that pose the most serious public health risks
Who protects health, safety, and welfare of patients by setting laws specific to practice of pharmacy?
Board of Pharmacy
Who’s pharmacy laws are normally stricter: federal or state?
state
How many steps are in the drug approval process?
4
What is the first step in the drug approval process?
creation and study: drugs are identified as drugs or biologics
What is the second step in the drug approval process?
preclinical testing: animal trials to determine if safe and effective
What is the third step in the drug approval process?
clinical testing: investigational new drug (IND) application filed with the FDA
-once approved, INDs go through 3 phases
What is the fourth step in the drug approval process?
FDA approval: if a drug proves safe and effective in all three phases the drug manufacturer can apply for a new drug application (NDA)
-can take months or even years
What does the Institutional Review Board (IRB) do?
reviews and approves research within human subjects
What is the role of the drug sponsor in research?
providing funding to support the research
What is the role of the principal investigator in research?
who wants to conduct the study and who is responsible and accountable for the study implementation
Why would a drug be recalled?
it causes or could potentially cause adverse events
What is a class 1 recall?
likely to cause serious adverse events or death
What is a class 2 recall?
likely to cause temporary, but reversible side effects
What is a class 3 recall?
unlikely to cause adverse effects
ex: mislabeled count on bottles
Recalls are not equal to what?
Market Withdrawals
Market Withdrawals can’t return without what?
FDA approval
When a new drug is created, is has a patented brand name with exclusive rights for how long?
20 years
When a generic comes out after a 20 year patent, it has to be what?
pharmaceutically equivalent
What does it mean to be pharmaceutically equivalent?
same active ingredients, strength, dosage form, rout of administration
Therapeutic equivalents are what two things?
Pharmaceutically equivalent and bioequivalent
What does it mean to be bioequivalent?
it is absorbed and released in the body the same way
An authorized generic is identical to what?
the brand name
What does it mean when there is a number after the TE rating code?
meds with the same active ingredient are therapeutically equivalent to different brand name drugs
A pharmacological alternative has what?
The same active ingredients, but different strength and dosage forms
A therapeutic alternative has what?
similar product, but different active ingredients
Is a therapeutic equivalent the same as a therapeutic alternative?
Nah
What would be a therapeutic alternative of Motrin 800 mg tablets?
naproxen 500 mg tablets
What would be a pharmacologic alternative of Motrin 800 mg tablets?
Motrin 400 mg tablets
What is another name for automatic substitution in hospitals?
Formulary
Outpatient pharmacies have to call the prescriber for what?
Substitution authorization
What does DAW stand for?
Dispense As Written
Define DAW 0
No product selection preferred
-okay to substitute
Define DAW 1
Substitution is NOT allowed
Define DAW 2
Substitution is allowed
-patient requests brand
Define DAW 7
Substitution is NOT allowed
-mandated by state law
Define DAW 3
pharmacist decides that brand name product is to be dispensed
Define DAW 4
substitution is allowed, but generic is not in stock
Define DAW 5
Substitution is allowed, but the brand is dispensed as the generic
Define DAW 6
override is required (rare)
Define DAW 8
substitution is allowed, but the generic is not available in the marketplace
Define DAW 9
OTHER
DAW codes tell the insurance provider what?
if a special circumstance exists that affects product selection for the prescription
The Controlled Substances Act was created to do what?
define and regulate controlled substances
Who governs the Controlled Substances Act?
DEA
How many schedules are there?
5
Cardio means what?
Heart
Vas, Vado means what?
Blood vessel
What schedule is the most dangerous? Least dangerous?
1 = most, 5 = least
Schedule 2 substances are mostly what?
opioids and stimulants
True or False: Physician Assistants, Nurse Practitioners, and optometrists can write controlled substance prescriptions
false (SOME states)
What is required for a prescriber to write a controlled substance prescription?
DEA number
A DEA number has how many characters?
9
What does UIN stand for?
Unique Identification Number
What is the first letter of a pharmacy’s DEA number?
B
What are the things prescriptions must include?
- date of issue
- patient’s full name
- patient’s address
- prescriber’s name
- prescriber’s address
- prescriber DEA number
- drug name
- dosage form
- quantity
- directions
- number of refills
True or False: schedule 2 substances cannot be called or faxed in
true
the feds require pharmacies to complete a controlled substance inventory how often?
every 2 years from date of first inventory
How long does federal law require pharmacies to keep inventory records?
2 years
Partial fills for c2 substances is allowed, but the rest must be filled within how much time?
72 hours
How many forms come with DEA form 222?
3
What are the three forms of the 222?
1st- supplier’s copy
2nd- DEA’s copy
3rd- pharmacy copy
How long does a 222 form need to be saved?
2 years
When drugs expire, where are they sent?
DEA registered collector
Wasting requires how many signatures?
2
Who are the 2 signees of wasting?
- one destroying the med
- the witness
The pharmacy must submit what form to document destruction?
DEA form 41
What from is sent in when reporting theft?
DEA Form 106
How much pseudoephedrine can be sold?
3.6 grams a day, 9 grams over 30 days
Isotretinoin treats what?
Severe acne
Isotretinoin is what?
teratogenic
Isotretinoin is very dangerous to who?
pregnant women
What program gives a “do not dispense to patient after” date regarding isotretinoin?
IPLEDGE
Lotronex (alosetron) is used for what?
IBS
What are some side effects of Lotronex?
Ischemic colitis, complications from constipation
Clozapine is used to treat what?
mental disorders
Clozapine can cause what?
agranulocytosis (don’t make enough white blood cells)
REMS program is required for what?
transmucosal fentanyl
Cardio means what?
Heart
Vas/Vado means what?
Blood vessel
Vasodilators are what?
Drugs that cause the blood vessels to dilate or open to increase blood flow
The suffix -emia means what?
Substances in the blood
What does hem, hema mean?
Blood
What does thromb mean?
Blood clot
What does nephr mean?
Kidney
What does hepat mean?
Liver
What does gastro mean?
Stomach
What does thry mean?
Thyroid
What does derm?
Skin
What does osteo mean?
Bone
What does psych mean?
Mind
What does pulmo mean?
Lungs
What does bronch mean?
Bronchus
Oculo
Eye
Opthalm
Eyes
Oti
Ear
Gyne
Woman
Andro
Male
Chemo
Chemical
Ferro
Iron
Pyro
Heat
Hypno
Sleep
-mimetic
Mimicking
A (an)
Without
Hyper
Excessive
Hypo
Beneath
Auto
Self
Carcin
Cancer
Photo
Light
-itis
Inflammation
-rrhagia, rrhage, rrhea
Discharge, flowing
The sig is what?
The directions
The “disp” is what?
Quantity dispensed
What does “p” mean on a prescription?
After
What dues “c” mean in a prescription?
With
CM
With meals
AC
Before meals
PC
After meals
AM
Morning
PM
Afternoon
HS
At bedtime
Stat
At once
What does “d” mean on a prescription?
Day
What does “h” mean on a prescription?
Hour
aa
Affected area
PO
By mouth
en
Each nostril
SL
Sublingual
pr
Per rectum
IV
Intravenous
IVPB
Iv piggyback
IM
Intramuscular
SC, SubQ
Subcutaneous
AU
Both ears
ad
Right ear
as
Left ear
OU
Both eyes
OD
Right eye
OS
Left eye
IN
Intranasal
What does “Q” mean on a prescription?
Every
QD
Every day
QAM
Every morning
QPM
Every evening
QHS
Every bedtime
Q4h
Every 4 hours
QOD
Every other day
bid
2 times daily
tid
3 times daily
qid
Four times daily
nr
No refills
prn
As needed
uad, ud, ut dict
As directed
w,wk
Weekly
dtd
Dispense such doses
qs
Quantity sufficient
ss
One half
U
Unit
IU
International unit
APAP
Acetaminophen
ASA
Aspirin
FE
Iron
K
Potassium
Na
Sodium
HCL
Hydrochloride
MSO4
Morphine sulfate
MgSO4
Magnesium sulfate
ZnSO4
Zinc sulfate
PEN/PCN
Penicillin
TCN
Tetracycline
TMP/SMX
Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
IV vanc
Vancomycin
HCTZ
Hydrochlorithiazide
NTG
Nitroglycerin
D5W
Dextrose 5% in water
LR
Lactated ringers
NS
Normal saline
What is a near miss?
An error that happened but didn’t reach the patient
What are the five rights?
right: drug, dose, patient, time, instructions
A safety data sheet communicates what?
storing and manipulating hazardous materials
What gives employees the right to know and understand safety data sheets?
OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard
Exposure documentation must be kept on file for how long?
30 years
Solid drugs are measured by what?
Weight
Liquid drugs are measured by what?
volume
How many grains are in a dram?
60
About how many mg in a grain?
60/65
Infants are dosed how frequently?
12-24 hours
Dosing for children is always done in what?
mg/kg
Subcutaneous injections are done where?
fat tissue
Milliequivalents (mEq) express what?
the concentration of electrolytes in a solution
“Units” are used for what?
Insulin, heparin, some vitamins
True or false: capsules contain preservatives
true
What does MCT stand for?
Multiple compressed tablets
What part of the package insert will say if the tablet can be divided?
Dosage and Administration
What does ODT stand for?
orally disintegrating tablets
What is a benefit of sublingual tablets and strips?
it avoids the stomach acids
A solute is what?
something completely dissolved in a solvent
adding water or another diluent to a powder at the time of dispensing is known as what?
Reconstituting
After reconstituting, antibiotic solutions are good for how long?
14 days
Do solutions or suspensions require a shake well label?
suspensions
A clear, sweetened, flavor combination of water and alcohol are known as what?
elixirs
Concentrated solutions of sugar in water are known as what?
syrup
Alcoholic or hydro alcoholic solutions or volatile substances are known as what?
spirits
Spirits are stored in what?
tight, light-resistant containers
What are tinctures?
alcoholic/hydroalcholic solutions prepared from vegetable extracts
Substances in which medication particles are not completely dissolved in a liquid are called what?
suspension
What is a solution?
preparations in which the solid ingredients of medications are dissolved in a liquid
Oil-based, greasy preparations that are good for dry and scaly areas are what?
ointments
Semi-solid emulsions that contain a combo of water, oil, active drug ingredients, as well as other substances are called what?
creams
Creams are better for what?
Weeping or oozing
Lotions are similar to creams, but they contain more what?
water
lotions are better for what?
hairy parts
semisolid preparations that contain small, solid particles suspended in a liquid are what?
gels
What is a highly flammable mixture where the active ingredient is dissolved in alcohol and ether?
collodion
What is a liquid mixture of various substances in an oil, emulsion, or alcoholic solution of soap?
liniments
What provides a protective layer over the area of the skin?
paste
What is the fingertip unit?
- 5g (enough to cover bother sides of an adult hand)
- 3= 1 adult arm
- 2= 1 adult foot
- 6= one adult leg
With a transdermal patch, the drug is delivered where?
through the skin
True or false: ophthalmics need to be sterile, but otics don’t
true
How many types of inhalers are there?
3
What is an MDI?
meter-dosed inhaler
What is an SMI?
soft-mist inhaler
What is a DPI?
dry powdered inhalers
An HFA is what?
A propellant used in most MDIs
What does an SMI use to aerosolize the drug?
a spring
What does a DPI use to aerosolize the drug?
the patient’s breath
Which inhalers need to be primed before use?
MDI and SMI
Rectal suppositories create what kind of effect?
local
Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are inserted by who?
the doctor
parenteral dosages avoids what?
the stomach
Large Volume Preparations (LVP) are larger than what?
250 mL
What is an IV push?
the use of a syringe to inject into the IV line
Most IV meds are what?
solutions
IV emulsions are what?
mixtures of water and oil
What does it mean to have similar toxicity?
Same number of dissolved particles as blood
What is it called when there is similar toxicity?
Isotonic solutions
What kind of solution has a greater number of dissolved particles than blood cells?
Hypertonic solution
Where is a hypertonic solution used?
Large vein
True or false: IM injections can be solutions or suspensions
True
Intradermal injections are injected where?
Upper layers of skin
IM injections use how long of needles?
5/8” to 1.5”
SubQ injections use how long of needles?
5/16” to 5/8”
What does it mean when the needle gauge is larger?
The skinnier it is
USP Chapter 800 talks about what?
Handling hazardous drugs
OBRA ‘90 requires what?
Patients are offered counseling by the pharmacist
Automated Dispensing Devices (ADDS) are what?
Computerized drug storage devices
HMO, Medicare, Medicaid and PPO are what?
Managed care organizations (MCO)
What are Managed Care Organizations?
Insurances that keep costs low while providing quality, comprehensive healthcare
Insurance that pays for an employee’s healthcare after they’ve been hurt on the job is called what?
Worker’s compensation
And medical insurance card is used when?
Visiting doctor’s office
A pharmacy benefits card is what?
Pharmacy coverage only; used for prescriptions
An ongoing amount paid by an individual to maintain coverage is called what?
A premium
Plan-specific limits outlining amounts the patient and the plan will pay during the plan year is called what?
Coverage stages
Plan specific lists of drugs covered by insurance, organized in tiers based on cost are called what?
Plan formulary
Who is eligible for Medicaid?
Low income people
Who is eligible for Medicare?
People above 65
What does Medicare part A cover?
Hospital visits and meds during stay, skilled nursing facility, hospice care, or home healthcare
Medicare part B covers what?
Outpatient care and some related prescriptions, doctor visits, vaccines, PT, medical equipment, home healthcare, some lab tests, specific post-surgery DME, diabetic testing supplies, limited meds
What does Medicare part D cover?
Outpatient prescriptions (many different part D plans are administered by private insurance companies
What does Medicare part C cover?
Combo of other 3
When do you enroll for Medicare part D?
Age 65
True or false: you can enroll in Medicare part D 3 months before or after your 65th birthday?
True
People over 65 who don’t enroll during their initial period are penalized with what?
Permanently higher premiums
When is open enrollment for Medicare part D?
October 15- December 7
When are the effective dates for Medicare part D?
January 1- December 31
You can enroll in Medicare part D if you’re under 65 if you have what?
A disability
The total drug cost for Medicare part D is what?
$435
Tricare covers who?
All active and retired service members and their families
Employers usually offer employees insurance through the rough private insurers known as what?
MCOs
2 options- HMO, PPO
A network of providers and facilities offering comprehensive care are called what?
HMO
When a patient manages their own care and chooses preferred or out of network providers and facility they have a what?
PPO
The ID number issues to prescribers and pharmacies by the centers for Medicare and Medicaid services is what?
National Provider Identifier (NPI)
What is the number for the policyholder?
01
What is the number for the spouse/partner?
02
What is the number for children?
03,04 on birth order
What is the issuer ID number?
8 digit number that identifies the correct insurance company to bill
What is considered frozen temperature?
-25- -10 degrees Celsius, to -13 to 14 degrees Fahrenheit
What temperatures are considered refrigerated?
2-8 degrees Celsius, 36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit
What is considered room temp?
15-30 degrees Celsius, 59-86 degrees Fahrenheit
What is the formula for Celsius to Fahrenheit?
(9)(degrees Celsius)/ 5, then add 32
What is the formula for Fahrenheit to Celsius?
(Degrees Fahrenheit minus 32) x 5/9
What does USP stand for?
United States Pharmacopeia
What does BUD stand for?
Beyond Use Date
A single source that sells drugs and suppliers is called what?
Wholesaler
What does PAR stand for?
Periodic automatic replenishment
The study of drugs and its interactions with the body?
Pharmacology
What is an indication?
What a med is used for?
What is the Class of a drug?
Group of med it belongs to
What is the dosage form?
Physical form and route of administration of a drug
The study of how a drug interacts with the body is known as what?
Pharmacodynamics
The study of how the body interacts with a drug is known as what?
Pharmacokinetics
What does LADME mean in pharmacology?
Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination
What is Liberation?
Drug breaks down, active ingredient escapes
What is Absorption?
Med is absorbed into the bloodstream
What is distribution?
Med moves to where it needs to go
What is metabolism?
Destruction of a the drug into inactive ingredients
What is Elimination?
The removal of the drug through urine or feces
Where the drugs fits or binds is called what?
The receptor
What does an agonist for?
Stimulates the body to do an action
What does an antagonist do?
Blocks the body from doing an action
Undesirable effects of a drug or medical treatment are called what?
Side effects
True or false: geriatric patients have a faster elimination of drugs
False
What organs are responsible for eliminating the drug?
Kidneys and liver
Narrow-spectrum antibiotics combats what?
A specific bacteria
How many antibiotic classes are there?
6
Penicillin, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams are what kind of antibiotics?
Beta Lactam
Ampicillin should not be administered with what?
gentamicin or other aminoglycosides
Keflex, Ceftin, and Omnicef are what kind of Beta Lactam antibiotics?
Cephalosporins
All cephalopsporins carry what?
A beta-lactam ring
Meropenem, Ertopenem, and Imipenem (cilastatin) are what kind of beta-lactam antibiotic?
Carbapenems
Aztreonam is what kind of beta-lactam antibiotic?
monobactam
Macrolide antibiotics are commonly used for what?
Respiratory or STDs
What are the two common Macrolide antibiotics?
Zithromax and Biaxin
True or false: Erythromycin is common today
False
Zithromax is available in what kind of dosing packs?
3 or 5 days
Sulfonamide antibiotics are often used to treat what?
upper respiratory infections/UTIs
Bactrim/Septra is a combo product of what?
trimethoprim (antibiotic) and sulfamethoxazole (sulfonamide)
-abbreviated TMP/SMX
Sulfa group is responsible for what?
Hypersensitivity reactions
Tetracycline is often used to treat what?
acne, STDs, some respiratory infections
Doxycycline and minocycline are the most common what?
tetracycline
What are the brand names for tetrracycline?
Sumycin, Panmycin
What are the brand names for minocycline?
Dynacin, solodyn
What are the brand names for doxycycline?
Doryx, vibramycin
Aminoglycosides are used to treat what?
severe bacterial infections
Most aminoglycosides are available as what?
IV or IM
Tobramycin and gentamicin are what kind of antibitoics?
aminoglycosides
What is the brand name for Tobramycin/dexamethasone?
Tobradex
What is the brand name for gentamicin?
Gentak
What lab tests would a pharmacist care about if someone was taking an aminoglycoside?
- BUN (blood urea nitrogen
- SCr (serum creatinine)
(both are kidney funcation lab values)
What is the brand name for tobramycin?
Nebcin, Tobrex
What is the brand name for Neomycin Sulfate?
Neosporin
Fluoroquinolones are antibiotics that treat what?
respiratory, urinary tract, and intestinal infections
What are some adverse reactions of fluoroquinolones?
tendon rupture, mental changes, heart rhythm problems
Tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones need to be separate from what?
antacids and multivitamins
levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, and ciprofloxacin are all what?
fluoroquinolones
what is the brand name for levofloxacin?
Levaquin
What is the brand name for moxifloxacin?
Avelox, vigamox
What is the brand name for ciprofloxacin?
Cipro, Ciloxan
What is the brand name for ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone?
Ciprodex
Vancomycin is used to treat what?
MRSA infections
Clindamycin is used to treat what?
skin, vaginal, respiratory, and intestinal infections
Clindamycin is an effective what?
acne treatment
Metronidazole is used to treat what?
protozoal infections
What do you need to avoid when you’re on metronidazole?
alcohol
Nitrofurantoin is used to treat what?
UTIs
Mupirocin is used to treat what?
skin infections
What is the brand name for linezolid?
zyvox
What is the brand name for vancomycin?
Vancocin
What is the brand name for clindamycin?
cleocin
What is the brand name for metronidazole?
Flagyl
What is the brand name for nitrofurantoin?
Macrodantin, Furadantin, Macrobid
What is the brand name for Mupirocin?
Bactroban
Ringworm, vaginal yeast infections, and athlete’s foot are what kind of infections?
fungal
Many vaginal yeast infections and oral thrush cases are due to what?
candida
Clotrimazole troches are for what?
oral thrush
Monistat is used to treat what?
vaginal yeast infections
What is the combo of clotrimazole and betamethasone called?
lotrisone
The combo nystatin and betamethasone is called what?
Mycologell
What is the generic name for nizoral?
ketoconazole
What is the generic name for lamisil?
terbinafine
if on an antiviral, a prescriber may check what lab tests?
LFT (liver function tests)
What is the brand name for fluconazole?
diflucan
What is the brand name for clotrimazole?
Lotrimin
What is the brand name for Nystatin?
mycostatin
How do antivirals work?
influencing the replication of the virus
What are the most common viral skin infections?
Herpes and warts
Aldara is used to treat what?
warts
HSV-1 is what?
Cold sores
HSV-2 is what?
genital herpes
Abreva helps heal what?
cold sores
Acyclovir can be hard on what?
the kidneys
If on anti virals, the prescriber may monitor what?
BUN, SCr (renal labs)
What is the brand name for Valacyclovir?
Valtrex
What is the brand name for acyclovir?
zovirax
What is the brand name for valganciclovir?
valcyte
What is the brand name for famiciclovir?
Famvir
What is the brand name for Imiquimod?
Aldara
What is the brand name for Docosonal?
Abreva
Most respiratory infections are due to what?
viruses
What is the brand name for oseltamivir?
Tamiflu
Antiretroviral agents are divided into 6 classes based on what?
the effect on HIV
What is the brand name for the lamivudine/zidovudine combo?
combivir
Live vaccines contain what?
a weakened version of the living virus or bacteria
What vaccines are safe for pregnant and immunocompromised patients?
inactivated vaccines
What kind of vaccines contain only a portion of the bacteria or virus, instead of the organism?
Subunit vaccines
What temperatures do vaccines need to be kept at in the fridge?
2-8 degrees Celsius
36-46 degrees Fahrenheit
What temperatures do vaccines need to be kept at in the freezer?
- 50 to -15 degrees celcius
- 58 to 5 degrees Fahrenheit
Egg free flu vaccines are grown in what?
Insect cells
When everything on a person starts to swell and they cant breath, they might be suffering from what?
anaphylactic shock
Vaccines for Hepatitis B are grown in what?
yeast
True or False: 2 live vaccines can be administered at the same time
true
If 2 live vaccines aren’t administered at the same time, how long does someone have to wait to get the second?
4 weeks
Are Zostavax and MMR live or unactivated vaccines?
live
Is Pneumoxav live or unactivated?
unactivated
After receiving a vaccine, children should avoid what?
salicylate drugs (aspirin)
Patients who are taking antiviral agents against herpes need to wait how long before receiving a vaccine?
24 hrs
Which kind of vaccines are more likely to cause systemic reactions?
Live
Adace/TDAP is the vaccine for what?
pertussis, diphtheria, tetanus
Medicare part B covers what vaccines?
influenza, pneumococcal, Hepatitis B
Medicare Part D covers what regarding vaccines?
cost, dispensing fee, administration, other vaccines not covered by B
IM injections need to be administered at what angle?
90 degrees
SubQ injections need to be administered at what angle?
45 degrees
What do bronchodilators do?
open up bronchioles inside the lungs
Bronchodilators are divided into how many groups?
3
What are the three groups of bronchodilators?
Beta-2 agonists, Xanthine’s, anticholinergics
Beta-2 agonists do what?
relax the muscles surrounding the airways
Short acting Beta-2 agonists are also known as what?
rescue inhalers
Salmeterol, Formoterol, Olodaterol, and Indacterol are all what?
Beta-2 Agonists
Xanthines have what?
an anti-inflammatory effect on airways
Theophyline and Aminophyline are what?
Xanthines
Ipratropium, Acldinium, Umeclidinium, SMI and Tiotropium are what?
Inhaled Anticholinergics
What is the brand name for Levalbuterol?
Xopenex
What is the brand name for Salmeterol?
Serevent Diskus
What is the brand name for Theophylline?
Uniphyl, Theo-24
What is the brand name for Aminophyline?
Norphyl
What is the brand name for Tiotropium?
Spiriva
What is the brand name of Indacaterol/glyco?
Utibron
What is the brand name for Oladaterol/tiot?
Stiolto
What is the brand name for Vilanterol/Umec?
Anoro
What is the brand name for Albuterol/iprat.?
Combivent
What is the brand name for Ipratropium?
Atrovent
Corticosteroids do what?
decrease inflammation in airway
Corticosteroids are used for what?
allergy symptoms and to prevent asthma attacks
True or False: Using corticosteroids orally is bad
true
Inhaled corticosteroids can lead to what?
thrush
What are the most common corticosteroid and long acting bronchodilators combos?
Fluticasone/Salmeterol, Budesonide/Formoterol
Leukotriene modifiers do what?
help relax muscles and reduce inflammation in the airways
-used to PREVENT
Mast cell stabilizers are reserved for who?
patients with allergic asthma or exercise induced asthma
Antihistamines do what?
dry up nasal and respiratory secretions
What are the 2 groups of antihistamines?
1st and 2nd gen
Diphenhydramine and chlorpheniramine are which generation of antihistamine?
first
What is the brand name for diphenhydramine?
Benadryl
What is the brand name for Chlorpheniramine?
Chlor-Trimeton
What is the biggest side effect of antihistamines?
drowsiness
Tylenol PM, Sominex, and Nytol are examples of what?
1st gen antihistamine sleep agents
Less sedating antihistamine products are which generation?
2nd
Loratadine, cetirizine, and fexofenadine are what?
2nd gen antihistamines
What is the brand name for loratadine?
claritin
What is the brand name for cetirizine?
Zyrtec
What is the brand name for fexofenadine?
allegra
Gen 2 antihistamines are good for allergies, but now what?
cold symptoms
What is the brand name for levocetirizine?
Xyzal
What relives nasal stuffiness by constricting blood vessels in the nose?
decongestants
What are the three main types of decongestants without a prescription?
- pseudoephedrine
- phenylephrine
- nasal spray
Nasal spray decongestants can only be used for how long?
3 days
What is the brand name for oxymetazaline?
Afrin
When a generic allergy med is mixed with pseudoephedrine, what letter will be added to the brand name?
D
What thins mucus excretions in the lungs?
expectorants
What is the brand name for guaifenesin?
Mucinex
What is often used in combo with guaifenesin?
dextromethorphan (Delsym)
Antitussives suppress what?
cough
topical corticosteroids reduce what?
itching and inflammation
low potency topical corticosteroids are used on who?
children
Topical treatment shouldn’t exceed how long?
2 weeks
What is the brand name for Triamcinolone acetonide?
Kenalog
What is the brand name for Clobetasol propionate?
tenovate
What is the brand name for hydrocortisone?
cortisone
What is the brand name for fluocinonide?
Lidex
What is the brand name for mometasone furoate?
Elocon
What is the brand name for betamethasone?
Diprolene
What condition is characterized by white scales over red patches of skin?
psoriasis
Protopic is used to treat what?
psoriasis
what is the brand name for Calcipotriene/betamethasone ?
taclomex
What is the brand name for calcipotriene?
dovonex
What is the brand name for tacrolimus?
protopic
What is the brand name for pimecrolimus?
Elidel
OTC topical acne meds often contain what?
Benzoyl Peroxide (salicyclic acid)
0.1% and 0.3% topical treatments are what?
prescription
Tetracycline and macrolide are common what?
oral antibiotics
What is low dose doxycycline called?
Periostat
What is extended release minocycline called?
Solodyn
Isotretinoin should never be given to who?
pregnant women
What is the brand name for isotretinoin?
Accutane
What is the brand name for adapalene?
Differin
What is the brand name for tretinoin?
Retin-A
Alopecia is a condition where what is lost?
hair
What is the brand name for minoxidil?
Rogaine
What is the brand name for finasteride?
propecia
Vigamox and Tobradex are used for what?
eye infections
Xalatan (Latanoprost) is used for what?
Glaucoma
There are how many classes of drugs used for treating glaucoma?
5
Many drugs lower pressure in the eye by doing what?
reducing the amount of fluid in the eye
Xalatan and Lumigan can cause the eye to do what?
change color
What is the brand name of Xalatan?
Latanoprost
What is the brand name of travoprost?
Travatan
What is the brand name of Bimatoprost?
Lumigan
What is the brand name of Tafluprost?
Zioptan
What is the brand name of brimonidine?
Alphagan
What is the brand name of brimonidine and timolol?
Combigan
What is the brand name of dorzolamide/timolol?
cosopt
Dry eyes are most often treated with what?
artificial tears or ointments
Restasis and Xiidra are prescription meds for what?
dry eyes
Visine helps red eyes by doing what?
constricting blood vessels in the eyes
What is the brand name for olopatadine?
patanol
What is the brand name for cyclosporine?
restatsis
What is the brand name for tetrahydrazoline?
visine
What is the brand name for lifitegrast?
xiidra
What is cirpodex used for?
ear infections
What is debrox used for?
ear wax removal
corticosteroids are added to otic solutions to reduce what?
inflammation, redness, and swelling
Mild acid refulx is known as what?
heartburn
Persistent heartburn and damage to the esophagus are known as what?
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Antacids neutralize what?
gastric acid
magnesium containing products cause what when used alone?
diarrhea
You should not have antacids if you have bad what?
kidneys
Levothyroxine and antacids should be separated by how long?
4 hours
Calcium carbonate are known as what?
tums
calcium carbonate/ magnesium hydroxid?
rolaids
H-2 receptor antagonists do what?
suppress acid secretion by working against cells in the stomach that produce acid
What are popular H-2 blockers?
ranitidine, famotidine, cimetidine
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) do what?
act on acid pumps in the stomach to prevent acid production
What is the brand name of esomeprazole?
nexium
What is the brand name of omeprazole?
prilosec
What is the brand name for lansoprazole?
prevacid
what is the brand name for rabeprazole?
Aciptlex
What is the brand name for pantoprazole?
protonix
What is the brand name for dexlansoprazole?
Dexilant
Antidiarrheals work by doing what?
slowing the movement of the intestines (absorbs excess water and fluids)
The most common antidiarrheals are what?
Imodium and Lomotil
Lomotil is what schedule?
5
Pepto-Bismol should be avoided by people who are what?
allergic to aspirin
what is the brand name of loperamide?
Imodium
What is the brand name of diphenoxylate/atropine?
Lomotil
What is the brand name of bismuth-subsalicylate?
pepto-bismol
How many kinds of laxatives are there?
8
Laxatives are given how long before/after tetracyclines and digoxin?
2 hours
What is the most popular stool softener?
docusate
All magnesium products should be avoided by who?
people with bad kidneys
saline laxatives do what?
draw fluid into the intestines and slow down colon transit time
Hyperosmotic laxatives work by doing what?
increasing fluid in the intestinal lining
Polyethylene is often used before what?
colonoscopies
Stimulant laxatives do what?
stimulate the intestines to promote motility
Stimulant laxatives should be only be used as what?
rescue treatments
Linzess is used for what?
constipation and IBS
Movantik is used for what?
opioid induced constipation
What is the brand name for psyllium?
metamucil
What is the brand name for docusate sodium/ calcate?
colace
what is the brand name for lactulose?
kristalose
what is the brand name for polyethylene/glycol?
miralax
What is the brand name for bisacodyl?
dulcolax
what is the brand name for senna?
senokot
what is the brand name for lubiprostone?
amitiza
What is the brand name for linaclotide?
Linzess
What is the brand name for naloxegal?
movantik
What is the brand name of simethicone?
Gas-X
When are GI stimulants used?
for conditions when the movement of food out of the stomach is slow or delayed
Phenothiazines do what?
calm the nausea center in the brain
What is the brand name of ondansetron?
zofran
What is the brand name of granisetron?
Kytril
What is the brand name of Dolasetron?
Anzemot
Neurokinin-1 Receptor Antagonists are used in what?
chemotherapy
Cholesterol build up is known as what/
hyperlipidemia
What does TC stand for?
Total Cholesterol
What are the two bad kinds of cholesterol?
LDL, Triglycerides (TGs)
what is the good kind of cholesterol?
HDL
What does Niacin do?
increases HDL and lowers LDL and TGs
Long acting Niacin can casue what?
Liver toxicity
What is the brand name for fenofibric acid?
Trilipix
What is the brand name for fenofibrate?
Tricor
What is the brand name for Gemfibrozil?
Lopid
What two statins have the least amount of drug interactions?
Rosuvastatin and Pravastatin
What causes problems with statins?
grapefruit juice
What is the brand name for atorvastatin?
lipitor
What is the brand name for Rosuvastatin?
Crestor
What is the brand name for Simvastatin?
Zocor
What is the brand name for Lovastatin?
Mevacor
What is the brand name for Pravastatin?
pravachol
What is the only cholesterol absorption inhibitor on the market?
ezetimbe
What do fish oils do?
reduce triglycerides and prevent heart disease
What are the two beneficial componenets of fish oil?
EPA and DHA
PCSK9 Inhibitors are what?
injectable cholesterol meds
Repatha and Praluent are what?
PCSK9 inhibitors
True or False: in blood pressure, the top is systolic and bottom is diastolic
true
A person is considered hypertensive is they have a blood pressure of what?
140/90 or above
Diuretics are also known as what?
water pills
Thiazides are good at what?
lowering blood pressure without getting too much fluid out of the body
What renal labs must be monitored when on a thiazide?
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine (Scr)
Furosemide, Bumetanide, and torsemide are all what?
loop diuretics
What are common side effects of loop diuretics?
dehydration and dropping potassium
What is an example of a potassium-sparing diuretic?
spironolactone (aldactone)
How do Beta Blockers work?
blocking the action of beta receptors in the heart muscle and smooth muscle in the blood vessels
Atenolol, metoprolol, and propanolol are all examples of what?
beta-blockers
Bradycardia is also known as what?
low heart rate
True or false: beta blockers can be stopped abruptly
false
What is the brand name for atenolo?
tenormin
What is the brand name for metoprolol succinate?
Toprol XL
What is the brand name for Labetalol?
Trondate
What is the brand name for atenolol/chlorthalidone?
Tenoretic
What si teh brand name of metoprolol tartrate?
lopressor
What is the brand name of propanolol?
Inderal
What is the brand name of carvediolol?
Coreg CR
What is the brand name for Bisoprolol?
Zebeta
How do calcium channel blockers work?
preventing the movement of calcium in and out of cells
The two groups of calcium channel blockers work on what?
directly on the heart; other work on opening up blood vessels
Verapamil and Cardizem are CCBs that do what?
work directly on the heart
Amlodipine, nifedipine, and felodipine are CCBs that do what?
open up the blood vessels
What is the brand name for diltiazem?
Cardizem
What is the brand name for verapamil?
calan
What is the brand name for Nifedipine?
procardia
How do ACE inhibitors work?
through the kidneys to prevent constriction of blood vessels
What is the brand name of ramipril?
altace
What is the brand name of lisinopril?
prinivil
What is the brand name of enalapril?
vasotec
What is the brand name of benazepril?
Lotensin
What is the brand name of accupril?
quinapril
What is the brand name of fosinopril?
monopril
ACE inhibitors are often combined with what?
HCTZ
When on ACE/HCTZ combo, you should avoid what?
potassium supplements
Angiotension Receptor Blockers (ARBs) are very similar to what?
ACE inhibitors
What is the brand name of valsartan?
diovan
What is the brand name of telmisartan?
Micardis
What is the brand name of losartan?
cozaar
What is the brand name of olmesartan?
Benicar
What is the brand name of irbesartan?
avapro
What is the brand name of candesartan?
atacand
What is the only Direct Renin Inhibitor on the market?
Tekturna (aliskiren)
How do alpha-1 blockers work?
blocks blood vessels ability to constrict
What is the brand name of doxazosin?
cardura
What is the brand name of terazosin?
hytrin
Alpha-1 blockers shouldn’t be mixed with what?
viagra, cialis, and levitra
How do Alpha-2 agonists work?
dilates blood vessels to lower BP
What is the brand name for Clonidine?
catapres
How do vasodilators work?
opens up blood vessels
What is the brand name for hydralazine?
apresoline
Nitrates are used for what?
angina/ chest pain
How do nitrates work?
opens up blood vessels and increases blood distribution of oxygen to the heart
What are the two most common nitrates?
nitroglycerin and isosorbide
Nitrates won’t work if used continuously for how long?
24 hours
What is a “nitrate free period”
a separation of doses by 7 to 12 hours
nitroglycerin breaks down quickly when exposed to what?
light and air
What is an example of a cardia glycoside?
digoxin
What is a common test while on a cardia glycoside?
EKG
Antiarrhythmics are used to treat what?
hearts beating out of rhythm
tachycardia means the heart is doing what?
beating too fast
what is a arrhythmias?
skipping heartbeat
What is the brand name for amiodarone?
cordarone
What is the brand name for sotalol?
betapace
What do antithrombotics do?
prevent blood clot formation
Anticoagulants are used to do what?
prevent blood clots that from in the veins or atrium of the heart
Warfarin and enoxparin are both what?
anticoagulants
When on a coagulant, you need to have a consistent of what?
vitamin K
When on an anticoagulant, the blood monitoring includes what?
platelet count and hematocrit (HCT)
Newer blood thinners (xarelto, eliquis) don’t require what?
monthly blood monitoring
Antiplatelets are used to do what?
prevent clots in the arteries
What are the two most common antiplatelets?
plavix and aspirin
Brilinta and Effient are used for what?
prevent heart attacks
What is the brand name for meloxicam?
Mobic
What is the brand name for etodolac?
Lodine
What is the brand name for Indomethacin?
indocin
What is the brand name for celecoxib?
celebrex
NSAIDs can have what negative sidfe effect?
can thin the blood
analgesics are what?
pain relievers
What is the max amount of analgesics in a 24hr span?
4 grams
What is the only Rx analgesic?
tramadol
What is the brand name of tramadol?
ultram
