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Pharmacy Technician University > Go Off, King > Flashcards

Go Off, King Flashcards

1
Q

What information would you find in the Drug Abuse and Dependence section of the package insert?

A

-med’s schedule classification, abuse and tolerance potential, if it’s a controlled substance

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2
Q

What information would you find in the Overdosage section of the package insert?

A

-signs, symptoms, and treatment options for an overdose

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3
Q

What information would you find in the product description section of the package insert?

A

-chemical name, structure, inactive ingredients

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4
Q

What information would you find in the clinical pharmacology section of the package insert?

A

-how it works, absorbed, and metabolized (explanations of various studies)

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5
Q

What information would you find in the nonclinical toxicology section of the package insert?

A

-cancer risks and effects on fertility

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6
Q

What information would you find in the clinical studies section of the package insert?

A

-information about how the drug works

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7
Q

What information would you find in the How Supplied section of the package insert?

A

-all the dosage forms, colors, shapes, markings, special storage rules

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8
Q

What information would you find in the Patient Counseling section of the package insert?

A

-the most important patient counseling points

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9
Q

What information would you find in the Contraindications section of the package insert?

A

-when a drug shouldn’t be used

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10
Q

What information would you find in the Drug Interactions section of the package insert?

A

-if a drug shouldn’t be used with another med

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11
Q

What information would you find in the Adverse reactions section of the package insert?

A

-what side effects it causes (constipation)

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12
Q

What information can you find in the Indications and Usage section of the package insert?

A

-what diseases/conditions the drug has been approved to treat

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13
Q

What information can you find in the Dosage and Administration section of the package insert?

A
  • what drug dose to use for certain patients

- provides special dosing schedules and administration requirements

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14
Q

What information can you find in the Use in Specific Populations section of the package insert?

A

-safety concerns when using during pregnancy

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15
Q

What does the OrangeBook list?

A

-which generics are equivalent to which drugs

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16
Q

What do therapeutic equivalents have?

A

-identical active ingredients, strength, dosage forms, absorption, and release

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17
Q

A rating code is made of how many letters?

A

2

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18
Q

In a rating code, what are the options for the first letter and what do they mean?

A
  • A= therapeutic equivalent

- B= not a therapeutic equivalent

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19
Q

In a rating code, what does the second letter demonstrate?

A

dosage form

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20
Q

What is the most common rating code?

A

AB

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21
Q

What is a benefit of Facts and Comparisons eAnswers?

A

you can do side by side comparisons of drugs

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22
Q

What is the downfall of Facts and Comparisons eAnswers?

A

it’s outdated

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23
Q

True or False: Prescriber’s Digital Preference log is no longer published

A

true

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24
Q

The USP-NF contains what information?

A

defines the standards of meds, dosage forms, drug substances, inactive ingredients

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25
Q

The handbook on injectable drugs is also called what?

A

Trissel’s

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26
Q

Trissel’s provides info on what?

A

If two parenteral drugs can be administered together

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27
Q

In rating codes, what do the letters A, N, P, and T mean when they are the second letter?

A 
A= oral
N= aerolization
P= injectable
T= topical
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28
Q

The FDA is a subset of which government department?

A

Health and Human Services

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29
Q

What is the FDA responsible for?

A

approval of Rx and OTC meds, labeling, and drug manufacturing standards

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30
Q

What is the CDC responsible for?

A

providing regulation for infection control, publishing the requirements for vaccines and national health issues

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31
Q

What is the DEA responsible for?

A

enforcing laws and regulations for controlled substances and illegal drugs, and requirements for dispensing and refilling controlled substances

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32
Q

What was the result of the Food and Drug Cosmetic Act of 1938?

A

before selling, manufacturers have to prove a drug’s purity, strength, and safety

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33
Q

What was the result of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906?

A

prohibited manufacturers from misbranding (false labeling) and adultering meds (contaminated)

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34
Q

What act created 2 classes of medications?

A

Duraham-Humphrey Act of 1951

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35
Q

What act led to us using child-resistant packaging on most meds?

A

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

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36
Q

True or False: sublingual nitroglycerin requires childproof packaging

A

false

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37
Q

True or False: oral contraceptives and hormonal treatments don’t require childproof packaging because of their memory aid packaging

A

True

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38
Q

Do inhalers require childproof packaging?

A

No

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39
Q

PPPA Act of 1970 says what about childproof packaging?

A

it can be opened by 90% of adults but not by 80% of kids younger than 5

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40
Q

When did the FDA start requiring package inserts?

A

1970

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41
Q

In an outpatient pharmacy, info has to be dispensed how frequently?

A

before every refill

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42
Q

In an inpatient pharmacy, info has to be dispensed how frequently?

A

before the first dose and once every 30 days

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43
Q

What does NDC stand for?

A

National Drug Code

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44
Q

NDCs are how many digits?

A

10

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45
Q

The first three digits of the NDC are what?

A

The Labeler Code: Manufacturer or Distributor

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46
Q

The middle three digits of the NDC are what?

A

The Product code: name, strength, and dosage form

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47
Q

The last three digits of the NDC are what?

A

Package code: size and type of packaging

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48
Q

How do the amount of digits in an NDC section vary?

A 
Labeler= 4/5
product= 3/4
package= 1/2
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49
Q

The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Act of 1984 is also called what?

A

the Hatch-Waxman Act

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50
Q

What was the result of the Hatch-Waxman Act?

A
  • abbreviated new drug applications (ANDA) for generic meds

- still must prove generic is safe, effective, and performs like name brand

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51
Q

The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA 90) resulted in what?

A

-requires pharmacists to discuss info about meds with patients

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52
Q

Most dietary supplements are not considered drugs, but are considered what?

A

vitamins, minerals, and herbs

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53
Q

When did the FDA begin requiring solid oral dosage forms to have marking/imprints on the product?

A

1995

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54
Q

What governs the sharing of private information?

A

HIPPA

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55
Q

What are the three main rules of HIPPA?

A
  • protect patient info
  • use and disclose only the necessary amount of protected info
  • patients have rights to approve who can access or use their medical info
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56
Q

Name, DOB, address, phone number, medical record, insurance info, etc. are all part of what?

A

Protected Health Info (PHI)

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57
Q

A handout with information on a medication’s significant risks is called what?

A

Medguide

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58
Q

Medguides are for what kinds of drugs?

A

Ones that pose the most serious public health risks

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59
Q

Who protects health, safety, and welfare of patients by setting laws specific to practice of pharmacy?

A

Board of Pharmacy

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60
Q

Who’s pharmacy laws are normally stricter: federal or state?

A

state

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61
Q

How many steps are in the drug approval process?

A

4

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62
Q

What is the first step in the drug approval process?

A

creation and study: drugs are identified as drugs or biologics

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63
Q

What is the second step in the drug approval process?

A

preclinical testing: animal trials to determine if safe and effective

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64
Q

What is the third step in the drug approval process?

A

clinical testing: investigational new drug (IND) application filed with the FDA
-once approved, INDs go through 3 phases

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65
Q

What is the fourth step in the drug approval process?

A

FDA approval: if a drug proves safe and effective in all three phases the drug manufacturer can apply for a new drug application (NDA)
-can take months or even years

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66
Q

What does the Institutional Review Board (IRB) do?

A

reviews and approves research within human subjects

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67
Q

What is the role of the drug sponsor in research?

A

providing funding to support the research

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68
Q

What is the role of the principal investigator in research?

A

who wants to conduct the study and who is responsible and accountable for the study implementation

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69
Q

Why would a drug be recalled?

A

it causes or could potentially cause adverse events

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70
Q

What is a class 1 recall?

A

likely to cause serious adverse events or death

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71
Q

What is a class 2 recall?

A

likely to cause temporary, but reversible side effects

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72
Q

What is a class 3 recall?

A

unlikely to cause adverse effects

ex: mislabeled count on bottles

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73
Q

Recalls are not equal to what?

A

Market Withdrawals

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74
Q

Market Withdrawals can’t return without what?

A

FDA approval

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75
Q

When a new drug is created, is has a patented brand name with exclusive rights for how long?

A

20 years

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76
Q

When a generic comes out after a 20 year patent, it has to be what?

A

pharmaceutically equivalent

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77
Q

What does it mean to be pharmaceutically equivalent?

A

same active ingredients, strength, dosage form, rout of administration

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78
Q

Therapeutic equivalents are what two things?

A

Pharmaceutically equivalent and bioequivalent

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79
Q

What does it mean to be bioequivalent?

A

it is absorbed and released in the body the same way

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80
Q

An authorized generic is identical to what?

A

the brand name

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81
Q

What does it mean when there is a number after the TE rating code?

A

meds with the same active ingredient are therapeutically equivalent to different brand name drugs

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82
Q

A pharmacological alternative has what?

A

The same active ingredients, but different strength and dosage forms

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83
Q

A therapeutic alternative has what?

A

similar product, but different active ingredients

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84
Q

Is a therapeutic equivalent the same as a therapeutic alternative?

A

Nah

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85
Q

What would be a therapeutic alternative of Motrin 800 mg tablets?

A

naproxen 500 mg tablets

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86
Q

What would be a pharmacologic alternative of Motrin 800 mg tablets?

A

Motrin 400 mg tablets

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87
Q

What is another name for automatic substitution in hospitals?

A

Formulary

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88
Q

Outpatient pharmacies have to call the prescriber for what?

A

Substitution authorization

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89
Q

What does DAW stand for?

A

Dispense As Written

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90
Q

Define DAW 0

A

No product selection preferred

-okay to substitute

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91
Q

Define DAW 1

A

Substitution is NOT allowed

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92
Q

Define DAW 2

A

Substitution is allowed

-patient requests brand

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93
Q

Define DAW 7

A

Substitution is NOT allowed

-mandated by state law

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94
Q

Define DAW 3

A

pharmacist decides that brand name product is to be dispensed

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95
Q

Define DAW 4

A

substitution is allowed, but generic is not in stock

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96
Q

Define DAW 5

A

Substitution is allowed, but the brand is dispensed as the generic

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97
Q

Define DAW 6

A

override is required (rare)

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98
Q

Define DAW 8

A

substitution is allowed, but the generic is not available in the marketplace

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99
Q

Define DAW 9

A

OTHER

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100
Q

DAW codes tell the insurance provider what?

A

if a special circumstance exists that affects product selection for the prescription

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101
Q

The Controlled Substances Act was created to do what?

A

define and regulate controlled substances

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102
Q

Who governs the Controlled Substances Act?

A

DEA

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103
Q

How many schedules are there?

A

5

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104
Q

Cardio means what?

A

Heart

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105
Q

Vas, Vado means what?

A

Blood vessel

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106
Q

What schedule is the most dangerous? Least dangerous?

A

1 = most, 5 = least

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107
Q

Schedule 2 substances are mostly what?

A

opioids and stimulants

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108
Q

True or False: Physician Assistants, Nurse Practitioners, and optometrists can write controlled substance prescriptions

A

false (SOME states)

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109
Q

What is required for a prescriber to write a controlled substance prescription?

A

DEA number

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110
Q

A DEA number has how many characters?

A

9

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111
Q

What does UIN stand for?

A

Unique Identification Number

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112
Q

What is the first letter of a pharmacy’s DEA number?

A

B

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113
Q

What are the things prescriptions must include?

A
  • date of issue
  • patient’s full name
  • patient’s address
  • prescriber’s name
  • prescriber’s address
  • prescriber DEA number
  • drug name
  • dosage form
  • quantity
  • directions
  • number of refills
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114
Q

True or False: schedule 2 substances cannot be called or faxed in

A

true

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115
Q

the feds require pharmacies to complete a controlled substance inventory how often?

A

every 2 years from date of first inventory

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116
Q

How long does federal law require pharmacies to keep inventory records?

A

2 years

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117
Q

Partial fills for c2 substances is allowed, but the rest must be filled within how much time?

A

72 hours

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118
Q

How many forms come with DEA form 222?

A

3

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119
Q

What are the three forms of the 222?

A

1st- supplier’s copy
2nd- DEA’s copy
3rd- pharmacy copy

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120
Q

How long does a 222 form need to be saved?

A

2 years

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121
Q

When drugs expire, where are they sent?

A

DEA registered collector

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122
Q

Wasting requires how many signatures?

A

2

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123
Q

Who are the 2 signees of wasting?

A
  • one destroying the med

- the witness

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124
Q

The pharmacy must submit what form to document destruction?

A

DEA form 41

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125
Q

What from is sent in when reporting theft?

A

DEA Form 106

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126
Q

How much pseudoephedrine can be sold?

A

3.6 grams a day, 9 grams over 30 days

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127
Q

Isotretinoin treats what?

A

Severe acne

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128
Q

Isotretinoin is what?

A

teratogenic

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129
Q

Isotretinoin is very dangerous to who?

A

pregnant women

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130
Q

What program gives a “do not dispense to patient after” date regarding isotretinoin?

A

IPLEDGE

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131
Q

Lotronex (alosetron) is used for what?

A

IBS

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132
Q

What are some side effects of Lotronex?

A

Ischemic colitis, complications from constipation

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133
Q

Clozapine is used to treat what?

A

mental disorders

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134
Q

Clozapine can cause what?

A

agranulocytosis (don’t make enough white blood cells)

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135
Q

REMS program is required for what?

A

transmucosal fentanyl

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136
Q

Cardio means what?

A

Heart

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137
Q

Vas/Vado means what?

A

Blood vessel

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138
Q

Vasodilators are what?

A

Drugs that cause the blood vessels to dilate or open to increase blood flow

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139
Q

The suffix -emia means what?

A

Substances in the blood

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140
Q

What does hem, hema mean?

A

Blood

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141
Q

What does thromb mean?

A

Blood clot

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142
Q

What does nephr mean?

A

Kidney

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143
Q

What does hepat mean?

A

Liver

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144
Q

What does gastro mean?

A

Stomach

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145
Q

What does thry mean?

A

Thyroid

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146
Q

What does derm?

A

Skin

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147
Q

What does osteo mean?

A

Bone

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148
Q

What does psych mean?

A

Mind

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149
Q

What does pulmo mean?

A

Lungs

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150
Q

What does bronch mean?

A

Bronchus

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151
Q

Oculo

A

Eye

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152
Q

Opthalm

A

Eyes

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153
Q

Oti

A

Ear

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154
Q

Gyne

A

Woman

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155
Q

Andro

A

Male

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156
Q

Chemo

A

Chemical

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157
Q

Ferro

A

Iron

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158
Q

Pyro

A

Heat

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159
Q

Hypno

A

Sleep

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160
Q

-mimetic

A

Mimicking

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161
Q

A (an)

A

Without

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162
Q

Hyper

A

Excessive

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163
Q

Hypo

A

Beneath

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164
Q

Auto

A

Self

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165
Q

Carcin

A

Cancer

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166
Q

Photo

A

Light

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167
Q

-itis

A

Inflammation

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168
Q

-rrhagia, rrhage, rrhea

A

Discharge, flowing

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169
Q

The sig is what?

A

The directions

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170
Q

The “disp” is what?

A

Quantity dispensed

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171
Q

What does “p” mean on a prescription?

A

After

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172
Q

What dues “c” mean in a prescription?

A

With

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173
Q

CM

A

With meals

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174
Q

AC

A

Before meals

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175
Q

PC

A

After meals

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176
Q

AM

A

Morning

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177
Q

PM

A

Afternoon

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178
Q

HS

A

At bedtime

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179
Q

Stat

A

At once

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180
Q

What does “d” mean on a prescription?

A

Day

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181
Q

What does “h” mean on a prescription?

A

Hour

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182
Q

aa

A

Affected area

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183
Q

PO

A

By mouth

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184
Q

en

A

Each nostril

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185
Q

SL

A

Sublingual

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186
Q

pr

A

Per rectum

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187
Q

IV

A

Intravenous

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188
Q

IVPB

A

Iv piggyback

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189
Q

IM

A

Intramuscular

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190
Q

SC, SubQ

A

Subcutaneous

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191
Q

AU

A

Both ears

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192
Q

ad

A

Right ear

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193
Q

as

A

Left ear

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194
Q

OU

A

Both eyes

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195
Q

OD

A

Right eye

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196
Q

OS

A

Left eye

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197
Q

IN

A

Intranasal

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198
Q

What does “Q” mean on a prescription?

A

Every

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199
Q

QD

A

Every day

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200
Q

QAM

A

Every morning

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201
Q

QPM

A

Every evening

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202
Q

QHS

A

Every bedtime

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203
Q

Q4h

A

Every 4 hours

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204
Q

QOD

A

Every other day

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205
Q

bid

A

2 times daily

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206
Q

tid

A

3 times daily

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207
Q

qid

A

Four times daily

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208
Q

nr

A

No refills

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209
Q

prn

A

As needed

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210
Q

uad, ud, ut dict

A

As directed

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211
Q

w,wk

A

Weekly

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212
Q

dtd

A

Dispense such doses

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213
Q

qs

A

Quantity sufficient

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214
Q

ss

A

One half

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215
Q

U

A

Unit

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216
Q

IU

A

International unit

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217
Q

APAP

A

Acetaminophen

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218
Q

ASA

A

Aspirin

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219
Q

FE

A

Iron

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220
Q

K

A

Potassium

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221
Q

Na

A

Sodium

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222
Q

HCL

A

Hydrochloride

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223
Q

MSO4

A

Morphine sulfate

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224
Q

MgSO4

A

Magnesium sulfate

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225
Q

ZnSO4

A

Zinc sulfate

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226
Q

PEN/PCN

A

Penicillin

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227
Q

TCN

A

Tetracycline

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228
Q

TMP/SMX

A

Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole

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229
Q

IV vanc

A

Vancomycin

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230
Q

HCTZ

A

Hydrochlorithiazide

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231
Q

NTG

A

Nitroglycerin

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232
Q

D5W

A

Dextrose 5% in water

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233
Q

LR

A

Lactated ringers

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234
Q

NS

A

Normal saline

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235
Q

What is a near miss?

A

An error that happened but didn’t reach the patient

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236
Q

What are the five rights?

A

right: drug, dose, patient, time, instructions

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237
Q

A safety data sheet communicates what?

A

storing and manipulating hazardous materials

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238
Q

What gives employees the right to know and understand safety data sheets?

A

OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard

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239
Q

Exposure documentation must be kept on file for how long?

A

30 years

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240
Q

Solid drugs are measured by what?

A

Weight

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241
Q

Liquid drugs are measured by what?

A

volume

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242
Q

How many grains are in a dram?

A

60

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243
Q

About how many mg in a grain?

A

60/65

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244
Q

Infants are dosed how frequently?

A

12-24 hours

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245
Q

Dosing for children is always done in what?

A

mg/kg

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246
Q

Subcutaneous injections are done where?

A

fat tissue

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247
Q

Milliequivalents (mEq) express what?

A

the concentration of electrolytes in a solution

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248
Q

“Units” are used for what?

A

Insulin, heparin, some vitamins

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249
Q

True or false: capsules contain preservatives

A

true

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250
Q

What does MCT stand for?

A

Multiple compressed tablets

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251
Q

What part of the package insert will say if the tablet can be divided?

A

Dosage and Administration

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252
Q

What does ODT stand for?

A

orally disintegrating tablets

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253
Q

What is a benefit of sublingual tablets and strips?

A

it avoids the stomach acids

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254
Q

A solute is what?

A

something completely dissolved in a solvent

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255
Q

adding water or another diluent to a powder at the time of dispensing is known as what?

A

Reconstituting

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256
Q

After reconstituting, antibiotic solutions are good for how long?

A

14 days

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257
Q

Do solutions or suspensions require a shake well label?

A

suspensions

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258
Q

A clear, sweetened, flavor combination of water and alcohol are known as what?

A

elixirs

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259
Q

Concentrated solutions of sugar in water are known as what?

A

syrup

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260
Q

Alcoholic or hydro alcoholic solutions or volatile substances are known as what?

A

spirits

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261
Q

Spirits are stored in what?

A

tight, light-resistant containers

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262
Q

What are tinctures?

A

alcoholic/hydroalcholic solutions prepared from vegetable extracts

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263
Q

Substances in which medication particles are not completely dissolved in a liquid are called what?

A

suspension

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264
Q

What is a solution?

A

preparations in which the solid ingredients of medications are dissolved in a liquid

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265
Q

Oil-based, greasy preparations that are good for dry and scaly areas are what?

A

ointments

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266
Q

Semi-solid emulsions that contain a combo of water, oil, active drug ingredients, as well as other substances are called what?

A

creams

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267
Q

Creams are better for what?

A

Weeping or oozing

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268
Q

Lotions are similar to creams, but they contain more what?

A

water

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269
Q

lotions are better for what?

A

hairy parts

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270
Q

semisolid preparations that contain small, solid particles suspended in a liquid are what?

A

gels

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271
Q

What is a highly flammable mixture where the active ingredient is dissolved in alcohol and ether?

A

collodion

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272
Q

What is a liquid mixture of various substances in an oil, emulsion, or alcoholic solution of soap?

A

liniments

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273
Q

What provides a protective layer over the area of the skin?

A

paste

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274
Q

What is the fingertip unit?

A
  1. 5g (enough to cover bother sides of an adult hand)
    - 3= 1 adult arm
    - 2= 1 adult foot
    - 6= one adult leg
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275
Q

With a transdermal patch, the drug is delivered where?

A

through the skin

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276
Q

True or false: ophthalmics need to be sterile, but otics don’t

A

true

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277
Q

How many types of inhalers are there?

A

3

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278
Q

What is an MDI?

A

meter-dosed inhaler

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279
Q

What is an SMI?

A

soft-mist inhaler

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280
Q

What is a DPI?

A

dry powdered inhalers

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281
Q

An HFA is what?

A

A propellant used in most MDIs

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282
Q

What does an SMI use to aerosolize the drug?

A

a spring

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283
Q

What does a DPI use to aerosolize the drug?

A

the patient’s breath

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284
Q

Which inhalers need to be primed before use?

A

MDI and SMI

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285
Q

Rectal suppositories create what kind of effect?

A

local

286
Q

Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are inserted by who?

A

the doctor

287
Q

parenteral dosages avoids what?

A

the stomach

288
Q

Large Volume Preparations (LVP) are larger than what?

A

250 mL

289
Q

What is an IV push?

A

the use of a syringe to inject into the IV line

290
Q

Most IV meds are what?

A

solutions

291
Q

IV emulsions are what?

A

mixtures of water and oil

292
Q

What does it mean to have similar toxicity?

A

Same number of dissolved particles as blood

293
Q

What is it called when there is similar toxicity?

A

Isotonic solutions

294
Q

What kind of solution has a greater number of dissolved particles than blood cells?

A

Hypertonic solution

295
Q

Where is a hypertonic solution used?

A

Large vein

296
Q

True or false: IM injections can be solutions or suspensions

A

True

297
Q

Intradermal injections are injected where?

A

Upper layers of skin

298
Q

IM injections use how long of needles?

A

5/8” to 1.5”

299
Q

SubQ injections use how long of needles?

A

5/16” to 5/8”

300
Q

What does it mean when the needle gauge is larger?

A

The skinnier it is

301
Q

USP Chapter 800 talks about what?

A

Handling hazardous drugs

302
Q

OBRA ‘90 requires what?

A

Patients are offered counseling by the pharmacist

303
Q

Automated Dispensing Devices (ADDS) are what?

A

Computerized drug storage devices

304
Q

HMO, Medicare, Medicaid and PPO are what?

A

Managed care organizations (MCO)

305
Q

What are Managed Care Organizations?

A

Insurances that keep costs low while providing quality, comprehensive healthcare

306
Q

Insurance that pays for an employee’s healthcare after they’ve been hurt on the job is called what?

A

Worker’s compensation

307
Q

And medical insurance card is used when?

A

Visiting doctor’s office

308
Q

A pharmacy benefits card is what?

A

Pharmacy coverage only; used for prescriptions

309
Q

An ongoing amount paid by an individual to maintain coverage is called what?

A

A premium

310
Q

Plan-specific limits outlining amounts the patient and the plan will pay during the plan year is called what?

A

Coverage stages

311
Q

Plan specific lists of drugs covered by insurance, organized in tiers based on cost are called what?

A

Plan formulary

312
Q

Who is eligible for Medicaid?

A

Low income people

313
Q

Who is eligible for Medicare?

A

People above 65

314
Q

What does Medicare part A cover?

A

Hospital visits and meds during stay, skilled nursing facility, hospice care, or home healthcare

315
Q

Medicare part B covers what?

A

Outpatient care and some related prescriptions, doctor visits, vaccines, PT, medical equipment, home healthcare, some lab tests, specific post-surgery DME, diabetic testing supplies, limited meds

316
Q

What does Medicare part D cover?

A

Outpatient prescriptions (many different part D plans are administered by private insurance companies

317
Q

What does Medicare part C cover?

A

Combo of other 3

318
Q

When do you enroll for Medicare part D?

A

Age 65

319
Q

True or false: you can enroll in Medicare part D 3 months before or after your 65th birthday?

A

True

320
Q

People over 65 who don’t enroll during their initial period are penalized with what?

A

Permanently higher premiums

321
Q

When is open enrollment for Medicare part D?

A

October 15- December 7

322
Q

When are the effective dates for Medicare part D?

A

January 1- December 31

323
Q

You can enroll in Medicare part D if you’re under 65 if you have what?

A

A disability

324
Q

The total drug cost for Medicare part D is what?

A

$435

325
Q

Tricare covers who?

A

All active and retired service members and their families

326
Q

Employers usually offer employees insurance through the rough private insurers known as what?

A

MCOs

2 options- HMO, PPO

327
Q

A network of providers and facilities offering comprehensive care are called what?

A

HMO

328
Q

When a patient manages their own care and chooses preferred or out of network providers and facility they have a what?

A

PPO

329
Q

The ID number issues to prescribers and pharmacies by the centers for Medicare and Medicaid services is what?

A

National Provider Identifier (NPI)

330
Q

What is the number for the policyholder?

A

01

331
Q

What is the number for the spouse/partner?

A

02

332
Q

What is the number for children?

A

03,04 on birth order

333
Q

What is the issuer ID number?

A

8 digit number that identifies the correct insurance company to bill

334
Q

What is considered frozen temperature?

A

-25- -10 degrees Celsius, to -13 to 14 degrees Fahrenheit

335
Q

What temperatures are considered refrigerated?

A

2-8 degrees Celsius, 36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit

336
Q

What is considered room temp?

A

15-30 degrees Celsius, 59-86 degrees Fahrenheit

337
Q

What is the formula for Celsius to Fahrenheit?

A

(9)(degrees Celsius)/ 5, then add 32

338
Q

What is the formula for Fahrenheit to Celsius?

A

(Degrees Fahrenheit minus 32) x 5/9

339
Q

What does USP stand for?

A

United States Pharmacopeia

340
Q

What does BUD stand for?

A

Beyond Use Date

341
Q

A single source that sells drugs and suppliers is called what?

A

Wholesaler

342
Q

What does PAR stand for?

A

Periodic automatic replenishment

343
Q

The study of drugs and its interactions with the body?

A

Pharmacology

344
Q

What is an indication?

A

What a med is used for?

345
Q

What is the Class of a drug?

A

Group of med it belongs to

346
Q

What is the dosage form?

A

Physical form and route of administration of a drug

347
Q

The study of how a drug interacts with the body is known as what?

A

Pharmacodynamics

348
Q

The study of how the body interacts with a drug is known as what?

A

Pharmacokinetics

349
Q

What does LADME mean in pharmacology?

A

Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination

350
Q

What is Liberation?

A

Drug breaks down, active ingredient escapes

351
Q

What is Absorption?

A

Med is absorbed into the bloodstream

352
Q

What is distribution?

A

Med moves to where it needs to go

353
Q

What is metabolism?

A

Destruction of a the drug into inactive ingredients

354
Q

What is Elimination?

A

The removal of the drug through urine or feces

355
Q

Where the drugs fits or binds is called what?

A

The receptor

356
Q

What does an agonist for?

A

Stimulates the body to do an action

357
Q

What does an antagonist do?

A

Blocks the body from doing an action

358
Q

Undesirable effects of a drug or medical treatment are called what?

A

Side effects

359
Q

True or false: geriatric patients have a faster elimination of drugs

A

False

360
Q

What organs are responsible for eliminating the drug?

A

Kidneys and liver

361
Q

Narrow-spectrum antibiotics combats what?

A

A specific bacteria

362
Q

How many antibiotic classes are there?

A

6

363
Q

Penicillin, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams are what kind of antibiotics?

A

Beta Lactam

364
Q

Ampicillin should not be administered with what?

A

gentamicin or other aminoglycosides

365
Q

Keflex, Ceftin, and Omnicef are what kind of Beta Lactam antibiotics?

A

Cephalosporins

366
Q

All cephalopsporins carry what?

A

A beta-lactam ring

367
Q

Meropenem, Ertopenem, and Imipenem (cilastatin) are what kind of beta-lactam antibiotic?

A

Carbapenems

368
Q

Aztreonam is what kind of beta-lactam antibiotic?

A

monobactam

369
Q

Macrolide antibiotics are commonly used for what?

A

Respiratory or STDs

370
Q

What are the two common Macrolide antibiotics?

A

Zithromax and Biaxin

371
Q

True or false: Erythromycin is common today

A

False

372
Q

Zithromax is available in what kind of dosing packs?

A

3 or 5 days

373
Q

Sulfonamide antibiotics are often used to treat what?

A

upper respiratory infections/UTIs

374
Q

Bactrim/Septra is a combo product of what?

A

trimethoprim (antibiotic) and sulfamethoxazole (sulfonamide)

-abbreviated TMP/SMX

375
Q

Sulfa group is responsible for what?

A

Hypersensitivity reactions

376
Q

Tetracycline is often used to treat what?

A

acne, STDs, some respiratory infections

377
Q

Doxycycline and minocycline are the most common what?

A

tetracycline

378
Q

What are the brand names for tetrracycline?

A

Sumycin, Panmycin

379
Q

What are the brand names for minocycline?

A

Dynacin, solodyn

380
Q

What are the brand names for doxycycline?

A

Doryx, vibramycin

381
Q

Aminoglycosides are used to treat what?

A

severe bacterial infections

382
Q

Most aminoglycosides are available as what?

A

IV or IM

383
Q

Tobramycin and gentamicin are what kind of antibitoics?

A

aminoglycosides

384
Q

What is the brand name for Tobramycin/dexamethasone?

A

Tobradex

385
Q

What is the brand name for gentamicin?

A

Gentak

386
Q

What lab tests would a pharmacist care about if someone was taking an aminoglycoside?

A
  • BUN (blood urea nitrogen
  • SCr (serum creatinine)

(both are kidney funcation lab values)

387
Q

What is the brand name for tobramycin?

A

Nebcin, Tobrex

388
Q

What is the brand name for Neomycin Sulfate?

A

Neosporin

389
Q

Fluoroquinolones are antibiotics that treat what?

A

respiratory, urinary tract, and intestinal infections

390
Q

What are some adverse reactions of fluoroquinolones?

A

tendon rupture, mental changes, heart rhythm problems

391
Q

Tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones need to be separate from what?

A

antacids and multivitamins

392
Q

levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, and ciprofloxacin are all what?

A

fluoroquinolones

393
Q

what is the brand name for levofloxacin?

A

Levaquin

394
Q

What is the brand name for moxifloxacin?

A

Avelox, vigamox

395
Q

What is the brand name for ciprofloxacin?

A

Cipro, Ciloxan

396
Q

What is the brand name for ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone?

A

Ciprodex

397
Q

Vancomycin is used to treat what?

A

MRSA infections

398
Q

Clindamycin is used to treat what?

A

skin, vaginal, respiratory, and intestinal infections

399
Q

Clindamycin is an effective what?

A

acne treatment

400
Q

Metronidazole is used to treat what?

A

protozoal infections

401
Q

What do you need to avoid when you’re on metronidazole?

A

alcohol

402
Q

Nitrofurantoin is used to treat what?

A

UTIs

403
Q

Mupirocin is used to treat what?

A

skin infections

404
Q

What is the brand name for linezolid?

A

zyvox

405
Q

What is the brand name for vancomycin?

A

Vancocin

406
Q

What is the brand name for clindamycin?

A

cleocin

407
Q

What is the brand name for metronidazole?

A

Flagyl

408
Q

What is the brand name for nitrofurantoin?

A

Macrodantin, Furadantin, Macrobid

409
Q

What is the brand name for Mupirocin?

A

Bactroban

410
Q

Ringworm, vaginal yeast infections, and athlete’s foot are what kind of infections?

A

fungal

411
Q

Many vaginal yeast infections and oral thrush cases are due to what?

A

candida

412
Q

Clotrimazole troches are for what?

A

oral thrush

413
Q

Monistat is used to treat what?

A

vaginal yeast infections

414
Q

What is the combo of clotrimazole and betamethasone called?

A

lotrisone

415
Q

The combo nystatin and betamethasone is called what?

A

Mycologell

416
Q

What is the generic name for nizoral?

A

ketoconazole

417
Q

What is the generic name for lamisil?

A

terbinafine

418
Q

if on an antiviral, a prescriber may check what lab tests?

A

LFT (liver function tests)

419
Q

What is the brand name for fluconazole?

A

diflucan

420
Q

What is the brand name for clotrimazole?

A

Lotrimin

421
Q

What is the brand name for Nystatin?

A

mycostatin

422
Q

How do antivirals work?

A

influencing the replication of the virus

423
Q

What are the most common viral skin infections?

A

Herpes and warts

424
Q

Aldara is used to treat what?

A

warts

425
Q

HSV-1 is what?

A

Cold sores

426
Q

HSV-2 is what?

A

genital herpes

427
Q

Abreva helps heal what?

A

cold sores

428
Q

Acyclovir can be hard on what?

A

the kidneys

429
Q

If on anti virals, the prescriber may monitor what?

A

BUN, SCr (renal labs)

430
Q

What is the brand name for Valacyclovir?

A

Valtrex

431
Q

What is the brand name for acyclovir?

A

zovirax

432
Q

What is the brand name for valganciclovir?

A

valcyte

433
Q

What is the brand name for famiciclovir?

A

Famvir

434
Q

What is the brand name for Imiquimod?

A

Aldara

435
Q

What is the brand name for Docosonal?

A

Abreva

436
Q

Most respiratory infections are due to what?

A

viruses

437
Q

What is the brand name for oseltamivir?

A

Tamiflu

438
Q

Antiretroviral agents are divided into 6 classes based on what?

A

the effect on HIV

439
Q

What is the brand name for the lamivudine/zidovudine combo?

A

combivir

440
Q

Live vaccines contain what?

A

a weakened version of the living virus or bacteria

441
Q

What vaccines are safe for pregnant and immunocompromised patients?

A

inactivated vaccines

442
Q

What kind of vaccines contain only a portion of the bacteria or virus, instead of the organism?

A

Subunit vaccines

443
Q

What temperatures do vaccines need to be kept at in the fridge?

A

2-8 degrees Celsius

36-46 degrees Fahrenheit

444
Q

What temperatures do vaccines need to be kept at in the freezer?

A
  • 50 to -15 degrees celcius

- 58 to 5 degrees Fahrenheit

445
Q

Egg free flu vaccines are grown in what?

A

Insect cells

446
Q

When everything on a person starts to swell and they cant breath, they might be suffering from what?

A

anaphylactic shock

447
Q

Vaccines for Hepatitis B are grown in what?

A

yeast

448
Q

True or False: 2 live vaccines can be administered at the same time

A

true

449
Q

If 2 live vaccines aren’t administered at the same time, how long does someone have to wait to get the second?

A

4 weeks

450
Q

Are Zostavax and MMR live or unactivated vaccines?

A

live

451
Q

Is Pneumoxav live or unactivated?

A

unactivated

452
Q

After receiving a vaccine, children should avoid what?

A

salicylate drugs (aspirin)

453
Q

Patients who are taking antiviral agents against herpes need to wait how long before receiving a vaccine?

A

24 hrs

454
Q

Which kind of vaccines are more likely to cause systemic reactions?

A

Live

455
Q

Adace/TDAP is the vaccine for what?

A

pertussis, diphtheria, tetanus

456
Q

Medicare part B covers what vaccines?

A

influenza, pneumococcal, Hepatitis B

457
Q

Medicare Part D covers what regarding vaccines?

A

cost, dispensing fee, administration, other vaccines not covered by B

458
Q

IM injections need to be administered at what angle?

A

90 degrees

459
Q

SubQ injections need to be administered at what angle?

A

45 degrees

460
Q

What do bronchodilators do?

A

open up bronchioles inside the lungs

461
Q

Bronchodilators are divided into how many groups?

A

3

462
Q

What are the three groups of bronchodilators?

A

Beta-2 agonists, Xanthine’s, anticholinergics

463
Q

Beta-2 agonists do what?

A

relax the muscles surrounding the airways

464
Q

Short acting Beta-2 agonists are also known as what?

A

rescue inhalers

465
Q

Salmeterol, Formoterol, Olodaterol, and Indacterol are all what?

A

Beta-2 Agonists

466
Q

Xanthines have what?

A

an anti-inflammatory effect on airways

467
Q

Theophyline and Aminophyline are what?

A

Xanthines

468
Q

Ipratropium, Acldinium, Umeclidinium, SMI and Tiotropium are what?

A

Inhaled Anticholinergics

469
Q

What is the brand name for Levalbuterol?

A

Xopenex

470
Q

What is the brand name for Salmeterol?

A

Serevent Diskus

471
Q

What is the brand name for Theophylline?

A

Uniphyl, Theo-24

472
Q

What is the brand name for Aminophyline?

A

Norphyl

473
Q

What is the brand name for Tiotropium?

A

Spiriva

474
Q

What is the brand name of Indacaterol/glyco?

A

Utibron

475
Q

What is the brand name for Oladaterol/tiot?

A

Stiolto

476
Q

What is the brand name for Vilanterol/Umec?

A

Anoro

477
Q

What is the brand name for Albuterol/iprat.?

A

Combivent

478
Q

What is the brand name for Ipratropium?

A

Atrovent

479
Q

Corticosteroids do what?

A

decrease inflammation in airway

480
Q

Corticosteroids are used for what?

A

allergy symptoms and to prevent asthma attacks

481
Q

True or False: Using corticosteroids orally is bad

A

true

482
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids can lead to what?

A

thrush

483
Q

What are the most common corticosteroid and long acting bronchodilators combos?

A

Fluticasone/Salmeterol, Budesonide/Formoterol

484
Q

Leukotriene modifiers do what?

A

help relax muscles and reduce inflammation in the airways

-used to PREVENT

485
Q

Mast cell stabilizers are reserved for who?

A

patients with allergic asthma or exercise induced asthma

486
Q

Antihistamines do what?

A

dry up nasal and respiratory secretions

487
Q

What are the 2 groups of antihistamines?

A

1st and 2nd gen

488
Q

Diphenhydramine and chlorpheniramine are which generation of antihistamine?

A

first

489
Q

What is the brand name for diphenhydramine?

A

Benadryl

490
Q

What is the brand name for Chlorpheniramine?

A

Chlor-Trimeton

491
Q

What is the biggest side effect of antihistamines?

A

drowsiness

492
Q

Tylenol PM, Sominex, and Nytol are examples of what?

A

1st gen antihistamine sleep agents

493
Q

Less sedating antihistamine products are which generation?

A

2nd

494
Q

Loratadine, cetirizine, and fexofenadine are what?

A

2nd gen antihistamines

495
Q

What is the brand name for loratadine?

A

claritin

496
Q

What is the brand name for cetirizine?

A

Zyrtec

497
Q

What is the brand name for fexofenadine?

A

allegra

498
Q

Gen 2 antihistamines are good for allergies, but now what?

A

cold symptoms

499
Q

What is the brand name for levocetirizine?

A

Xyzal

500
Q

What relives nasal stuffiness by constricting blood vessels in the nose?

A

decongestants

501
Q

What are the three main types of decongestants without a prescription?

A
  • pseudoephedrine
  • phenylephrine
  • nasal spray
502
Q

Nasal spray decongestants can only be used for how long?

A

3 days

503
Q

What is the brand name for oxymetazaline?

A

Afrin

504
Q

When a generic allergy med is mixed with pseudoephedrine, what letter will be added to the brand name?

A

D

505
Q

What thins mucus excretions in the lungs?

A

expectorants

506
Q

What is the brand name for guaifenesin?

A

Mucinex

507
Q

What is often used in combo with guaifenesin?

A

dextromethorphan (Delsym)

508
Q

Antitussives suppress what?

A

cough

509
Q

topical corticosteroids reduce what?

A

itching and inflammation

510
Q

low potency topical corticosteroids are used on who?

A

children

511
Q

Topical treatment shouldn’t exceed how long?

A

2 weeks

512
Q

What is the brand name for Triamcinolone acetonide?

A

Kenalog

513
Q

What is the brand name for Clobetasol propionate?

A

tenovate

514
Q

What is the brand name for hydrocortisone?

A

cortisone

515
Q

What is the brand name for fluocinonide?

A

Lidex

516
Q

What is the brand name for mometasone furoate?

A

Elocon

517
Q

What is the brand name for betamethasone?

A

Diprolene

518
Q

What condition is characterized by white scales over red patches of skin?

A

psoriasis

519
Q

Protopic is used to treat what?

A

psoriasis

520
Q

what is the brand name for Calcipotriene/betamethasone ?

A

taclomex

521
Q

What is the brand name for calcipotriene?

A

dovonex

522
Q

What is the brand name for tacrolimus?

A

protopic

523
Q

What is the brand name for pimecrolimus?

A

Elidel

524
Q

OTC topical acne meds often contain what?

A

Benzoyl Peroxide (salicyclic acid)

525
Q

0.1% and 0.3% topical treatments are what?

A

prescription

526
Q

Tetracycline and macrolide are common what?

A

oral antibiotics

527
Q

What is low dose doxycycline called?

A

Periostat

528
Q

What is extended release minocycline called?

A

Solodyn

529
Q

Isotretinoin should never be given to who?

A

pregnant women

530
Q

What is the brand name for isotretinoin?

A

Accutane

531
Q

What is the brand name for adapalene?

A

Differin

532
Q

What is the brand name for tretinoin?

A

Retin-A

533
Q

Alopecia is a condition where what is lost?

A

hair

534
Q

What is the brand name for minoxidil?

A

Rogaine

535
Q

What is the brand name for finasteride?

A

propecia

536
Q

Vigamox and Tobradex are used for what?

A

eye infections

537
Q

Xalatan (Latanoprost) is used for what?

A

Glaucoma

538
Q

There are how many classes of drugs used for treating glaucoma?

A

5

539
Q

Many drugs lower pressure in the eye by doing what?

A

reducing the amount of fluid in the eye

540
Q

Xalatan and Lumigan can cause the eye to do what?

A

change color

541
Q

What is the brand name of Xalatan?

A

Latanoprost

542
Q

What is the brand name of travoprost?

A

Travatan

543
Q

What is the brand name of Bimatoprost?

A

Lumigan

544
Q

What is the brand name of Tafluprost?

A

Zioptan

545
Q

What is the brand name of brimonidine?

A

Alphagan

546
Q

What is the brand name of brimonidine and timolol?

A

Combigan

547
Q

What is the brand name of dorzolamide/timolol?

A

cosopt

548
Q

Dry eyes are most often treated with what?

A

artificial tears or ointments

549
Q

Restasis and Xiidra are prescription meds for what?

A

dry eyes

550
Q

Visine helps red eyes by doing what?

A

constricting blood vessels in the eyes

551
Q

What is the brand name for olopatadine?

A

patanol

552
Q

What is the brand name for cyclosporine?

A

restatsis

553
Q

What is the brand name for tetrahydrazoline?

A

visine

554
Q

What is the brand name for lifitegrast?

A

xiidra

555
Q

What is cirpodex used for?

A

ear infections

556
Q

What is debrox used for?

A

ear wax removal

557
Q

corticosteroids are added to otic solutions to reduce what?

A

inflammation, redness, and swelling

558
Q

Mild acid refulx is known as what?

A

heartburn

559
Q

Persistent heartburn and damage to the esophagus are known as what?

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

560
Q

Antacids neutralize what?

A

gastric acid

561
Q

magnesium containing products cause what when used alone?

A

diarrhea

562
Q

You should not have antacids if you have bad what?

A

kidneys

563
Q

Levothyroxine and antacids should be separated by how long?

A

4 hours

564
Q

Calcium carbonate are known as what?

A

tums

565
Q

calcium carbonate/ magnesium hydroxid?

A

rolaids

566
Q

H-2 receptor antagonists do what?

A

suppress acid secretion by working against cells in the stomach that produce acid

567
Q

What are popular H-2 blockers?

A

ranitidine, famotidine, cimetidine

568
Q

Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) do what?

A

act on acid pumps in the stomach to prevent acid production

569
Q

What is the brand name of esomeprazole?

A

nexium

570
Q

What is the brand name of omeprazole?

A

prilosec

571
Q

What is the brand name for lansoprazole?

A

prevacid

572
Q

what is the brand name for rabeprazole?

A

Aciptlex

573
Q

What is the brand name for pantoprazole?

A

protonix

574
Q

What is the brand name for dexlansoprazole?

A

Dexilant

575
Q

Antidiarrheals work by doing what?

A

slowing the movement of the intestines (absorbs excess water and fluids)

576
Q

The most common antidiarrheals are what?

A

Imodium and Lomotil

577
Q

Lomotil is what schedule?

A

5

578
Q

Pepto-Bismol should be avoided by people who are what?

A

allergic to aspirin

579
Q

what is the brand name of loperamide?

A

Imodium

580
Q

What is the brand name of diphenoxylate/atropine?

A

Lomotil

581
Q

What is the brand name of bismuth-subsalicylate?

A

pepto-bismol

582
Q

How many kinds of laxatives are there?

A

8

583
Q

Laxatives are given how long before/after tetracyclines and digoxin?

A

2 hours

584
Q

What is the most popular stool softener?

A

docusate

585
Q

All magnesium products should be avoided by who?

A

people with bad kidneys

586
Q

saline laxatives do what?

A

draw fluid into the intestines and slow down colon transit time

587
Q

Hyperosmotic laxatives work by doing what?

A

increasing fluid in the intestinal lining

588
Q

Polyethylene is often used before what?

A

colonoscopies

589
Q

Stimulant laxatives do what?

A

stimulate the intestines to promote motility

590
Q

Stimulant laxatives should be only be used as what?

A

rescue treatments

591
Q

Linzess is used for what?

A

constipation and IBS

592
Q

Movantik is used for what?

A

opioid induced constipation

593
Q

What is the brand name for psyllium?

A

metamucil

594
Q

What is the brand name for docusate sodium/ calcate?

A

colace

595
Q

what is the brand name for lactulose?

A

kristalose

596
Q

what is the brand name for polyethylene/glycol?

A

miralax

597
Q

What is the brand name for bisacodyl?

A

dulcolax

598
Q

what is the brand name for senna?

A

senokot

599
Q

what is the brand name for lubiprostone?

A

amitiza

600
Q

What is the brand name for linaclotide?

A

Linzess

601
Q

What is the brand name for naloxegal?

A

movantik

602
Q

What is the brand name of simethicone?

A

Gas-X

603
Q

When are GI stimulants used?

A

for conditions when the movement of food out of the stomach is slow or delayed

604
Q

Phenothiazines do what?

A

calm the nausea center in the brain

605
Q

What is the brand name of ondansetron?

A

zofran

606
Q

What is the brand name of granisetron?

A

Kytril

607
Q

What is the brand name of Dolasetron?

A

Anzemot

608
Q

Neurokinin-1 Receptor Antagonists are used in what?

A

chemotherapy

609
Q

Cholesterol build up is known as what/

A

hyperlipidemia

610
Q

What does TC stand for?

A

Total Cholesterol

611
Q

What are the two bad kinds of cholesterol?

A

LDL, Triglycerides (TGs)

612
Q

what is the good kind of cholesterol?

A

HDL

613
Q

What does Niacin do?

A

increases HDL and lowers LDL and TGs

614
Q

Long acting Niacin can casue what?

A

Liver toxicity

615
Q

What is the brand name for fenofibric acid?

A

Trilipix

616
Q

What is the brand name for fenofibrate?

A

Tricor

617
Q

What is the brand name for Gemfibrozil?

A

Lopid

618
Q

What two statins have the least amount of drug interactions?

A

Rosuvastatin and Pravastatin

619
Q

What causes problems with statins?

A

grapefruit juice

620
Q

What is the brand name for atorvastatin?

A

lipitor

621
Q

What is the brand name for Rosuvastatin?

A

Crestor

622
Q

What is the brand name for Simvastatin?

A

Zocor

623
Q

What is the brand name for Lovastatin?

A

Mevacor

624
Q

What is the brand name for Pravastatin?

A

pravachol

625
Q

What is the only cholesterol absorption inhibitor on the market?

A

ezetimbe

626
Q

What do fish oils do?

A

reduce triglycerides and prevent heart disease

627
Q

What are the two beneficial componenets of fish oil?

A

EPA and DHA

628
Q

PCSK9 Inhibitors are what?

A

injectable cholesterol meds

629
Q

Repatha and Praluent are what?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

630
Q

True or False: in blood pressure, the top is systolic and bottom is diastolic

A

true

631
Q

A person is considered hypertensive is they have a blood pressure of what?

A

140/90 or above

632
Q

Diuretics are also known as what?

A

water pills

633
Q

Thiazides are good at what?

A

lowering blood pressure without getting too much fluid out of the body

634
Q

What renal labs must be monitored when on a thiazide?

A

blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine (Scr)

635
Q

Furosemide, Bumetanide, and torsemide are all what?

A

loop diuretics

636
Q

What are common side effects of loop diuretics?

A

dehydration and dropping potassium

637
Q

What is an example of a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A

spironolactone (aldactone)

638
Q

How do Beta Blockers work?

A

blocking the action of beta receptors in the heart muscle and smooth muscle in the blood vessels

639
Q

Atenolol, metoprolol, and propanolol are all examples of what?

A

beta-blockers

640
Q

Bradycardia is also known as what?

A

low heart rate

641
Q

True or false: beta blockers can be stopped abruptly

A

false

642
Q

What is the brand name for atenolo?

A

tenormin

643
Q

What is the brand name for metoprolol succinate?

A

Toprol XL

644
Q

What is the brand name for Labetalol?

A

Trondate

645
Q

What is the brand name for atenolol/chlorthalidone?

A

Tenoretic

646
Q

What si teh brand name of metoprolol tartrate?

A

lopressor

647
Q

What is the brand name of propanolol?

A

Inderal

648
Q

What is the brand name of carvediolol?

A

Coreg CR

649
Q

What is the brand name for Bisoprolol?

A

Zebeta

650
Q

How do calcium channel blockers work?

A

preventing the movement of calcium in and out of cells

651
Q

The two groups of calcium channel blockers work on what?

A

directly on the heart; other work on opening up blood vessels

652
Q

Verapamil and Cardizem are CCBs that do what?

A

work directly on the heart

653
Q

Amlodipine, nifedipine, and felodipine are CCBs that do what?

A

open up the blood vessels

654
Q

What is the brand name for diltiazem?

A

Cardizem

655
Q

What is the brand name for verapamil?

A

calan

656
Q

What is the brand name for Nifedipine?

A

procardia

657
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

A

through the kidneys to prevent constriction of blood vessels

658
Q

What is the brand name of ramipril?

A

altace

659
Q

What is the brand name of lisinopril?

A

prinivil

660
Q

What is the brand name of enalapril?

A

vasotec

661
Q

What is the brand name of benazepril?

A

Lotensin

662
Q

What is the brand name of accupril?

A

quinapril

663
Q

What is the brand name of fosinopril?

A

monopril

664
Q

ACE inhibitors are often combined with what?

A

HCTZ

665
Q

When on ACE/HCTZ combo, you should avoid what?

A

potassium supplements

666
Q

Angiotension Receptor Blockers (ARBs) are very similar to what?

A

ACE inhibitors

667
Q

What is the brand name of valsartan?

A

diovan

668
Q

What is the brand name of telmisartan?

A

Micardis

669
Q

What is the brand name of losartan?

A

cozaar

670
Q

What is the brand name of olmesartan?

A

Benicar

671
Q

What is the brand name of irbesartan?

A

avapro

672
Q

What is the brand name of candesartan?

A

atacand

673
Q

What is the only Direct Renin Inhibitor on the market?

A

Tekturna (aliskiren)

674
Q

How do alpha-1 blockers work?

A

blocks blood vessels ability to constrict

675
Q

What is the brand name of doxazosin?

A

cardura

676
Q

What is the brand name of terazosin?

A

hytrin

677
Q

Alpha-1 blockers shouldn’t be mixed with what?

A

viagra, cialis, and levitra

678
Q

How do Alpha-2 agonists work?

A

dilates blood vessels to lower BP

679
Q

What is the brand name for Clonidine?

A

catapres

680
Q

How do vasodilators work?

A

opens up blood vessels

681
Q

What is the brand name for hydralazine?

A

apresoline

682
Q

Nitrates are used for what?

A

angina/ chest pain

683
Q

How do nitrates work?

A

opens up blood vessels and increases blood distribution of oxygen to the heart

684
Q

What are the two most common nitrates?

A

nitroglycerin and isosorbide

685
Q

Nitrates won’t work if used continuously for how long?

A

24 hours

686
Q

What is a “nitrate free period”

A

a separation of doses by 7 to 12 hours

687
Q

nitroglycerin breaks down quickly when exposed to what?

A

light and air

688
Q

What is an example of a cardia glycoside?

A

digoxin

689
Q

What is a common test while on a cardia glycoside?

A

EKG

690
Q

Antiarrhythmics are used to treat what?

A

hearts beating out of rhythm

691
Q

tachycardia means the heart is doing what?

A

beating too fast

692
Q

what is a arrhythmias?

A

skipping heartbeat

693
Q

What is the brand name for amiodarone?

A

cordarone

694
Q

What is the brand name for sotalol?

A

betapace

695
Q

What do antithrombotics do?

A

prevent blood clot formation

696
Q

Anticoagulants are used to do what?

A

prevent blood clots that from in the veins or atrium of the heart

697
Q

Warfarin and enoxparin are both what?

A

anticoagulants

698
Q

When on a coagulant, you need to have a consistent of what?

A

vitamin K

699
Q

When on an anticoagulant, the blood monitoring includes what?

A

platelet count and hematocrit (HCT)

700
Q

Newer blood thinners (xarelto, eliquis) don’t require what?

A

monthly blood monitoring

701
Q

Antiplatelets are used to do what?

A

prevent clots in the arteries

702
Q

What are the two most common antiplatelets?

A

plavix and aspirin

703
Q

Brilinta and Effient are used for what?

A

prevent heart attacks

704
Q

What is the brand name for meloxicam?

A

Mobic

705
Q

What is the brand name for etodolac?

A

Lodine

706
Q

What is the brand name for Indomethacin?

A

indocin

707
Q

What is the brand name for celecoxib?

A

celebrex

708
Q

NSAIDs can have what negative sidfe effect?

A

can thin the blood

709
Q

analgesics are what?

A

pain relievers

710
Q

What is the max amount of analgesics in a 24hr span?

A

4 grams

711
Q

What is the only Rx analgesic?

A

tramadol

712
Q

What is the brand name of tramadol?

A

ultram

Pharmacy Technician University (1 decks)

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