GM/CCP/PC/Investigation book Flashcards

0
Q

“We act with Integrity to reduce Fear and Crime while treating all with RESPECT, COMPASSION, and FAIRNESS” <~~~ what is this statement called

A

The MISSION of the San Antonio Police Department.

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1
Q

What means the sworn officers/personnel of this department, who have attained the rank of Sergeant or Above?

A

Supervisory Officers

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2
Q

What are the two different units within the department where members can report criminal offenses committed by department members?

A

The Office of the Chief of Police

The San Antonio Regional Intelligence Center (SARIC)

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3
Q

What form is used to report members of criminal offenses and how is it delivered to SARIC or the Office of the Chief of Police?

A

SAPD Form #62-RCO
HAND-CARRIED

(May also in addition to the 62-RCO; complete a appropriate incident/offense report)

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4
Q

If a member receiving information about a suspected criminal activity concerning another officer, but is uncertain as to the CREDIBILITY of the person and/or the INFORMATION provided, how will the member report the incident and on what form, WITHOUT a case number?

A

INTEROFFICE form

In person to the office of the Chief of Police OR SARIC.

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5
Q

Who can ORDER a MANDATORY evaluation of an officer to determine an officer’s fitness for duty or emotional, cognitive, and/or behavioral suitability for police work?

A

The Chief of Police

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6
Q

What are some included incidents that may indicate to the Chief of Police that an officer should have a MANDATORY evaluation to determine the officer is suitable for police work?

A
Any loss of life or SBI as a result of an Officer's actions
Police involved shootings
Fatality incidents
Fatality crashes involving officers
The death of an officer
Officers involved in critical incidents
Officers involved in Family disturbances/violence incidents
Substance Abuse
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7
Q

Psychological Services office provides COUNSELING to officers. In what areas (including but not limited to) would an officer be provided counseling for?

A
Substance abuse
Depression
Suicidal thoughts
Physical problems related to stress
Panic Attacks
Temper Control Problems
Family Conflicts
Eating Disorders
Smoking Habits
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8
Q

What ways can a request for the Psychological Services office counseling be made?

A

By self-referral
A family member
An officer’s supervisor

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9
Q

Can the Chief of Police ORDER counseling for an officer at the Psychological Services office for a Family disturbance or violence incident?

A

Yes

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10
Q

What Amendment to the United States Constitution and part of the Bill of Rights prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures?

A

The Fourth Amendment

Amendment IV

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11
Q

That Amendment protects a person against Self-incrimination and to only be tried once for a criminal offense (prevents Double-Jeopardy)

A

The Fifth Amendment

Right to remain silent

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12
Q

What Amendment to the US constitution provides the “Due Process Clause” protections to citizens?

A

The Fourteenth Amendment

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13
Q

What Amendment of the Constitution of the US provides a citizen with the right to a speedy trial, confront witnesses against him, have or obtain witnesses in his favor, and to have the ASSISTANCE of COUNSEL, an attorney, for his defense?

A

The Sixth Amendment

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14
Q

In what cases are Dying declarations permitted as evidence and can a nod of the head by the victim in affirmation of a name posed by the officer be accepted as a valid declaration?

A

In homicide cases.
Yes

(Dying declarations should be witnessed by more than one person/officer)

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15
Q

The majority of aggravated assaults are committed with what type of weapon?

A

A blunt instrument like a club

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16
Q

Generally the heat-loss rate following death and the environmental temperature the human body will cool at what certain rate, to the temperature of its surroundings?

A

Generally, a body will loose 3F for the first four hours after death and 1F each hour thereafter, until the body temperature approximates the environmental temperature of the surroundings.

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17
Q

What type of evidence is relatively important in a criminal trial and will normally prove a fact without support?

A

Direct Evidence

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18
Q

What type of evidence does not directly prove a fact at issue but, may establish a STRONG inference as to the truth of that fact?

A

Indirect or Circumstantial Evidence

May or May NOT be used during the trial

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19
Q

What type of evidence can be any kind of object associated with the investigation, but it MUST be a PHYSICAL, tangible item, unlike other forms of evidence that may result from sensory observations or inferences?

A

Physical or Real evidence

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20
Q

What type of evidence is similar to real/physical evidence on that the item must be of a physical nature, but this evidence need not be the actual item but an acceptable representation of it? (These include: forensic lab reports, photographic or video pictures, judicial transcripts, and various investigative reports)

A

Documentary evidence

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21
Q

What offense is committed by a person who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly carries on or about his or her person a handgun, illegal knife, or a club. Has a handgun in plain view inside a motor vehicle or watercraft or is engaged in criminal activity other than a Class “C” misdemeanor, or is a member of a criminal street gang, or prohibited by law from possessing a firearm?

A

Unlawful Carrying Weapons

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22
Q

Who is the head of the Law Enforcement Organization in a county of Texas?

A

The Sheriff of the county in which he holds office.

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23
Q

Who SHALL record the findings and report the prior point assessments from the sworn members departmental driving record file?

A

The homicide unit representative

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24
Q

Regardless of the ruling and results of the actions by the board, who are crash results that involve a death forwarded to?

A

The District Attorney’s Office for Review

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25
Q

What SHALL be placed into a member’s personnel file (pif)?

A

A record of any type of disciplinary action taken against a member

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26
Q

Who can consult with Psychological Services Office on Supervisory, operational, or organizational issues prior to counseling an officer due to noticeable changes in the officer’s behavior?

A

ANY Supervisory command officer

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27
Q

Are MANDATORY EVALUATIONS and COUNSELING considered confidential information?

A

NO, information discussed will be shared with the OFFICE OF THE CHIEF and the officer SHALL cooperate fully with the staff psychologist.

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28
Q

WHAT or When is information given to the staff psychologist NOT required to be reported to the office of chief of police?

A

only voluntary and non-mandatory evaluations or counseling. (Immediate threats to the officer or a third party need to be reported by law.)

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29
Q

WHAT IS THE CITY VEHICLE ACCIDENT ADVISORY BOARD DESIGNED TO REVIEW?

A

ALL CASES INVOLVING CITY MOTOR VEHICLE CRASHES INVOLVING SWORN MEMBERS

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30
Q

HOW MANY CIVILIAN AND SWORN MEMBERS DOES THE CITY VEHICLE ACCIDENT ADVISORY BOARD CONSIST OF?

(CVAAB)

A

THREE (3) SWORN MEMBERS WHO EACH HAVE ONE (1) VOTE REGARDLESS OF THE RANK OF THE RESPONDENT. (NO CIVILIANS)

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31
Q

WHO IS ELIGIBLE TO BE A MEMBER OF THE CVAAB? (CHEIF’S CITY VEHICLE ACCIDENT ADVISORY BOARD)

A

MEMBERSHIP IS OPEN TO ANY OFFICER THAT HAS COMPLETED THEIR INITIAL PROBATIONARY PERIOD AND HAS NOT INCURRED A SUSPENSION DURING THE PREVIOUS TWELVE MONTHS

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32
Q

WHO MAY THE CHEIF OF POLICE ALLOW TO ATTEND THE CHIEF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD MEETING? (CAAB)

A
  • A SAN ANTONIO POLICE OFFICER’S ASSOCIATION REPRESENTATIVE
  • THE POLICE LEGAL ADVISOR
  • INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT REPRESENTATIVES
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33
Q

WHO MAY THE CHIEF OF POLICE ALLOW TO ATTEND THE CITY VEHICLES ACCIDENT ADVISORY ACTION BOARD MEETING? (CVAAB)

A
  • A SAN ANTONIO POLICE OFFICER’S ASSOCIATION REPRESENTATIVE
  • THE POLICE LEGAL ADVISOR
  • A HOMICIDE UNIT REPRESENTATIVE
  • CITY OF SAN ANTONIO RISK MANAGEMENT REPRESENTATIVE
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34
Q

HOW LONG WILL RECORDINGS NOT ASSIGNED A CASE NU,MBER BE SAVED? (MVR - MOBILE VIDEO RECORDING)

A

AT LEAST 180 DAYS.

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35
Q

HOW ARE THE MOBILE VIDEO RECORDINGS REQUESTED TO BE REMOVED OR DESTROYED THAT HAVE BEEN ASSIGNED A CASE/TICKET #? HOW LONG ARE THE VIDEOS KEPT?

A

THE HANDLING OFFICER/INVESTIGATOR SHALL NOTIFY THE VIDEO EVIDENCE CUSTODIAN IN WRITING (DEPARTMENT E-MAIL) WHEN A CASE HAS BEEN RESOLVED. THE VIDEO IS SAVED UNTIL THE CASE IS RESOLVED.

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36
Q

WHEN WILL VIDEO AND AUDIO BE REQUIRED TO BE RECORDED? (MVR)

A

ALL SELF-INITIATED ACTIVITIES, CALLS FOR SERVICE, EVERY EMERGENCY RUN AND PURSUIT, ALL TRAFFIC STOPS AND FIELD CONTACTS SHALL BE RECORDED.

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37
Q

WHEN POSSIBLE, WHERE SHOULD ALL SUBSEQUENT ARREST, HANDCUFFING, AND THE SEARCH OF VIOLATORS BE ACCOMPLISHED?

A

IN VIEW OF THE CAMERA (MVR) - COBAN

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38
Q

WHAT ARE THE INITIAL POINT ASSESSMENTS FOR SWORN MEMBERS INVOLVED IN A CITY (POLICE) VEHICLE CRASH PRIOR TO ADDITIONAL POINTS BEING POSSIBLY ADDED?

A

NON-CHARGEABLE - 0 POINTS
CHARGEABLE DUE TO CONTRIBUTORY FACTORS - 1 POINT
CHARGEABLE - 2 POINTS

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39
Q

What are the chargeable points given for the factor of a vehicle that is rendered a total loss?

A

Two (2) points

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40
Q

What are the chargeable points given for the factor of a damage that exceeds $5,000.00 in repair costs?

A

One (1) point

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41
Q

What are the chargeable points given for the factor of a crash resulting in serious bodily injury to ANY person?

A

a MINIMUM of TWO (2) points

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42
Q

What are the chargeable points given for the factor of a unsafe speed and/or operation is a determined factor of the crash as determined by supervisor’s report, TID, OR CVAAB

A

Minimum of One (1) point

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43
Q

What are the chargeable points given for the factor of a crash resulting in a death?

A

No point value is assessed. The COP administers whatever discipline he deems appropriate.

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44
Q

FOLLOWING THE POINT ASSESSMENT VALUE TO THE CRASH, WHO GIVES THE POINT ASSESSMENT TOTAL OF THE SWORN MEMBER’S CUMULATIVE POINTS ASSESSED DURING THE PRECEDING (24) MONTHS - 2 YRS, AND HOW ARE THE POINTS ASSESSED?

A

THE HOMICIDE UNIT REPRESENTATIVE
ADDED TOGETHER FOR EACH CHARGEABLE AND CHARGEABLE DUE TO CONTRIBUTING FACTORS. EACH CRASH NOT EXCEEDING (2) POINTS WILL BE REMOVED AFTER 12 MONTHS/1 YR.

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45
Q

WHAT ARE THE LISTED RECOMMENDATIONS THE CVAAB MAKES TO THE COP BASED UPON THE POINTS ASSESSED?

A

1-2 POINTS = WRITTEN COUNSELING
3 POINTS = WRITTEN REPRIMAND
4 POINTS = ONE (1) DAY SUSPENSION <- DISCIPLINARY ACTION
5 POINTS = THREE DAY SUSPENSION
6 POINTS = FIVE DAY SUSPENSION
7 POINTS = TEN DAY SUSPENSION
8 POINTS OR MORE = MINIMUM OF 15 DAY SUSPENSION OR AN INDEFINITE SUSPENSION

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46
Q

WHAT ARE THE THREE “FINDINGS” THE CVAAB CAN DETERMINE WHEN REVIEWING A POLICE VEHICLE ACCIDENT?
WHAT DO THEY MEAN?

A

THE FINDINGS ARE EITHER CHARGEABLE OR NON-CHARGEABLE.
CHARGEABLE = THE SWORN MEMBER FAILED TO EXERCISE REASONABLE CARE IN THE OPERATION OF THE CITY VEHICLE, DEVIATED FROM ESTABLISHED DRIVING PRACTICES, AND WAS THE MAJOR CAUSE OF THE CRASH.
CHARGEABLE DUE TO CONTRIBUTORY FACTORS = THE SWORN MEMBER FAILED TO EXERCISE CARE IN THE OPERATION OF THE CITY VEHICLE, DEVIATED FROM ESTABLISHED DRIVING PRACTICES, AND WAS A CONTRIBUTING FACTOR BASED ON UNSAFE SPEED/VIOLATIONS OF GM PROCEDURE 609, EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPERATION
NON-CHARGABLE = THE SWORN MEMBEREXERCISED CARE AND CAUTION. THE SAME AS AN ORDINARY AND PRUDENT PERSON IN THE SAME CIRCUMSTANCES.

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47
Q

WHAT IS THE RECOMMENDED DISCIPLINARY ACTION FOR A SWORN MEMBER CHARGED WITH MANSLAUGHTER, INTOXICATED MANSLAUGHTER, INTOXICATION ASSAULT, CRIMINAL NEGLIGENT HOMICIDE, FAILURE TO STOP AND RENDER AID, OR DRIVING WHILE INTOXICATED AS A RESULT OF A POLICE VEHICLE CRASH?

A

THE ACTION SHALL BE TEMPORARY SUSPENSION UNTIL THE DISPOSITION OF THE CHARGE/CASE.

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48
Q

WHAT IS ACCOMPLISHED BY THE CAAB “THE BOARD” FOLLOWING A FINDING OF “SUSTAINED”?

A

A DISCUSSION SHALL BE HELD TO DETERMINE A RECOMMENDATION FOR DISCIPLINARY ACTION OR OTHER REMEDY AND SHOULD INCLUDE PAST PRACTICES OR SIMILAR ISSUES, LEGAL ASPECTS OF THE ISSUES INVOLVED, ESTABLISHED GUIDELINES OR POLICIES CONCERNING ESCALATING DISCIPLINE AFFECTING THE ISSUE. PAST DISCIPLINARY RECORD OF THE RESPONDANT

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49
Q

WHAT ARE OTHER REMEDIES OR ALTERNATIVE COURSES OF ACTIONDIRECTED TOWARD BEHAVIOR ADJUSTMENTS OR AWARENESS ON THE PART OF THE OFFICER THAT CAN BE SUGGESTED BY THE BOARD TO THE COP?

A

RETRAINING COURSES, ESPECIALLY FOR PATTERN VIOLATIONS
JOB RELOCATION, EITHER TEMPORARY OR PERMANENT
PSYCHOLOGICAL EVALUATION AND RECOMENDATIONS

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50
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY MEMBER WHO IS SUBJECT TO THE AUTHORITY OF ANOTHER?

A

SUBORDINATE

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51
Q

HOW ARE RECOMMENDATIONS FOR DISCIPLINE VOTED ON BY MEMBERS OF THE BOARD?

A

BY WRITTEN SECRET BALLET ON THE FORM PROVIDED FOR THAT PURPOSE WITHOUT INFLUENCE FROM THE OTHERS. A MAJORITY VOTE CONTROLS. SUBSEQUENT DISCUSSIONS AND VOTES ARE CONDUCTED AS NECESSARY. FAILURE TO ACHIEVE A MAJORITY DECISION IS REFLECTED ON THE RECORD AND SUBMITTED TO THE CHIEF OF POLICE. THE RECOMMENDATIONS OF EACH BOARD ARE ADVISORY IN NATURE AND NON-BINDING ON THE CHIEF OF POLICE.

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52
Q

HOW MANY MEMBERS ARE THERE IN A QUORUM FOR THE CITIZEN ADVISORY ACTION BOARD?
HOW MANY VOTES DOES A MEMBER OF THE CITIZEN ACTION BOARD HAVE?
IN WHAT CASES MUST CITIZEN MEMBERS BE PRESENT TO HEAR?

A

THREE (3) MEMBERS (PROVIDED THERE ARE AT LEAST SIX (6) ACTIVE/PARTICIPATING APPOINTED MEMBERS)
EACH MEMBER HAS ONE (1) VOTE
–** CASES INVOLVING USE OF FORCE, BODILY INJURY AND UNLAWFUL SEARCH AND SEIZURE.
—ANY CASE AN OFFICER OR A COMPLAINANT REQUESTS CITIZEN MEMBER PARTICIPATION. IF REASONABLY POSSIBLE A CASE NOT MEETING THE ABOVE CRITERIA MAYBE HEARD WITHOUT CITIZEN PARTICIPATION.

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53
Q

WHAT FOLLOW UP UNIT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ARSON, HOAX BOMBS AND COMPONENTS OF EXPLOSIVES?

A

ARSON

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54
Q

WHAT FOLLOW UP UNIT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR “BREACH OF COMPUTER SECURITY, TAMPERING WITH DIRECT RECORDING ELECTRONIC VOTING MACHINE, BREACH OF COMPUTER SECURITY AND TAMPERING WITH VOTING MACHINE?

A

TECHNICAL INVESTIGATIONS DETAIL

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55
Q

WHAT FOLLOW UP UNIT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR AN OFFENSE OF SOLICITING MEMBERSHIP IN A CRIMINAL STREET GANG?

A

FUSION GANG UNIT (THIS IS THE ONLY OFFENSE LISTED FOR THEM)

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56
Q

WHAT IS THE FOLLOW UP UNIT FOR FOUND OR LOST PROPERTY?

A

PROPERTY ROOM

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57
Q

HOW MANY SWORN MEMBERS ARE IN A QUORUM FOR THE POLICE ADVISORY ACTION BOARD?

A

FIVE (5) MEMBERS

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58
Q

HOW MANY VOTES DOES EACH MEMBER OF THE POLICE ADVISORY ACTION BOARD HAVE? HOW ARE THE VOTES DETERMINED OR DEPENDENT ON THE RANK OF THE RESPONDENT?

A

EACH SWORN MEMBER HAS ONE VOTE AND WILL VOTE REGARDLESS OF THE RANK OF THE RESPONDENT.

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59
Q

WHAT ARE THE REQUIREMENTS TO BE A SWORN MEMBER OF THE POLICE ADVISORY ACTION BOARD?

A

MEMBERSHIP IS OPEN TO ANY OFFICER WHO HAS COMPLETED HIS INITIAL PROBATIONARY PERIOD AND HAS NOT INCURRED A SUSPENSION DURING THE PREVIOUS TWELVE MONTHS. **HOWEVER, A SWORN MEMBER EXCUSES HIS PARTICIPATION IN ANY CASE IN WHICH HE IS A RESPONDENT, HAD PARTICIPATION IN, OR HAD WITNESSED.

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60
Q

WHAT GROUPS ARE LISTED AS OFTEN TARGETS OF BIAS - INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO, REGARDING “HATE CRIMES”?

A

BLACKS, JEWS, HOMOSEXUALS, MUSLIMS, ASIAN AMERICANS.

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61
Q

IF AN OFFICER RECEIVES ANY INFORMATION AS TO A CRIME POSSIBLY BEING MOTIVATED BY BIAS AT A LATER DATE - WHAT SHALL THE OFFICER DO REGARDING THE INFORMATION GIVEN TO HIM?

A

WRITE “INFORMATION ON HATE CRIME” ON AN INCIDENT REPORT TO THE APPLICABLE FOLLOW-UP UNIT. SAPD FORM #2-2 OFFENSE, INCIDENT REPORT. (FOLLOW UP UNIT ASSIGNED TO THE ORIGINAL OFFENSE)

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62
Q

WHO ARE AUTHORIZED TO USE ROOMS IN THE POLICE FACILITIES TO CONDUCT THE INTERVIEWS OR INTERROGATIONS?

A

OFFICERS, BOTH UNIFORMED AND NON-UNIFORMED, WHO’S JOB REQUIRE INTERVIEWING WITNESSES OR INTERROGATING SUSPECTS INVOLVED IN CRIMINAL ACTIVITIES.

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63
Q

WHEN CAN OFFICERS CARRY AND USE AN ECD AS AN INTERMEDIATE WEAPON?

A

AFTER SUCCESSFULLY COMPLETING A 40 HOUR CRISIS INTERVENTION TRAINING COURSE.

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64
Q

HOW LONG MUST AN OFFICER OBSERVE THE PRISONER TO ENSURE THE PRISONER DOES NOT REQUIRE MEDICAL ATTENTION AFTER USE OF THE OC SPRAY OR GEL?

A

FOR 45 MINUTES AFTER USE OF OC SPRAY/GEL

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65
Q

WHEN IS THE USE OF DEADLY FORCE AUTHORIZED?

A

TO PROTECT AN OFFICER OR ANOTHER PERSON FROM WHAT IS REASONABLY BELIEVED TO BEAN IMMEDIATE THREAT OF DEATH OR SERIOUS BODILY INJURY.

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66
Q

WHO SHALL ENSURE A SUFFICIENT NUMBER OF TRAINED MEMBERS ARE ASSIGNED AND DEPLOYED TO EACH SHIFT TO ALLOW FOR THE AVAILABILITY OF A TRAINED MEMBER TO TEST AND VERIFY NARCOTICS OR DRUGS ON A TWENTY-FOUR (24) HOUR BASIS?

A

THE CRIME SCENE UNIT DIRECTOR

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67
Q

WHERE CAN AN OFFICER LOCATE THE AUTHORITY TO IDENTIFY AND REPORT HATE CRIMES?

A

PENAL CODE ART 12.47 AND CCP ART 42.014

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68
Q

WHO SHALL DETERMINE IF A BIAS MOTIVATED HATE CRIME WAS COMMITTED AND THE CRIME WAS BIAS MOTIVATED?
WHO MAKES THE FINAL DETERMINATION IN THE EVENT OF A DISAGREEMENT BETWEEN THE OFFICER AND A DETECTIVE FOR A HATE CRIME?
WHO IS A COPY OF THE REPORT FORWARDED TO FOR TRACKING PURPOSES OF HATE CRIMES?

A

THE REPORTING OFFICER.
THE FOLLOW UP UNIT OF THE INITIAL CASE RESPONSIBILITY. (IE HOMICIDE FOR MURDER)
SARIC (SAN ANTONIO REGIONAL INTELLIGENCE CENTER

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69
Q

WHAT ARE SOME OF THE MAJOR CRIMINAL OFFENSES WHICH MAY BE MOTIVATED BY BIAS OR CONSIDERED AS “HATE CRIMES”?

A

MURDER, KIDNAPPING, SEXUAL ASSAULT, ROBBERY, BURGLARY, THEFT, ARSON, ASSAULT, CRIMINAL MISCHIEF.

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70
Q

WHAT SHALL OFFICERS USE AS A CRITERIA TO IDENTIFY OR DETERMINE BIAS WAS A MOTIVATING FACTOR IN A CRIMINAL OFFENSE?

A

HATE CRIME IDENTIFIERS: MOTIVE OR LACK OF APPARENT MOTIVE, DISPLAY OF ANY OFFENSIVE SYMBOLS, WORDS, OR ACTS. PRIOR HISTORY OF SIMILAR OFFENSES IN SAME AREA / AGAINST SAME VICTIM - GROUPS. VICTIM(S) AND OFFENDER(S) ARE MEMBERS OF DIFFERENT RACIAL, RELIGIOUS, ETHNIC, OR NATIONAL ORIGIN, AND HAVE A HISTORY OF BIAS RELATED INCIDENTS/ HATE-CRIMES. STATEMENTS MADE BY SUSPECT, VICTIM, OR WITNESSES. DATE/TIME OF OCCURRENCE CORRESPOND WITH A HOLIDAY OR EVENT. A COMMON SENCSE REVIEW BY OFFICER DETERMINES IT BASSED ON ALL CIRCUMSTANCES. VICTIM MEMBER OF GROUP THAT IS OFTEN TARGETED (WTF).

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71
Q

WHEN IT COMES TO HATE CRIME IDENTIFIERS, WHAT ARE SOME OF THE COMMON IDENTIFIERS?

A

IDENTIFIABLE BIAS RELATED OBJECTS USED (KKK HOODS) THREATS OR HARASSMENTS MADE PRIOR TO OFFENSE. PERPS HISTORY. PERPS ORAL OR WRITTEN STATEMENT AGAINST GROUP THAT EXPRESS BIAS.

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72
Q

IF THE INCIDENT COMMANDER DETERMINES THE NEED FOR A TWELVE (12) HOUR SHIFT OPERATION, HOW ARE THE (12) HOUR SHIFTS IDENTIFIED?

A

ALPHA (THE FIRST SHIFT)

BRAVO (THE SECOND SHIFT)

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73
Q

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR PROVIDING NOTIFICATION TO THE MAYOR, COUNCIL MEMBERS, CITY MANAGER, AND DEPARTMENT “HEADS” REGARDING ANY CHANGES IN THE ALERT LEVEL?

A

THE EMERGENCY OPERATIONS COORDINATOR

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74
Q

WHAT PHASE OF MOBILIZATION ARE ALL LEAVE, TRAINING, AND SUPPORT ACTIVITIES CANCELLED AUTOMATICALLY? (**EXCLUDING INJURY AND SICK LEAVE)

A

PHASE II (PHASE 2 OF MOBILIZATION)

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75
Q

WHAT PHASE REQUIRES RECALL OF ALL DEPARTMENTAL PERSONNEL?

A

PHASE II

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76
Q

WHO WILL AUTHORIZE THE IMPLEMENTATION OF PHASE II BASED ON RECOMMENDATIONS FROM THE COMMAND OFFICER WHO RESPONDED TO THE INITIAL INCIDENT?

A

NOTICE IS MADE TO THE CITY MANAGER, MAYOR, AND EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT COORDINATOR. ACTIVATION OF THE CITY OF SAN ANTONIO EMERGENCY OPERATION CENTER IS DETERMINED AND MADE BY THE CITY MANAGER OR MAYOR.

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77
Q

WHEN IS A COMMAND POST ESTABLISHED AND **WHO MAY ESTABLISH THE COMMAND POST FOR ANY EVENT OR OCCURRENCE REGARDLESS OF THE SIZE OF THE OPERATION?

A

FOR ALL UNUSUAL OCCURRENCES WHICH REQUIRE A MAJOR COMMITMENT OF DEPARTMENTAL RESOURCES FOR AN EXTENDED PERIOD OF TIME.
**THE INCIDENT COMMANDER (ALSO SELECTS THE LOCATION FOR A COMMAND POST)

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78
Q

WHAT FACTORS DETERMINE THE LOCATION OF THE COMMAND POST BY THE INCIDENT COMMANDER?

A

A LOCATION STRATEGIC TO THE INCIDENT:
A SITE READILY LOCATED AND ACCESSIBLE TO RESPONDING PERSONNEL. SUFFICIENT SPACE TO ACCOMMODATE PERSONNEL AND THIER VEHICLES. AVAILABILITY OF PUBIC SERVICE - TELEPHONE, ELECTRICAL, WATER, RESTROOMS.

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79
Q

ONCE THE FIRST SUPERVISOR IN CONTROL OF THE SCENE IS RELIEVED, WHAT MUST THE SUPERVISOR PROVIDE TO THE INCOMING SUPERVISOR OR INCIDENT COMMANDER?

A

A FORMAL TRANSFER OF COMMAND BRIEFING FOR THJE INCOMING SUPERVISOR OR INCIDENT COMMANDER.

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80
Q

WHAT MUST THE SUPERVISOR BEING RELIEVED ENSURE THE COMMUNICATIONS UNIT NOTIFIES ALL PERSONNEL OF?

A

A CHANGE IN COMMAND IS TAKING PLACE

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81
Q

WHAT GROUP OF SPECIALLY TRAINED AND CERTIFIED OFFICERS WHO RESPONDED TO CRITICAL INCIDENTS WITH THE GOAL AND RESPONSIBILITY OF PRESERVING LIFE BY OBTAINING A MUTUALLY ACCEPTABLE SOLUTION TO THE MATTER?

A

THE CRISIS NEGOTIATORS DETAIL

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82
Q

WHAT GROUP OF SPECIALLY TRAINED AND CERTIFIED OFFICERS FROM THE SPECIAL OPERATIONS UNIT ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE PREPARATION AND EXERCISE OF ALL TACTICAL FUNCTIONS UTILIZED IN THE COURSE OF THE SITUATION.

A

THE SWAT DETAIL

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83
Q

WHAT IS THE GROUP OF OFFICERS SPECIALLY TRAINED IN THE HANDLING AND DISPOSITION OD EXPLOSIVE DEVICES, WHO RESPOND ON REQUEST BY A SUPERVISORY OFFICER TO THOSE CRITICAL INCIDENTS INVOLVING A LETHAL THREAT. THE SQUAD MAY FUNCTION AS AN ELEMENT OF THE SWAT DETAIL DURING CRITICAL INCIDENTS?

A

THE BOMB SQUAD

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84
Q

WHAT IS THE GROUP OF OFFICERS SPECIALLY TRAINED AT HANDLING POLICE CANINES, AND DURING CRITICAL INCIDENTS MAY FUNCTION AS AN ELEMENT OF THE SWAT DETAIL?

A

THE K-9 DETAIL

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85
Q

WHAT PROGRAM IDENTIFIES UNACCEPTABLE BEHAVIOR TRAITS IN OFFICERS BEFORE THOSE BEHAVIORAL TRAITS DEVELOP INTO DISCIPLINARY PROBLEMS FOR THE OFFICER AND THE DEPARTMENT?

A

THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM

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86
Q

WHAT ARE THE THREE (3) METHODS FOR REFERRING AN OFFICER TO THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM?

A

1) REFERRAL FROM THE CHIEF OF POLICE
2) REFERRAL BY SUPERVISORS : IMMEDIATE AND INTERMEDIATE SUPERVISORS
3) COMPUTER GENERATED REFERRAL

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87
Q

HOW IS RELIEF OF PERSONNEL CONDUCTED IN THE EVENT OF PERSONNEL BEING RECALLED THROUGH THE IMPLEMENTATION OF A MOBILIZATION PHASE? (LIST THE PHASES AND WHAT OCCURS DURING EACH PHASE)

A

(PHASE I) RELIEF OF PERSONNEL BEGINS WITH PERSONNEL ASSIGNED UNDER THE LAST MOBILIZATION PHASE IMPLEMENTED AND CONTINUES ONLY UNTIL TRAFFIC SECTION PERSONNEL ARE ASSIGNED.
(PHASE II) EIGHT-HOUR SHIFTS UTILIZING TRAFFIC SECTION PERSONNEL ARE IMPLEMENTED
(PHASE III) NORMAL OPERATIONS ARE RESTORED

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88
Q

(PHASE I) RECALLS THE NECESSARY OFF-DUTY PERSONNEL, INCLUDING THEIR RESPECTIVE SUPERVISORY AND COMMAND OFFICERS ASSIGNED TO THE ONCOMING SHIFTS IN WHAT ORDER?

A

OFF-DUTY TRAFFIC ASSIGNED TO ONCOMING SHIFT
OFF-DUTY PATROL ASSIGNED TO ONCOMING SHIFT (SERVICE AREA)
OFF-DUTY PATROL ASSIGNED TO ONCOMING SHIFT (ADJOINING SERVICE AREAS)
OFF-DUTY INVESTIGATION DIVISION ASSIGNED TO ONCOMING SHIFT

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89
Q

WHO OR WHAT GROUP WILL BE RESPONSIBLE FOR PROVIDING CROWD CONTROL DURING PLANNED EVENTS OR SPONTANEOUS CIVIL DISTURBANCES? THESE UNITS MAY ALSO BE UTILIZED TO PROVIDE INITIAL CONTAINMENT AND SECURITY OF A CRITICAL INCIDENT OR UNUSUAL OCCURRENCE AND MAY BE CALLED UPON FOR INITIAL RESPONSE DURING AN ACTIVE SHOOTER INCIDENT?

A

THE TACTICAL RESPONSE UNIT (TRU) AND/OR THE PROBLEM ORIENTED POLICING UNIT (POP)

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90
Q

WHO DESIGNATES A SAFE AND ACCESSIBLE PRESS RELATIONS AREA FOR EQUITABLE INFORMATION DISTRIBUTION AND MAINTAINS AN ON GOING DIALOGUE OF RELEVANT FACTUAL AND NON-COMPROMISING INFORMATION WITH THE MEDIA?

A

THE PUBLIC INFORMATION OFFICER

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91
Q

WHAT FOLLOW-UP UNIT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ASSISTING OUTSIDE LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES REGARDING FUGITIVES FROM THEIR JURISDICTIONS?

A

THE REPEAT OFFENDERS PROGRAM UNIT (ROP)

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92
Q

IF YOU RECEIVE A REQUEST OR INFORMATION FROM AN OUTSIDE LAW-ENFORCEMENT AGENCY REGARDING A FUGITIVE, WHO SHALL YOU IMMEDIATELY RELAY THE INFORMATION TO?

A

THE (ROP) REPEAT OFFENDERS PROGRAM UNIT OFFICE

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93
Q

WHAT ARE THE HOURS OF OPERATION, DUTY HOURS, FOR THE (ROP) REPEAT OFFENDERS PROGRAM UNIT?

A

THE DUTY HOURS VARY

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94
Q

WHO SHALL RECORD THE FINDINGS AND POINT ASSESSMENTS IN THE SWORN MEMBERS DEPARTMENTAL DRIVING RECORD FILE?

A

THE HOMICIDE UNIT REPRESENTATIVE

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95
Q

ON WHAT BASIS ARE OFFICERS OF THE DEPARTMENT PROHIBITED AND SHALL NOT EXPLICITLY OR IMPLICITLY RIDICULE, MOCK, DERIDE, OR BELITTLE, SHALL NOT MAKE OFFENSIVE OR DEROGATORY COMMENTS TO ANY PERSON DIRECTLY OR INDIRECTLY, SHALL NOT CIRCULATE WRITTEN OR GRAPHIC MATERIALS WHICH RIDICULE, BELITTLE, OR EMBARRASS ANY PERSON?

A

ON THE BASIS OF SEX, AGE, RACE, NATIONAL ORIGIN, ANCESTRY, CITIZENSHIP, RELIGION, DISABILITY, OR SEXUAL ORIENTATION. THE ACTIONS ARE PROHIBITED ON THE BASIS OF ANY PERSONS.

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96
Q

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ASSISTING IN THE PREVENTION OF DISCRIMINATION, HARASSMENT, INAPPROPRIATE BEHAVIOR, OR SEXUAL HARASSMENT OF ANY PERSON? HOW IS IT DONE?

A

EACH OFFICER

BY REFRAINING, REPORTING, AN ENCOURAGING THE INCIDENTS TO BE REPORTED.

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97
Q

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ENSURING THE WORKPLACE HAS AN ATMOSPHERE FOR ENSURING THE WORKPLACE HAS AN ATMOSPHERE FREE FROM DISCRIMINATION, HARASSMENT, INAPPROPRIATE BEHAVIOR OR SEXUAL HARASSMENT?

A

THE SUPERVISORY OFFICER

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98
Q

HOW LONG DOES A SUPERVISOR OFFICER HAVE TO SUBMIT A REPORT ON / OF DISCRIMINATION, HARASSMENT, SEXUAL HARASSMENT, OR INAPPROPRIATE BEHAVIOR?
AND WHO DOES THE REPORT GO TO?

A

THE SUPERVISOR IMMEDIATELY DOCUMENTS THE BEHAVIOR OR COMPLAINTS. THE SUPERVISOR WITHIN TWENTY-FOUR (24) HOURS SUBMITS ALL REPORTS OF SUCH ACTIVITIES OR COMPLAINTS TO THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT.

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99
Q

WHO RECEIVES OR IS THE CONTACT UNIT FOR A COMPLAINT OF AN EMPLOYEE WHO FEELS SHE HAS BEEN DISCRIMINATED AGAINST DUE TO HER PREGNANCY AND HOW IS THE COMPLAINT MADE?

A

VERBALLY OR IN WRITING TO THE EXECUTIVE OFFICER IN THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF OR THROUGH THE CITY’S EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY OFFICE AND PROMPTLY INVESTIGATED AS DIRECTED BY THE CHIEF.

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100
Q

WITH-IN HOW MANY HOURS WILL THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT COMMENCE THE INVESTIGATION OF SEXUAL HARASSMENT, DISCRIMINATION, HARASSMENT, INAPPROPRIATE BEHAVIOR?

A

TWENTY-FOUR (24) HOURS

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101
Q

IF THE OFFICER FEELS OR DETERMINES INADEQUATE ACTION OR INSUFFICIENT REMEDIAL ACTION WAS TAKEN OR OTHER INCIDENTS ARISE OR CONTINUE WHO SHALL THE OFFICER CONTACT IMMEDIATELY?

A

OTHER CONTINUING INCIDENTS, PROBLEMS NOT RESOLVED, INSUFFICIENT RESULTS, OR RETALIATION THE MEMBER CONTACTS INTERNAL AFFAIRS DIRECTLY.

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102
Q

WHO MAY RESPOND TO THE SCENE OF AN UNUSUAL OCCURRENCE OR CRITICAL INCIDENT FOR THE PURPOSE OF FOOD PROVISIONS TO THE OFFICERS ON OCCASIONS OF OCCURRENCES OF EXTENDED DURATION IN THE MARKED CANTEEN TRUCK AND IS AFFORDED ACCESS TO A SAFE, CONVENIENT, AND ACCESSIBLE LOCATION WITHIN THE COLD-ZONE

A

THE AMERICAN RED CROSS

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103
Q

WHO MAY BE ASSIGNED TO POINT CONTROL DUTIES FOR DIRECTING AND CONTROLLING OF TRAFFIC, CROWD, AND MEDIA CONTROL WITHIN THE COLD ZONE OR OUTSIDE THE ESTABLISHED CONTAINMENT AREA?

A

OFFICERS, INCLUDING SUPERVISORY OFFICERS

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104
Q

HOW ARE THE WORDS OR PHRASES IN THE GENERAL MANUAL THAT ARE NOT SPECIFICALLY DEFINED IN THE RULES AND REGULATION BE INTERPRETED TO HAVE THE MEANING AND INTENT ESTABLISHED?

A

SHALL BE BY THE COMMON USAGE

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105
Q

WHO GIVES A WRITTEN APPROVAL FOR MEMBERS NOT IN UNIFORM TO MAKE TRAFFIC STOPS WHEN THEIR ASSIGNMENTS REQUIRE SUCH TRAFFIC STOPS?

HOW SHOULD THE VEHICLE USED BE EQUIPPED?

A

THEIR DIVISION COMMANDER

THE VEHICLE SHALL HAVE AN EMERGENCY LIGHT “PROMINENTLY DISPLAYED” AND A SIREN AS REQUIRED FOR EMERGENCY VEHICLES BY THE TEXAS MOTOR VEHICLE LAWS.

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106
Q

WHEN CAN A PRISONERS LEGAL RIGHTS BE VIOLATED?

WHEN CAN A PRISONER NOT BE GIVEN HUMANE TREATMENT?

WHEN CAN A PRISONER BE SUBJECT TO VERBAL ABUSE OR UNNECESSARY PHYSICAL VIOLENCE?

A

3.26 TREATMENT OF PRISONERS
PRISONERS SHALL BE PROTECTED IN THEIR LEGAL RIGHTS GIVEN HUMANE TREATMENT AND SHALL NOT BE SUBJECTED TO VERBAL ABUSE OR UNNECESSARY PHYSICAL VIOLENCE.

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107
Q

AN OFFICER ORDERED TO GIVE A WRITTEN STATEMENT IS GIVEN A WARNING THE THREE ADVISEMENTS ARE CALLED?

A

THE GARITY WARNING

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108
Q

WHAT MUST A MEMBER BE ADVISED OF WHEN A MEMBER IS REQUESTED TO PROVIDE A WRITTEN REPORT TO THE PROFESSIONAL STANDARDS SECTION BECAUSE THE MEMBER IS SUBJECT TO AN (INTERNAL AFFAIRS) / “PROFESSIONAL STANDARDS” INVESTIGATION?

A
  1. THE REPORT IS FOR DEPARTMENTAL PURPOSES ONLY.
  2. THE REPORT WILL NOT BE USED AGAINST HIM IN ANY SUBSEQUENT CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION OR PROSECUTION
  3. SHOULD HE FAIL TO GIVE A WRITTEN REPORT, A LAWFUL ORDER TO DO SO WILL BE GIVEN AND FAILURE TO FOLLOW SUCH AN ORDER WILL RESULT IN DISCIPLINARY ACTION.
    (THE GARITY WARNING)
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109
Q

WHEN IT COMES TO A TRAINED MEMBER OR A REGENT TEST, WHEN IS IT REQUIRED TO ESTABLISH PROBABLE CAUSE FOR A SUBSTANCE THAT CONTAINS OR CONSISTS OF A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE OR A DANGEROUS DRUG?

A

FOR A FELONY OFFENSE;
DO NOT HAVE TO BE TRAINED MEMBERS FOR A MISDEMEANOR UNDER THE TEXAS CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES ACT OR DANGEROUS DRUG ACT OF THE TEXAS HEALTH AND SAFETY CODE (NOT CONDUCTED ON MISDEMEANORS)

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110
Q

WHO CAN CONDUCT A REAGENT TEST OR VISUAL / PHYSICAL COMPARISON OF A SUBSTANCE FOR AN OFFICER THAT IS NOT TRAINED?

A

A TRAINED MEMBER OF NARCOTICS UNIT, REPEAT OFFENDERS PROGRAM (ROP), OR A CRIME SCENE UNIT, WHO PREPARE AND SUBMIT A SUPPLEMENT REPORT ROUTED TO THE NARCOTICS UNIT.

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111
Q

HOW ARE MOST HUMAN TRAFFICKING CASES INVESTIGATIONS START OFF?

A

AS AN INVESTIGATION INTO SOME OTHER REPORTED OFFENSE OR SOME TYPE OF DISTURBANCE.
- SUSPICIOUS PERSON / PROSTITUTION / SHOP-LIFTING / WITNESS OF CRIME

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112
Q

WHY WOULD A VICTIM OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING NOT IDENTIFY THEMSELVES AS A VICTIM OR REPORT THE INCIDENT(S)?

A
  1. THE VICTIM HAS A BELIEF THAT THEY WILL BE ARRESTED / DEPORTED
  2. THEIR CURRENT SITUATION IS BETTER THAN THE ONE THEY HAD (LEFT)
  3. THAT IT IS THEIR FAULT THEY’RE IN THE SITUATION.
  4. CULTURAL DIFFERENCES IN THE LAWS
  5. FEAR THAT THE TRAFFICKER WILL PUNISH, HARM, OR KILL THEM OR THEIR FAMILY MEMBERS
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113
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY LEVEL OF MENTAL OR PHYSICAL INCAPACITATION RESULTING FROM THE VOLUNTARY INTRODUCTION OF ANY ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGE OR CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE INTO THE BODY?

A

INTOXICATION

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114
Q

WHAT WORDS IN THE GENERAL MANUAL MEANS THE ACTION IS MANDATORY?

A

MUST, SHALL, AND WILL

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115
Q

WHAT WORD IN THE GENERAL MANUAL MEANS THE ACTION IS PERMISSIVE?

A

MAY

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116
Q

WHAT IS THE UNBROKEN LINE OF AUTHORITY EXTENDING FROM THE CHIEF OF POLICE THROUGH A SINGLE SUBORDINATE AT EACH LEVEL OF COMMAND DOWN TO THE LEVEL OF EXECUTION?

A

CHAIN OF COMMAND

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117
Q

WHAT IS THE FOLLOW UP UNIT FOR: THEFT OF VEHICLE, UNAUTHORIZED USE OF A VEHICLE, FRAUDULENT TRANSFER OF A MOTOR VEHICLE, TAMPERING WITH IDENTIFICATION NUMBERS?

A

VEHICLE CRIMES

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118
Q

FAILURE TO ATTEND SCHOOL HAS WHICH FOLLOW-UP UNIT ASSIGNED TO IT?

A

SCHOOL DISTRICT ATTENDANCE OFFICE

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119
Q

CURFEW VIOLATION HAS WHAT FOLLOW-UP UNIT(S) ASSIGNED TO IT?

A

YOUTH CRIMES / HOMICIDE

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120
Q

Who is the follow-up unit for the offenses of Theft of trade secrets; Theft or Tampering with multi-channel video or information services; Manufacture,Distribution, or Advertisement of multi-channel video or information service device; or Sale or Lease of Multi-Channel Video or Information Service Device?

A

White Collar Crimes

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121
Q

Who is the follow-up unit for the offenses of Commercial Bribery; Misapplication of Fiduciary Property or Property of a financial institution; Securing execution of Document by Deception; and Simulating Legal Process?

A

White Collar Crimes

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122
Q

Who is the follow-up unit for the offenses of Simulating Legal Process; Refusal to Execute the Release of Fraudulent Lien or Claim; Money Laundering; On-Line impersonation; UnAuthorized use of Telecommunications Service; and Insurance Fraud?

A

White Collar Crimes

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123
Q

Who is the follow-up unit for the offenses of Money Laundering - Theft Related; Manufacture, Delivery, or Possession of UnLawful Telecommunications Device; Theft of Telecommunications service; Publication of Telecommunication Access Device; Fraudulent Filing of Financing Statement; and Record of Fraudulent Court?

A

White Collar Crimes

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124
Q

Who is the follow-up unit for the offenses of Barratry and Solicitation of Professional Employment; Falsely Holding Oneself out As A Lawyer; UnAuthorized Practice of Law; and Use of Accident Report Information and Other Information for Pecuniary Gain?

A

White Collar Crime

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125
Q

What are Incidents / situations that can be handled with on-duty resources called?

A

ROUTINE Incidents

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126
Q

What are Incidents that have a high risk and whose resolution exceeds the Regular Resources of a Patrol Section and / or poses a requirement for a Specially Trained Response Team?

A

CRITICAL Incidents

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127
Q

What is an UNUSUAL OCCURRENCE?

A

Emergency Situations of such SIGNiFiCanT MagNiTuDe so as to COMPEL the recall of personnel or support from other agencies to PROTECT LiFe and property, PREVENT ESCALATION, and RESTORE ORDER!!!

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128
Q

WHAT SHALL ANY OFFICER INVOLVED IN A CRITICAL INCIDENT OR OTHER PRE-PLANNED HIGH-RISK SITUATION UTILIZE?

A

BODY ARMOR THAT IS AVAILABLE TO EACH OFFICER

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129
Q

WHAT TECHNIQUES ARE DESIGNED IN A MANNER THAT MINIMIZES RISK OF LIFE BY USING THE DEPARTMENTS POLICY TO USE AND EMPLOY THE EXPERTISE OF SPECIALLY TRAINED PERSONNEL IN ALL CRITICAL INCIDENTS AND UNUSUAL OCCURRENCES?

A

CONTAIN, ISOLATE, STABILIZE, AND NEGOTIATE THE CRITICAL INCIDENT TO A NON-VOLATILE RESOLUTION AND WITHOUT LOSS OF LIFE

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130
Q

WHAT ARE EMERGENCY SITUATIONS OF SUCH SIGNIFICANT MAGNITUDE SO AS TO COMPEL THE RECALL OF PERSONNEL OR SUPPORT FROM OTHER AGENCIES TO PROTECT LIFE AND PROPERTY, PREVENT ESCALATION AND RESTORE ORDER?

A

UNUSUAL OCCURENCES

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131
Q

WHO WILL RECLASSIFY A CRITICAL INCIDENT IF IT CAN NOT BE RESOLVED BY A CRITICAL INCIDENT RESPONSE TEAM(S) OR IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE CRITICAL INCIDENT PROCEDURE?

A

THE INCIDENT COMMANDER

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132
Q

WHAT WILL A CRITICAL INCIDENT BE RE CLASSIFIED AS THAT CAN NOT BE RESOLVED BY CRITICAL INCIDENT RESPONSE TEAMS?

A

UNUSUAL OCCURRENCE

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133
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIMARY GOAL OF THE DEPARTMENT IN DEALING WITH CRITICAL INCIDENTS AND UNUSUAL OCCURRENCES WHEN THEY OCCURE?

A

THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN LIVES

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134
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR A SUSPECTED HUMAN-TRAFFICKING CASE?

A

SPECIAL VICTIMS UNIT DURING NORMAL DUTY HOURS AND NIGHT CID DURING THEIR NORMAL DUTY HOURS

(SEX CRIMES IS NOT LISTED AS A FOLLOW-UP UNIT ANY MORE)

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135
Q

WHO WILL MEMBERS SEEK THE GUIDANCE FROM WHEN EVALUATING A POSSIBLE CASE OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING?

A

SUPERVISOR OR FOLLOW-UP UNIT DETECTIVE

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136
Q

WHO WILL BE NOTIFIED AND COORDINATED WITH AS USUALLY REQUIRED IN HUMAN SMUGGLING CASES BY THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT?

A

FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES

* ASSISTANCE WILL BE WITHIN THE BOUNDS OF THE DEPARTMENTAL RULES, REGULATIONS, POLICIES, AND PROCEDURES

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137
Q

IF A MEMBER OF THE DEPARTMENT HAS REASONS TO BELIEVE THAT THEY MAY HAVE ENCOUNTERED A HUMAN TRAFFICKING CASE OR HUMAN TRAFFICKING ORGANIZATION, WHAT SHOULD THE OFFICER / MEMBER DO AND WHY?

A
THE SHOULD IMMEDIATELY SUMMON SUFFICIENT LAW ENFORCEMENT PERSONNEL TO:
PROTECT THE OFFICERS PRESENT
PROTECT ANY VICTIMS PRESENT
DETAIN ANY SUSPECTS
PROTECT ANY CRIME SCENES
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138
Q

WHY ARE HUMAN TRAFFICKERS DANGEROUS TO LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS WHO ATTEMPT TO ARREST THEM?

A

THEY MAY BE ARMED FEEL THEY HAVE NOTHING TO LOOSE BY HARMING OR KILLING LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS AND BELIEVE THEY WILL NOT BE CAUGHT BECAUSE THEY CAN EXIT THE COUNTRY UNDETECTED. HOWEVER, EXPEDIENT IDENTIFICATION AND APPREHENSION IS CRITICAL.

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139
Q

WHAT ARE SOME OF THE INDICATIONS OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING AN OFFICER WHO RESPONDS TO A CALL COULD OBSERVE AT A LOCATION?

A
  1. USE OF GUARDS OR WATCHMEN
  2. FENCING DESIGNED TO KEEP PEOPLE IN RATHER THEN KEEPING PEOPLE OUT
  3. ANY LOCKS ON THE DOORS DESIGNED TO KEEP PEOPLE IN
  4. SLEEPING ARRANGEMENTS SUCH AS BUNK BEDS OR SINGLE “ROOMS” CURTAINS OR DOORS FOR PRIVACY
  5. LARGE AMOUNTS OF PAPER TOWELS, TOLIET PAPER, OR OTHER CLEANING ITEMS NEAR THE BEDS
  6. LARGE QUANTITY OF CONDOMS READILY AVAILABLE BY THE BEDS.
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140
Q

AFTER RECEIVING A LINE COMPLAINT DISPOSITION REPORT, WHO SHALL REVIEW THE REPORTS AND RECOMMENDATIONS AND BASED ON THE MERITS, SUBSTANCE, AND GRAVITY OF THE CASE CONCUR WITH DISCIPLINARY ACTION WHEN NECESSARY, UP TO A THREE (3) DAY SUSPENSION OR REQUEST FURTHER PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION AND/OR FORWARD THE LINE COMPLAINT DISPOSITION REPORTS TO THE IA UNIT?

A

DIVISION COMMANDERS

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141
Q

WHO SHALL SEND FORMAL COMPLAINT NOTICES TO OFFICERS AS WELL AS DEACTIVATION NOTICES TO OFFICERS WHO’S FORMAL COMPLAINTS HAVE BEEN DISMISSED FOR CAUSE?

A

THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT (IA)

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142
Q

HOW LONG PRIOR TO BEING INTERROGATED OR ASKED TO OTHERWISE RESPOND TO AN INVESTIGATION DOES AN OFFICER HAVE TO BE INFORMED AND PROVIDE WITH SUFFICIENT INFORMATION TO BE REASONABLY APPRAISED OF THE ALLEGATIONS?

A

(48) FORTY-EIGHT HOURS PRIOR

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143
Q

WHAT ARE THE BOARD CHAIRMAN’S RESPONSIBILITIES?

A

1) SERVES AS THE CUSTODIAN OF ALL INFORMATION CONCERNING DISCIPLINARY CASES THAT THE BOARD REVIEWS
2) CONFINES REVIEWS OF THE CASE JACKETS OF CONFIDENTIAL MATERIAL TO A DESIGNATED AREA
3) PROVIDES ORIENTATION FOR NEW BOARD MEMBERS
4) REVIEWS PUBLISHED AGENDAS AT LEAST SEVEN (7) DAYS PRIOR TO EACH MEETING
5) ENSURES PROPER RULES OF ORDER ARE FOLLOWED AT MEETINGS

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144
Q

WHAT ARE EACH MEMBERS RESPONSIBILITY WHILE ON THE BOARD?

A

1) PROTECT THE RIGHTS OF THE SWORN MEMBER WHOSE CONDUCT IS THE SUBJECT OF REVIEW BY MAINTAINING CONFIDENTIALITY RELATING TO ANY DISCUSSIONS, CORRESPONDENCES, OR PROCEEDINGS
2) AVOIDS ANY BIAS IN FULFILLMENT OF THEIR OBLIGATIONS

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145
Q

WHAT IS THE JOB TASKS OF A MEMBER, WHICH MAY INCLUDE A SPECIFIC BEAT, POST OR GEOGRAPHICAL RESPONSIBILITY CALLED?

A

ASSIGNMENT

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146
Q

WHAT IS THE EXCEPTION WHEN MEMBERS, WHILE OFF-DUTY, MAKE AN ARRESTS IN QUARRELS IN WHICH THEY ARE PERSONALLY INVOLVED OR THOSE IN WHICH THEIR FAMILIES ARE INVOLVED?

A

WHEN IMMEDIATELY NECESSARY TO PREVENT BODILY INJURY OR DEATH. OTHERWISE MEMBERS SHALL NOT MAKE ARRESTS.

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147
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR UNAUTHORIZED ABSENCE FROM COMMUNITY CORRECTIONS FACILITY, COUNTY CORRECTIONAL CENTER OR ASSIGNMENT SITE?

A

ROBBERY

ALSO FOR ROBBERY AND AGGRAVATED ROBBERY

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148
Q

WHAT OFFENSES SHALL OFFICERS IMMEDIATELY NOTIFY THE PROPER FOLLOW-UP INVESTIGATIVE UNIT?
DOES THIS INCLUDE ANYTIME AN OFFICER RECEIVES INFORMATION FROMA SUSPECT, WITNESS, OR INFORMANT REGARDING ANY OF THE OFFENSES THAT REQUIRE IMMEDIATE NOTIFICATION?

A

1) MURDER OR CRIMINAL ATTEMPT TO COMMIT MURDER
2) ROBBERIES
3) AGGRAVATED ASSAULTS
4) INJURY YO A CHILD, ELDERLY, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL
5) SEXUAL ASSAULT
6) SEX OFFENSES INVOLVING JUVENILE VICTIMS
7) THEFT OR BURGLARIES OVER $20,000.
8) SAFE BURGLARIES
9) ARSON
10) ANY FELONY OFFENSE IN WHICH AN ARREST HAS BEEN MADE
11) ACCIDENTS INVOLVING A FATALITY OR FAILURE TO STOP AND RENDER AID.

(YES)

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149
Q

FOR MISCONDUCT CASE FINDINGS THE FIRST VOTE BY THE ADVISORY ACTION BOARD IS TO DETERMINE A FINDING OF THE CASE. WHAT ARE THE FINDINGS AND WHAT ARE THEIR MEANINGS?

A

1) “UNFOUNDED” MEANS THE ALLEGATIONS REPORTED DID NOT OCCURE
2) “INCONCLUSIVE” MEANS THE ALLEGATIONS COULD NOT BE PROVED OR DISPROVED
3) “SUSTAINED” MEANS THE ALLEGATIONS ARE FOUND TO HAVE OCCURRED.
4) “JUSTIFIED” MEANS THE CONDUCT COMPLAINED ABOUT OCCURRED, BUT WAS NECESSARY AND APPROPRIATE TO ACCOMPLISH A VALID LAW ENFORCEMENT OBJECTIVE.

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150
Q

WHO INVESTIGATES LINE COMPLAINT’S WHERE A SUSPENSION OF THREE DAYS OR LESS ARE POSSIBLE?

A

INVESTIGATED VIA CHAIN OF COMMAND TO CAPTAINS

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151
Q

WHO INVESTIGATES FORMAL COMPLAINT’S WHERE A SUSPENSION COULD BE MORE THEN THREE DAYS?

A

INVESTIGATED VIA INTERNAL AFFAIRS TO THE CHEIF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD (CAAB)

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152
Q

WHO ON THE BOARD MAKES THE FINAL DECISION IF A MAJORITY VOTE CAN NOT BE OBTAINED AFTER SUBSEQUENT DISCUSSION AND VOTES?

A

THE CHAIRMAN WILL MAKE THE FINAL DECISION IF A MAJORITY VOTE CANNOT BE OBTAINED

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153
Q

HOW MANY DAYS AFTER THE DATE OF A WRITTEN COMPLAINT SHALL THE COMPLAINTS BE INVESTIGATED BY THE OFFICER’S CHAIN OF COMMAND?

A

WITH-IN (21) TWENTY-ONE CALENDAR DAYS FROM THE DATE OF THE WRITTEN COMPLAINT

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154
Q

IF A MEMBER DOES NOT AGREE WITH A CONTEMPLATED DISCIPLINARY ACTION, HOW LONG AFTER A MEMBER DISAGREES WILL THE CASE BE FORWARDED TO THE IA UNIT FOR INVESTIGATION?

A

WITH-IN (5) CALENDAR DAYS

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155
Q

WHICH LINE COMPLAINTS DISPOSITION REPORTS ARE REQUIRED TO BE FORWARDED TO THE IA UNIT FOR REVIEW AND DISPOSITION?

A

ALL LINE COMPLAINT DISPOSITION REPORTS SHALL BE FORWARDED TO THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT

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156
Q

SAPD IS DEDICATED TO _________ THE QUALITY OF LIFE BY CREATING A SAFE ENVIRONMENT IN PARTNERSHIP WITH THE PEOPLE WE SERVE.

A

IMPROVING

GM SAPD MISSION STATEMENT

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157
Q

WHAT MEANS: THAT PERIOD OF TIME BEGINNING WHEN A MEMBER REPORTS FOR DUTY AND ENDING WHEN HE IS RELIEVED FROM DUTY BY EITHER THE DISPATCHER OR A SUPERVISORY OFFICER?

A

TOUR OF DUTY

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158
Q

WHO GIVES THE WRITTEN PERMISSION TO A MEMBER OF THE DEPARTMENT TO ENGAGE IN ANY OUTSIDE EMPLOYMENT OR OWN, OPERATE, OR HAVE ANY BUSINESS ACTIVITY?

A

THE CHIEF OF POLICE

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159
Q

WHO IS FORBIDDEN TO BE GIVEN INFORMATION ABOUT ANY PRISONER IN CONFINEMENT?

A

ATTORNEY, BONDSMAN, THE AGENT OF EITHER, OR ANY OTHER PERSON NOT AUTHORIZED TO RECEIVE IT

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160
Q

WHAT DOES AN OFFICER HAVE TO BELIEVE TO USE DEADLY FORCE AGAINST ONE WHO IS FLEEING FROM CUSTODY, OR WHO IS FLEEING IMMEDIATELY AFTER COMMITTING AN OFFENSE?

A

IT IS PROHIBITED UNLESS THE OFFICER HAS PROBABLE CAUSE TO BELIEVE THE SUSPECT POSES AN IMMINENT THREAT OF DEATH OR SERIOUS BODILY INJURY TO THE OFFICER OR A THIRD PARTY

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161
Q

UNDER WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES OR CONDITIONS ARE FIREARMS NOT DISCHARGED?

A

1) AS A WARNING SHOT
2) WHEN IT APPEARS LIKELY A NON-PARTICIPANT MAY BE INJURED
3) AT OR FROM A MOVING VEHICLE, EXCEPT AS THE ULTIMATE MEASURE OF SELF-DEFENSE OR DEFENSE OF ANOTHER OFFICERS SHOULD EMPLOY ALL REASONABLE MEANS AVAILABLE TO MOVE TO AN AREA OF SAFETY IF POSSIBLE

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162
Q

WHAT IS THE EXCEPTION FOR A MEMBER TO APPEAR INTOXICATED OR EXHIBIT THE ODORRR OF INTOXICANTS WHILE ON-DUTY?

A

FOR A MEMBER TO ACCOMPLISH A SPECIFIC POLICE ASSIGNMENT OR MISSION WHEN APPROVED BY A SUPERVISOR

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163
Q

CAN AN OFFICER ON OR OFF DUTY DRINK INTOXICANTS IN UNIFORM?

A

NO OFFICER SHALL DRINK INTOXICANTS IN UNIFORM

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164
Q

WHO DOCUMENTS SERVICE COMPLAINTS?

A

SUPERVISORS

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165
Q

WHAT IS INCLUDED IN THE DOCUMENTATION OF SERVICE COMPLAINTS?

A

COMPLAINT CONTACT INFORMATION, NATURE OF THE COMPLAINT, DETAILS SPECIFIC TO THE INCIDENT THAT MMAY ASSIST IN ADDRESSING THE DISSATISFACTION

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166
Q

WHERE ARE SERVICE COMPLAINTS FORWARDED TO ON WRITTEN OR ELECTRONIC CORRESPONDENCE?

A

FORWARDED DIRECTLY TO THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT (IA)

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167
Q

WHAT SHOULD THE CITIZEN BE ADVISED ABOUT THEIR CONCERNS WHEN THEY HAVE A SERVICE COMPLAINT?

A

THEIR CONCERNS WILL BE DOCUMENTED WITH THE INTENT OF PROVING FEEDBACK ON DEPARTMENT POLICY

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168
Q

WHAT REFERS TO (MEANS / IS) THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENT, THE MEMBERS OF THE ORGANIZATION, AND THE PHYSICAL ASSETS OF THE ENTITY? (WORD USED TO ENCOMPASS ALL IN THE GM)

A

DEPARTMENT

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169
Q

WHAT MEANS: ORDERS ISSUED FOR THE PURPOSE OF INSTRUCTION, CLARIFICATION OF POLICY, AND ESTABLISHMENT OF PROCEDURE OR RULES IN THE FORM OF DEPARTMENTAL ORDERS, SPECIAL ORDERS, CHIEF’S MEMORANDUM, PERSONAL ORDERS, TRAINING BULLETINS, AND DIVISION ORDERS?

A

DEPARTMENTAL ORDERS

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170
Q

WHAT IS THE STANDARDIZED STATEMENT AND QUESTION REGARDING A “TYPE-B” COMPLAINT WHEN A SUPERVISOR CONTACTS A COMPLAINANT BECAUSE THE SUPERVISOR SHALL ATTEMPT TO CONTACT AND ENCOURAGE FEEDBACK REGARDING DEPARTMENTAL ACTION TAKEN?

A

1) STATEMENT: IT IS THE POLICY OF OUR DEPARTMENT TO CONTACT YOU REGARDING YOU COMPLAINT TO LET YOU KNOW HOW YOUR COMPLAINT WAS RESOLVED
2) QUESTION: HOW WOULD YOU LIKE TO BE CONTACTED?

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171
Q

WHAT IS ANOTHER METHOD THAT A SWORN MEMBER MAY REQUEST THE COMPLAINT BE SUBMITTED TO, AFTER NOTIFICATION OF A FORMAL COMPLAINT FROM THE IA UNIT?

A

EXPEDITED DISCIPLINARY TRACK METHOD

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172
Q

WHEN CAN NO EVENT BE REQUESTED IN WRITING TO THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF WITH A COPY OF THE FORMAL COMPLAINT NOTIFICATION ATTACHED THAT IN ORDER BOTH THE SWORN MEMBER AND THE CHIEF MUST AGREE AND ENACT THE AGREEMENT WITHIN (30) THIRTY CALENDAR DAYS FOR DISCIPLINARY ACTION?

A

WITHIN (60) CALENDAR DAYS OF THE EXPIRATION OF THE COMPLAINTS ONE-HUNDRED EIGHTY (180) CALENDAR DAY TIME-LINE.

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173
Q

WHAT SHALL BE USED AS A GUIDE WHEN ADDRESSING DISCIPLINARY ACTION?

A

THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENTS COMPLAINT MATRIX

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174
Q

FOR A MEMBER’S CHANGE OF ADDRESS AND/OR TELEPHONE NUMBER, HOW MANY DAYS DOES A MEMBER HAVE TO REPORT THE CHANGE AND TO WHO SHALL THE MEMBER REPORT THE CHANGE TO?

A

TWO (2) WORKING DAYS

IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR AND TO THE ACCOUNTING AND PERSONNEL UNIT

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175
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY CARRIES ON OR ABOUT HIS PERSON A HANDGUN, ILLEGAL KNIFE, OR CLUB. HAS A HANDGUN IN PLAINVIEW INSIDE A MOTOR VEHICLE OR WATERCRAFT OR IS ENGAGED IN CRIMINAL ACTIVITY OTHER THAN A CLASS “C” MISDEMEANOR; OR IS A MEMBER OF A CRIMINAL STREET GANG; OR PROHIBITED BY LAW FROM POSSESSING A FIRE ARM?

A

UNLAWFUL CARRYING WEAPONS

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176
Q

A PERSON CONVICTED OF A FELONY OR FAMILY VIOLENCE WHO POSSESSES A FIREARM COMMITS WHAT OFFENSE IF HE POSSESSES THE FIREARM BEFORE THE FIFTH ANNIVERSARY OF THE DATE OF THE PERSONS RELEASE FROM CONFINEMENT OR RELEASE OF COMMUNITY SUPERVISION AND OTHER THAN THE LOCATION THE PERSON LIVES IF AFTER THE PERIOD DESCRIBED?

A

UNLAWFUL POSSESSION OF FIREARM

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177
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A LICENSE HOLDER IF THE PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY CARRIES A HANDGUN WHILE INTOXICATED; ON THE PREMISES OF A CHURCH, SYNAGOGUE, OR OTHER ESTABLISHED PLACE OF RELIGIOUS WORSHIP; IN AN AMUSEMENT PARK; ON THE PREMISES OF A HOSPITAL, CORRECTIONAL FACILITY, HIGH-SCHOOL, COLLEGIATE OR PROFESSIONAL SPORTING CENTER, A BAR - CLUB - NIGHTCLUB AND REGARDLESS OF WHETHER THE HANDGUN IS CONCEALED ON OR ABOUT THE LICENSE HOLDER’S PERSON?

A

UNLAWFUL CARRYING OF HANDGUN BY LICENSE HOLDER

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178
Q

A PERSON COMMITS WHAT OFFENSE IF THE PERSON CONVICTED OF A FELONY POSSESSES METAL OR BODY ARMOR?

A

UNLAWFUL POSSESSION OF METAL OR BODY ARMOR BY A FELON

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179
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IF ANY IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY POSSESSES, MANUFACTURES, TRANSPORTS, REPAIRS, OR SELLS: AN EXPLOSIVE WEAPON, A MACHINE GUN, A SHORT-BARREL FIREARM, A FIRE-ARM SILENCER, A SWITCH-BLADE KNIFE, KNUCKLES, ARMOR-PIERCING AMMUNITION, A CHEMICAL DISPENSING DEVICE, A ZIPGUN, OR A TIRE DEFLATION DEVICE?

A

PROHIBITED WEAPONS

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180
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERON WHO GIVES AN ANYWAY A HANDGUN KNOWING THAT THE PERSON INTENDS TO USE IT UNLAWFULLY; INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY GIVES IT TO ANY CHILD YOUNGER THAN (18) EIGHTEEN YEARS; TO INCLUDE ANY FIREARM, CLUB, OR ILLEGAL KNIFE; SELLS OR GIVES A FIREARM OR AMMUNITION INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY, TO AN INTOXICATED PERSON OR A CONVICTED FELON?

A

UNLAWFUL TRANSFER OF CERTAIN WEAPONS

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181
Q

WHAT MEANS TO BRING ABOUT A TRANSFER OR PURPORTED TRANSFER OF TITLE TO OR OTHER NON-POSSESSORY INTEREST IN PROPERTY, WHETHER TO THE ACTOR OR ANOTHER OR TO ACQUIRE OR OTHERWISE EXERCISE CONTROL OVER PROPERTY OTHER THAN REAL PROPERTY?

A

APPROPIATE

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182
Q

WHAT MEANS TO REQUIRE PROPERTY OR SERVICE BY THEFT

A

STEAL

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183
Q

WHAT OFFENSE ID COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON UNLAWFULLY APPROPRIATES PROPERTY WITH INTENT TO DEPRIVE THE OWNER OF PROPERTY WITHOUT THE OWNER’S EFFECTIVE CONSENT; THE PROPERTY IS STOLEN AND THE ACTOR APPROPRIATES THE PROPERTY KNOWING IT WAS STOLEN BY ANOTHER TO INCLUDE PROPERTY IN THE CUSTODY OF ANY LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY THAT WAS EXPLICITLY REPRESENTED BY ANY LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENT TO THE ACTOR AS BEING STOLEN AND THE ACTOR APPROPRIATES THE PROPERTY BELIEVING IT WAS STOLEN BY ANOTHER?

A

THEFT

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184
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY SOMEONE WHO OPERATES PARTICIPATES IN THE EARNINGS OF A GAMBLING PLACE; INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY ENGAGES IN BOOKMAKING; FOR GAIN, BECOMES CUSTODIAN OF MATERIAL OF VALUE BET OR OFFERED TO BE BET?

A

GAMBLING PROMOTION

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185
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY SOMEONE WHO KNOWINGLY USES OR PERMITS, RENTS, OR LOANS A PLACE OWNED BY HIM TO BE USED AS A GAMBLING PLACE

A

KEEPING A GAMBLING PLACE

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186
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY SOMEONE WHO KNOWINGLY COMMUNICATES INFORMATION AS TO BETS, ODDS, CHANGES IN BETS, BETTING ODDS, WITH INTENT TO FURTHER GAMBLING?

A

COMMUNICATING GAMBLING INFORMATION

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187
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY SOMEONE WHO KNOWINGLY WITH INTENT TO USE ALTER, FIX, OR FABRICATE A GAMBLING DEVICE, EQUIPMENT, OR PARAPHERNALIA?

A

POSSESSION OF GAMBLING DEVICE, EQUIPMENT OR PARAPHERNALIA

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188
Q

WHAT CHARACTERISTICS ARE NOTED OR FOUND IN A GUNSHOT WOUND WHEN THE MUZZLE OF A FIREARM IS FLUSH WITH THE SKIN SURFACE OR WITHIN TWO-FEET OF THE SKIN?

A
  • MUZZLE I,PRINT OF THE FIREARM = CONTACT DISCHARGE
  • -SMALL UNBURNT POWDER GRAINS (KNOWN AS A TATTOO)
  • –A BURNING/SCORCHING OF HAIR AND TISSUE = WITHIN 4”
  • —A DARKENING OR BLACKENING OF SKIN OR A GRAYISH RING SURROUNDING THE WOUND - GUNPOWDER EXPLOSION = 7” FROM THE SKIN
  • —-STAR-WOUND PATTERN OR CRESCENT-SHAPE WOUND = MUZZLE IS FLUSH AGAINST THE SKIN COMMON TO SKULL OR SKIN OVER BONE AREAS
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189
Q

ALL DEATHS CAN BE CLASSIFIED INTO WHAT FOUR CAUSES?

A

NATURAL, ACCIDENTAL, SUICIDAL, HOMICIDAL

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190
Q

WHAT ARE ALL GUNSHOT WOUNDS RESULTING FROM?

A

THE ENTRY OF A PROJECTILE INTO THE BODY AND THE FREQUENT PRESENCE OF RESIDUAL EXPLOSIVE GASES

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191
Q

WHAT WILL AFFECT THE RELATIVE SIZE AND APPEARANCE OF THE GUNSHOT WOUND?

A

THE DISTANCE; GENERALLY THE CLOSER THE DISCHARGE TO THE SKIN THE GREATER THE DAMAGE.

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192
Q

WHAT IS DEFINED AS THE UNLAWFUL ATTEMPT OR COMPLETED ATTACK UPON ANOTHER WITH THE PURPOSE OF INFLICTING SEVERE BODILY INJURY, USUALLY ACCOMPANIED BY THE USE OF A WEAPON OR SOME OTHER MEANS LIKELY TO PRODUCE DEATH OR SERIOUS BODILY HARM?

A

AGGRAVATED ASSAULT
(LIKE MURDER - PEEKS DURING THE SUMMER MONTH AND LOWEST DURING JAN - FEB)
(** TENDS TO PARALLEL MURDER IN SUSPECT - VICTIMS - AREAS - GEOGRAPHIC)

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193
Q

BECAUSE OF THE NATURE OF AGGRAVATED ASSAULT, WHO TYPICALLY ARRESTS THE SUSPECT?
A) PATROL OFFICERS
B) CIVILIANS TAKING MATTERS INTO THEIR OWN HANDS
C) DETECTIVES THROUGH AN INVESTIGATION

A

PATROL OFFICERS
ASSAULT IN PROGRESS
DISPATCHED TO THE SCENE

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194
Q

WHAT THREE (3) GENERAL PHASES CAN THE INVESTIGATION OF CRIMINAL OFFENSES BY THE POLICE BE DIVIDED INTO?

A

1) THE PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION (PATROL)
2) THE IN-DEPTH INVESTIGATION (PLAIN CLOTHES DETECTIVES)
3) THE CONCLUDING INVESTIGATION (DA, DETECTIVES, PATROL)

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195
Q

WHO REPORTS AND WHAT STARTS THE MAJORITY OF CRIMES PROCESSED BY INVESTIGATORS?

A

THE MAJORITY OF CRIMES PROCESSED BY INVESTIGATORS ARE REPORTED BY VICTIMS OR WITNESSES, SECOND ARE SELF-INITIATED, AND THIRD ARE BY PATROL OBSERVATIONS

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196
Q

WHAT (12) TWELVE ITEMS AND REASONS CAN A SEARCH WARRANT BE ISSUED TO SEARCH AND SEIZE?

A

1) PROPERTY ACQUIRED BY THEFT
2) PROPERTY SPECIFICALLY DESIGNED, MADE, OR ADAPTED FOR OR COMMONLY USED IN THE COMMISSION OF AN OFFENSE.
3) ARMS AND MUNITIONS
4) WEAPONS - PROHIBITED
5) GAMBLING DEVICES OR EQUIPMENT
6) OBSCENE MATERIAL KEPT OR PREPARED FOR COMMERCIAL DISTRIBUTION OR EXHIBITION
7) A DRUG OR CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE
8) ANY PROPERTY THE POSSESSION OF WHICH IS PROHIBITED BY LAW
9) IMPLEMENTS OR INSTRUMENTS USED IN THE COMMISSION OF A CRIME
10) PROPERTY OR ITEMS - EVIDENCE TO SHOW A PARTICULAR PERSON COMMITTED A CRIME
11) PERSONS
12) CONTRABAND

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197
Q

WHEN CAN A SEARCH WARRANT ORDER AN ARREST?

ACT 18.03 CCP

A

IF THE FACTS PRESENTED TO THE MAGISTRATE ALSO ESTABLISH THE EXISTENCE OF PROBABLE CAUSE THAT A PERSON HAS COMMITTED SOME OFFENSE UNDER THE LAWS OF THIS STATE

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198
Q

AN OFFICER MUST EXECUTE A SEARCH WARRANT WITHOUT DELAY WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS FROM THE TIME OF ITS ISSUANCE?

(ART 18.06 CCP)

A
  • THREE (3) DAYS
    • FIFTEEN (15) WHOLE DAYS IF SOLELY TO SEARCH FOR AND SEIZE SPECIMENS FOR DNA ANALYSIS AND COMPARISON
  • –THREE (3) WHOLE DAYS FOR ANY OTHER PURPOSE
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199
Q

WHAT IS THE NAME OF A WRITTEN ORDER ISSUED BY A MAGISTRATE AND DIRECTED TO A PEACE OFFICER, COMMANDING HIM TO SEARCH FOR ANY PROPERTY OR THING AND TO SEIZE THE SAME?

(CCP ART 18.01)

A

A SEARCH WARRANT

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200
Q

WHEN MAY AN OFFICER BREAK DOWN THE DOOR OF ANY HOUSE FOR THE PURPOSE OF MAKING AN ARREST, IF HE BE REFUSED ADMITTANCE AFTER GIVING NOTICE OF HIS AUTHORITY AND PURPOSE?

(CCP ART 15.25) - MAY BREAK DOOR

A

IN CASE OF FELONY

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201
Q

AFTER MAKING THE ARREST OR HAVING THE PERSON IN CUSTODY, THE PERSON SHALL WITHOUT UNNECESSARY DELAY, BUT NOT LATER THAN ______ AFTER THE PERSON IS ARRESTED BE TAKEN BEFORE A MAGISTRATE IN PERSON OR OF THE IMAGE BY MEANS OF AN ELECTRONIC BROADCAST SYSTEM FOR THE WARNINGS DESCRIBED BY THIS ARTICLE. (CCP ART 15.17)

A

ARREST TIME TO MAGISTRATE NOT LATER THAN FORTY-EIGHT (48) HOURS

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202
Q

IN ANY LAW ENFORCEMENT, PROSECUTORIAL, OR JUDICIAL RESPONSE TO ALLEGATIONS OF FAMILY VIOLENCE; THE RESPONDING LAW ENFORCEMENT OR JUDICIAL OFFICERS ______ PROTECT THE VICTIMS, WITHOUT REGARD TO THE _______ BETWEEN THE ALLEGED OFFENDER AND THE VICTIM.
(CCP FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION)

A

SHALL

RELATIONSHIP

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203
Q

WHEN MAY AND OFFICER OR ANY OTHER PERSON ARREST AN OFFENDER?

(CCP CHAP 14 ARREST W/O WARRANT - OFFENSE WITHIN VIEW)

A

WHEN THE OFFENSE OF A FELONY OR AN OFFENSE AGAINST THE PUBLIC PEACE IS COMMITTED IN HIS PRESENCE OR WITHIN HIS VIEW.

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204
Q

AN INDICTMENT FOR ANY CLASS “A” OR CLASS “B” MISDEMEANOR MAY BE PRESENTED WITHIN HOW MANY YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE, AND NOT AFTERWARD?

(CCP LIMITATIONS FOR MISDEMEANORS ART 12.02 MISDEMEANORS)

A

WITHIN TWO (2) YEARS

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205
Q

AN INDICTMENT FOR ANY CLASS “C” MISDEMEANOR MAY BE PRESENTED WITHIN HOW MANY YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE, AND NOT AFTERWARD?

(CCP LIMITATIONS FOR MISDEMEANORS ART 12.02 MISDEMEANORS)

A

WITHIN (2) TWO YEARS

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206
Q

A PEACE OFFICER WHO INVESTIGATES A FAMILY VIOLENCE INCIDENT OR WHO RESPONDS TO A DISTURBANCE CALL THAT MAY INVOLVE FAMILY VIOLENCE _____ MAKE A WRITTEN REPORT.

(CCP FAMILY VIOLENCE REPORTS & RECORDS ART 5.05)

A

SHALL

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207
Q

A PEACE OFFICER WHO INVESTIGATES A FAMILY VIOLENCE INCIDENT OR WHO RESPONDS TO A DISTURBANCE CALL THAT MAY INVOLVE FAMILY VIOLENCE SHALL MAKE A WRITTEN REPORT, INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO WHAT FIVE (5) DETAILS IN THE REPORT?

(CCP FAMILY VIOLENCE REPORTS & RECORDS ART 5.05)

A

1) THE NAMES OF THE SUSPECT AND COMPLAINANT
2) THE DATE, TIME, AND LOCATION OF THE INCIDENT
3) ANY VISIBLE OR REPORTED INJURIES
4) A DESCRIPTION OF THE INCIDENT AND A STATEMENT OF ITS DISPOSITION
5) WHETHER THE SUSPECT IS A MEMBER OF THE STATE MILITARY FORCES OR IS SERVING IN THE ARMED FORCES OF THE UNITED STATES IN AN ACTIVE DUTY STATUS

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208
Q

A PEACE OFFICER WHO PROVIDES STANDBY ASSISTANCE _____ CIVILLY LIABLE FOR AN ACT OR OMISSION OF THE OFFICER THAT ARISES IN CONNECTION WITH PROVIDING THE ASSISTANCE OR DETERMINING WHETHER TO PROVIDE THE ASSISTANCE AND ______ CIVILLY OR CRIMINALLY LIABLE FOR THE WRONGFUL APPROPRIATION OF ANY PERSONAL PROPERTY BY THE VICTIM.

A

IS NOT

IS NOT

(CCP LIABILITY FAMILY VIOLENCE STANDBY ASSISTANCE)

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209
Q

“ALL OTHER FELONIES” NOT GIVEN A SPECIFIC STATUTE OF LIMITATION HAS HOW MANY YEARS TO BE PRESENTED FOR AN INDICTMENT FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE?

FOR EXAMPLE : DEADLY CONDUCT; AGG ASSAULT W/DEADLY WEAPON; DWI 3RD OR MORE

A

7 PAGES CCP CHAPTER 12 LIMITATIONS

THREE (3) YEARS FROM THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE : ALL OTHER FELONIES

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210
Q

WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR THE FELONY INDICTMENT OF TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS IF THE VICTIM IS YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS AT THE TIME THE OFFENSE WAS COMMITTED?

A

TEN (10) YEARS FROM THE 18TH BIRTHDAY OF THE VICTIM.

UNDER 17 TIME OF OFFENSE / 18TH BIRTHDAY + 10 YEARS

(#6 CHAPT 12 CCP LIMITATIONS)

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211
Q

WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR THE FELONY INDICTMENT OF INJURY TO A CHILD IF THE VICTIM IS YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS AT THE TIME THE OFFENSE WAS COMMITTED?

A

TEN (10) YEARS FROM THE 18TH BIRTHDAY OF THE VICTIM.

UNDER 17 TIME OF OFFENSE / 18TH BIRTHDAY + 10 YEARS

(#6 CHAPT 12 CCP LIMITATIONS)

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212
Q

WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR THE FELONY INDICTMENT OF COMPELLING PROSTITUTION IF THE VICTIM IS YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS AT THE TIME THE OFFENSE WAS COMMITTED?

A

TEN (10) YEARS FROM THE 18TH BIRTHDAY OF THE VICTIM.

UNDER 17 TIME OF OFFENSE / 18TH BIRTHDAY + 10 YEARS

(#6 CHAPT 12 CCP LIMITATIONS)

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213
Q

WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR THE FELONY INDICTMENT OF BIGAMY, PERSON OTHER THAN LEGAL SPOUSE IS YOUNGER THAN 18 IF THE VICTIM IS YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS AT THE TIME THE OFFENSE WAS COMMITTED?

A

TEN (10) YEARS FROM THE 18TH BIRTHDAY OF THE VICTIM.

UNDER 17 TIME OF OFFENSE / 18TH BIRTHDAY + 10 YEARS

(#6 CHAPT 12 CCP LIMITATIONS)

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214
Q

WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR THE FELONY INDICTMENT OF SEXUAL PERFORMANCE BY A CHILD IF THE VICTIM IS YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS OF AGE AT THE TIME THE OFFENSE WAS COMMITTED?

A

(20) TWENTY YEARS FROM THE 18TH BIRTHDAY OF THE VICTIM.

UNDER 17 AT THE TIME OF THE OFFENSE / 18TH BIRTHDAY + 20 YEARS

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215
Q

WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR THE FELONY INDICTMENT OF AGGRAVATED KIDNAPPING WITH INTENT TO VIOLATE OR ABUSE THE VICTIM SEXUALLY IF THE VICTIM IS YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS OF AGE AT THE TIME THE OFFENSE WAS COMMITTED?

A

(20) TWENTY YEARS FROM THE 18TH BIRTHDAY OF THE VICTIM.

UNDER 17 AT THE TIME OF THE OFFENSE / 18TH BIRTHDAY + 20 YEARS

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216
Q

WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR THE FELONY INDICTMENT OF BURGLARY WITH INTENT TO VIOLATE OR ABUSE THE VICTIM SEXUALLY IF THE VICTIM IS YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS OF AGE AT THE TIME THE OFFENSE WAS COMMITTED?

A

(20) TWENTY YEARS FROM THE 18TH BIRTHDAY OF THE VICTIM.

UNDER 17 AT THE TIME OF THE OFFENSE / 18TH BIRTHDAY + 20 YEARS

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217
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF MURDER?

A

NO LIMITATION

CCP CHAPT 12 LIMITATIONS

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218
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF MANSLAUGHTER?

A

NO LIMITATION

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219
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF SEXUAL ASSAULT OR AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ASSAULT?

(DURING THE INVESTIGATION OF THE OFFENSE BIOLOGICAL MATTER WAS COLLECTED AND SUBJECTED TO FORENSIC DNA)

A

NO LIMITATIONS

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220
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF CONTINUOUS SEXUAL ABUSE OF A YOUNG CHILD OR CHILDREN?

A

NO LIMITATION

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221
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF INDECENCY WITH A CHILD?

A

NO LIMITAION

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222
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF AN OFFENSE OF LEAVING THE SCENE OF AN ACCIDENT WITH A DEATH?

A

NO LIMITATION

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223
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF TRAFFICKING OR CONTINUOUS TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS?

A

NO LIMITATION

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224
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF THEFT OF ANY ESTATE?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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225
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF THEFT BY A PUBLIC SERVANT OF A GOVERNMENT PROPERTY OVER WHICH HE EXERCISES CONTROL IN HIS OFFICIAL CAPASITY?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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226
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF FORGERY - OR THE UTTERING, USING OR PASSING OF FORGED INSTRUMENTS?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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227
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF INJURY TO AN ELDERLY OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL PUNISHABLE AS A FELONY OF THE 1ST DEGREE?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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228
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF FORGERY - OR THE UTTERING, USING OR PASSING OF FORGED INSTRUMENTS?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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229
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF ARSON?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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230
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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231
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF COMPELLING PROSTITUTION?

A

WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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232
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF MISAPPLICATION OF FIDUCIARY PROPERTY OR PROPERTY OF A FINANCIAL INSTITUTION?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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233
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF SECURING EXECUTION OF DOCUMENT BY DECEPTION?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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234
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF A FELONY VIOLATION OF THE TAX CODE?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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235
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF FALSE STATEMENT TO OBTAIN PROPERTY OF CREDIT?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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236
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF MONEY LAUNDERING?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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237
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF CREDIT CARD OR DEBIT CARD ABUSE?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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238
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF FRAUDULENT USE OR POSSESSION OF IDENTIFYING INFORMATION?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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239
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF BIGAMY?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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240
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF MEDICAID FRAUD?

A

SEVEN (7) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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241
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF THEFT OR ROBBERY?

A

PRESENTED WITHIN FIVE (5) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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242
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF KIDNAPPING?

A

PRESENTED WITHIN FIVE (5) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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243
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF BURGLARY?

A

PRESENTED WITHIN FIVE (5) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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244
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF ROBBERY?

A

PRESENTED WITHIN FIVE (5) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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245
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF INJURY TO AN ELDERLY OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL THAT IS NOT PUNISHABLE AS A FELONY OF THE 1ST DEGREE?

A

PRESENTED WITHIN FIVE (5) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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246
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF ABANDONING OR ENDANGERING A CHILD?

A

PRESENTED WITHIN FIVE (5) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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247
Q

WHAT IS THE FELONY INDICTMENT LIMITATION FOR THE OFFENSE OF INSURANCE FRAUD?

A

PRESENTED WITHIN FIVE (5) YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE

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248
Q

A PEACE OFFICER ________ ARREST AN OFFENDER WITHOUT A WARRANT FOR ANY OFFENSE COMMITTED IN HIS PRESENCE OR WITHIN HIS VIEW.

A

MAY

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249
Q

WHEN A FELONY HAS BEEN COMMITTED, IF SATISFACTORY PROOF BY A CREDIBLE PERSON IS SHOWN TO A PEACE OFFICER THAT A FELONY HAS BEEN COMMITTED SUCH PEACE OFFICER MAY ARREST/PURSUE WITHOUT WARRANT THE **ACCUSED WHEN WHAT OTHER CONDITIONS EXIST?

A

THE OFFENDER IS ABOUT TO ESCAPE, SO THAT THERE IS NO TIME TO PROCURE A WARRANT.

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250
Q

WHAT IS A WRITTEN ORDER FROM A MAGISTRATE, DIRECTED TO A PEACE OFFICER OR SOME OTHER PERSON SPECIALLY NAMED, COMMANDING HIM TO TAKE THE BODY OF THE PERSON ACCUSED OF AN OFFENSE, TO BE DEALT WITH ACCORDING TO LAW?

A

WARRANT OF ARREST

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251
Q

WHAT ARE THE “REQUISITES OF A WARRANT”?

CCP ARREST UNDER WARRANT

A

ISSUED IN THE NAME OF “THE STATE OF TEXAS” AND IT MUST:

1) SPECIFY THE NAME OF THE PERSON (IF UNKNOWN SOME REASONABLE DEFINITE DESCRIPTION)
2) STATE THAT THE PERSON IS ACCUSED OF SOME OFFENSE NAMING THE OFFENSE
3) SIGNED BY THE MAGISTRATE (HIS OFFICE BY NAME OR IN CONNECTION HIS SIGNATURE)

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252
Q

WHAT IS THE AFFIDAVIT MADE BEFORE THE MAGISTRATE OR DISTRICT OR COUNTY ATTORNEY CALLED IF IT CHARGES THE COMMISSION OF AN OFFENSE?

A

A COMPLAINT

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253
Q

WHAT ARE THE PRIMARY DUTIES OF A PEACE OFFICER WHO INVESTIGATES A FAMILY VIOLENCE ALLEGATION OR WHO RESPONDS TO A DISTURBANCE CALL THAT MAY INVOLVE FAMILY VIOLENCE?

A

1) TO PROTECT ANY POTENTIAL VICTIM OF FAMILY VIOLENCE
2) TO ENFORCE THE LAW OF THIS STATE
3) TO ENFORCE A PROTECTIVE ORDER FROM ANOTHER JURISDICTION
4) TO MAKE LAWFUL ARRESTS OF VIOLATORS

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254
Q

NO PERSON MAY BE CONVICTED OF PERJURY OR AGGRAVATED PERJURY IF PROOF THAT HIS STATEMENT IS FALSE RESTS SOLEY UPON THE TESTIMONY OF ## WITNESSES OTHER THAN THE DEFENDANT?

A

ONE (1)
** THIS DOES NOT APPLY TO PROSECUTIONS FOR PERJURY OR AGGRAVATED PERJURY INVOLVING INCONSISTENT STATEMENTS ** (TESTIMONY STATEMENTS)

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255
Q

WHEN CAN PROPERTY RETAINED FROM A SEARCH WARRANT LEAVE OR BE REMOVED FROM THE COUNTY IN WHICH IT WAS SEIZED WITHOUT AN ORDER FROM A COURT APPROVING THE REMOVAL?

A

WHEN FORWARDED TO A LABORATORY FOR SCIENTIFIC ANALYSIS

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256
Q

WHEN CAN A PERSON WHO CAUSES A PEACE OFFICER TO COME INTO CONTACT WITH THE PERSON’S BODILY FLUIDS UNDERGO A MEDICAL PROCEDURE OR TEST DESIGNED TO SHOW OR HELP SHOW WHETHER THE PERSON HAS A COMMUNICABLE DISEASE?

A

ART 18.22 CCP (PAGE 14)
A PERSON WHO IS ARRESTED FOR A MISDEMEANOR OR FELONY AND WHO DURING THE COMMISSION OF THAT OFFENSE OR AN ARREST FOLLOWING THE COMMISSION OF THAT OFFENSE AT THE DIRECTION OF THE COURT HAVING JURISDICTION OVER THE ARRESTED PERSON ON ITS OWN MOTION OR THE REQUEST OF THE PEACE OFFICER

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257
Q

CCP 38.03 PRESUMPTION OF INNOCENCE

ALL PERSONS ARE PRESUMED TO BE INNOCENT AND NO PERSON MAY BE CONVICTED OF AN OFFENSE UNLESS WHAT IS PROVEN OR FOUND?

A

EACH ELEMENT OF THE OFFENSE IS PROVED BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT

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258
Q

CCP 38.08 DEFENDANT MAY TESTIFY

ANY DEFENDANT IN A CRIMINAL ACTION SHALL BE PERMITTED TO TESTIFY IN HIS OWN BEHALF THERIN, BUT, FAILURE OF ANY DEFENDANT TO SO TESTIFY SHALL NOT BE TAKEN AS A CIRCUMSTANCE AGAINST HIM. WHO CAN ALLUDE OR COMMENT ON THE FACT THE DEFENDANT DID OR DID NOT TESTIFY?

A

COUNSEL MAY NOT ALLUDE TO OR COMENT ON THE FAILURE OR DECISION OF A DEFENDANT TO TESTIFY IN THE CAUSE.

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259
Q

A STATEMENT OF AN ACCUSED MAY BE USED AS EVIDENCE AGAINST HIM IF IT APPEARS THAT THE SAME WAS _______ AND _______ MADE WITHOUT ________ OR ________.

A

FREELY AND VOLUNTARY

WITHOUT COMPULSION OR PERSUASION

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260
Q

NO EVIDENCE OBTAINED BY AN OFFICER OR ANOTHER PERSON IN VIOLATION OF ANY PROVISIONS OF THE CONSTITUTION OR LAWS OF _______ OR THE __________ SHALL BE ADMITTED IN EVIDENCE AGAINST THE ACCUSED ON THE TIME OF ANY CRIMINAL CASE.

A

CCP 38.23 EVIDENCE NOT TO BE USED
THE STATE OF TEXAS
THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA

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261
Q

WHAT ARE THE CONTENTS OF A SEXUAL ASSAULT EXAMINATION KIT OR ANY ITEM THAT CONTAINS BLOOD, SEMEN, HAIR, SALIVA, SKIN TISSUE, FINGERNAIL SCRAPINGS, BONE, BODILY FLUIDS, OR ANY OTHER IDENTIFIABLE BIOLOGICAL MATERIAL THAT WAS COLLECTED AS PART OF AN INVESTIGATION OF AN ALLEGED FELONY CALLED?

A

BIOLOGICAL EVIDENCE

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262
Q

WHAT ARE A SET OF INITIALS OR FICTITIOUS NAMES CHOSEN BY A VICTIM TO DESIGNATE THE VICTIM IN ALL PUBLIC FILES CALLED?

A

PSEUDONYM

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263
Q

WHAT PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION ITEMS MAY A VICTIM WHO REQUESTS A PSEUDONYM NOT HAVE LISTED, DISCLOSED, OR RELEASED TO THE PUBLIC?

A

THEIR NAME, ADDRESS, AND TELEPHONE NUMBERS

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264
Q

What offense is committed if a person knowingly manufactures, sells, purchases, transports; or possesses a HOAX BOMB with intent to use the HOAX BOMB to make another believe it is an explosive or incendiary device or cause an alarm or reaction of any type of agency organization to deal with such emergencies?

A

PC 46.08 / HOAX BOMBS

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265
Q

CAN A RESIDENT OF THIS STATE PURCHASE A FIREARM, AMMUNITION, OR RELOADING COMPONENTS AS WELL AS FIREARM COMPONENTS FROM ANOTHER STATE?

A

YES; THEY MAY UNDER SECTION 46.07. INTERSTATE PURCHASE

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266
Q

What offense is committed if a person KNOWINGLY POSSESSES COMPONENTS OF AN EXPLOSIVE WEAPON WITH INTENT TO COMBINE THEM FOR USE IN A CRIMINAL ENDEAVOR?

A

COMPONENTS OF EXPLOSIVES

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267
Q

What offense is committed if a person ALLOWS A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS OF AGE TO GAIN ACCESS TO A READILY DISCHARGEABLE FIREARM AND THE PERSON WITH CRIMINAL NEGLIGENCE FAILED TO SECURE THE FIREARM, LEFT THE FIREARM IN A PLACE TO WHICH THE PERSON KNEW OR SHOULD HAVE KNOWN THE CHILD WOULD GAIN ACCESS?

A

MAKING A FIREARM ACCESSIBLE TO A CHILD

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268
Q

WHO MUST HAVE A SIGN POSTED THAT READS “IT IS UNLAWFUL TO STORE, TRANSPORT, OR ABANDON AN UNSECURED FIREARM IN A PLACE WHERE CHILDREN ARE LIKELY TO BE AND OBTAIN ACCESS TO THE FIREARM.”

A

DEALERS OF FIREARMS (FOR PREVENTION OF “MAKING A FIREARM ACCESSIBLE TO A CHILD”)

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269
Q

What offense is committed if a person WHO KNOWINGLY ENGAGES IN THE BUSINESS OF TRANSPORTING OR TRANSFERRING A FIREARM THAT THE PERSON KNOWS WAS ACQUIRED IN VIOLATION OF THE LAWS OF ANY STATE ON MORE THAN ONE OCCASION OR FOR THE PROFIT OR ANY OTHER FOR OF REMUNERATION?

A

FIREARM SMUGGLING

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270
Q

DO POLICE OFFICERS HAVE THE LEGAL AUTHORITY TO PRONOUNCE DEATHS?

A

NO

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271
Q

WHO DOES PRONOUNCE THE DEATH OF A PERSON?

A

PHYSICIANS AND CORONERS

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272
Q

WHAT IS CALLED WHEN PHYSIOLOGICAL REACTIONS OCCURE THAT CLOSELY RESEMBLE DEATH - YET THE PERSON GETS REVIVED THROUGH MEDICAL TREATMENT?

A

SIMULATED DEATH

(I.E. PROLONGED IMMERSION IN COLD WATER UP TO 38 MINUTES, ELECTRIC SHOCK, ALCOHOL POISONING, AND BARBITURATE POISONING

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273
Q

IF FINGERPRINTING CAN NOT BE USED TO IDENTIFY A DECEASED PERSON AND PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION IS COMPLETED BY FORENSIC ODONTOLOGY, WHAT WAS USED TO IDENTIFY THE DECEASED?

A

DENTAL CHARACTERISTICS / DENTAL COMPARISONS (ODONTOLOGY)

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274
Q

WHEN DOES RIGOR MORTIS OCCUR?

A

STIFFENING PROCESS OF THE BODY
FACE / JAW - 2 HOURS
OCCURS DOWNWARD - 12 HOURS /HEAD TO TOE GONE IN ABOUT 36 HOURS

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275
Q

WHAT IS PUTREFACTION?

A

DECOMPOSITION BY BACTERIA, FUNGI, AND OXIDATION

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276
Q

WHAT IS THE COOLING RATE OF A DECEASED BODY?

A

98.6* F / (37C) TO TEMP OF SURROUNDINGS 3F 1ST HOUR AND 1*F EVER HOUR AFTER

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277
Q

WHAT ARE SOME GENERAL BODY INDICATORS OF A DECEASED PERSON?

A

NOTED IN MUSLES AND EYES OF VICTIM, LOSS OF FLUSHING IN FINGERNAILS, EYE BALL LACK CHARACTERISTIC TENSION - FLACCID TO TOUCH

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278
Q

What type of perpetrator commits numerous murders but kills over a long period of time?

A

Serial Murderer

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279
Q

What is operated by the FBI at the FBI National Center for Analysis of Violent Crimes that receives and analyzes information on specific cases of violence?

A

(VICAP) Violent Criminal Apprehension Program

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280
Q

List the factors that a psychological assessment can often reveal about a suspect?

A

Suspects Race, Sex, Age Range, Marital Status, General Employment, Reaction to Questioning by police, Degree of Sexual Maturity, going to strike again, past serious offenses, police record

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281
Q

What type of offenses are psychological profile assessments generally reserved for?

A

Homicides, Rapes, or other serious offenses, kidnappings etc…

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282
Q

What Characteristics define the majority of murder arrest suspects?

A

Primarily BLACK males - 17 - 34 yrs of age

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283
Q

What (5) five categories do MOST murders involve?

A

1) emotional disputes (sudden emotional explosion, resulting in death)
2) matters of SEX (sexual unfaithful partner)
3) related crimes - robbery/burglary (kill during commission of another crime)
4) sever mental abnormalities (insane or borderline - serial killers / paranoid schizophrenia - usually make terrorist)
5) benefit factors (profit from life insurance, smallest # of murder or criminal homicides)

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284
Q

Victims of murder are usually what sex and between what ages?

A

Males between 20-24 yrs of age

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285
Q

According to the National Center for Health Statistics, what is the leading cause of death among BLACK males 25 - 34 years of age?

A

Criminal Homicide

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286
Q

What are such murders that involve a conscious or unconscious action by the victim that is a causative factor in the violent act?

A

Victim - Precipitated Crimes

Involves Victims who dared their slayers to assault or who provoke the assault by some other action

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287
Q

List some strategies to combat - robbery

A

Prevention and Apprehension programs

Prevention - Use of a bait-bill; visible cameras; undercover/decoy & precautions; proactive policing

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288
Q

WHAT INVESTIGATION BEGINS WHEN THE INVESTIGATOR LEAVES THE CRIME SCENE AND TERMINATES WHEN THE CASE IS CLOSED OR SUSPENDED?

A

CONTINUING INVESTIGATION

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289
Q

WHAT IS DEFINED AS THE UNLAWFUL KILLING OF A HUMAN BEING WITH MALICE AND FORETHOUGHT?

A

MURDER

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290
Q

WHAT HOMICIDE SITUATIONS OCCUR WITH MUCH GREATER FREQUENCY THEN THE CRIME OF MURDER?

A

ACCIDENTAL DEATHS AND SUICIDES

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291
Q

WHAT IS THE UNLAWFUL KILLING OF A HUMAN BEING WITHOUT MALICE?

A

MANSLAUGHTER

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292
Q

WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES / CATEGORIES OF MANSLAUGHTER OR THE UNLAWFUL KILLING OF A HUMAN BEING BY ANOTHER HUMAN WITHOUT MALICE?

A

VOLUNTARY, INVOLUNTARY, VEHICULAR

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293
Q

WHAT MANSLAUGHTER IS DEFINED AS A HUMAN KILLED ANOTHER HUMAN DURING AN ACT UNDER A SUDDEN AND INTENSE PASSION RESULTING FROM SERIOUS PROVOCATION?

A

VOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER

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294
Q

WHAT MANSLAUGHTER IS DEFINED AS A HUMAN KILLED ANOTHER HUMAN THAT OCCURRED DURING AN UNLAWFUL ACT OR A LAWFUL ACT - WITHOUT LAWFUL JUSTIFICATION AND PROVOCATION OR PREMEDITATION IS NOT INVOLVED (CRASH OF AN ELEVATOR THAT WAS KNOWN TO NEED REPAIR RESULTED IN LOSS OF LIFE/LIVES)

A

INVOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER

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295
Q

WHAT TERM MEANS “THE BODY OF THE CRIME” AND DOES NOT MEAN THE ACTUAL BODY OF THE VICTIM?

A

CORPUS DELICTI

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296
Q

WHAT IS THE SINGLE MOST ACCURATE SOURCE FOR DETERMINING THE STATUS OF MURDER AND MANSLAUGHTER?

A

THE FBI’S ANNUAL UNIFORM CRIME REPORT (UCR)

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297
Q

WHEN DURING A YEAR IS THE GREATEST FREQUENCY OF MURDER BY MONTH?

A

THE SUMMER MONTHS OF JULY AND AUGUST

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298
Q

BY GEOGRAPHIC LOCATION; WHERE DO MOST MURDERS OCCUR? (THE HIGHEST FREQUENCY)

A

THE SOUTHERN STATES IN METROPOLITAN AREAS

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299
Q

WHAT MEANS A MEDICAL, CHEMICAL, TOXICOLOGIC, BALLISTIC, OR OTHER EXPERT EXAMINATION OR TEST PERFORMED ON THE PHYSICAL EVIDENCE, INCLUDING DNA EVIDENCE, FOR THE PURPOSE OF DETERMINING THE CONNECTION OF THE EVIDENCE TO A CRIMINAL ACTION?

A

FORENSIC ANALYSIS

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300
Q

IS A LATENT PRINT EXAMINATION INCLUDED IN THE TERM, FORENSIC ANALYSIS?

A

NO

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301
Q

IS A TEST SPECIMEN OF BREATH UNDER CHAPTER 724, TRANSPORTATION CODE INCLUDED IN THE TERM, FORENSIC ANALYSIS?

A

NO

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302
Q

IS DIGITAL EVIDENCE INCLUDED IN THE TERM, FORENSIC ANALYSIS?

A

NO

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303
Q

IS An EXAMINATION or TEST PERFORMED FOR THE PURPOSE OF DETERMINING A COMPLIANCE with a term or condition of community supervision or parole….. INCLUDED IN THE TERM, FORENSIC ANALYSIS?

A

No

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304
Q

IS AN EXPERT EXAMINATION OR TEST CONDUCTED PRINCIPALLY FOR THE PURPOSE OF SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INCLUDED IN THE TERM, FORENSIC ANALYSIS?

A

No

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305
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY TANGIBLE OBJECT, THING, OR SUBSTANCE RELATING TO A CRIMINAL ACTION?

A

PHYSICAL EVIDENCE

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306
Q

WHAT IS A DEFENSE TO PROSECUTION THAT THE ACTOR THROUGH MISTAKE FORMED A REASONABLE BELIEF ABOUT A MATTER OF FACT IF HIS MISTAKEN BELIEF NEGATED THE KIND OF CULPABILITY REQUIRED FOR COMMISSION OF THE OFFENSE?

A

MISTAKE OF FACT

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307
Q

IS IT A DEFENSE TO PROSECUTION THAT THE (IDIOT) ACTOR WAS “IGNORANT” OF THE PROVISIONS PF ANY LAW AFTER THE LAW HAS TAKEN EFFECT?

A

NO!!!

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308
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WHILE CONFINED IN A PENAL INSTITUTION INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY CARRIES ON OR ABOUT HIS PERSON A DEADLY WEAPON; OR POSSESSES OR CONCEALS A DEADLY WEAPON IN A PENAL INSTITUTION?

A

DEADLY WEAPON IN PENAL INSTITUTION

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309
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY USE ABUSIVE, INDECENT, PROFANE, OR VULGAR LANGUAGE IN A PUBLIC PLACE AND THE LANGUAGE BY ITS VERY UTTERANCE TENDS TO INCITE AN IMMEDIATE BREACH OF THE PEACE?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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310
Q

WHAT IS THE DISTANCE WHERE AN ACTOR COMMITS THE OFFENSE OF HAVING A WEAPON WITHIN A WEAPON-FREE SCHOOL ZONE FOR ALL PREMISES OF A SCHOOL?

A

300 FEET
PENALTY IS INCREASED.
MAPS CAN BE USED AS EVIDENCE OF LOCATION OF WEAPON FREE ZONE AREA

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311
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY MAKES AN OFFENSIVE GESTURE OR DISPLAY IN A PUBLIC PLACE AND THE GESTURE OR DISPLAY TENDS TO INCITE AN IMMEDIATE BREACH OF THE PEACE?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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312
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY MAKES AN UNREASONABLE NOISE (EXCEEDS A DECIBEL LEVEL OF 85) IN A PUBLIC PLACE OTHER THAN A SPORT SHOOTING RANGE?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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313
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY ABUSES OR THREATENS A PERSON IN A PUBLIC PLACE IN AN OBVIOUSLY OFFENSIVE MANNER?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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314
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY FIGHTS WITH ANOTHER IN A PUBLIC PLACE?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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315
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY ENTERS AND LOOKS INTO WINDOWS OR ROOMS OF ANOTHER (PEEPING TOM)?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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316
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY EXPOSES HIS ANUS OR GENITALS IN A PUBLIC PLACE AND IS RECKLESS ABOUT OFFENDING ANOTHER?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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317
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY CREATES BY CHEMICAL MEANS A NOXIOUS AND UNREASONABLE ODOR IN A PUBLIC PLACE?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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318
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY DISCHARGES A FIREARM IN A PUBLIC PLACE OR ACROSS A PUBLIC ROAD?

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

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319
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WITHOUT LEGAL PRIVILEGE OR AUTHORITY INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY OBSTRUCT A HIGHWAY, STREET, SIDEWALK, RAILWAY, WATERWAY, ELEVATOR, AISLE, HALLWAY, ENTRANCE OR EXIT TO WHICH THE PUBLIC OR A SUBSTANTIAL GROUP OF THE PUBLIC HAS ACCESS, OR ANY OTHER PLACE USED FOR THE PASSAGE OF PERSONS , VEHICLES, OR CONVEYANCES, REGARDLESS OF THE MEANS OF CREATING THE OBSTRUCTION AND WHETHER THE OBSTRUCTION ARISES FROM HIS ACTS ALONE OR FROM HIS ACTS AND THE ACTS OF OTHERS?

A

OBSTRUCTING HIGHAY OR OTHER PASSAGEWAY
—> DISOBEYS A REASONABLE REQUEST OR ORDER TO MOVE ISSUED BY A PERSON THE ACTOR KNOWS TO BE OR IS INFORMED AS A PEACE OFFICER, A FIREMAN, OR A PERSON WITH AUTHORITY TO CONTROL THE USE OF THE PREMISES - TO PREVENT OBSTRUCTION OF A HIGHWAY OR DISPERSING ANY OF THOSE GATHERED IN A DANGEROUS PROXIMITY TO A FIRE, RIOT, OR OTHER HAZZARD

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320
Q

WHAT MEANS TO RENDER IMPASSIBLE OR TO RENDER PASSAGE UNREASONABLY INCONVENIENT OR HAZARDOUS?

A

OBSTRUCT

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321
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WITH INTENT TO PREVENT OR DISRUPT A LAWFUL MEETING, PROCESSION, OR GATHERING, HE OBSTRUCTS OR INTERFERES WITH THE MEETING, PROCESSION OR GATHERING BY PHYSICAL ACTION OR VERBAL UTTERANCE?

A

DISRUPTING MEETING OR PROCESSION

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322
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO DURING THE PERIOD BEGINNING (3) THREE HOURS BEFORE AND ENDING (3) THREE HOURS AFTER THE FUNERAL SERVICE, THE PERSON ENGAGES IN PICKETING WITHIN 1000 FEET OF A FACILITY OR CEMETERY BEING USED FOR A FUNERAL SERVICE?

A

FUNERAL SERVICE DISRUPTIONS

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323
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO KNOWINGLY INITIATES, COMMUNICATES OR CIRCULATES A REPORT OF A PRESENT, PAST, OR FUTURE BOMBING, FIRE, OR OTHER EMERGENCY THAT HE KNOWS IS FALSE OR BASELESS THAT WOULD ORDINARILY CAUSE ACTION BY AN OFFICIAL OR VOLUNTEER AGENCY ORGANIZED TO DEAL WITH EMERGENCIES, PLACE A PERSON IN FEAR OF IMMINENT SERIOUS BODILY INJURY OR PREVENT OR INTERRUPT THE OCCUPATION OF A BUILDING, ROOM, PLACE OF ASSEMBLY, PLACE TO WHICH PUBLIC HAS ACCESS, OR AN AIRCRAFT, AUTOMOBILE, OR ANY MODE OF CONVEYANCE?

A

FALSE ALARM OR REPORT

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324
Q

What CRIME traditionally has I high clearance rate by ARREST?
(Approximately 65% percent)

A

Criminal Homicide

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325
Q

WHAT SEVEN FACTORS PLAY A PART IN THE PHENOMENON OF THE LONGER A SUSPECT REMAINS AT LARGE, THE GREATER THE LIKELIHOOD THERE WILL NOT BE A CONVICTION OR THE LOWER THE PROBABILITY OF A SUCCESSFUL CONVICTION?

A
  1. PHYSICAL ESCAPE FROM THE SCENE
  2. AN INACCURATE WITNESS AND/OR VICTIM IDENTIFICATION
  3. DESTRUCTION AND/OR DISPOSAL OF EVIDENCE
  4. VICTIMS AND/OR WITNESSES BEING UNWILLING TO TESTIFY
  5. POLICE SUSPENSION OF THE CASE
  6. CONSTRUCTION OF CREDIBLE ALIBIS BY SUSPECTS
  7. POSSIBLE CONTAMINATION OR LOSS OF PHYSICAL EVIDENCE
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326
Q

WHAT IS A WRITTEN COURT ORDER DIRECTING THE POLICE TO SEARCH PREMISES OR VEHICLES FOR SPECIFIC TYPES OF INCRIMINATING EVIDENCE?

A

SEARCH WARRANT

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327
Q

WHAT IS AN ATTACHMENT TO THE WARRANT WHICH THE POLICE DETAIL THEIR PROBABLE CAUSE FOR THE WARRANT TO BE ISSUED?

A

AFFIDAVIT

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328
Q

WHO BEARS THE BURDEN OF PROOF IN A CRIMINAL CASE?

A

THE PROSECUTION

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329
Q

WHAT INVOLVES A CONTINUOUS DEMONSTRATION OF GUILT, OR A PROVING OF EACH ELEMENT OF A CRIME AGAINST THE ACCUSED?

A

THE BURDEN OF PROOF

SHOW EACH ELEMENT OF THE OFFENSE EXISTED

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330
Q

WHAT IS A LATIN TERM THAT MEANS THE BODY OF THE CRIME, NOT NECESSARILY A HUMAN BODY, - THE FACT NECESSARY TO PROVE THAT A CRIME WAS COMMITTED?

A

CORPUS DELICTI

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331
Q

WHAT AIDS THE INVESTIGATOR IN SERVING AS THE FACTUAL FOUNDATION FOR THE REPORT, SERVING AS MEMORY AIDS AND ENHANCING THE CREDIBILITY OF THE OFFICER AND THE REPORT?

A

FIELD NOTES

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332
Q

WHAT ARE THE NATURAL CULMINATION OF FEILD NOTES AND ARE OFTEN PRESCRIBED BY LAW OR AGENCY POLICY AND PRIMARILY PRESERVE INFORMATION?

A

POLICE REPORTS

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333
Q

WHEN ARE CASES USUALLY TERMINATED?

A

NO LEADS ARE AVAILABLE, WHEN THE PERPETRATOR HAS BEEN ARRESTED (OR KILLED)

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334
Q

WHAT FIVE (5) ESSENTIAL ELEMENTS OFTEN REFERRED TO AS THE FIVE C’s SHOULD A PROFESSIONALLY WRITTEN LAW-ENFORCEMENT REPORT CONTAIN?

A
  1. COMPLETENESS
  2. CONCISENESS
  3. CLEARNESS
  4. CORRECTNESS
  5. COURTEOUSNESS AND FAIRNESS
    (CORRUPT DEFENSE ATTORNEYS WILL QUESTION THIS)
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335
Q

WHAT TYPE OF INVESTIGATIVE REPORT DESCRIBE THE PROGRESS OF THE INVESTIGATION AND NORMALLY IS DUE AT INTERVALS?

A

PROGRESS REPORT

AS THE NAME IMPLIES - DUE AT SPECIFIC INTERVALS I.E. (EVERY 15 DAYS)

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336
Q

WHAT APPLIES TO VIOLATION OF SOMEONES CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHTS, EVIDENCE OBTAINED FROM UNLAWFUL INTERROGATIONS, ILLEGAL SEARCHES, OR BY ENTRAPMENT OR DENYING A SUSPECT RIGHT TO COUNSEL? (THIS EVIDENCE CAN NOT BE ADMITTED)

A

EXCLUSIONARY RULE

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337
Q

WHAT EXCEPTION TO THE EXCLUSIONARY RULE ARE THE WORDS OR STATEMENTS MADE DURING THE COMMISSION OF AN OFFENSE BECAUSE THEY TEND TO BE SPONTANEOUS RATHER THAN PRECONCEIVED AND ARE TRUTHFUL?

A

RES GESTAE DECLARATIIONS

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338
Q

WHAT EVIDENCE SERVES TO ESTABLISH GUILT OR IS INCRIMINATING?

A

INCULPATORY EVIDENCE

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339
Q

WHAT EVIDENCE SERVES TO CLEAR A PERSON OF BLAME OR LEGAL GUILT OR EXONERATES A PERSON?

A

EXCULPATORY EVIDENCE

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340
Q

WHAT TYPE OF EVIDENCE WILL NORMALLY PROVE A FACT WITHOUT SUPPORT?

A

DIRECT EVIDENCE

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341
Q

WHAT IS ALSO KNOWN AS CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE AND DOES NOT PROVE A FACT AT ISSUE BUT MAY ESTABLISH A STRONG INFERENCE AS TO THE TRUTH OF THAT FACT?

A

INDIRECT EVIDENCE / AKA : CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE

TIES THINGS TOGETHER, BUT BY ITSELF WILL NOT PROVE BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT A BURDEN OF PROOF OR GUILT

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342
Q

WHAT IS DEFINED AS THAT WHICH CAUSES A PERSON TO ACT IN A CERTAIN MANNER?

A

MOTIVE

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343
Q

WHAT IS ANYTHING PROPERLY ADMISSIBLE IN A COURT THAT WILL AID THE FUNCTION OF A CRIMINAL PROCEEDING IN ESTABLISHING GUILT OR INNOCENCE

A

EVIDENCE

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344
Q

WHAT EVIDENCE CAN BE ANY KIND OF OBJECT ASSOCIATED WITH THE INVESTIGATION, BUT IT MUST BE A PHYSICAL TANGIBLE ITEM, UNLIKE OTHER FORMS OF EVIDENCE THAT MAY RESULT FROM SENSORY OBSERVATIONS OR INFERENCES?

A

PHYSICAL EVIDENCE

AKA - “REAL EVIDENCE”

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345
Q

WHAT FORM OF EVIDENCE IS SIMILAR TO REAL OR PHYSICAL EVIDENCE IN THAT THE ITEM MUST BY A PHYSICAL NATURE, IT NEED NOT BE THE ACTUAL ITEM BUT AN ACCEPTABLE REPRESENTATION OF IT. IT REPRESENTS PORTRAYS, OR OTHERWISE DOCUMENTS THAT ITEM EXISTS OR EXISTED?

A

DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE
REPRESENTS, PORTRAYS, OR OTHERWISE DOCUMENTS THAT A PARTICULAR ITEM’S APPEARANCE AT A PARTICULAR TIME. (I.E. FORENSIC LAB REPORTS, PHOTOGRAPHIC OR VIDEO PICTURES, JUDICIAL TRANSCRIPTS, AND VARIOUS INVESTIGATIVE REPORTS)

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346
Q

HOW MANY TONS OF DEBRIS WAS THOROUGHLY PROCESSED DURING THE SEPT 11, 2001 TERRORIST ATTACK AT THE WORLD TRADE CENTER? (9-ELEVEN)

A

1.2 MILLION TONS

THE LARGEST CRIMINAL HOMICIDE INVESTIGATION IN THE HISTORY OF THE U.S.

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347
Q

HOW MANY LIVES WERE CLAIMED DURING THE SEPT 11, 2001 TERRORIST ATTACK AT THE WORLD TRADE CENTER? (9-11)

A

2,823 VICTIMS

THE LARGEST CRIMINAL HOMICIDE INVESTIGATION IN THE HISTORY OF THE U.S.

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348
Q

WHAT SHOULD BE USED IN PHOTOGRAPHING SMALL ITEMS FOUND AT THE CRIME SCENE?

A

A MEASUREMENT MARKER

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349
Q

WHAT IS A COMPLETE STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM? (FOR AN INVESTIGATIVE OR SCIENTIFIC METHOD?)

A

TO IDENTIFY, LOCATE, ARREST, OBTAIN EVIDENCE, AND RECOVER STOLEN PROPERTY IN A THOROUGH LEGAL MANNER DESIGNED TO ENSURE THE GREATEST PROBABILITY OF JUSTICE?

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350
Q

WHAT IS TO CONSTRUCT AN EXPLANATION FOR AN OCCURRENCE?

A

“TO FORM A HYPOTHESIS”

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351
Q

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON MOTIVE, THE MOST COMMON OF ALL THE VARIOUS “CAUSATIVE FACTORS?”

A

MONETARY GAIN - EXCEPT FOR HOMICIDES

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352
Q

WHAT PROCEDURE THAT IS APPLICABLE TO THE INVESTIGATION OF CRIME WAS DEVELOPED BY THE SCIENTIFIC COMMUNITY AND IS AN ORDERLY METHOD OF ARRIVING AT A CONCLUSION BASED UPON LOGIC AND PROGRESSIVE REASONING?

A

THE SCIENTIFIC METHOD

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353
Q

WHAT ARE THE FIVE SEPARATE STAGES OF THE INVESTIGATION OR SCIENTIFIC METHOD?

A
  1. STATE THE PROBLEM
  2. FORM A HYPOTHESIS
  3. OBSERVE AND EXPERIMENT
    4, INTERPRET THE PROBLEM
  4. DRAW CONCLUSIONS
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354
Q

WHAT TYPE OF INVESTIGATOR IS A LAW-ENFORCEMENT OFFICER WORKING TOWARD THE RESOLUTION OF A CRIMINAL MATTER THROUGH INVESTIGATIVE ACTION?

A

THE POLICE INVESTIGATOR

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355
Q

WHAT THREE WAYS CAN CASES AND CASE LOAD BE DISTRIBUTED OR HANDLED BY A DETECTIVE UNIT(S)?

A

ASSIGNMENT BY SPECIALIZATION (SAPD - I.E. SEX CRIMES)

ASSIGNMENT BY CASE LOAD (LIKE SAPD NCID) A ROTATION BASIS

ASSIGNMENT BY PRIORITY - CRIMES COMPLETED VS. ATTEMPTED / CRIMES AGAINST PERSONS (HOMICIDE&RAPE) OVER CRIMES AGAINST PROPERTY (BURGLARY/THEFT) OVER OTHER INVESTIGATIONS (FRAUD AND EMBEZZLEMENT)

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356
Q

WHAT IS ABSOLUTELY ESSENTIAL FOR INVESTIGATIVE PROFESSIONALISM AND CAN BE DEFINED AS THE PRACTICAL NORMATIVE STUDY OF THE RIGHTNESS OR WRONGNESS OF HUMAN CONDUCT?

A

INVESTIGATIVE ETHICS

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357
Q

HOW MAY CRIMINAL INVESTIGATORS BE CLASSIFIED ACCORDING TO THREE BASIC TYPES OR INTO WHAT THREE BASIC TYPES CAN INVESTIGATORS BE CLASSIFIED?

A

POLICE INVESTIGATOR

PUBLIC INVESTIGATOR

PRIVATE INVESTIGATOR

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358
Q

WHICH HAS A REASONABLE ASSUMPTION THAT COURT PROCEEDING WILL CONTINUE TO PLACE MORE EMPHASIS ON DURING A TRIAL FOR BURDEN OF PROOF; PHYSICAL EVIDENCE, DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE TO INCLUDE A WRITTEN - VERBAL VIDEO AND AUDIO STATEMENT OF THE SUSPECT, OR CIRCUMSTANTIAL - INDIRECT EVIDENCE?

A

PHYSICAL EVIDENCE

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359
Q

WHAT EVIDENCE OR ITEMS COLLECTED SHOULD BE CONSIDERED ESSENTIAL UNTIL PROVEN OTHERWISE AND IS AN IMPORTANT RULE THAT APPLIES TO ALL INVESTIGATIONS?

A

THAT EACH AND EVERY ITEM OF EVIDENCE FOUND AT THE SCENE SHOULD BE CONSIDERED ESSENTIAL UNTIL PROVEN OTHERWISE?

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360
Q

WHAT IS A LOCATION AT WHICH A SUSPECTED CRIMINAL OFFENSE HAS OCCURRED?

A

A CRIME SCENE

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361
Q

WHEN IS THE CRIME SCENE FOCUS COMPLETE?

A

WITH THE PROPER TRANSPORTATION OF THE EVIDENCE

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362
Q

WHAT TRAIT IS DEFINED AS IMMEDIATE APPREHENSION OR COGNITION - QUICK AND READY INSIGHT WITHOUT THE CONSCIOUS USE OF REASONING?

A

INTUITION

PG 26 CH 2

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363
Q

WHAT IS A SIMPLE ACT OF NOTING AND RECORDING OF FACTS AND MUST BE HIGHLY DEVELOPED BY THE INVESTIGATOR?

A

OBSERVATIONAL SKILLS
THE ART OF OBSERVING
(PG 36 CHPT 2)

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364
Q

WHAT CAN BE DEFINED AS CONTINUING IN THE FACE OF OPPOSITION OR REFUSING TO GIVE UPWHEN FACED WITH AN ADVERSE SITUATION?

A

PERSISTENCE

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365
Q

WHAT PROCEDURE ALLOWS THE DEFENDANT THROUGH THE ACTIONS OF AN ATTORNEY, TO EXAMINE DOCUMENTS, REPORTS, AND OTHER TYPES OF INFORMATION IN THE POSSESSION OF THE POLICE AND PROSECUTION?

A

RULE OF DISCOVERY

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366
Q

WHAT IS A LEGAL JUSTIFICATION FOR POLICE ACTION THAT IS PURPOSELY LACKING IN A PRECISE DEFINITION YET IT IS DESCRIBED AS WHEN LAW-ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS ARE AWARE OF FACTS AND CIRCUMSTANCES THAT WOULD BE SUSPICIOUS TO A PERSON OF REASONABLE AND PRUDENT PERSON CAUTION THAT ACTION MAY BE TAKEN TO OBTAIN EVIDENCE?

A

PROBABLE CAUSE

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367
Q

IF A MEMBER RECEIVES A TELEPHONE COMPLAINT AND THE SUPERVISOR OF THE OFFICER IS NOT READILY AVAILABLE, WHO SHALL DETERMINE THE AVAILABILITY OF A SUPERVISOR IN THE SUBJECT OFFICER’S CHAIN OF COMMAND AFTER THE COMPLAINT IS FORWARDED TO HIM/HER?

A

THE COMMUNICATIONS UNIT SUPERVISOR

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368
Q

WHO CAN BE DISPATCHED TO CONTACT THE COMPLAINANT IF THE IDENTITY OF THE SUBJECT OFFICER IS UNAVAILABLE?

A

ANY SUPERVISOR FROM THE PATROL DIVISION

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369
Q

WHO ARE THE COPIES OF COMPLAINTS RECEIVED OR HANDLED BY MEMBERS OF THE DEPARTMENT FORWARDED TO?

A

SHALL BE FORWARDED TO THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT. (IA)

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370
Q

WHAT ARE THE BUSINESS HOURS OF THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT?

A

0800 - 1800 HRS

8:00 A.M. - 6:00 P.M.

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371
Q

WHO IS OR SHALL BE LISTED AS THE COMPLAINANT FOR COMPLAINTS OF ALLEGED MISCONDUCT BY SWORN MEMBERS THAT ARE INITIATED FROM WITHIN THE DEPARTMENT?

A

“ADMINISTRATION” IS LISTED AS THE COMPLAINANT

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372
Q

WHO IS OR SHALL BE LISTED AS THE COMPLAINANT FOR COMPLAINTS OF ALLEGED MISCONDUCT BY SWORN MEMBERS THAT ARE INITIATED FROM OUTSIDE THE DEPARTMENT AND WHO MUST BE IDENTIFIED?

A

ADMINISTRATION IS LISTED AS THE COMPLAINANT AND MUST IDENTIFY A PRINCIPAL COMPLAINANT OR AGGRIEVED PARTY FROM OUTSIDE THE DEPARTMENT

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373
Q

CAN MEMBERS SMOKE A CIGARETTE WHILE IN DIRECT CONTACT WITH THE PUBLIC?

A

MEMBERS SHALL REFRAIN FROM THE USE OF TOBACCO IN ANY FORM WHILE IN DIRECT CONTACT WITH THE PUBLIC

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374
Q

WHAT SHALL DEPARTMENTAL PERSONNEL COMPLETE PRIOR TO RETURNING TO DUTY AFTER ANY ABSENCE?

A

READ ALL THE DIRECTIVE’S PUBLISHED DURING THEIR ABSENCE

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375
Q

WHAT ARE THE FOUR CIRCUMSTANCES OR WHEN MAY OFFICERS DISCHARGE FIREARMS?

A
  1. AT TARGET PRACTICE
  2. TO DESTROY AN ANIMAL IN CONFORMANCE WITH DEPARTMENTAL POLICY AND PROCEDURES
  3. IN DEFENSE OF ONES LIFE OR THE LIFE OF ANOTHER
  4. TO HUNT WILD GAME, WHILE PROPERLY LICENSED AND IN CONFORMANCE WITH STATE LAW
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376
Q

WHEN IS A REPORT NOT REQUIRED AFTER AN OFFICER DISCHARGES A WEAPON/FIREARM WHETHER ACCIDENTALLY OR INTENTIONAL?

A

ON THE TARGET RANGE OR WHILE LAWFULLY HUNTING WILD GAME

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377
Q

WHO IS THE REPORT, WHEN REQUIRED, OF THE INCIDENT INVOLVING THE DISCHARGE OF A WEAPON OR FIREARM GIVEN TO?

A

IN WRITING TO HIS IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR

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378
Q

HOW WILL MEMBERS ADDRESS THE NATIONAL COLORS DURING THE PLAYING OF THE NATIONAL ANTHEM - APPROPRIATE TO THEIR DRESS?

A

FULL UNIFORM W/ HEADGEAR - MILITARY SALUTE

FULL UNIFORM W/O HEADGEAR - STAND AT ATTENTION

RELAXED / CIVILIAN - ATTENTION W/ HAND OVER THE HEART

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379
Q

ACCORDING TO THE CITY CHARTER, WHO SHALL HAVE SUPERVISION AND CONTROL OVER THE POLICE DEPARTMENT

A

THE DIRECTOR, CHIEF OF THE POLICE DEPARTMENT, SUBJECT TO APPROVAL BY THE CITY MANAGER.

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380
Q

WHAT IS THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENT’S VISION?

A

TO BE THE PREMIER LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY BY BUILDING TRUST, CREATING PARTNERSHIPS, AND SHARING LEADERSHIP WITHIN THE SAPD AND THE COMMUNITY FOR A SAFER SAN ANTONIO.

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381
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR BRIBERY?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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382
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF COERCION OF PUBLIC SERVANT OR VOTER

A

INTELLIGENCE

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383
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF ACCEPTANCE OF HONORARIUM?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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384
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF GIFT TO PUBLIC SERVANT BY PERSON SUBJECT TO HIS JURISDICTION?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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385
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF OFFERING GIFT TO PUBLIC SERVANT?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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386
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF HINDERING PROCEEDING BY DISORDERLY CONDUCT?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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387
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF ABUSE OF OFFICIAL CAPACITY AND OFFICIAL OPPRESSION?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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388
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF MISUSE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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389
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF RIOT

A

INTELLIGENCE

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390
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF ABUSE OF CORPSE?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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391
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF OBSTRUCTION OF HIGHWAY OR OTHER PASSAGE-WAY?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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392
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE OFFENSE OF DISRUPTING MEETING OR PROCESSION?

A

INTELLIGENCE

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393
Q

DOES THE USE OF MASCULINE GENDER ALSO INCLUDE WHERE APPLICABLE THE FEMALE GENDER?

A

YES, GENDER SHALL ALSO INCLUDE, WHERE APPLICABLE, THE FEMALE GENDER.

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394
Q

WHAT MEANS AS SOON AS POSSIBLE AND FEASIBLE?

A

IMMEDIATELY

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395
Q

GUIDING PRINCIPLES

WHAT ARE THE FOUR GUIDING PRINCIPLES OF THE DEPARTMENT?

SAPD

A

INTEGRITY

RESPECT

COMPASSION

FAIRNESS

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396
Q

WHAT MEANS AS SOON AS POSSIBLE AND FEASIBLE?

A

IMMEDIATELY

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397
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WITH INTENT TO HARASS, ANNOY, ALARM, ABUSE, TORMENT, OR EMBARRASS ANOTHER HE INITIATES COMMUNICATION BY TELEPHONE, IN WRITING, OR BY ELECTRICAL COMMUNICATION —> makes a comment, request, suggestion, or proposal that is OBSCENE. THREATENS BT TELEPHONE, ETC. CONVEYS IN A MANNER LIKELY TO CAUSE ALARM, CAUSE THE TELEPHONE OF ANOTHER TO RING REPEATEDLY, DOES NOT HANG-UP the telephone. Allows phone to be used to harass another. Sends repeated electronic communication….. Harass –> offend another?

A

HARASSMENT

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398
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO makes a telephone call to 9-1-1 when there is not an emergency and knowingly or intentionally remains silent or makes abusive or harassing statements to a PSAP employee?

A

Silent or Abusive calls to 9-1-1 service

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399
Q

What does the abbreviation PSAP mean?

A

Public Safety Answering Point

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400
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO KNOWINGLY PREVENTS OR INTERFERES WITH ANOTHER INDIVIDUALS ABILITY TO PLACE AN EMERGENCY TELEPHONE CALL OR A REQUEST OF ASSISTANCE IN AN EMERGENCY FROM A LAW-ENFORCEMENT AGENCY, MEDICAL FACILITY, OR OTHER AGENCY OR ENTITY WITH THE PRIMARY PURPOSE OF PROVIDING THE SAFETY OF INDIVIDUALS?

A

INTERFERENCE WITH EMERGENCY TELEPHONE CALL

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401
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO RECKLESSLY RENDERS UNUSABLE A TELEPHONE THAT WOULD OTHERWISE BEEN USED TO PLACE AN EMERGENCY CALL?

(I WAS TRYING TO CALL THE POLICE WHEN SHE THREW THE CELL PHONE INTO A SINK FULL OF WATER, WHERE I WAS TRYING TO DO THE DISHES)

A

INTERFERENCE WITH EMERGENCY TELEPHONE CALL?

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402
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO ON MORE THAN (1) ONE OCCASION AND PURSUANT TO THE SAME SCHEME OR COURSE OF CONDUCT THAT IS SPECIFICALLY DIRECTED TO ANOTHER PERSON KNOWINGLY ENGAGES IN CONDUCT THAT WOULD CAUSE A REASONABLE PERSON TO FEAR BODILY INJURY OR DEATH OF HIM/HERSELF, FAMILY MEMBER(S),DATING RELATIONSHIP (BF/GF) OR DAMAGE TO PROPERTY?

A

STALKING

MORE THAN (1) OCCASION - CONDUCT REGARDED AS THREATENING

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403
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WITHOUT LEGAL AUTHORITY KNOWINGLY DISINTERS, DISTURBS, DAMAGES, DISSECTS, - IN WHILE OR IN PART CARRIES AWAY, OR TREATS IN AN OFFENSIVE MANNER A HUMAN CORPSE?

A

ABUSE OF CORPSE

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404
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO CONCEALS A HUMAN CORPSE, SELLS OR BUYS A HUMAN CORPSE, OR TRAFFICS A HUMAN CORPSE?

A

ABUSE OF CORPSE

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405
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO VANDALIZES, DAMAGES, OR TREATS IN AN OFFENSIVE MANNER THE SPACE IN WHICH A HUMAN CORPSE HAS BEEN INTERRED OR OTHERWISE PERMANENTLY LAID TO REST?

A

ABUSE OF CORPSE

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406
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY TRIPS A HORSE?

A

CRUELTY TO LIVESTOCK ANIMALS

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407
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY TORTURES A LIVESTOCK ANIMAL, SERIOUSLY OVERWORKS A LIVESTOCK ANIMAL, USES A LIVESTOCK ANIMAL TO LURE A DOG-RACE OR TRAINING FOR A DOG-RACE?

A

CRUELTY TO LIVESTOCK ANIMALS

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408
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY CAUSES LIVESTOCK ANIMALS TO FIGHT, POISONS LIVESTOCK, CRUEL-UNUSUAL TRANSPORT OR CONFINEMENT OF LIVESTOCK OR ABANDONS A LIVESTOCK ANIMAL?

A

CRUELTY TO LIVESTOCK ANIMALS

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409
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO TORTURES AN ANIMAL, OR IN A CRUEL MANNER KILLS OR CAUSES SERIOUS BODILY INJURY TO AN ANIMAL, FAILS TO PROVIDE NECESSARY FOOD, WATER, CARE, OR SHELTER FOR AN ANIMAL IN THE PERSONS CUSTODY?

A

CRUELTY TO NON-LIVESTOCK ANIMALS

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410
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO CAUSES ANIMALS TO FIGHT - EXCLUDING A DOG, USES A LIVE ANIMAL AS A LURE IN A DOG RACE OR TRAINING FOR A DOG RACE (FLUFFY - YOUR DAUGHTER’S PET BUNNY RABBIT), OVERWORKS AN ANIMAL IN THE PERSONS CUSTODY; POISONS ANOTHER PERSONS ANIMAL, WITHOUT CONSENT KILLS-CAUSES SERIOUS BODILY INJURY TO THE ANIMAL OF ANOTHER?

A

CRUELTY TO NON LIVESTOCK ANIMALS

POISONING THE NEIGHBOR’S CATS

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411
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY ATTACKS, INJURES, OR KILLS AN ASSISTANCE ANIMAL OR INCITES OR PERMITS AN ANIMAL OWNED BY OR OTHERWISE IN THE CUSTODY OF THE ACTOR TO ATTACK, INJURE, OR KILL AN ASSISTANCE ANIMAL AND AS A RESULT OF THE PERSONS CONDUCT, THE ASSISTANCE ANIMAL IS ATTACKED INJURES OR KILLED?

A

ATTACK ON AN ASSISTANCE ANIMAL

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412
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY CAUSES A DOG TO FIGHT WITH ANOTHER DOG, PARTICIPATES IN OR ATTENDS AS A SPECTATOR IN AN EXHIBITION OF DOG FIGHTING, USES OR PERMITS ANOTHER TO USE THIER PROPERTY OR DOG FOR A DOG FIGHT, OWNS OR POSSESSES DOG FIGHTING EQUIPMENT WITH INTENT TO TRAIN OR PARTICIPATE IN A DOG FIGHT, OPERATES A FACILITY FOR DOG-FIGHTING, OWNS OR TRAINS A DOG FOR DOG-FIGHTING?

A

DOG FIGHTING

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413
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON ENGAGES IN ANY SITUATION IN WHICH ONE COCK ATTACKS OR FIGHTS WITH ANOTHER COCK?

A

COCK FIGHTING

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414
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON KNOWINGLY CAUSES A COCK, THE MALE OF ANY TYPE OF DOMESTIC FOWL, TO FIGHT ANOTHER COCK, USES-PERMITS USE OF REAL-ESTATE BUILDING, ROOM, TENT, ARENA, OR OTHER PROPERTY FOR A COCK FIGHT, OWNS, TRAINS, ATTENDS AS A SPECTATOR A COCK FIGHT.

A

COCK FIGHTING

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415
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON MANUFACTURES, BUYS, SELLS, BARTERS, EXCHANGES, POSSESSES, ADVERTISES, OR OTHERWISE OFFERS A GAFF, SLASHER, OR OTHER SHARP IMPLEMENT DESIGNED TO ATTACH TO A COCK FOR COCK FIGHTING?

A

COCK FIGHTING

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416
Q

WHAT IS A DEVICE DESIGNED TO FIT OVER THE HEAD AND BEAK OF A COCK?

(COCK FIGHTING)

A

BRIDLE

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417
Q

WHAT IS A STEEL SPUR DESIGNED TO ATTACH TO THE LEG OF A COCK TO REPLACE OR SUPPLEMENT THE COCK’S NATURAL SPUR?

A

GAFF

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418
Q

WHAT IS A STEEL WEAPON RESEMBLING A CURVED KNIFE-BLADE DESIGNED TO ATTACH TO THE FOOT OF A COCK TO DAMAGE, INJURE, OR KILL ANOTHER COCK IN A COCK-FIGHT?

A

SLASHER

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419
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY DAMAGES, DEFACES, MUTILATES, OR BURNS THE FLAG OF THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA or the state of texas? (- INCLUDES AN EMBLEM, BANNER, OR OTHER STANDARD COPY COMMONLY RECOGNIZED DEPICTION OF THE FLAG OF THE UNITED STATES / or this state FLOWN FROM A STAFF)

A

DESTRUCTION OF FLAG

420
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON RECKLESSLY DISCHARGES A FIREARM INSIDE THE CORPORATE LIMITS OF A MUNICIPALITY HAVING A POPULATION OF 100,000 OR MORE?

A

DISCHARGE OF FIREARM IN CERTAIN MUNICIPALITIES HAVING A POPULATION OF 100,000 OR MORE

421
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON KNOWINGLY DIRECTS A LIGHT FROM A LASER POINTER AT A UNIFORMED SAFETY OFFICER, INCLUDING A PEACE OFFICER, SECURITY GUARD, FIREFIGHTER, EMT ~ EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICE WORKER, OR OTHER UNIFORMED MUNICIPAL STATE OR FEDERAL OFFICER?

A

USE OF LASER POINTERS

422
Q

WHAT MEANS A DEVICE THAT EMITS A VISIBLE LIGHT AMPLIFIED BY THE STIMULATED EMISSION OF RADIATION?

A

LASER POINTER

423
Q

WHAT IS AN AFFIRMATIVE DEFENSE TO PROSECUTION IF A PERSON COMMITS AN OFFENSE OF INTENTIONALLY DIRECTING A LIGHT FROM A LASER POINTER OR OTHER LIGHT SOURCE AT AN AIRCRAFT AND THE LIGHT HAS AN INTENSITY SUFFICIENT TO IMPAIR THE OPERATORS ABILITY TO CONTROL THE AIRCRAFT?

A

THE ACTOR WAS USING THE LIGHT TO SEND AN EMERGENCY DISTRESS SIGNAL

(ILLUMINATION OF AIRCRAFT BY INTENSE LIGHT)

424
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON KNOWINGLY OWNS, INVESTS, FINANCES, CONTROLS, SUPERVISES OR MANAGES A PROSTITUTION ENTERPRISE THAT USES TWO (2) OR MORE PROSTITUTES?

A

AGGRAVATED PROMOTION OF PROSTITUTION

425
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON KNOWINGLY OFFERS TO ENGAGE, AGREES TO ENGAGE OR ENGAGE IN SEXUAL CONDUCT FOR A FEE OR SOLICITS ANOTHER IN A PUBLIC PLACE TO ENGAGE WITH HIM OR HER IN SEXUAL CONDUCT FOR HIRE?

A

PROSTITUTION

426
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON IF ACTING OTHER THAN AS A PROSTITUTE RECEIVING COMPENSATION FOR PERSONALLY RENDERED PROSTITUTION SERVICES, HE OR SHE KNOWINGLY RECEIVES MONEY OR OTHER PROPERTY PURSUANT TO AN AGREEMENT TO PARTICIPATE IN THE PROCEEDS OF PROSTITUTION OR SOLICITS ANOTHER TO ENGAGE IN SEXUAL CONDUCT WITH ANOTHER PERSON FOR COMPENSATION?

A

PROMOTION OF PROSTITUTION

427
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON KNOWINGLY CAUSES ANOTHER BY FORCE, THREAT, OR FRAUD TO COMMIT PROSTITUTION OR CAUSES BY ANY MEANS A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 18 YEARS OF AGE TO COMMIT PROSTITUTION, REGARDLESS OF WHETHER THE ACTOR KNOWS THE AGE OF THE CHILD AT THE TIME THE ACTOR COMMITS THE OFFENSE?

A

COMPELLING PROSTITUTION

A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 18YRS

428
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY DISPLAYS OR DISTRIBUTES AN OBSCENE PHOTOGRAPH, DRAWING, OR SIMILAR VISUAL REPRESENTATION OR OBSCENE MATERIAL AND IS RECKLESS ABOUT WHETHER A PERSON IS PRESENT WHO WILL BE OFFENDED OR ALARMED BY THE DISPLAY OR DISTRIBUTION?

A

OBSCENE DISPLAY OR DISTRIBUTION

429
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON KNOWING ITS CONTENT AND CHARACTER, HE WHOLESALE PROMOTES OR POSSESSES WITH INTENT TO WHOLESALE PROMOTE ANY OBSCENE MATERIAL OR OBSCENE DEVICE, A DILDO OR ARTIFICIAL VAGINA?
HOW MANY OBSCENE DEVICES OR IDENTICAL OR SIMILAR OBSCENE ARTICLES IS PRESUMED TO POSSESS THEM WITH INTENT TO PROMOTE THE SAME?

A

OBSCENE DISPLAY OR DISTRIBUTION

SIX OR MORE

430
Q

WHAT MEANS A DEVICE OTHER THAN A SMALL CHEMICAL DISPENSER SOLD COMMERCIALLY FOR PERSONAL PROTECTION, THAT IS DESIGNED, MADE, OR ADAPTED FOR THE PURPOSE OF DISPENSING A SUBSTANCE CAPABLE OF CAUSING AN ADVERSE PSYCHOLOGICAL OR PHYSIOLOGICAL EFFECT ON A HUMAN BEING?

A

CHEMICAL DISPENSING DEVICE

431
Q

WHAT IS A DEVICE THAT REASONABLY APPEARS TO BE AN EXPLOSIVE OR INCENDIARY DEVICE OR BY ITS DESIGN CAUSES ALARM OR REACTION OF ANY TYPE BY AN OFFICER OF A PUBLIC SAFETY AGENCY OR A VOLUNTEER AGENCY ORGANIZED TO DEAL WITH EMERGENCIES?

A

HOAX BOMB

432
Q

THIS IS HANDGUN AMMUNITION THAT IS DESIGNED PRIMARILY FOR THE PURPOSE IF PENETRATING METAL OR BOBY ARMOR AND TO BE USED PRINCIPALLY IN PISTOLS AND REVOLVERS?

A

“ARMOR-PIERCING AMMUNITION”

433
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY FIREARM THAT IS CAPABLE OF SHOOTING MORE THAN TWO SHOTS AUTOMATICALLY WITHOUT RELOADING BY A SINGLE FUNCTION OF THE TRIGGER?

A

“MACHINE-GUN”

434
Q

WHAT IS A RIFLE WITH A BARREL LENGTH OF LESS THAN 16” INCHES OR A SHOTGUN WITH A BARREL LENGTH OF LESS THAN 18” INCHES OR ANY WEAPON MADE FROM A SHOTGUN OR RIFLE IF AS ALTERED IT HAS AN OVERALL LENGTH OF LESS THAN 26” INCHES?

A

“SHORT-BARREL FIREARM”

435
Q

A PERSON COMMITS THIS OFFENSE IF THEY INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY, OR RECKLESSLY CARRIES ON OR ABOUT HIS OR HER PERSON A HANDGUN, ILLEGAL KNIFE, OR CLUB?

A

UNLAWFUL CARRYING WEAPONS

436
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY KNIFE THAT HAS A BLADE THAT FOLDS, CLOSES, RETRACTS INTO THE HANDLE OR SHEATH AND THAT OPENS AUTOMATICALLY BY PRESSURE APPLIED TO A BUTTON OR OTHER DEVICE LOCATED ON THE HANDLE OR OPENS OR RELEASES A BLADE FROM THE HANDLE OR SHEATH BY THE FORCE OF GRAVITY OR BY THE APPLICATION OF CENTRIFUGAL FORCE?

A

SWITCH-BLADE KNIFE

DOES NOT INCLUDE A KNIFE THAT HAS A SPRING, DETENT OR OTHER MECHANISM DESIGNED TO CREATE A BIAS TOWARD CLOSURE AND THAT REQUIRES EXERTION APPLIED TO THE BLADE BY HAND, WRIST, OR ARM TO OVERCOME THE BIAS TOWARD CLOSURE AND OPEN THE KNIFE

437
Q

WHAT IS THE AGE OF A CHILD FOR THE OFFENSE OF MAKING A FIREARM ACCESSIBLE TO A CHILD?

WHAT IS THE CAPABLE MENTAL STATE?

A

YOUNGER THAN 17 YRS OF AGE WITH CRIMINAL NEGLIGENCE

438
Q

WHAT MEANS AN INSTRUMENT THAT IS SPECIALLY DESIGNED, MADE, OR ADAPTED FOR THE PURPOSE OF INFLICTING SERIOUS BODILY INJURY OR DEATH BY STRIKING A PERSON WITH THE INSTRUMENT AND INCLUDES A BLACKJACK, NIGHTSTICK, MACE, OR TOMAHAWK?

A

CLUB

439
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY EXPLOSIVE OR INCENDIARY BOOMB, GENADE, ROCKET, OR MINE, THAT IS DESIGNED, MADE, OR ADAPTED FOR THE PURPOSE OF INFLICTING SERIOUS BODILY INJURY, DEATH, OR SUBSTANTIAL PROPERLY DAMAGED, OR FOR THE PRINCIPAL PURPOSE OF CAUSING SUCH A LOUD REPORT AS TO CAUSE UNDUE PUBLIC ALARM OT TERROR, AND INCLUDES A DEVICE DESIGNED, MADE, OR ADAPTED FOR DELIVERY OR SHOOTING AN EXPLOSIVE WEAPON?

A

EXPLOSIVE WEAPON

440
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY DEVICE DESIGNED, MADE, OR ADAPTED TO MUFFLE THE REPORT OF A FIREARM?

A

FIREARM SILENCER

441
Q

WHAT IS ANY DEVICE DESIGNED, MADE, OR ADAPTED TO EXPEL A PROJECTILE THROUGH A BARREL BY USING THE ENERGY GENERATED BY AN EXPLOSION OR BURNING SUBSTANCE (gun powder) or any device readily convertible for that use?

A

A FIREARM

442
Q

What means any firearm that is designed, made, or adapted to be fired with one hand?

A

A handgun

443
Q

What means a knife with a blade OVER (5) five and (1/2) one-half inches long?

A

Illegal knife

444
Q

What is a hand instrument designed to cut or stab another by being thrown and also includes a dagger, including but not limited to a dirK, stiletto, and a poniard as well as a Bowie knife, a sword, or a spear?

A

Illegal Knife

445
Q

What is any blade hand instrument that is capable of inflicting serious bodily injury or death by cutting or stabbing a person with the instrument?

A

A knife

446
Q

What means any instrument that consists of finger rings or guards made of a hard substance and that is designed, made, or adapted for the purpose of inflicting serious bodily injury or death by striking a person with a fist enclosed in the “knuckles”?

A

KNUCKLES

447
Q

WHAT MEANS A DEVICE, INCLUDING A CALTROP OR SPIKE STRIP, THAT WHEN DRIVEN OVER IMPEDES OR STOPS THE MOVEMENT OF A WHEELED VEHICLE BY PUNCTURING ONE OR MORE OF THE VEHICLES TIRES?

A

“TIRE DEFLATION DEVICE”

TERM DOES NOT INCLUDE WHEN DESIGNED TO BE DRIVEN OVER IN A SPECIFIC DIRECTION WITH A TRAFFIC CONTROL DEVICE AND A SIGN POSTED TO PROHIBIT ENTRY OR WARNS THE MOTOR VEHICLE OF THE DEVICE.

448
Q

WHAT MEANS A DEVICE OR COMBINATION OF DEVICES THAT WAS NOT ORIGINALLY A FIREARM AND IS ADAPTED TO EXPEL A PROJECTILE THROUGH A SMOOTH BORE OR RIFLED-BORE BARREL BY USING THE ENERGY GENERATED BY AN EXPLOSION OR BURNING SUBSTANCE?

A

ZIP GUN

449
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY OR RECKLESSLY POSSESSES OR GOES WITH A FIREARM, ILLEGAL KNIFE, CLUB, OR PROHIBITED WEAPON ON THE PHYSICAL PREMISES OF A SCHOOL OR EDUCATION INSTITUTION OR ANY GROUNDS OR BUILDING ON WHICH SCHOOL ACTIVITIES ARE SPONSORED, BEING CONDUCTED, OR A TRANSPORTATION VEHICLE OF A SCHOOL?

A

PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED

450
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY OR RECKLESSLY POSSESSES OR GOES WITH A FIREARM, ILLEGAL KNIFE, CLUB, OR PROHIBITED WEAPON ON THE PHYSICAL PREMISES OF A POLLING PLACE ON THE DAY OF AN ELECTION OR WHILE VOTING IS IN PROGRESS?

A

PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED

451
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY OR RECKLESSLY POSSESSES OR GOES WITH A FIREARM, ILLEGAL KNIFE, CLUB, OR PROHIBITED WEAPON ON THE PHYSICAL PREMISES OF ANY GOVERNMENT COURT OR OFFICES OF A COURT?

A

PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED

452
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY OR RECKLESSLY POSSESSES OR GOES WITH A FIREARM, ILLEGAL KNIFE, CLUB, OR PROHIBITED WEAPON ON THE PHYSICAL PREMISES OF A RACE TRACK?

A

PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED

453
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY OR RECKLESSLY POSSESSES OR GOES WITH A FIREARM, ILLEGAL KNIFE, CLUB, OR PROHIBITED WEAPON INTO A SECURED AREA OF AN AIRPORT?

A

PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED

454
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON INTENTIONALLY, KNOWINGLY OR RECKLESSLY POSSESSES OR GOES WITH A FIREARM, ILLEGAL KNIFE, CLUB, OR PROHIBITED WEAPON WITHIN 1000 FEET OF ANY TEXAS DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE ON A DAY OF A DEATH SENTENCE IS BEING IMPOSED?

A

PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED

455
Q

WHAT HAVE RESEARCHERS DISCOVERED IS THE LEADING CAUSE OF DEATH FOR WOMEN IN THE WORK PLACE?

A

MURDER

456
Q

WHAT HAVE RESEARCHERS SURVEYING HOMICIDES IN THE UNITED STATES DISCOVERED WAS THE LEADING CAUSE OF DEATH FOR BLACK MEN 25 TO 34 YEARS OF AGE?

A

MURDER

457
Q

WHAT MUST EVIDENCE BE TO BE HELD ADMISSIBLE BY A JUDGE WHO DETERMINES IF AN ITEM OF EVIDENCE WILL BE ALLOWED?

A

TEST OF SUITABILITY

EVIDENCE MUST BE COMPETENT, RELEVANT, AND MATERIAL

458
Q

THIS IS RESPONSIBLE EVIDENCE, SUFFICIENT TO PROVE A FACT HAS A BEARING ON THE CASE AND CAN PERTAIN TO PHYSICAL ITEMS, DOCUMENTS, AND PEOPLE.

A

COMPETENT EVIDENCE

–> POSSESS QUALITIES THAT RENDER IT TRUST WORTHY OR RELIABLE

459
Q

WHAT EVIDENCE IS PERTINENT AND RELATES DIRECTLY TO THE MATTER UNDER CONSIDERATION?

A

RELEVANT EVIDENCE

—> TENDS TO PROVE OR DISPROVE CIRCUMSTANCES

460
Q

WHAT EVIDENCE HAS A LOGICAL CONNECTION WITH THE ISSUE UNDER INVESTIGATION?

A

MATERIAL EVIDENCE

—> HAS A BEARING ON DETERMINING TRUTH

461
Q

WHAT APPLIES TO VIOLATIONS OF CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHTS. EVIDENCE OBTAINED FROM UNLAWFUL INTERROGATIONS, ILLEGAL SEARCHES, OR BY ENTRAPMENT OR DENYING A SUSPECT RIGHT TO COUNSEL ALSO CAN NOT BE ADMITTED?

A

EXCLUSIONARY RULE

462
Q

WHAT ARE EXCEPTIONS TO THE EXCLUSIONARY RULE WHEN IT COMES TO WORDS OR STATEMENTS MADE DURING THE COMMISSION OF AN OFFENSE BECAUSE THEY TEND TO BE SPONTANEOUS RATHER THEN PRECONCEIVED AND TRUTHFUL?

A

RES GESTAE DECLARATIONS

463
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED IF A PERSON AGREES, FOR REMUNERATION OR THE PROMISE OF REMUNERATION, TO ABDUCT A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 18 YRS OF AGEBY FORCE, THREAT OF FORCE, MISREPRESENTATION, STEALTH, OR UNLAWFUL ENTRY, KNOWING THAT THE CHILD IS UNDER THE CARE AND CONTROL OF A PERSON HAVING CUSTODY?

A

AGREEMENT TO ABDUCT FROM CUSTODY

464
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED IF A PERSON WITH THE INTENT TO INTERFERE WITH THE LAWFUL CUSTODY OF A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 18 YRS, KNOWINGLY ENTICES, PERSUADES, OR TAKES THE CHILD FROM THE CUSTODY OF A PARENT OR GUARDIAN?

A

ENTICING A CHILD

465
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED IF A PERSON WHO IN VIOLATION OF A CONDITION OF BOND SET IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE THE PERSON KNOWINGLY OR INTENTIONALLY COMMITS FAMILY VIOLENCE OR AN ACT IN FURTHERANCE OF SEXUAL ASSAULT, 2.011, AGG SEXUAL ASSAULT, 22.021, OR STALKING, 42.072?

A

VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE

466
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED IF A PERSON WHO IN VIOLATION OF A CONDITION OF BOND SET IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE THE PERSON KNOWINGLY OR INTENTIONALLY COMMUNICATES DIRECTLY WITH A PROTECTED INDIVIDUAL OR A MEMBER OF THE FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD IN A THREATENING OR HARASSING MANNER, THROUGH ANY PERSON AND IN ANY MANNER?

A

VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE

467
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED IF A PERSON WHO IN VIOLATION OF A CONDITION OF BOND SET IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE THE PERSON KNOWINGLY OR INTENTIONALLY GOES TO OR NEAR ANY PLACE SPECIFICALLY DESCRIBED ON THE COURT ORDER, THE RESIDENCE OR PLACE OF EMPLOYMENT, SCHOOL OF PROTECTED PERSON(S), POSSESSES A FIREARM; HARMS, THREATENS, INTERFERES WITH A PET OF A PROTECTED PERSON?

A

VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE

468
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED IF A PERSON WHO IN VIOLATION OF A CONDITION OF BOND SET IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE THE PERSON KNOWINGLY OR INTENTIONALLY GOES TO OR NEAR ANY CHILD CARE FACILITY, RESIDENCE, OR SCHOOL WHERE A CHILD PROTECTED BY THE ORDER OR CONDITION OF BOND NORMALLY RESIDES OR ATTENDS, HARMS, THREATENS, OR INTERFERES WITH THE CARE CUSTODY OR CONTROL OF A PET, COMPANION ANIMAL, OR ASSISTANCE ANIMAL THAT IS POSSESSED BY A PROTECTED PERSON?

A

VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE

469
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON THAT MAKES, PRESENTS, OR USES ANY DOCUMENT OR OTHER RECORD WITH KNOWLEDGE THAT THE DOCUMENT OR OTHER RECORD IS NOT A RECORD OF A COURT CREATED UNDER OR ESTABLISHED BY THE CONSTRUCTION OF LAWS OF THIS STATE OR OF THE UNITED STATES AND THE INTENT THAT THE DOCUMENT OR OTHER RECORD BE GIVEN THE SAME LEGAL EFFECT AS A RECORD OF A COURT CREATED UNDER OR ESTABLISHED BY THE CONSTITUTION OR LAWS OF THE STATE OR THE UNITED STATES?

A

RECORD OF A FRAUDULENT COURT

470
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN AN INDIVIDUAL INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY FAILS TO PROVIDE SUPPORT FOR THE INDIVIDUALS CHILD YOUNGER THAN 18 YRS OF AGE, OR FOR THE INDIVIDUAL’S CHILD WHO IS THE SUBJECT OF A COURT ORDER REQUIRING THE INDIVIDUAL TO SUPPORT THE CHILD?

A

CRIMINAL NON-SUPPORT

471
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED WHEN A PERSON KNOWINGLY HARBORS A CHILD AND IS CRIMINALLY NEGLIGENT ABOUT WHETHER THE CHILD IS YOUNGER THAN 18 YRS, HAS ESCAPED CUSTODY OF A POLICE OFFICER, DETENTION CENTER OR VOLUNTARILY ABSENT FROM PARENT W/O CONSENT?

A

HARBORING A RUNAWAY CHILD

472
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON POSSESSES A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 18 YRS OF AGE OR HAS THE CUSTODY, CONSERVATORSHIP, OR GUARDIANSHIP OF A CHILD YOUNGER 18 YOA, WHETHER OR NOT HE HAS ACTUAL POSSESSION OF THE CHILD, AND HE OFFERS TO ACCEPT, AGREES TO ACCEPT, OR ACCEPTS A THING OF VALUE FOR THE DELIVERY OF TH ECHILD TO ANOTHER FOR THE POSSESSION OF THE CHILD BY ANOTHER FOR THE PURPOSES OF ADOPTION OR OFFERS TO GIVE, AGREES TO GIVE, OR GIVES A THING OF VALUE TO ANOTHER FOR ACQUIRING OR MAINTAINING THE POSSESSION OF THE CHILD FOR THE PURPOSE OF ADOPTION?

A

SALE OR PURCHASE OF CHILD

473
Q

WHAT MEANS THE RIGHT OF GUARDIAN OF THE PERSON TO HAVE PHYSICAL POSSESSION OF A WARD AND TO ESTABLISH THE WARD’S LEGAL DOMICILE?

A

POSSESSORY RIGHT

474
Q

WHAT HAS THE MEANING A PERSON FOR WHOM A GUARDIAN HAS BEEN APPOINTED?

A

WARD

475
Q

WHAT IS CALLED A STRUCTURE OR VEHICLE THAT IS ADAPTED FOR OVERNIGHT ACCOMMODATION OF PERSONS AND INCLUDES EACH SEPARATELY SECURED OR OCCUPIED PORTION OF THE STRUCTURE OR VEHICLE AND EACH STRUCTURE APPURTENANT TO OR CONNECTED WITH THE STRUCTURE OF VEHICLE?

A

HABITATION

476
Q

WHAT IS REAL PROPERTY THAT IS UNDEVELOPED FOR PURPOSE OF HUMAN HABITATION?

A

OPEN-SPACE LAND

477
Q

WHAT INCLUDES ANY DEVICE IN, ON OR BY WHICH ANY PERSON OR PROPERTY IS OR MAY BE PROPELLED, MOVED, OR DRAWN IN THE NORMAL COURSE OF COMMERCE OR TRANSPORTATION?

A

A VEHICLE

INCLUDES BUT NOT LIMITED TO A MOTOR VEHICLE

478
Q

WHAT MEANS THE BURNING OF UNWANTED VEGETATION WITH THE CONSENT OF THE OWNER OF THE PROPERTY ON WHICH THE VEGETATION IS LOCATED AND IN SUCH A MANNER THAT THE FIRE IS CONTROLLED AND LIMITED TO A DESIGNATED AREA?

A

CONTROLLED BURNING

479
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY STRUCTURE OR ENCLOSURE INTENDED FOR USE OR OCCUPATION AS A HABITATION OR FOR SOME PURPOSE OF TRADE, MANUFACTURE, ORNAMENT, OR USE?

A

BUILDING

480
Q

WHAT IS INCLUDING A DOCUMENT, INCLUDING MONEY THAT REPRESENTS OR EMBODIES ANYTHING OF VALUE?

A

PROPERTY
(REAL PROPERTY; TANGIBLE OR INTANGIBLE PERSONAL PROPERTY, INCLUDING ANYTHING SEVERE FROM LAND; OR A DOCUMENT, INCLUDING MONEY, THAT REPRESENTS OR EMBODIES ANYTHING OF VALUE)

481
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO STARTS A FIRE, REGARDLESS OF WHETHER THE FIRE CONTINUES AFTER IGNITION, OR *CAUSES AN EXPLOSION WITH INTENT TO DESTROY, DAMAGE, INJURE, OR KILL-MURDER?

RECKLESS=INJURY OR DEATH / INTENTIONAL = DAMAGE / DESTROY

A

ARSON

482
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WITHOUT THE EFFECTIVE CONSENT OF THE OWNER, INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY DAMAGES OR DESTROYS THE TANGIBLE PROPERTY OF THE OWNER?

A

CRIMINAL MISCHIEF

INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY

483
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WITHOUT THE EFFECTIVE CONSENT OF THE OWNER INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY TAMPERS CAUSING PECUNIARY LOSS OR INCONVENIENCE?

A

CRIMINAL MISCHIEF

484
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WHO WITHOUT THE EFFECTIVE CONSENT OF THE OWNER INTENTIONALLY OR KNOWINGLY MAKES MARKINGS INCLUDING INSCRIPTIONS, SLOGANS, DRAWINGS NOT INCLUDED IN GRAFFITI?

A

CRIMINAL MISCHIEF

485
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WITHOUT OBTAINING THE OTHER PERSON’S CONSENT WITH INTENT TO HARM, DEFRAUD, INTIMIDATE, OR THREATEN ANY PERSON, USES THE NAME OR PERSONA OF ANOTHER PERSON TO CREATE A WEBPAGE ON A COMMERCIAL SOCIAL NETWORKING SITE OR OTHER INTERNET WEBSITE OR POST OR SEND ONE OR MORE MESSAGES ON OR THROUGH A COMMERCIAL SOCIAL NETWORK OR OTHER WEBSITE OTHER THAN AN ELECTRONIC MAIL PROGRAM OR MESSAGE BOARD PROGRAM?

A

ONLINE IMPERSONATION

486
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A PERSON WITHOUT OBTAINING THE OTHER PERSON’S CONSENT WITH INTENT TO HARM, DEFRAUD, INTIMIDATE, OR THREATEN ANY PERSON, SENDS AN ELECTRIC MAIL, INSTANT MESSAGE, TEXT MESSAGE, OR SIMILAR COMMUNICATION THAT REFERENCES A NAME, DOMAIN ADDRESS, PHONE NUMBER, OR OTHER ITEM OF IDENTIFYING INFORMATION BELONGING TO ANT PERSON W/O OBTAINING THE OTHER’S CONSENT, WITH INTENT TO CAUSE A RECIPIENT TO BELIEVE THAT THE OTHER PERSON AUTHORIZED OR TRANSMITTED THE COMMUNICATION WITH INTENT TO HARM OR DEFRAUD THE PERSON?

A

ONLINE IMPERSONATION

487
Q

WHAT IS THE OFFENSE WHEN A PERSON WITHOUT EFFECTIVE CONSENT OF THE OWNER RECKLESSLY DAMAGES OR DESTROYS THE PROPERTY OF THE OWNER?

A

RECKLESS DAMAGE OR DESTRUCTION

488
Q

IS THERE A DEFENSE TO PROSECUTION UNDER THE CHAPTER OF RECKLESS DAMAGE OR DESTRUCTION; THAT THE ACTOR HAD AN INTEREST IN THE PROPERTY DAMAGED OR DESTROYED IF ANOTHER PERSON ALSO HAD AN INTEREST THAT THE ACTOR IS NOT ENTITLED TO INFRINGE?

A

IT IS NO DEFENSE TO PROSECUTION THAT THE ACTOR HAD AN INTEREST IN THE PROPERTY DAMAGED OR DESTROYED IF ANOTHER PERSON ALSO HAS AN INTEREST THAT THE ACTOR IS NOT ENTITLED TO INFRINGE

489
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE FOLLOWING OFFENSES?
*INJURY TO AN ELDERLY OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL (NON-FAMILY); DEADLY CONDUCT; TERRORISTIC THREAT; AIDING SUICIDE; TAMPERING WITH A CONSUMER PRODUCT; AND HARASSMENT BY PERSONS IN CERTAIN CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES

A

HOMICIDE UNIT

490
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE FOLLOWING OFFENSES?
HARBORING A RUNAWAY CHILD; MISSING PERSON; BURGLARY ASSAULT (NON-FAMILY); TRESPASS BY HOLDER OF LICENSE TO CARRY CONCEALED HANDGUN; AND IMPERSONATING PUBLIC SERVANT

A

HOMICIDE UNIT

491
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE FOLLOWING OFFENSES?
FALSE ID TO POLICE OFFICER; MISREPRESENTATION OF PROPERTY; TAKING OR ATTEMPT TO TAKE WEAPON FROM POLICE OFFICER; INTERFERENCE WITH PUBLIC DUTIES; AND INTERFERENCE WITH POLICE SERVICE ANIMALS

A

HOMICIDE UNIT

492
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE FOLLOWING OFFENSES?
PREVENTING EXECUTION OF CIVIL PROCESS; FAILURE TO REPORT DEATH OF PRISONER; DISORDERLY CONDUCT #1 - #11; SILENT OF ABUSIVE CALLS TO 911 SERVICE; HARASSMENT; STALKING; AND INTERFERENCE WITH EMERGENCY TELEPHONE CALL

A

HOMICIDE

493
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE FOLLOWING OFFENSES?
DISCHARGE OF FIREARM ON CERTAIN MUNICIPALITIES; USE OF LASER POINTERS; UNLAWFUL CARRYING WEAPON; PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED; UNLAWFUL CARRYING OF HANDGUN BY LICENSED HOLDER; AND UNLAWFUL POSSESSION OF FIREARM

A

HOMICIDE

494
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR THE FOLLOWING OFFENSES?
**UNLAWFUL POSSESSION OF METAL OR BODY ARMOR BY FELON; PROHIBITED WEAPONS; UNLAWFUL TRANSFER OF CERTAIN WEAPONS; DEADLY WEAPON IN A PENAL INSTITUTION; MAKING A FIREARM ACCESSIBLE TO A CHILD; AND ACCIDENTAL SHOOTING

A

HOMICIDE UNIT

495
Q

1) WHAT ARE THE NON-EMERGENCY ACTIONS OF AN OFFICER NOT ON-DUTY WHEN A POLICE MATTER HAS COME TO HIS ATTENTION?
2) WHILE OUTSIDE CITY LIMITS WHILE OFF-DUTY?
3) WHILE OUTSIDE CITY LIMITS WHILE IN ASSIGNMENT?

A

1) CALL THE POLICE DISPATCHER AND REQUEST THE ASSIGNMENT OF AN ON-DUTY OFFICER. NOT TO INTERFERE OR PARTICIPATE UNLESS REQUESTED TO DO SO BY THE OFFICER(S) ASSIGNED TO HANDLE THE INCIDENT.
2) THE OFFICER ONLY HAS THE RIGHTS, AUTHORITY, AND PRIVILEGES OF A PRIVATE CITIZEN.
3) CONTACT THE AGENCY HAVING JURISDICTION, AND SEEK ASSISTANCE OF ITS OFFICERS IN ANY ACTION TO BE TAKEN. ANY ACTION TAKEN WILL BE CONFINED TO WHAT IS NECESSARY TO ACCOMPLISH THE ASSIGNMENT

496
Q

WHEN CAN A MEMBER WHILE ON-DUTY CONCEAL HIMSELF FROM THE GENERAL PUBLIC?
HOW LONG MAY A MEMBER REMAIN AT ANY ONE PLACE?
WHEN CAN MEMBERS ENTER A PLACE OF AMUSEMENT?

A
  1. NO MEMBER WHILE ON-DUTY SHALL CONCEAL HIMSELF EXCEPT FOR SOME POLICE PURPOSE. MEMBERS SHALL KEEP THEMSELVES IMMEDIATELY AND READILY AVAILABLE AT ALL TIMES WHEN ON-DUTY.
    MEMBERS SHALL NOT DEVOTE ANY OF THEIR ON-DUTY TIME TO ANY ACTIVITY OTHER THAN THAT WHICH RELATES TO THEIR DUTY ASSIGNMENT. MEMBERS SHALL NOT ENTER PLACES OF AMUSEMENT WHILE ON-DUTY, EXCEPT FOR POLICE PURPOSES. MEMBERS SHALL NOT REMAIN AT ANY PLACE LONGER THAN IS NECESSARY TO ACCOMPLISH A POLICE OBJECTIVE.
497
Q

WHAT DEPARTMENTAL UNIT SHALL INVESTIGATE POLICE VEHICLE CRASHES AND WHO SHALL THEY PRESENT THEIR FINDINGS OF THE INVESTIGATIONS TO?

A

HOMICIDE UNIT / THE CHIEF’S CITY VEHICLE ACCIDENT ADVISORY ACTION BOARD

498
Q

WHO CAN NOT OR WILL NOT MAKE RECOMMENDATIONS AS TO THE SPECIFIC RULE, REGULATION, POLICY, OR PROCEDURE VIOLATED NOR MAKE RECOMMENDATIONS AS TO PUNISHMENT?
WHO CAN MAKE THESE RECOMMENDATIONS DURING A FORMAL COMPLAINT?

A

SUPERVISORS CAN ONLY MAKE RECOMMENDATIONS OF “NO DISCIPLINARY ACTION NECESSARY” OR THE COMPLAINT SHOULD BE FORWARDED TO I.A. FOR FURTHER INVESTIGATION.
SECTION COMMANDERS/UNIT COMMANDERS CAN MAKE RECOMMENDATIONS THAT THE DIVISION COMMANDER REVIEWS.

499
Q

WHO IS THE PROPER FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR DRIVING WHILE LICENSE INVALID / RACING ON HIGHWAY / ACCIDENT INVOLVING PERSONAL INJURY OR DEATH (FSRA) / ACCIDENT INVOLVING DAMAGE TO VEHICLE / DUTY TO GIVE INFORMATION AND RENDER AID / DUTY ON STRIKING UNATTENDED VEHICLE / DUTY ON STRIKING FIXTURE OR HIGHWAY-LANDSCAPING.

A

TRAFFIC INVESTIGATION (TIT)

500
Q

WHO IS THE PROPER FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR INTOXICATION MANSLAUGHTER OR ASSAULT / DRIVING WHILE INTOXICATED / FLYING WHILE INTOXICATED / BOATING WHILE INTOXICATED / DWI WITH CHILD PASSENGER / ASSEMBLY OR OPERATION OF AN AMUSEMENT RIDE WHILE INTOXICATED.

A

TRAFFIC INVESTIGATION (TIT)

501
Q

“TO BE THE PREMIER LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY BY BUILDING TRUST, CREATING PARTNERSHIPS, AND SHARING LEADERSHIP WITHIN SAPD AND THE COMMUNITY FOR A SAFER SAN ANTONIO”

THIS STATEMENT OF THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENT IS CALLED WHAT?

A

“THE VISION” OF THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPT

502
Q

UPON RECEIVING CONCURRENCE FROM THE RANKING OFFICER ON-DUTY, WHO WILL TEMPORARILY RELIEVE FROM DUTY A SWORN MEMBER ACCUSED OF SERIOUS MISCONDUCT OR SUSPECTED CRIMINAL ACTIVITY?

A

SECTION COMMANDERS / UNIT DIRECTORS

WHO WILL IMMEDIATELY NOTIFY THE DIVISION COMMANDER AND I.A. UNIT OF SUCH ACTION.

503
Q

WHAT PROGRAM MAY AN OFFICER WITH UNACCEPTABLE BEHAVIOR TRAITS THAT HAVE BEEN IDENTIFIED BE REFERRED TO?

A

THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM

504
Q

WHO WOULD REFER AN OFFICER INTO THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM AFTER IDENTIFYING A PROBLEM WITH THE OFFICER’S COMPLAINTS OF RUDENESS; DETERIORATION OF WORK OR QUALITY OF WORK, TARTINESS, REASONABLE SUSPICION OF SUBSTANCE ABUSE, VEHICLE CRASHES, POOR PERFORMANCE EVALUATIONS, EEO COMPLAINTS, AND TORT CASES AGAINST THE CITY DUE TO OFFICER’S ACTIONS?

A

REFERRALS BY SUPERVISORS

505
Q

THE USE OF FORCE PROCEDURE #501 PROVIDES OFFICERS WITH WHAT GUIDELINES?

A

THE GUIDELINES ON THE USE OF NON-DEADLY AND DEADLY FORCE

506
Q

ANYTIME FORCE IS USED BY AN OFFICER, WHAT LEVEL OF FORCE SHALL THE OFFICER APPLY?

A

THE OFFICER SHALL APPLY A LEVEL OF FORCE REASONABLE FOR THE SITUATION AND ONLY THE LEVEL OF FORCE NECESSARY TO ACCOMPLISH A LAWFUL POLICE OBJECTIVE

507
Q

WHAT SHOULD OFFICERS USE PRIOR TO THE USE OF NON-DEADLY FORCE TO AFFECT AN ARREST IF POSSIBLE?

A

VERBAL COMMUNICATIONS

508
Q

WHO MAY GIVE CONSENT TO A MEMBER OF THE DEPARTMENT TO MAKE A PUBLIC ADDRESS OR WRITE FOR PUBLICATION CONCERNING THE AFFAIRS OF THE DEPARTMENT?

A

THE CHIEF OF POLICE

509
Q

CAN AN OFFICER HAVE AN ATTORNEY PRESENT DURING THE INTERVIEWS WITH THEIR COMMANDING OFFICER?

A

NO
COMPLAINTS INVESTIGATED THROUGH THE CHAIN OF COMMAND DO NOT ENTITLE THE OFFICER TO HAVE AN ATTORNEY PRESENT DURING INTERVIEWS WITH THEIR COMMANDING OFFICER

510
Q

CAN AN OFFICER SEEK ADVICE FROM AN ATTORNEY OR AN ASSOCIATION REPRESENTATIVE DURING THE FIVE (5) CALENDAR DAY TIME PERIOS TO ACCEPT/AGREE WITH A CONTEMPLATED DISCIPLINARY ACTION?

A

YES
DURING THE FIVE (5) CALENDAR DAY TIME PERIOD NOTHING PROHIBITS AN OFFICER FROM SEEKING ADVICE FROM AN ATTORNEY OR AN ASSOCIATION REPRESENTATIVE.

511
Q

WHAT FOUR INCIDENTS WITHIN A 12 MONTH (1YR) PERIOD MAY CAUSE A COMPUTER-GENERATED REFERRAL OF AN OFFICER INTO THE OFFICE CONCERN PROGRAM? WHAT ABOUT AN INCIDENT TYPE THAT EXTENDS OVER A 24 MONTH PERIOD?

A

FOUR (4) COMPLAINTS COMPRISED OF ANY COMBINATION OF FORMAL OR LINE COMPLAINTS. COMPLAINTS WHICH ARE ADDRESSED THROUGH THE CHAIN OF COMMAND ARE CONSIDERED LINE COMPLAINTS FOR THE PURPOSE OF THE PROCEDURE.
ANY COMBINATION OF (4) DRIVING-RELATED COMPLAINTS AND / OR CHARGEABLE CITY VEHICLE CRASHES WITHIN A TWENTY-FOUR (24) MONTH PERIOD

512
Q

ONE (1) CRIMINAL ACTIVITY COMPLAINT SUPPORTED BY CREDIBLE EVIDENCE OR WHICH RESULTS IN AN ARREST, OR FORMAL CHARGES BY “INDICTMENT”, “COMPLAINT”, OR OTHER CHARGING INSTRUMENT MAY CAUSE AN OFFICER TO ENTER THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM THROUGH WHICH TYPE OF REFERRALS AS LISTED AS DURING ANY CONTINUOUS TWELVE (12) MONTH PERIODS?

A

A) CHIEF OF POLICE
B) SUPERVISORS
C) * COMPUTER-GENERATED REFERRALS *

513
Q

WHAT THREE (3) TYPES OF INCIDENTS DURING A (12) MONTH PERIOD MAY CAUSE A COMPUTER-GENERATED REFERRAL OF AN OFFICER INTO INTO THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM? A (24) MONTH PERIOD?

A

THREE (3) FORMAL COMPLAINTS, NOT INCLUDING “ADMINISTRATIVE REVIEWS” AND “DEACTIVATED CASES”, UNLESS THEY BECOME CONVERTED TO FORMAL CASES AND “THREE” (3) CHARGEABLE CITY VEHICLE CRASHES WITHIN A TWENTY-FOUR (24) MONTH PERIOD.

514
Q

WHO HAS THE PREROGATIVE TO PLACE AN OFFICER DIRECTLY INTO THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM?

A

REFERRALS BY THE CHIEF OF POLICE

515
Q

WHO MAINTAINS A COMPUTER DATABASE ON ALL COMPLAINTS MADE AGAINST OFFICERS?

A

THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT

516
Q

WHAT SINGLE (1) TYPE OF COMPLAINTS DURING ANY CONTINUOUS TWELVE (12) MONTH (1 YR) PERIOD MAY CAUSE A REFERRAL TO THE OFFICER CONCERN PROGRAM BY A COMPUTER-GENERATED REFERRAL?

A

ANY (1) ONE SUSTAINED FORMAL COMPLAINT INVOLVING:

1) PHYSICAL MISTREATMENT OF PRISONERS
2) FORCE
3) FAMILY VIOLENCE
4) ALCOHOL OR DRUG ABUSE
5) AN ACT RESULTING IN THE COMPLAINANT BEING SERIOUSLY INJURED
6) RACIAL / BIASED PROFILING
7) INSUBORDINATION

517
Q

WHEN CAN AN OFFICER REQUEST A DISMISSAL OF CERTAIN CLASS “C” MISDEMEANOR CITATIONS?

A

WHEN THE DISMISSAL IS FOR THE PURPOSE OF FURTHERING A LAW ENFORCEMENT MISSION OR IS IN THE BEST INTEREST OF THE DEPARTMENT.
{MISSION = CONFIDENTIAL INFORMANTS}
[BEST INTEREST = PARKING VIOLATIONS, METER - WHILE PROVIDING INFORMATION/STATEMENTS TO INVESTIGATION UNITS]

518
Q

HOW ARE REQUESTS OF A DISMISSAL FOR A CLASS “C” MISDEMEANOR CITATION MADE?
MAY A MEMBER APPEAL TO A HIGHER AUTHORITY IF A UNIT DIRECTOR DISAPPROVES A DISMISSAL OF A CITATION?

A

SUBMIT A WRITTEN REPORT WITH REASON OF DISMISSAL HAND-CARRIED IT ALONG WITH THE CITATION TO THE UNIT DIRECTOR FOR APPROVAL/DISAPPROVAL - HAND-CARRIED THOUGH EACH STEP (UNIT DIRECTOR - SECTION COMMANDER - DIVISION COMMANDER {WHO KEEPS A LOG} - MUNICIPAL COURT CHIEF PROSECUTOR.
NP APPEAL TO A HIGHER AUTHORITY

519
Q

WHAT SHALL THE NOTIFICATION MESSAGE FOR MOBILIZATION INFORM THE MEMBER OF?

A

THE PHASE STATUS OF THE DEPARTMENT, A BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE UNUSUAL OCCURRENCE, THE REQUIRED EQUIPMENT, AND THE LOCATION AND TIME TO REPORT FOR ASSIGNMENT.

520
Q

WHAT UNIFORM ARE ALL SWORN MEMBERS REQUIRED TO REPORT IN, UNLESS INSTRUCTED OTHERWISE?

A

REGULATION UNIFORM

521
Q

WHAT IS IT CALLED TO HAVE PERSONS REMAIN ISOLATED WITHIN THEIR HOMES OR BUSINESS IN LIEU OF EVACUATING THEM IN THE BEST INTEREST OF PUBLIC SAFETY?

A

SHELTER IN PLACE

522
Q

WHO MAY DIRECT THE PUBLIC INFORMATION OFFICER TO REQUEST RADIO AND TELEVISION STATIONS TO BROADCAST EVACUATION INFORMATION?

A

THE INCIDENT COMMANDER

523
Q

IS DISMISSAL OF A MISDEMEANOR CITATION FOR ANY PERSON THAT IS RELATED TO A MEMBER PROHIBITED?

A

YES - IT IS PROHIBITED

524
Q

IN THE EVENT THE PROBABLE CAUSE IDENTIFICATION OF A SUSPECTED DANGEROUS DRUG OR CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE IS INCONCLUSIVE OR THERE ARE NO TRAINED MEMBERS AVAILABLE TO PERFORM PROBABLE CAUSE IDENTIFICATION, WHAT SHALL THE OFFICER DO AND WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT?

A

1) THE INDIVIDUAL IS NOT BOOKED FOR THE SUSPECTED OFFENSE
2) THE SUBSTANCE IS PLACED IN THE PROPERTY ROOM FOR LABORATORY TESTING BY BEXAR COUNTY FORENSICS OFFICE
3) AN OFFENSE REPORT IS DONE AS “FOUND PROPERTY” DETAIL THE STOP, SUBSTANCE FOUND, DISPOSITION OF SUBSTANCE, IDENTIFY THE SUSPECT, ANY FINDINGS OF PROBABLE CAUSE, TESTS RESULTS, COPY FORWARDED TO NARCOTICS UNIT
4) NARCOTICS UNIT FILES ON SUSPECT IF FOUND TO BE A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE OR DANGEROUS DRUG.

525
Q

IF AN OFFENSE OCCURS AND THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT IS NO LONGER ON-DUTY, WHAT UNIT SHALL BECOME THE INTERIM FOLLOW-UP INVESTIGATIVE UNIT?

A

NCID

526
Q

WHO WILL MAKE A RULING ON A CASE WHEN THERE IS A DISAGREEMENT BETWEEN THE OFFICER WITH REPORT WRITING RESPONSIBILITY AND THE DETECTIVE FROM THE FOLLOW-UP INVESTIGATIVE UNIT ABOUT HANDLING OF AN OFFENSE OR DISPOSITION OF AN ARRESTED PERSON?

A

A SUPERVISOR FROM THE FOLLOW-UP INVESTIGATIVE UNIT, BECAUSE THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR FILING CRIMINAL CASES OR SUPERVISOR FROM NCID AND FINALLY A SUPERVISOR OF THE REPORTING OFFICER IF NO SUPERVISOR FROM NCID OR THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT IS AVAILABLE.

527
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR IMPROPER INFLUENCE / FAILURE TO IDENTIFY / TAMPERING WITH WITNESS / RESIST ARREST, SEARCH, OR TRANSPORTATION / OBSTRUCTION OR RETALIATION / EVADE ARREST OR DETENTION / PERJURY / HINDERING APPREHENSION OR PROSECUTION / ESCAPE/ AND AGGRAVATED PERJURY?

A

THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT ASSIGNED TO INVESTIGATE THE CASE IS THE UNIT ASSIGNED TO THE PRIMARY OFFENSE OR OFFENSE THAT INITIATED THE CASE.

528
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR PERMITTING OR FACILITATING ESCAPE / IMPLEMENTS FOR ESCAPE / FA;SE REPORT TO PEACE OFFICER OR LAW ENFORCEMENT EMPLOYEE / TAMPERING WITH OR FABRICATING PHYSICAL EVIDENCE / FAILURE TO REPORT FELONY / BAIL JUMPING AND FAILRE TO APPEAR / ENGAGING IN ORGANIZED CRIMINAL ACTIVITY / VIOLATION OF COURT ORDER ENJOINING ORGANIZED CRIMINAL ACTIVITY?

A

THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT ASSIGNED TO INVESTIGATE THE CASE IS THE UNIT ASSIGNED TO THE PRIMARY OFFENSE OR OFFENSE THAT INITIATED THE CASE.

529
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW UP UNIT FOR AGGRAVATED ASSAULT (FAMILY) / VIOLATION OF PROTECTIVE ORDER PREVENTING OFFENSE CAUSED BY BIAS OR PREJUDICE / AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ASSAULT / SALE OR PURCHASE OF A CHILD / INJURY TO CHILD (ONLY) / ADVERTISING PLACEMENT OF A CHILD/ INJURY TO ELDERLY OR DISABLED (FAMILY) / AND INTERFERENCE WITH RIGHTS OF GUARDIAN OF THE PERSON

A

SPECIAL VICTIMS UNIT

530
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR ABANDONING OR ENDANGERING A CHILD / CONTINUOUS VIOLENCE AGAINST FAMILY / LEAVING A CHILD IN A VEHICLE / BURGLARY - SEXUAL ASSAULT / BURGLARY ASSAULT - FAMILY / BIGAMY / PROHIBITED SEXUAL CONDUCT / ONLINE SOLICITATION OF A MINOR / INTERFERENCE WITH CHILD CUSTODY / AND IMPROPER CONTACT WITH VICTIM?

A

SPECIAL VICTIMS UNIT

531
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR VIOLATION OF PROTECTIVE ORDER / ENTICING A CHILD / CRIMINAL NON-SUPPORT / FAIL TO STOP OR REPORT AGG SEX ASSAULT OF CHILD / VIOLATION OF PROTECTIVE ORDER - MAGISTRATES ORDER / DISORDERLY CONDUCT (42.02#12) / VIOLATIONS OF THE CIVIL RIGHTS OF PERSON IN CUSTODY / AND IMPROPER SEXUAL ACTIVITY WITH PERSON IN CUSTODY

A

SPECIAL VICTIMS UNIT

532
Q

WHAT MEANS THE ACTION IS ADVISORY. WHERE USED THIS INDICATES THE PROCEDURE IS NOT MANDATORY, HOWEVER, IT SHOULD BE FOLLOWED IF THE SITUATION PERMITS?

A

SHOULD

533
Q

WHAT FIVE LISTED ACTIVITIES ARE OFFICERS OF THE DEPARTMENT PROHIBITED TO DO WHILE UNDER SUSPENSION?

A
  1. WEAR THE SAPD UNIFORM OR ANY PART OF THE UNIFORM
  2. REPRESENT THEMSELVES AS MEMBERS OF THE SAPD
  3. CARRY OR DISPLAY THEIR SAPD BADGE OR ID
  4. ENGAGE IN OUTSIDE EMPLOYMENT WHICH REQUIRES AN EXTENSION OF POLICE SERVICES; NOR ANY FORM OF OUTSIDE EMPLOYMENT PROHIBITED BY EXISTING SAPD GENERAL MANUAL PROCEDURES GOVERNING OUTSIDE EMPLOYMENT
  5. EXERCISE THE POWER OR AUTHORITY OF A POLICE OFFICER OF THE CITY OF SAN ANTONIO TEXAS
534
Q

IN REGARDS TO WEAPONS, WHAT RIGHTS DO OFFICER’S HAVE WHILE UNDER SUSPENSION?

A

ONLY THE RIGHTS AND PRIVILEGES AFFORDED A PRIVATE CITIZEN REGARDING THE CARRYING OF ANY WEAPON

535
Q

UNLESS A HOLD IS PROPERLY PLACED ON A MASTER TAPE OR DATA TAPE, HOW LONG CAN THE INFORMATION CONTAINED ON THESE TAPES BE RETAINED FOR?

A

NOT LESS THAN (30) THIRTY DAYS AND NOT EXCEEDING (90) NINETY DAYS

536
Q

WHO MAINTAINS A COMPLETE AND CURRENT INVENTORY OF ALL MASTER TAPES?

A

THE SYSTEMS SPECIALIST (LOCATED IN THE COMMUNICATIONS UNIT)

  • MAINTAINS A SYSTEM OF ACCOUNTABILITY FOR WACH TYPE WITHIN THEIR CUSTODIAL CARE AT ALL TIMES
  • MAINTAINS A LOG TO REFLECT ALL COPIES MADE AND HOLDS PLACED ON ANY PORTION OF THE MASTER TAPE
  • IS THE DEPARTMENTS RECORDS CUSTODIAN FOR THE 911 TAPES
537
Q

WHO COORDINATES HOLDS PLACED ON DATA TAPES WITH THE INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY SYSTEMS DEPARTMENT (ITSD) ; MAINTAINS A SYSTEM OF ACCOUNTABILITY FOR EACH TAPE WITHIN THEIR CUSTODIAL CARE AT ALL TIMES; AND MAINTAINS A LOG TO REFLECT ALL COPIES, HOLDS, AND TRANSCRIPTS OF ANY PORTION OF A DATA TAPE?

A

INFORMATION SYSTEMS

538
Q

GM MISSION

WE ACT WITH _______ TO REDUCE _______ AND _______ WHILE TREATING ALL WITH _______, _________, AND _______.

A

INTEGRITY
FEAR / CRIME
RESPECT / COMPASSION / FAIRNESS

539
Q

WHAT IS DEEMED DEFYING OF THE AUTHORITY OF ANY SUPERVISORY OFFICER BY OBVIOUS DISRESPECT, DISPUTING HIS ORDERS, OR FAILURE OR DELIBERATE REFUSAL TO OBEY LAWFUL ORDER GIVEN BY HIM?

A

INSUBORDINATION

540
Q

WHAT ARE THE TWO DIFFERENT UNITS WITHIN THE DEPARTMENT WHERE MEMBERS CAN REPORT CRIMINAL OFFENSES COMMITTED BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS?

A

THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF

THE SAN ANTONIO REGIONAL INTELLIGENCE CENTER (SARIC)

541
Q

WHAT FORM IS USED TO REPORT MEMBERS OF CRIMINAL OFFENSES AND HOW IS IT DELIVERED TO ONE OF THE TWO UNITS?

A

HAND CARRY THE SAPD FORM #62-RCO REPORTING OF CRIMINAL OFFENSES BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS
TO THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF OR THE SAN ANTONIO REGIONAL INTELLIGENCE CENTER (SARIC)

542
Q

IF A MEMBER RECEIVING INFORMATION ABOUT A SUSPECTED CRIMINAL ACTIVITY IS UNCERTAIN AS TO THE CREDIBILITY OF THE PERSON AND / OR THE INFORMATION PROVIDED. HOW AND ON WHAT FORM CAN THE MEMBER REPORT THE INFORMATION WITHOUT A CASE NUMBER?

A

IF UNSURE / UNCERTAIN OF CREDIBILITY - INTEROFFICE FORM IN PERSON TO OFFICE OF THE CHEIF OR SARIC.

543
Q

WHO CAN ORDER A MANDATORY EVALUATION OF AN OFFICER TO DETERMINE AN OFFICER’S FITNESS FOR DUTY OR EMOTIONAL, COGNITIVE, AND/OR BEHAVIORAL SUITABILITY FOR POLICE WORK? WHAT ARE ANY OF THE INCIDENTS THAT THESE EVALUATIONS MAY BE FOR?

A

THE CHEIF OF POLICE

  1. ANY LOSS OF LIFE OR SBI AS A RESULT OF AN OFFICER’S ACTIONS
  2. POLICE INVOLVED SHOOTINGS
  3. FATALITY INCIDENTS
  4. FATALITY CRASHES INVOLVING OFFICERS
  5. THE DEATH OF AN OFFICER
  6. OFFICERS INVOLVED IN CRITICAL INCIDENTS
  7. OFFICERS INVOLVED IN FAMILY DISTURBANCES/VIOLENCE INCIDENTS
  8. SUBSTANCE ABUSE
544
Q

WHAT MEANS A COMPREHENSIVE INSTRUCTIONAL,WRITTEN COMMUNICATION PROVIDING DIRECTION IN THE ACCOMPLISHMENT OF A POLICE RELATED TASK?

A

PROCEDURES

545
Q

WHAT MAY BE USED SYNONYMOUSLY WITH DEPARTMENT ORDERS?

A

DIRECTIVES

546
Q

4.10 DUTY TO REPORT INCIDENTS
WHAT INCIDENTS SHALL MEMBERS IMMEDIATELY REPORT IN ADDITION TO OTHER INCIDENTS COVERED BY THESE RULES AND DEPARTMENTAL PROCEDURES, IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE REPORT WRITING PROCEDURE OF THE DEPARTMENT?

A

A) TRAFFIC CRASH INVOLVING MEMBER
B) ON-DUTY INJURY - ANY PERSONAL INJURIES
C) OFF-DUTY INJURY - WHICH ARE APT TO INTERFERE W/ DUTIES
D) INJURY OR PROPERTY DAMAGE CAUSED BY MEMBER
E) INCIDENTS WHERE THE CITY MAY BE LIABLE
F) DANGER TO PUBLIC HEALTH AND SAFETY
G) SUIT OR LEGAL PROCESS AGAINST MEMBER (ORIGINAL CITATION TO CHEIFS OFFICE - SIGN FORM REQUESTING LEGAL REPRESENTATION FROM CITY ATTORNEY’S OFFICE
H) DAMAGE TO CITY PROPERTY

547
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR CRIMINAL MISCHIEF / RECKLESS DAMAGE OR DESTRUCTION / INTERFERENCE WITH RAIL-ROAD PROPERTY / GRAFFITI / BURGLARY (PROPERTY LOSS ONLY) / BURGLARY OF COIN OPERATED OR COIN COLLECTION MACHINES / BURGLARY OF A VEHICLE / CRIMINAL TRESPASS / THEFT / THEFT OF SERVICE / PRESUMPTION FOR THEFT BY CHECK / CRIMINAL SIMULATION / POSSESSION, MANUFACTURE, OR DISTRIBUTION OF INSTRUMENTS USED TO COMMIT RETAIL THEFT

A

PROPERTY CRIMES

548
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR FALSE STATEMENT TO OBTAIN PROPERTY OR CREDIT / HINDERING SECURED CREDITORS / DECEPTIVE BUSINESS PRACTICES / ILLEGAL RECRUITMENT OF AN ATHLETE / FRAUDULENT DESTRUCTION, REMOVAL, OR CONCEALMENT OF WRITING / DECEPTIVE PREPARATION AND MARKETING OF ACADEMIC PRODUCT

A

PROPERTY CRIMES

549
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR FALSE REPORT REGARDING MISSING CHILD OR MISSING PERSON / FALSE ALARM OR REPORT / CRUELTY TO ANIMALS / ATTACK ON AN ASSISTANCE ANIMAL / DESTRUCTION OF FLAG

A

PROPERTY CRIMES

550
Q

WHAT TYPE OF COMPLAINTS INCLUDE, BUT ARE NOT LIMITED TO

1) CALL RESPONSE TIMES - NOT DUE TO OFFICERS NEGLIGENCE
2) HANDLING OF A CIVIL MATTER - DUE TO DEPARTMENT POLICY OR CIVIL LAW
3. DISCRETIONARY CALL SCREENING
4. UNAVAILABILITY OR DELAY OF POLICE SERVICES
5. ANY OTHER COMPLAINT THAT DOES NOT VIOLATE POLICY OR PROCEDURE OR INVOLVE OFFICER MISCONDUCT?

A

SERVICE COMPLAINTS

551
Q

HOW MANY DAYS OF SUSPENSION IS NOT CONSIDERED DISCIPLINE?

A

ANYTHING LESS THAN (1) ONE DAY IS NOT CONSIDERED DISCIPLINE

552
Q

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF LINE COMPLAINTS AND HOW DO THEY DIFFER?

A

TYPE “A” & TYPE “B” COMPLAINT

TYPE “A” REQUEST CONTACT BY THR SWORN MEMBER’S SUPERVISOR

553
Q

WHO CAN ADDRESS THE SWORN MEMBER’S BEHAVIOR WITH COUNSELING, A WRITTEN REPRIMAND, OR A SUSPENSION OF UP TO THREE CALENDAR DAYS?

A

THE SECTION COMMANDER, WITH CONCURRENCE FROM THE DIVISION COMMANDER

554
Q

WHAT INFORMATION IS RESTRICTED FROM THE PUBLIC PORTION OF THE REPORT?

A
  1. MATTERS RELATING TO INVESTIGATIVE TECHNIQUES OR PROCEDURES
  2. OPINIONS OR JUDGMENTS OF THE OFFICER
  3. FACTS TENDING TO IDENTIFY SUSPECTS OR INFORMANTS.
  4. INFORMATION WHICH SHOULD BE CONFIDENTIAL AND WHICH RELATES TO A CONTINUING INVESTIGATION
555
Q

WHRN CAN SLANG, PROFANITY, COLLOQUIAL EXPRESSIONS, OR INSULTING RACIAL TERMINOLOGY BE INCLUDED IN A REPORT?

A

WHEN THE LANGUAGE IS A QUOTATION AND IS ESSENTIAL TO THE INVESTIGATION, A PART OF THE OFFENSE, OR RELATED TO THE OFFICER’S ACTIONS.

556
Q

WHEN ARE OFFICERS REQUIRES TO, OR “WILL” TAKE IMMEDIATE ACTION?

A

TO PREVENT ANY OBVIOUS FELONY OFFENSE, EXCEPT EVADING IN A MOTOR VEHICLE, OR TO ARREST, IF REASONABLY POSSIBLE, ANY KNOWN FELONY OFFENDER, AND TO PROTECT ALL PERSONS AND PROPERTY FROM IMMINENT HARM

557
Q

WHO CAN GIVE WRITTEN AUTHORITY TO A MEMBER TO SOLICIT FUNDS FOR THE BENEFIT OF ANY MEMBER, THE DEPARTMENT, OR ANY OTHER PUBLIC OR PRIVATE AGENCY?

(SCHOOL SHIT / GIRL SCOUT COOKIES)

A

THE CHIEF OF POLICE
MEMBERS WILL NOT SOLICIT FUNDS FOR THE BENEFIT OF ANY MEMBER, THE DEPARTMENT, OR ANY OTHER PUBLIC OR PRIVATE AGENCY WITHOUT THE WRITTEN AUTHORITY OF THE CHIEF OF POLICE

558
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGE -OR- CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE, WHICH WHEN INTRODUCED INTO THE BODY, MAY CAUSE AN IMPAIRMENT OF ANY MANTAL OR PHYSICAL CAPACITY?

A

INTOXICANT

559
Q

MEMBERS WILL NOT MANIPULATE PHOTOGRAPHS, HOWEVER, ANY REQUIRED ENHANCEMENTS TO COPIES OF THE ORIGINAL EVIDENTIARY PHOTOGRAPHIC OR DIGITAL IMAGES WILL BE DONE BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
A) THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT DETECTIVE
B) THE PHOTO SERVICES LAB
C) THE REPORTING OFFICER
D) THE CRIME-SCENE INVESTIGATOR RESPONSIBLE FOR THE PHOTOS

A

B) THE PHOTO SERVICES LAB

560
Q

THE IMAGE DOWNLOADED TO A SINGLE-WRITE MEDIA AND SENT TO THE PHOTO SERVICES LAB FOR IMAGE STORAGE BECOMES THE ORIGINAL AND WILL BE MARKED AS WHAT?
(IS DESIGNATED AS THE “________”)

A

“MASTER”

561
Q

WHO IS THE CENTRAL DEPOSITORY FOR EVIDENTIARY PHOTOGRAPHIC DIGITAL IMAGES?

A

THE PHOTO SERVICES LAB

562
Q

WHAT AMOUNT OF FORCE CAN AN OFFICER WHO HAS USED PHYSICAL FORCE WHICH HAS BEEN PROVEN INEFFECTIVE OR IS NOT EVEN A REASONABLE OPTION BASED UPON THE CIRCUMSTANCES AUTHORIZED TO USE TO AFFECT AN ARREST?

A

AN INTERMEDIATE WEAPON

563
Q

WHEN MAY OFFICERS RESORT TO THE USE OF AN APPROVED INTERMEDIATE WEAPON?

A

1) LESSER METHODS HAVE FAILED
2) IN SELF-DEFENSE OR DEFENSE OF A THIRD PERSON
3) SUBDUING OR CONTROLLING A VIOLENT SUBJECT
4) SUBDUING AN ACTIVELY RESISTING ACTOR
5) PHYSICAL FORCE HAS PROVEN INEFFECTIVE OR IS NOT A REASONABLE OPTION BASED UPON THE CIRCUMSTANCES

564
Q

GM - LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE
WHO SHALL HAVE THE POWER TO TAKE DISCIPLINARY ACTION OR SUSPEND INDEFINITELY AN OFFICER UNDER HIS SUPERVISION FOR A VIOLATION OF EITHER CHAPTER 143 OF THE LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE. THE CIVIL SERVICE RULES OF THE CITY OF SAN ANTONIO OR THE GENERAL MANUAL RULES AND REGULATIONS?

A

THE CHIEF OF THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENT

565
Q

WHO SHALL BE EMPOWERED TO TAKE DISCIPLINARY ACTION OR SUSPEND INDEFINITELY ANY OTHER POLICE EMPLOYEE FOR VIOLATIONS OF THE GENERAL-MANUAL RULES AND REGULATIONS?

A

THE CHIEF OF THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENT

566
Q

WHO REVIEWS THE COMPLAINANTS POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION RESULTS?

FORMAL COMPLAINTS TO THE CHIEF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD

A

THE CHIEF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD AND THE CHIEF OF POLICE

567
Q

WHO REVIEWS THE SWORN MEMBER’S POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION RESULTS?
(FORMAL COMPLAINTS TO THE CHIEF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD)

A

ONLY THE CHIEF OF POLICE

568
Q

WHAT IS THE POLYGRAPH CONSIDERED AND HOW MAY IT BE USED AS BY THE DEPARTMENT WHEN THE INTRODUCTION OF THE POLYGRAPH APPEARS NECESSARY FOR THE INVESTIGATION OF A CITIZEN’S COMPLAINT?

A

IT IS A USEFUL INVESTIGATIVE RESOURCE USED AS AN ADMINISTRATIVE TOOL

569
Q

WHEN A POLYGRAPH IS CONSIDERED AND INTRODUCED FOR THE INVESTIGATION OF A CITIZEN’S COMPLAINT, WHO IS THE FIRST TO BE ADMINISTERED THE POLYGRAPH?
A) THE COMPLAINANT
B) THE OFFICER
C) THE CHIEF OF POLICE TO VERIFY THE TEST
D) A LICENSED NON-MEMBER EXAMINER

A

(A) THE COMPLAINANT
THE COMPLAINANT IS FIRST EXAMINED AND ONLY WHEN THE COMPLAINANT’S RESULTS INDICATE TRUTHFULNESS A SWORN MEMBER WILL BE ADMINISTERED THE TEST

570
Q

WHO ADMINISTERS A POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION TO A SWORN MEMBER AND CAN THE SWORN MEMBER BE IN UNIFORM DURING THE POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION?

A

A LICENSED NON-MEMBER EXAMINER

THE POLYGRAPH EXAMINER SHALL NOT BE ADMINISTERED TO AN OFFICER WHILE IN UNIFORM TO AVOIF UNDUE EMBARRASSMENT

571
Q

WHAT RANK CAN A SWORN MEMBER OF THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT, HOLDING THE RANK OF SERGEANT OR ABOVE, WHEN CONDUCTING AN INTERVIEW REQUEST, OR ORDER IF NECESSARY, TO SUBMIT A WRITTEN REPORT, ANSWER INTERROGATIONS, PROVIDE PHYSICAL EVIDENCE, OR OTHERWISE COOPERATE IN ANY MANNER WITH INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT PERSONNEL DURING AN INVESTIGATION?

A

A SWORN MEMBER OF ANY RANK

572
Q

WHAT FORM OF ALLEGED MISCONDUCT DO SUPERVISORY OFFICERS CONDUCT FORMAL OR LINE COMPLAINT INTERVIEWS?

A

NON-CRIMINAL MISCONDUCT

573
Q

MAY A SWORN MEMBER REQUEST A SUPERVISORY OFFICER ACCOMPANY HIM TO A COMPLAINT INTERVIEW CONDUCTED BY THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT?

A

YES, HOWEVER THIS REQUEST IS NOT BINDING ON THE SUPERVISORY OFFICER

574
Q

WHAT FORM SHALL BE USED TO WRITE A RESPONSE TO A COMPLAINT WHEN ASKED TO WRITE A REPORT BY A SUPERVISOR?

A

SHALL BE WRITTEN ON SAPD FORM #200-OR OFFICER’S RESPONSE TO A COMPLAINT, WHICH HAS THE GARITY WARNING ON IT, AND SUBMITTED TO THE SUPERVISORY OFFICER.

575
Q

WHO SHALL TAKE WRITTEN STATEMENTS FROM COMPLAINANTS WHO WISH TO MAKE A SIGNED SWORN COMPLAINT AGAINST A SWORN MEMBER OF THE DEPARTMENT?

A

BY SUPERVISORY OFFICERS ASSIGNED TO THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT

576
Q

ARE COMPLAINANTS ADVISED BY SUPERVISORY OFFICERS THAT THE DEPARTMENT MAY NOT IMPLEMENT FORMAL DISCIPLINARY ACTIONS AGAINST SWORN MEMBERS WITHOUT A signed sworn complaint?

A

YES - THEY SHALL BE ADVISED BY SUPERVISORY OFFICERS, HOWEVER ORAL COMPLAINTS MAY RECEIVE SUPERVISORY REVIEW APPROPRIATE TO THE ALLEGATIONS.

577
Q

WHO SHALL REVIEW THE CHIEF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD AND CHIEF’S CITY VEHICLE ACCIDENT ADVISORY ACTION BOARD RECOMMENDATIONS FOR DISCIPLINE AND IMPLEMENTS SUCH ACTION AS HE DEEMS APPROPRIATE IN EACH INDIVIDUAL CASE OR MAY IMPLEMENT, AT HIS DISCRETION, IMMEDIATE ADMINISTRATIVE OR DISCIPLINARY ACTION W/O THE ACTION BOARDS PARTICIPATION AND HAS ULTIMATE DISCRETION TO DECIDE WHETHER DISCIPLINE SHOULD BE IMPLEMENTED AGAINST A SWORN MEMBER?

A

THE CHIEF OF POLICE

578
Q

WHO SHALL REVIEW DISCIPLINARY CASES INVESTIGATED BY INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT PRIOR TO THEIR SUBMISSION TO THE CHEI’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD AND FUNCTIONS IN AN ADVISORY CAPACITY TO THE CHEIF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD AND CHEIF’S CITY VEHICLE ACCIDENT ADVISORY ACTION BOARD FOR THE PURPOSE OF LEGAL INTERPRETATION OF ANY SOURCE WHICH REGULATES A SWORN MEMBER’S CONDUCT?

A

THE POLICE LEGAL ADVISOR

579
Q

WHAT ARE THE FOUR OBJECTIVES OF THE CHEIF’S ADVISORY ACTION BOARD WHICH ARE DESIGNED TO DEAL WITH DISCIPLINARY PROBLEMS AS EQUITABLY AS POSSIBLE IN PURSUING THE ACHIEVEMENT OF THE FOUR OBJECTIVES?

A

1) CORRECT THE BEHAVIOR OF AN INDIVIDUAL SWORN MEMBER WHO IS NOT IN CONFORMANCE WITH DEPARTMENTAL STANDARDS OR OBJECTIVES.
2) INSTILL A PREVENTATIVE AFFECT FOR ANY OTHER SWORN MEMBER WHO MAY BE ENGAGED IN OR CONTEMPLATING SIMILAR MISCONDUCT.
3) DEMONSTRATE THAT COMPLIANCE WITH DEPARTMENTAL MANDATES IS UNIFORMLY REQUIRED OF EACH SWORN MEMBER.
4) PROMOTE MAKING THE DISCIPLINARY PROCESS TRANSPARENT AND STRESS THE IMPORTANCE OF COMMUNITY INVOLVEMENT.

580
Q

PSYCHOLOGICAL SERVICES OFFICE PROVIDES COUNSELING TO OFFICERS. IN WHAT AREAS (INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO) WOULD AN OFFICER BE PROVIDED COUNSELING FOR?

A

SUBSTANCE ABUSE; DEPRESSION; SUICIDAL THOUGHTS; PHYSICAL PROBLEMS RELATED TO STRESS; PANIC ATTACKS; TEMPER CONTROL PROBLEMS; EATING DISORDERS; FAMILY CONFLICTS; SMOKING HABITS

581
Q

CAN THE REQUEST FOR PSYCHOLOGICAL COUNSELING BE MADE BY SELF-REFERRAL, A FAMILY MEMBER, OR AN OFFICER’S SUPERVISOR?

A

YES

582
Q

CAN THE CHIEF OF POLICE ORDER COUNSELING FOR A FAMILY DISTURBANCE / VIOLENCE INCIDENT?

A

YES

583
Q

WHAT MEANS SWORN OFFICERS / PERSONNEL OF THE DEPARTMENT WHO HAVE ATTAINED THE RANK OF SERGEANT OR ABOVE?

A

SUPERVISORY OFFICERS

584
Q

WHO MAY ORDER MEMBERS TO SEEK MEDICAL OR PSYCHOLOGICAL SERVICES?

A

THE CHIEF OF POLICE

585
Q

WHAT MEANS ALL EMPLOYEES OF THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENT?

A

MEMBERS

586
Q

IF VERBAL COMMUNICATION HAS BEEN EXHAUSTED OR PROVEN INEFFECTIVE, WHAT ARE OFFICER’S AUTHORIZED TO USE FOR THE USE OF FORCE CONTINUUM?

A

OPEN/EMPTY HANDS CONTROL

587
Q

INSTEAD OF PROLONGED COMBAT OR STRUGGLE IN ORDER TO SATIFY ANY ELEMENT OF ESCALATION, WHAT CAN AN OFFICER DO?

A

USE A REASONABLE METHOD THAT RESOLVES THE SITUATION IN THE SAFEST AND MOST EXPEDIENT FASHION

588
Q

WHAT AMOUNT OF FORCE CAN BE USED IF OPEN/EMPTY HANDED CONTROL HAS BEEN EXHAUSTED OR PROVEN INEFFECTIVE IN THE USE OF FORCE CONTINUUM?

A

PHYSICAL FORCE

589
Q

WHAT GENERALLY CONSTITUTE DISCIPLINARY MATTERS LIMITED TO INVOLVING MINOR VARIANCES FROM THE ROUTINE ACTIVITIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE SWORN MEMBER?

A

LINE COMPLAINTS

590
Q

WHAT GENERALLY CONSTITUTE MATTERS INVOLVING CONDUCT THAT EXHIBIT SIGNIFICANT VARIANCES FROM BEHAVIORAL EXPECTATIONS ESTABLISHED THREW FORMAL TRAINING, DEPARTMENTAL RULES, REGULATIONS, POLICIES, OR PROCEDURES WHICH REGULATE A SWORN MEMBERS CONDUCT?

A

FORMAL COMPLAINTS

591
Q

WHAT CONSTITUTE CITIZEN DISSATISFACTION WITH POLICE SERVICES FOR REASONS OTHER THAN COMPLAINTS OF OFFICER MISCONDUCT?

A

SERVICE COMPLAINTS

592
Q

WHO ARE PSYCHOLOGICAL SERVICES AVAILABLE TO?

__________ AND ____________

A

INDIVIDUAL OFFICERS AND THEIR FAMILIES

THROUGH EVALUATION, COUNSELING, AND CONSULTATION

593
Q

WHAO CAN MAKE NON-MANDATORY EVALUATION REQUESTS AND WHAT WOULD BE THE REASONS FOR SUCH A REQUEST?

A

NON-MANDATORY EVALUATIONS MAY BE REQUESTED BY AN OFFICER’S SUPERVISOR WHEN THERE IS A NOTICEABLE - CHANGE IN AN OFFICER’S ON-THE-JOB PERFORMANCE
1) INCREASE OF USE OF SICK LEAVE / 2) AN INCREASE IN NUMBER OF CITIZEN COMPLAINTS / 3) FREQUENTLY REPORTING LATE FOR WORK / 4) AN INCREASE IN SARCASTIC OR ABUSIVE REMARKS TOWARD FELLOW OFFICERS / 5) WITHDRAWAL FROM OTHER OFFICERS / 6) DECLINE IN PERSONAL APPEARANCE / 7) DECREASE IN IMPULSE CONTROL / 8) DECREASE IN PRODUCTIVITY / 9) DECREASE IN QUALITY OF WRITTEN REPORTS

594
Q

WHO MAY REQUEST A VOLUNTARY EVALUATION BASED ON AN OFFICER’S STRESS LEVEL, AN OFFICER’S OR FAMILY MEMBERS NON-JOB RELATED EMOTIONAL, COGNITIVE, OR BEHAVIORAL FUNCTIONING ISSUE AND AN OFFICER’S NEUROPSYCHOLOGICAL INTEGRITY - HEAD INJURY?

A

AN OFICER OR AN OFFICER’S IMMEDIATE FAMILY MAY REQUEST VOLUNTARY EVALUATIONS

595
Q

WHEN SHALL AN OFICER COMPLETE AN SAPD FORM #62 -UOF, USE OF FORCE, REPORT? UNDER WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES?

A
  • ANY FORCE GREATER THAN OPEN/EMPTY HANDS CONTROL TECHNIQUE / ANY FORCE THAT CAUSES INJURY TO AN INDIVIDUAL WHICH REQUIRES MEDICAL TREATMENT / ANY FORCE THAT CAUSES DEATH TO AN INDIVIDUAL / DISCHARGING A FIREARM AT AN INDIVIDUAL TO ACCOMPLISH A LAWFUL POLICE OBJECTIVE / THE USE OF AN INTERMEDIATE WEAPON / WHEN A POLICE CANINE BITES AN INDIVIDUAL
596
Q

WHAT DOES NOT REQUIRE THE COMPLETION OF SAPD FORM #62 - UOF, USE OF FORCE REPORT, BUT MUST HAVE THE DETAILS DOCUMENTED INTHE OFFICER’S REPORT?

A

OFFICER’S PRESENCE, VERBAL COMMUNICATIONS, OPEN/EMPTY HANDS CONTROL TECHNIQUES, BRANDISHING OR DISPLAYING OF A WEAPON
ALSO THE DISCHARGING OF A FIREARM IN ORDER TO DESTROY AN ANIMAL.

597
Q

EVEN IF AN OFFICER DOES NOT USE MORE THAN OPEN/EMPTY HAND CONTROL TECHNIQUES, WHAT FORM WILL THE OFFICER CHECK THE APPROPRIATE BOX ON FOR A PRISONER WHO RESISTED DURING ARREST?

A

THE BOOKING SLIP

598
Q

WHEN STOPPING A VIOLATOR, HOW SHOULD THE OFFICER POSITION THE POLICE VEHICLE AND WHAT SHOULD THE OFFICER CREATE FOR THE MVR - MOBILE VIDEO RECORDING / VEHICLE CAMERA?

A

APPROXIMATELY TWO (2) CAR LENTHS BEHIND THE SUSPECT’S VEHICLE IN ORDER TO CREATE A PROPER ARENA OF PERFORMANCE

599
Q

CAN A MVR, MOBILE VIDEO RECORDING, MATERIAL BE USED FOR TRAINING MATERIAL IF DEEMED BENEFICIAL?

A

OFFICERS / SUPERVISORS AWARE OF RECORDED FILES CONTAINING MATERIAL THAT MAYBE DEEMED BENEFICIAL AS TRAINING MATERIAL, SHALL DIRECT NOTIFICATION UP THE CHAIN OF COMMAND. THE TRAINING ACADEMY COMMANDER MAY, WITH THE APPROVAL OF THE CHIEF OF POLICE, USE SUCH RECORDINGS FOR TRAINING PURPOSES, PENDING JUDICIAL AND/OR ADMINISTRATIVE INVESTIGATIONS MUST BE TAKEN INTO CONSIDERATION

600
Q

SUPERVISORS WILL REVIEW AT A MINIMUM, ON A QUARTERLY BASIS, HOW MANY MINUTES OF RECORDING SAMPLING FOR ALL OFFICER UNDER THEIR COMMAND?

A

(30) THIRTY MINUTES

601
Q

WHAT WILL BE RECORDED ON THE MEDIA CARD (SAPD FORM # 168, PHOTO BOARD)?

A

AN IMAGE DEPICTING THE CASE NUMBER OR NAME OF THE EVENT, THE DATE, THE LOCATION, AND PHOTOGRAPHER

602
Q

WHEN CAN DIGITAL PHOTOGRAPHS BE TAKEN WITH PERSONAL EQUIPMENT AND UNDER THIS EXCEPTION WHO WILL THE EVIDENCE BE THE PROPERTY OF?

A

CIRCUMSTANCES ARE OF SUCH A CRITICAL NATURE THAT PHOTOGRAPHIC IMAGES ARE IMMEDIATELY REQUIRED AND DEPARTMENT-APPROVED DIITAL PHOTOGRAPHIC EQUIPMENT IS NOT READILY AVAILABLE.
PROPERTY OF THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE DEPARTMENT

603
Q

IN THE EVENT OF AN EMERGENCY REQUEST FOR A HOLD OF A MASTER OR DATA TAPE, CAN THE SYSTEMS SPECIALIST AND INFORMATION SYSTEMS OFFICE HONOR VERBAL REQUESTS AND IF SO, HOW LONG WOULD THEY HOLD THE MASTER OR DATA TAPE FOR?

A

THE SYSTEMS SPECIALIST AND INFORMATION SYSTEMS OFFICER HONOR VERBAL REQUESTS FOR (5) FIVE WORKING DAYS, CAN BE EXTENDED.

604
Q

HOW MANY DAYS PRIOR TO THE EXPIRATION OF A HOLD WILL THE SYSTEM SPECIALIST OR INFORMATION SYSTEMS OFFICE PREPARE A WRITTEN CORRESPONDENCE DIRECTED TO THE COMMANDER OF A UNIT HAVING AN ACTIVE HOLD ON A TAPE?

A

(10) - TEN DAYS PRIOR

605
Q

ARE MEMBERS / OFFICERS OF THE DEPARTMENT REQUIRED TO POSSESS A DRIVER’S LICENSE?

A

EVERY OFFICER IS RESPONSIBLE FOR HAVING IN HIS POSSESSION A VALID VEHICLE OPERATORS LICENSE

606
Q

IF A SUPERVISORY OFFICER NEEDS TO LISTEN TO OR OBTAIN A COPY OF A TAPE DUE TO AN EMERGENCY, HE SHALL CONTACT WHO?

A

COMMUNICATIONS UNIT SUPERVISOR

607
Q

WHO FORWARDS THE REQUEST TO THE UNIT RESPONSIBLE FOR THE INVESTIGATION, THE DEPARTMENT LEGAL ADVISOR, AND KEEPS THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF ADVISED ON ALL REQUESTS FOR COMMUNICATIONS RECORDED INFORMATION?

A

THE POLICE MEDIA SERVICE DETAIL

608
Q

WHO DETERMINES AND RESPONDS WITHIN (10) - TEN BUSINESS DAYS TO THE REQUEST FOR COMMUNICATIONS RECORDED INFORMATION AND PREPARES WRITTEN CORRESPONDENCE, ADDRESSED TO THE POLICE MEDIA SERVICE DETAIL?

A

THE DEPARTMENT LEGAL ADVISOR

609
Q

WHEN A SEXUAL ASSAULT OR INDECENCY WITH A CHILD IS REPORTED TO THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE, CAN AN N-CODE 6 BE USED FOR AN OUT OF JURISDICTION CASE?

A

NO
NCODE 6 IS NOT USED!!!
(CAN NOT N-CODE SEXUAL ASSAULT COMPLAINTS)

610
Q

WHEN A SEXUAL ASSAULT OR INDECENCY WITH A CHILD IS REPORTED TO THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE THAT IS OUT OF THE SAPD JURISDICTION, WHAT OFFENSE CODE IS USED FOR AN OUT OF JURISDICTION CASE?

A

THE OFFENSE CODE IS 110010 - OUTSIDE JURISDICTION

611
Q

WHO WILL NOTIFY THE PROPER JURISDICTION WHEN A SEXUAL ASSAULT OR INDECENCY WITH A CHILD IS REPORTED TO THE SAN ANTONIO POLICE, THAT HAS AN OFFENSE CODE OF 110010- OUTSIDE JURISDICTION?

A

SVU (SPECIAL VICTIMS UNIT)

612
Q

WITHIN HOW MANY HOURS AFTER THE SEXUAL ASSAULT OCCURRED SHALL THE OFFICER REQUEST THE VICTIM UNDERGO A PHYSICAL EXAMINATION FOR BOTH AN ADULT AND CHILD?

A

WITHIN NINETY-SIX (96) HOURS

613
Q

WHAT IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR TEXAS CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE ACT / SIMULATED CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES / DANGEROUS DRUGS / ABUSABLE VOLATILE CHEMICALS / 34.02 - MONEY LAUNDERING ~ NARCOTICS RELATED /PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES IN CORRECTIONAL FACILITY OR ON PROPERTY OF TDCJ

A

NARCOTICS

614
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR FORGERY /TRADEMARK COUNTERFEITING /STEALING OR RECEIVING STOLEN CHECK OR SIMILAR SIGHT ORDER / CREDIT CARD TRANSACTION / RECORD LAUNDERING / ISSUANCE OF A BAD CHECK / FRAUDULENT USE OR POSSESSION OF IDENTIFYING INFORMATION / TAMPERING WITH GOVERNMENT RECORD

A

FORGERY

615
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR RIGGING PUBLICLY EXHIBITED CONTEST / GAMBLING / GAMBLING PROMOTION / KEEPING A GAMBLING PLACE / COMMUNICATING GAMBLING INFORMATION / POSSESSION OF GAMBLING DEVICE, EQUIPMENT, OR PARAPHERNALIA / SMOKING TOBACCO / PROHIBITIONS RELATING TO CERTAIN CIGARETTES

A

VICE UNIT

616
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR PROHIBITION OF THE PURCHASE AND SALE OF HUMAN ORGANS?

A

VICE

617
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR PUBLIC INTOXICATION?

A

VICE

618
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR CONSUMPTION OR POSSESSION OF ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES IN A MOTOR VEHICLE?

A

VICE

619
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR DOG FIGHTING?

A

VICE

620
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR PROSTITUTION, PROMOTION OF PROSTITUTION / AGGRAVATED PROMOTION OF PROSTITUTION / COMPELLING PROSTITUTION / REGULATORY AND PENAL PROVISION - ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGE CODE - TITLE 4

A

VICE

621
Q

WHO IS THE FOLLOW-UP UNIT FOR OBSCENE DISPLAY OR DISTRIBUTION / OBSCENITY / SALE, DISTRIBUTION, OR DISPLAY OF HARMFUL MATERIAL TO A MINOR / SEXUAL PERFORMANCE BY A CHILD / EMPLOYMENT HARMFUL TO CHILDREN / POSSESSION OR PROMOTION OF CHILD PORNOGRAPHY?

A

VICE UNIT

622
Q

WHAT ARE THE GENERAL MANUAL RULES DESIGNED FOR / TO DO?

A

TO PROMOTE EFFICIENCY, DISCIPLINE, AND GOOD PUBLIC RELATIONS

623
Q

WHAT ARE THE GENERAL MANUAL RULES AND REGULATIONS OFFICIALLY ADOPTED AND SET FORTH FOR?

A

THE GUIDANCE, REGULATION, AND CONTROL OF THE CONDUCT OF ALL MEMBERS OF THE POLICE DEPARTMENT OF THE CITY OF SAN ANTONIO, TEXAS.

624
Q

WHEN ARE MEMBERS REQUIRED TO FOLLOW OR ADHERE TO THE GENERAL MANUAL RULES AND REGULATIONS SET FORTH AND POLICIES GOVERNING THE CONDUCT AND DEMEANOR OF EVERY MEMBER OF THE POLICE DEPARTMENT?

A

BOTH ON AND OFF DUTY

625
Q

WHAT ARE THE RESTRICTIONS ON ACTIVITIES A MEMBER CAN DO WHILE A MEMBER IF THE DEPARTMENT IS SICK, INJURED, OR ON LIMITED DUTY?

A
  • SICKREMAIN AT RESIDENCE - EXCEPT TO GO TO THE DOCTOR, HOSPITAL, OR PHARMACY *NOTIFY SUPERVISOR IF NECESSARY TO STAY AT SOME OTHER LOCATION
  • INJURED*NO EXTRA EMPLOYMENT - MUST COMPLETE ONE REGULAR TOUR OF DUTY - MAYBE WAVED IN AN EMERGENCY
  • LIMITED OR LIGHT DUTY STATUS*WILL NOT ENGAGE IN “ANY OFF-DUTY EMPLOYMENT OR WORK ANY OVERTIME FOR THE CITY. OVERTIME RESTRICTIONS MAY BE WAVED DURING AN EMERGENCY
626
Q

WHO IS GIVEN NOTICE THAT A MEMBER IS SICK OR INJURED AND CANNOT REPORT FOR DUTY?

A

IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR

627
Q

ACCORDING TO THE COLLECTIVE BARGAINING AGREEMENT: PURSUANT TO ARTICLE VII OF THE AGREEMENT, WHO SHALL HAVE THE EXCLUSIVE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH, RESPOND, OR MODIFY DEPARTMENTAL RULES AND REGULATIONS WHILE SUCH CONTRACT IS IN EFFECT?

A

THE CHIEF OF THE POLICE DEPARTMENT SUBJECT TO REVIEW BY THE CITY MANAGER AND REVIEWED BY THE FIRE AND POLICE CIVIL SERVICE COMMISSION AND THE CITY MANAGER

628
Q

WHAT TYPE OF COMPLAINTS INCLUDE BUT ARE NOT LIMITED TO:

1) ACTIVITIES THAT DEAL WITH SIGNIFICANT BEHAVIORAL INFRACTIONS
2) ANY CONDUCT THAT IF PROVEN WOULD CONSTITUTE A CRIME
3) ANY CONDUCT THAT EXHIBITS THE POTENTIAL TO REQUIRE STRINGENT DISCIPLINARY ACTION IN THE FORM OF A SUSPENSION THAT EXCEEDS (3) THREE CALENDAR DAYS?
4) ANY ALLEGATION OF HARASSMENT/DISCRIMINATION
5) ANY ALLEGATION OF RACIAL PROFILING
6) ANY ALLEGATION OF UNNECESSARY OR EXCESSIVE FORCE
7) ANY OTHER INCIDENT THAT MAY REQUIRE FORMAL DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS IN ORDER TO BE PROPERLY RESOLVED

A

FORMAL COMPLAINTS

629
Q

WHAT LEVEL OF A CRIMINAL OFFENSE IN ANY STATE DOES ANY MEMBER ARRESTED, CHARGED WITH, OR INDICTED FOR HAVE TO REPORT?

A

THAT WHICH IS ABOVE THE LEVEL OF A CLASS “C” MISDEMEANOR - AND A CLASS “C” WHEN IT IS INVOLVING THE DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE OFFICER

630
Q

WHO DOES THE MEMBER REPORT A CRIMINAL OFFENSE IN ANY STATE WHERE A MEMBER ARRESTED, CHARGED WITH, OR INDICTED FOR ABOVE A CLASS”C” MISDEMEANOR HAVE TO REPORT IT TO?

A

WITH WRITTEN NOTIFICATION TO THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF OF POLICE

631
Q

WHAT MUST THE MEMBER REPORT A CRIMINAL OFFENSE IN ANY STATE WHERE A MEMBER ARRESTED, CHARGED WITH, OR INDICTED FOR ABOVE A CLASS”C” MISDEMEANOR HAVE TO REPORT TO THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF OF POLICE PROVIDE WHEN REPORTING THE OFFENSE?

A

THE NAME OF THE ARRESTING AGENCY
A DESCRIPTION OF THE NATURE OF THE CHARGES
AND THE STYLE, COURT, AND CAUSE NUMBER OF THE CHARGE OR INDICTMENT IF ANY

632
Q

WHAT TWO SOURCES ARE CASES PRESENTED TO THE BOARD FOR CONSIDERATION DERIVED FROM?

A

1) THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS UNIT AS A FORMAL COMPLAINT

2) THE CHIEF OF POLICE, WHO MAY WISH THE BOARD CONSIDER A MATTER

633
Q

IS A RESPONDENT’S ABSENCE AT ANY BOARD HEARING CONSIDERED IN THE FINAL DELIBERATION AND DOES HIS ABSENCE HAVE ANY BEARING ON THE OUTCOME OF A BOARD HEARING?

A

ABSENCE OF THE RESPONDENT IS NOT CONSIDERED AND HAS NO BEARING ON THE OUTCOME IN THE FINAL DELIBERATIONS

634
Q

MAY A RESPONDENT HAVE AN ATTORNEY, A REPRESENTATIVE, OR A SUPERVISOR PRESENT DURING A BOARD HEARING?

A

RESPONDENT MAY NOT HAVE AN ATTORNEY OR REPRESENTATIVE PRESENT, BUT MAY REQUEST A SUPERVISOR PRESENT WHO MAY PROVIDE INPUT IF REQUESTED BY THE BOARD. SUPERVISORS APPEARANCE IS VOLUNTARY AND NON-REMUNERATED

635
Q

HANDLING SEXUAL ASSAULTS

WHAT IS FAXED TO THE SPECIAL VICTIMS UNIT PRIOR TO THE END OF THE OFFICER’S TOUR OF DUTY?

A

A COPY OF THE OFFENSE REPORT IS FAXED ALONG WITH THE SAPD FORM #2089-PSA, IF USED.
PSEUDONYM FORM
ORIGINAL TO SVU IN PERSON OR IN A SEALED ENVELOPE (BIN MAIL)

636
Q

WHAT HOSPITALS SHOULD ADULT AND CHILDREN SEXUAL ASSAULT VICTIMS BE REQUESTED TO GO FOR A SANE EXAM IF THE SEXUAL ASSAULT OCCURRED WITHIN 96 HOURS OF THE REPORT.

A

METHODIST SPECIALTY AND TRANSPLANT HOSPITAL AT 8026 FLOYD CURL DR - 17 YRS AND OLDER
CHRISTUS SANTA ROSA CHILDREN’S HOSPITAL 16 YRS & YOUNGER
16 YR AND YOUNGER BY PARENTAL REQUEST CAN GO TO METHODIST IF THE CHILD IS OVER 13 YEARS OF AGE.

637
Q

HOW CAN OFFICERS RECEIVING A CALL FOR CHILD SEXUAL / PHYSICAL ABUSE NOTIFY CHILD PROTECTIVE SERVICES?

A

CALL THE SPECIALTY INTAKE HOTLINE FOR LE 1-800-877-5300
MAKE A REPORT ONLINE @ WWW.REPORTABUSE.WEB
FAX A COPY OF THE OFFICER’S REPORT TO 1-800-647-7410

638
Q

REGARDLESS OF WHETHER A PSEUDONYM IS USED, WHAT INFORMATION REGARDING THE VICTIM OF SEXUAL ABUSE / ASSAULT MUST BE INCLUDED ON THE OFFENSE REPORT?

A

THE DATE OF BIRTH AND SEX OF THE VICTIM

639
Q

WHAT INFORMATION IS OMITTED IF A PSEUDONYM IS CHOSEN ON A SEXUAL ASSAULT REPORT?

A

THE NAME OF THE VICTIM, HOME ADDRESS, AND TELEPHONE NUMBER - OR - ANY ADDRESS OR NUMBER THE VICTIM CAN BE FOUND AT OR CALLED

640
Q

IS ANY REPORT DETAILING CHILD PHYSICAL/SEXUAL ABUSE RELEASED AS PUBLIC INFORMATION?

A

IT IS NOT RELEASABLE AS PUBLIC INFORMATION.

641
Q

MAY THE RESPONDENT MAKE A GRIEVANCE FOR A FAILURE TO RECEIVE NOTICE OF A HEARING BY THE BOARD?

A

THE RESPONDENT MAY NOT GRIEVE THE FAILURE TO RECEIVE NOTICE OF A HEARING BY THE BOARD, UNLESS THE FAILURE IS ALLEGED TO HAVE BEEN INTENTIONAL.

642
Q

WHAT SHALL THE CHAIRMAN ADVISE THE RESPONDENT OF WHEN A RESPONDENT APPEARS BEFORE THE BOARD?

A
  1. TESTIMONY IS VOLUNTARY
  2. RULES AND DECORUM OF THE PROCEEDINGS
  3. QUESTIONS MAY BE ASKED BY BOARD MEMBERS
  4. THEIR DECISION TO SPEAK MAY BE WITHDRAWN AT ANY TIME WITHOUT INFERENCE OR PENALTY
643
Q

AFTER THE INFORMAL DISCUSSION CONFINED TO THE FACTS OF THE CASE AND INFORMATION PRESENT AS A RESULT OF THE I.A. INVESTIGATION AND TESTIMONY, IF PROVIDED, WHAT TWO DETERMINATIONS ARE MADE?

A
  1. READY TO VOTE

2. FURTHER INVESTIGATION IS REQUIRED AND THE CASE IS RETURNED TO THE INVESTIGATIVE SOURCE

644
Q

DURING A BOARD HEARING AND DISCUSSIONS, ARE DISCUSSIONS REGARDING THE RESPONDENTS CHARACTER PERMITTED?

A

DISCUSSIONS REGARDING THE RESPONDENTS CHARACTER IS NOT PERMITTED.

645
Q

LIST THE ACCEPTABLE METHODS FOR THE IDENTIFICATION PROCESS/METHODS FROM MOST PREFERRED TO LEAST PREFERRED?

A

1) PHOTOGRAPHIC LINE-UP CONDUCTED BY A BLIND ADMINISTRATOR
2) PHOTOGRAPHIC LINE-UP CONDUCTED BY A BLINDED ADMINISTRATOR, USING THE FOLDER METHOD IN A BLIND MANNER
3) LIVE LINE-UP CONDUCTED BY A BLIND ADMINISTRATOR
4) FIELD IDENTIFICATION PROCEDURES

646
Q

WHAT IS AN ADMINISTRATOR WHO DOES NOT KNOW THE IDENTITY OF THE SUSPECT OR THE SUSPECT’S POSITION IN THE LINE-UP?

A

BLIND ADMINISTRATOR

647
Q

WHAT IS THE PRESENTATION OF A PHOTOGRAPHIC LINE-UP BY EITHER A BLIND ADMINISTRATOR OR A BLINDED ADMINISTRATOR, WHERE THE ADMINISTRATOR MAY KNOW THE ID OF THE SUSPECT, BUT NOT THE SUSPECTS POSITION IN THE LINE-UP?

A

BLIND MANNER

648
Q

FIELD IDENTIFICATIONS-LINEUPS SHOULD NOT BE ATTEMPTED MORE THAN HOW MANY HOURS AFTER THE COMMISSION OF A CRIME?

A

MORE THAN TWO (2) HOURS

649
Q

IF A MVR, MOBILE VIDEO RECORDER IS ON, SHOULD IT BE SHUT OFF OR STOPPED DURING OR PRIOR TO A FIELD IDENTIFICATION?

A

NO - IT WILL NOT BE STOPPED BEFORE OR DURING A FIELD IDENTIFICATION

650
Q

A MINIMUM OF HOW MANY FILTERS ARE USED DURING ANY IDENTIFICATION PROCEDURE - PHOTO OR LINE-UPS? ( NOT FOR FIELD IDENTIFICATION )

A

INCLUDE A MINIMUM OF FIVE (5) FILTERS FOR IDENTIFICATION PROCEDURES.

651
Q

HOW MANY TIMES CAN A WITNESS VIEW A LINE-UP?

A

NO MORE THAN TWO (2) VIEWINGS WILL BE CONDUCTED

652
Q

WHAT TYPE OF VIEWING SHOULD BE USED WHENEVER POSSIBLE FOR A PHOTO / LINE-UP?
A) SEQUENTIAL VIEWING, ONE AT A TIME
B) SIMULTANEOUS VIEWING, ALL TOGETHER BY A BLIND ADMINISTRATOR

A

A) SEQUENTIAL VIEWING, ONE AT A TIME, SHOULD BE USED.

653
Q

HOW WILL OFFICER’S BE CONSIDERED REGARDLESS OF THEIR ACTUAL DUTY STATUS WHILE WITHIN THE CORPORATE LIMITS OF THE CITY OF SAN ANTONIO?

A

AVAILABLE FOR DUTY IN ANY EMERGENCY SITUATION

654
Q

ON-DUTY OFFICERS ______ CARRY THEIR POLICE ID AND AN APPROVED WEAPON.

A

SHALL

655
Q

OFF-DUTY OFFICERS _______ CARRY THEIR POLICE ID AND _____ CARRY AN APPROVED WEAPON.

A

SHALL / SHOULD

656
Q

PROCEDURE 512 FOR A ECD

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM RANGE FOR PROBE DEPLOYMENT OF AN ECD?

A

7 - 15 FEET

WITH A 21 FOOT MAXIMUM RANGE

657
Q

WHAT THREE (3) “MODES” OR APPLICATIONS CAN AN ECD BE USED AND WHAT ARE THE TYPICAL RESULTS OR DESIRED EFFECT WHEN USED?

A

PROBE MODE: - RESULTS IN TEMPORARY IMMOBILIZATION OF THE SUBJECT TO PROVIDE A “WINDOW OF OPPORTUNITY” TO TAKE THE SUBJECT INTO CUSTODY - UP TO 5 SECONDS -
DRIVE STUN MODE: - DOES NOT HAVE A EFFECT OF NMI (NUERO MUSCULAR IMMOBILIZATION - DOES NOT INCAPACITATE ~PAIN COMPLIANCE~
SPARK DISPLAY: - USED TO SHOW ECPs ARE PRESENT–OFFICERS ARE CAUTIONED TO BE COGNIZANT OF CROWD REACTIONS

658
Q

WHAT ALLEGATIONS DOES THE PROFESSIONAL STANDARDS SECTION HAVE THE RESPONSIBILITY FOR INVESTIGATING BY MEMBERS OF THE DEPARTMENT?

A

NON-CRIMINAL MISCONDUCT

659
Q

WHO SHALL MEMBERS OF THE DEPARTMENT WRITE A REPORT TO WHEN THEY FEEL ANOTHER MEMBER OF THE DEPARTMENT SHOULD BE INVESTIGATED?

A

THE COMMANDER OF THE PROFESSIONAL STANDARDS SECTION

660
Q

UNDER WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES MAY SUPERVISORY OFFICERS CONDUCT PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATIONS?

A

THE EXTENT NECESSARY TO DETERMINE THE VALIDITY OF A COMPLAINT OR TO PROVIDE JUSTIFICATION FOR AN INVESTIGATION OR IF A VIOLATION IS OCCURING AND THE OFFENDER MAY ESCAPE DETENTION IF AN INVESTIGATION IS DELAYED

661
Q

WHAT IS THE WARRANTLESS SEARCH OF A SUSPECT SHORTLY AFTER ARREST CALLED?

A

SEARCH INCIDENT TO ARREST

* PRODUCES FAR GREATER AMOUNTS OF EVIDENCE THAN THROUGH SEARCH WARRANTS *

662
Q

WHAT AMENDMENT OF THE BILL OF RIGHTS GIVE CITIZENS A REASONABLE EXPECTATION OF PRIVACY FROM GOVERNMENT INTRUSIONS?

A

THE FOURTH AMENDMENT OF THE BILL OF RIGHTS

663
Q

WHAT ARE THE VARIOUS EXCEPTIONS RECOGNIZED BY THE SUPREME COURT THAT WILL ALLOW POLICE SEARCHES AND SEIZURES OF PROPERTY WITH-OUT A WARRANT?

A

CONSENT SEARCHES, EMERGENCY SEARCHES, CERTAIN TYPES OF MOTOR VEHICLE SEARCHES, INVENTORY SEARCHES, AND SEARCHES INCIDENT TO ARREST?

664
Q

WHAT TERM IS USED WHEN SERIAL, OR RECURRING OFFENDERS ENGAGE IN REPETITIVE, RITUALISTIC ACTS, FOR THEIR CONDUCT AT NUMEROUS SCENES DURING THE COMMISSION OF THEIR CRIMES?

A

SIGNATURE ACTIONS (IT WORKED LAST TIME - BECOMES 2ND NATURE) {I.E. AGG ROBBERY… SHOOTING A ROUND INTO THE CEILING}

665
Q

WHAT SHOULD ALL CRIM-SCENE EQUIPMENT KITS CONTAIN?

A

TOOLS NECESSARY FOR PROCESSING LATENT FINGERPRINTS

666
Q

WHAT IS IT CALLED IF A CRIMINAL SUSPECT IMPARTS UNIQUE PERSONALITY TRAITS BY ACTIONS OR EVIDENCE AT A CRIMES SCENE? (COLLECTING LEFT-EARS)

A

PERSONATION

667
Q

WHAT TYPE OF CRIME IN PARTICULAR HAVE A HIGH PROBABILITY OF CONTAINING INDICATORS OF INDIVIDUAL PERSONALITY > PERSONATION?

A

ANY VIOLENT CRIME SCENES.

668
Q

WHAT RULES SHOULD ALWAYS BE OBSERVED IF THE EVIDENCE IS TO ARRIVE AT THE LABORATORY IN PROPER CONDITION?

A

1 - PACKAGED IN SEPARATE CONTAINERS IF TO BE ANALYZED
2 - CLEAN PACKAGING MATERIALS SHOULD BE USED
3 - A STRONG SEALING MATERIAL SHOULD BE USED TO ENCLOSE THE PACAGE
4 - CLOTH ITEMS SHOULD NOT BE FOLDED UNNECESSARILY
5 - IF WITHIN A CONTAINER, IT SHOULD BE LEFT IN THE ORIGINAL CONTAINER TO BE TRANSPORTED
6 - A LETTER OF TRANSMITTAL STATING WHAT TYPE OF ANALYSIS IS NEEDED
7 - THE EVIDENCE SHOULD ALWAYS BE SENT REGISTERED MAIL WITH A RECEIPT SECURED

669
Q

WHAT IS ANY DEVICE DESIGNED, MADE OR ADAPTED TO EXPEL A PROJECTILE THROUGH A BARREL BY USING THE ENERGY GENERATED BY AN EXPLOSION OR BURNING SUBSTANCE; ANY DEVICE READILY CONVERTIBLE FOR THAT USE

A

A FIREARM

670
Q

WHAT MEANS ANY FIREARM THAT IS DESIGNED, MADE OR ADAPTED TO BE FIRED WITH ONE HAND?

A

A HANDGUN

671
Q

WHAT MEANS A KNIFE WITH A BLADE OVER (5) FIVE AND (1/2) ONE-HALF INCHES LONG,
A HAND INSTRUMENT DESIGNED TO CUT OR STAB ANOTHER BY BEING THROWN,
A DAGGER - INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO A DIRK, STILETTO, AND PONIARD,
A BOWIE KNIFE - SWORD - OR SPEAR

A

ILLEGAL KNIFE

672
Q

WHAT IS ANY BLADE HAND INSTRUMENT THAT IS CAPABLE OF INFLICTING SERIOUS BODILY INJURY OR DEATH BY CUTTING OR STABBING A PERSON WITH THE INSTRUMENT?

A

A KNIFE

673
Q

WHAT IS KNOWN AS BEING ABLE TO ACCOUNT FOR THE LOCATION AND POSSESSION OF EVIDENCE?

A

MAINTAINING THE CHAIN OF CUSTODY

674
Q

IF AN OFICER’S NOTEBOOK IS INTRODUCED AS EVIDENCE IN COURT, WHO MAY IT BE EXAMINED BY?

A

THE ATTORNEY REPRESENTING THE DEFENDANT

WHICH IS WHY YOU WRITE “NIKO IS AN ASSNAPKIN” IN YOUR NOTEBOOK ON EVERY OTHER PAGE

675
Q

HOW CAN THE INVESTIGATOR DETERMINE WHICH EVIDENCE AT A CRIME SCENE WILL HAVE GREATER SIGNIFICANCE AT A LATER DATE?

A

THE INVESTIGATOR HAS NO WAY OF DETERMINING WHICH EVIDENCE WILL HAVE THE GREATEST SIGNIFICANCE AT A LATER DATE

676
Q

WHAT IS THE ULTIMATE PURPOSE OF RECOVERING PHYSICAL EVIDENCE?

A

TO AID IN THE SOLUTION OF THE OFFENSE BY ESTABLISHING TRACING, OR IDENTIFYING THE SUSPECT, ESTABLISHING THE SUSPECTS (MO) MODUS OPERANDI OR INDICATING SIMILAR MOs; PROVING OR DISPROVING AN ALIBI, CONNECTING OR ELIMINATING SUSPECTS, IDENTIFYING STOLEN PROPERTY, CONTRABAND, OR OTHER ILLEGAL PROPERTY, ID VICTIMS, PROVIDE LEADS, AND PROVING A STATUTORY ELEMENT OF AN OFFENSE

677
Q
WHAT IS DONE FIRST AT A CRIME SCENE?
A) THE CRIME-SCENE SEARCH
B) THE CRIME-SCENE PHOTOGRAPHS
C) THE CRIME-SCENE MEASUREMENTS
D) THE CRIME-SCENE SKETCH
A

A) PHOTOGRAPH

PHOTOGRAPH, SEARCH,MEASURE ALWAYS PHOTOGRAPH NEWLY FOUND ITEMS DURING THE SEARCH AND NEVER HANDLE THEM IMMEDIATELY.

678
Q

HOW SHOULD PHYSICAL EVIDENCE BE RECORDED BEFORE IT IS DISTURBED OR ALTERED - HANDLED?

A

TIME AND DATE EVIDENCE WAS FOUND; THE LOCATION AT WHICH IT WAS FOUND; THE NAME OF THE INVESTIGATOR / OFFICER WHO LOCATED THE EVIDENCE / A DESCRIPTION OF THE ITEM / IDENTIFYING MARKS, IF ANY , TO FURTHER NAMES OF OFFICERS WHO WITNESSED THE FIND

679
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly WITHOUT the other individual’s, person’s, victim’s CONSENT causes the penetration of the ANUS or SEXUAL ORGAN by ANY MEANS or the penetration of the MOUTH of another person by the SEXUAL ORGAN of the ACTOR; or CAUSES the VICTIM’s sexual organ to penetrate the MOUTH, ANUS, OR SEXUAL ORGAN of another person, INCLUDING the ACTOR?

A

SEXUAL ASSAULT

680
Q

For the OFFENSE of SEXUAL ASSAULT, what is a CHILD’s AGE?

A

A CHILD IS A PERSON YOUNGER THAN 17 yrs old

681
Q

Can a child, an unconscious, drugged, drunk individual, or a person who is unaware that SEX is occurring with them, a person physically unable to resist, or someone who has been compelled by FORCE or THREATS give CONSENT?

A

No.
(Sexual assault is without consent if:
The person is a child
The use of force or violence is used to compel the person
The actor administered ANY substance without the other person’s knowledge.
The person is in an altered mental state and could not resist or consent
The actor is a public servant who coerced the other)

682
Q

Is there any defense to prosecution for the offense of sexual assault?

A

The actor was not more than (3) three years older than the victim at the time of the offense and the victim was 14 years of age or older - not related. No force, no altered mental state, etc.

683
Q

WHAT OFFENSE IS COMMITTED BY A SUPERINTENDENT OR GENERAL MANAGER OF AN INSTITUTION OF THE PERSON FAILS TO PROVIDE NOTICE, SUBMIT A REPORT, AND INCLUDE IN THE REPORT MATERIAL FACTS KNOWN OR DISCOVERED ON THE DEATH OF AN INDIVIDUAL UNDER THE CARE, CUSTODY, OR CONTROL OF THE INSTITUTION?

A

FAILURE TO PROVIDE NOTICE AND REPORT OF DEATH OF RESIDENT OF INSTITUTION

(THE CRAZIES)

684
Q

WHAT OFFENSE is committed when a person obtains information regarding an accident and subsequently use the information for the direct solicitation of business or appointment for PECUNIARY gain?

A

Use of accident report information or other information for pecuniary gain

685
Q

What offenses committed when a person assesses a computer, computer network, or computer system without the effective consent of the owner?

A

Breach of computer security

686
Q

What offenses committed when a person Who is 17 years of age or older; with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, The person, over the Internet, by electric mail, text message or other electronic message system or service, or through commercial online service intentionally communicates in a sexual explicit manner with a minor, or distribute sexual explicit material to a minor?

A minor is younger than 17 years of age or represents himself or herself to be younger than 17 years of age.

A

Online solicitation of a minor

(This includes: knowingly solicits a minor to meet another person, including the actor, with the intent that the minor will engage in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviant sexual intercourse with the actor or another person).

It is not a defense. - meeting did not occur, actor did not intend for the meeting to occur, the actor was involved in fantasy role-play.

687
Q

What offenses committed when A person intrudes with their entire body or enters or remains on or in property of another including residential land, agricultural land, recreational vehicle park, a building, or an aircraft or other vehicle without effective consent and the person had notice to depart, but failed to do so?

A

Criminal trespass

688
Q

Describe how marks in the forest area on trees are made to provide notice for criminal trespass

A

Vertical lines of not less than 8 inches in length and not less than 1 inch in width place so the bottom of the Mark is not less than 3 feet from the ground or more than 5 feet from the ground not more than 100 feet apart for Forest land and not more than 1000 feet apart on land other than forest land

689
Q

Who can request the assistance of the attorney general in the investigation or prosecution of an offense involving the use of a computer?

A

A prosecuting attorney

690
Q

What offense does a person commit who knowingly accesses a computer that is part of a voting system and:

1) prevents a person from lawfully voting
2) changes a lawful vote
3) prevents a vote from being counted
4) causes a vote that was not lawfully casted to be counted?

A

Tampering with direct recording electronic voting machine

691
Q

Page 51 chapter 31 / 31.01
What means creating or confirming by words or conduct of false impression of law or fact, that is likely to affect the judgment of another in the transaction, and that the actor does not believe to be true or failing to correct the false impression of law or fact that is likely to affect the judgment of another in the transaction, that the actor previously created or confirmed by words or conduct, and that the actor does not now believe to be true; preventing another from acquiring information likely to affect his judgment in the transaction; selling or otherwise transferring or encumbering property without disclosing a lien; security, interest, adverse claim, or other legal implement to the enjoyment of the property. Promising performance that is not intended to be performed!?!?!

A

Deception

692
Q

A license holder commits this offense when I license holder carries a handgun under authority to carry a handgun on property of another without effective consent and receive that notice that entry on the property by license holder with the concealed handgun was for bidden or remaining on the property with the concealed handgun was forbidden and failed to depart?

A

Trespass by holder of license to carry concealed handgun

693
Q

What does written communication mean for the offense of trespass by holder of license to carry concealed handgun?

A

A card or other document on which is written language to the following; “Pursuant to section 30. 06, Penal Code trespass by holder of license to carry a concealed handgun a person licensed under Subchapter H, Chapter 411 Government code (concealed handgun law), May not enter this property with a concealed handgun”

In contrasting colors with block letters at least 1 inch in height clearly visible to the public

694
Q

What offenses committed by an ass clown who recklessly taunts, torments, strikes, Throws an object or substance at, interferes with, or obstructs a police service animal or interferes with or obstructs the handler a rider of a police service animal in the manner that inhibits or’s restricts the handler or a riders control of the animal or deprives control of the animal from the handler or rider. Releases a police service animal from its area of control, enters the area of control without consent of the Handler or rider, injures or kills a police service animal, or engages in conduct likely to injure or kill a police service animal including setting out poison, a trap, or any object or substance?

A

Interference with police service animals

This includes a dog and a horse

695
Q

What offenses committed when a person
Makes, provides to another person, or possesses a card, document, badge, insignia, shoulder emblem, or other item bearing an insignia of a law-enforcement agency that identifies a person as a peace officer or a reserve law-enforcement officer and who makes, provides, or possesses the item bearing the insignia knows that the person so identified by the item is NOT commissioned as a peace officer or reserve law-enforcement officer as indicated on the item

A

False identification as peace officer; misrepresentation of property

696
Q

What is or means:

The train, locomotive, Railroad car, caboose, work equipment, rolling stock, safety device, switch, or connection that is owned, leased, operated, or possessed by a railroad
OR
Railroad track, rail, bridge, trestle, or right-of-way owned or used by a railroad?

A

Railroad property

697
Q

What offenses committed by a dip shit who throws an object or discharges a firearm or weapon at a train or rail-mounted work equipment?

A

Interference with railroad property

This is the offense for anything committed to Railroad or RailRoad property

698
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally interrupts, disrupts, impedes, jams or otherwise interferes with radio frequency that is licensed by the federal communications commission with intent to facilitate the commission of another crime, interfere with the ability of a law-enforcement agency, fire department agency, or an EMS provider to respond to an emergency

A

Interference with radio-frequency licensed to government entity

699
Q

What offense does a person commit when he intentionally or knowingly by words or physical action prevents the execution of any process in a civil cause?

A

Preventing execution of civil process

An exception to the application is the actor evaded service of process by avoiding detection

700
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Knowingly presents for filing or caused to be presented for filing of financing statement that the person knows is forged; contains a material false statement or is groundless

A

Fraudulent filing of financing statement

701
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Impersonates a public servant with intent to induce another to submit to his pretended official authority or to rely on his pretended official acts; or knowingly purports to exercise any function of a public servant or of a public office, including that of a judge and court, and the position or office through which he purports to exercise a function of a public servant?

A

Impersonating a public servant

702
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Offers, confers, or agrees to confer any benefit on a public servant that knows the public servant is prohibited by law from accepting

A

Offering gift to public servant

703
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Is a public servant and solicits, accepts or agrees to accept an honorarium; a consideration for services that the public servant would not have been requested to provide but for the public servants official position or duties

A

Acceptance of honorarium

704
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Is a public servant in an agency performing regulatory functions or conducting inspections or investigations solicits, accepts, or agrees to any benefit from a person the public servant knows to be subject to regulation, inspection, or investigation by the public servant or his agency OR having custody of prisoners solicits, accepts or agrees to accept any benefit from a person in his custody

A

Gift to public servant by person subject to his jurisdiction

If I fucked her stupid cunt after she undressed and begged for it on camera at The Bandera bowling parking lot

705
Q

A person commits an offense if the person takes or retains a child younger than 18 years of age when the person knows that the person’s taking or retention violates the express terms of a judgment or order, including a temporary order, of a court disposing of the child’s custody or the person has not been awarded custody of the child, knows that the suit for divorce or a civil suit or application for habeas corpus to dispose of the child’s custody has been filed and takes the child out of the geographic area of the counties or outside of the United States with intent to deprive a person entitled to possession of or access to the child younger than 18 years?

A

Interference with child custody

The noncustodial parent knowingly entices or persuades a child to leave the custody of the custodial parent, guardian, or person standing in the stead of the custodial parent or guardian of the child

706
Q

What offenses committed by a person if legally married purports to marry or does marry a person other than their spouse or lives with a person, other than their spouse, under the appearance of been married or does the actions of Marriage, purports to marry, lives with under the appearance of marriage another who is married?

A

Bigamy

(The lawful wife or husband may testify against the actor for the offense of the actor)

No big of you

707
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
By means of coercion he or she influence or attempt to influence a public servant in a specific exercise of his official power or a specific performance of his official duty or influence or attempts to influence a public servant to violate the public servants known legal duty or influences or attempts to influence of voter not to vote or to vote in particular manner?

A

Coercion of public servant or voter

I think this is what I should’ve arrested that bitch for other than just a DWI

708
Q

What offenses committed by a person who knowingly makes or causes to be made a false statement relating to a child custody determination made in a foreign country during the hearing held under Chapter 132 or subchapter 1, Chapter 153 family code?

A

False statement regarding child custody determination made in foreign country

709
Q

What offense does a person commit if the person with intent to promote or assist the commission of suicide by another, he aids or attempts to aid the other to commit or attempt to commit suicide?

A

Aiding suicide

710
Q

What means any product offered for sale to or for consumption by the public and includes food and drugs

A

Consumer product

711
Q

What means to alter or add a foreign substance to a consumer product to make it probable that the consumer product will cause serious bodily injury?

like placing razor blades into an apple

A

Tamper

712
Q

Do assaultive offenses as well as homicide and murder offenses apply to the conduct charged as having been committed by the mother of the unborn child or medical procedures for abortion

A

No

a mother can kill her unborn baby or have the unborn baby killed

713
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
With intent to deceive and with knowledge of the statements Meaning; makes a false statement under oath or swears to the truth of a false statement previously made or makes a false on sworn declaration?

A

Perjury

714
Q

What offenses committed when a person:

Commits perjury and the false statement is made during or in connection with an official proceeding and is material?

A

Aggravated perjury

715
Q

What means the actor retracted his statement before completion of the testimony before it became manifest that the falsity of the statement would be exposed?

What means could have affected the course or outcome?

For inconsistent statements, does the prosecution need to prove which statement is true and which is false?

A

Retraction
Materiality
No inconsistent statements have already proved perjury.

716
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
If he threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person or property with the intent to cause a reaction of any type to his threat by an official or volunteer agency organized to deal with emergencies or place any person in fear of imminent serious bodily injury:
-to prevent or interrupt the occupation or use of a building, room, place of assembly, place to which public access, aircraft, auto etc.
–cause impairment or interruption of public communications, transportation, water, gas, power supply or other public service.
—place the public or a substantial group of the public in fear of serious bodily injury.
—-influence the conduct or activities of a branch or agency of the federal government, state, or a political subdivision of the state?

A

Terroristic threat

717
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Advertises in a public media that the person will place a child for adoption or will provide or obtain a child for adoption?

A

Advertising for placement of child

does not apply to a licensed child-placing agency that is identified in the advertisement

718
Q

What offenses committed when a person takes, retains, or conceals a ward when the person knows that the person’s taking, retention, or concealment interferes with a possessory right with respect to the ward

A

Interference with rights of guardian of the person

719
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
During a period that is 12 months (one year) or less in duration, the person two or more times engages in conduct of or an offense of assault-family?
(Duration- when offense occurred)

A

Continuous Violence Against the Family

720
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
In violation of an order issued the person knowingly or intentionally commits the offense because of bias or prejudice:
Arson, criminal mischief, or graffiti;
OR
communicates directly or through any person in any manner in a threatening or harassing manner, goes to or near the residence or place of employment or business of a protected individual?

A

Violation of order preventing offense caused by bias or prejudice

721
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
If without the effective consent of the owner intentionally or knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions, slogans, drawings, or paintings on tangible property of the owner with paint, indelible marker, or any etching/engraving device

A

Graffiti

722
Q

What means conduct that occurs in an attempt to commit, during the commission or in immediate flight after the attempt or commission of theft?

A

In the course of committing theft

723
Q

What means a structure or vehicle that is adapted for the overnight accommodation of persons, and includes each separately secured or occupied portion of the structure or vehicle and each structure appurtenant to or connected with the structure or vehicle?

A

Habitation

724
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Without the effective consent of the owner enters, with any part of the body or any physical object connected with the body, a habitation, or a building or any portion of a building not then open to the public, with intent to commit a felony, theft, or an assault OR REMAINS CONCEALED WITH INTENT TO COMMIT A FELONY, THEFT, OR AN ASSAULT IN A BUILDING OR HABITATION?

A

Burglary

725
Q

What offenses committed by a person engages in sexual intercourse or deviant sexual intercourse with another person the actor knows to be, without regard to the legitimacy;
an ancestor or descendent by blood or adoption;
A current or former step child or step parent;
A parents brother or sister whole or half blood;
A brother or sister of whole or half blood or by adoption;
The children of the actors brother or sister whole or half blood or by adoption;
The son or daughter of the actor of the actor’s aunt or uncle whole or half blood or by adoption

A

Prohibited sexual conduct

No parent/child-sex
No step parent/child (stepchild)-sex
No uncle/Aunt-sex (adoption or not)
No brother/sister-sex (adoption or not)
No cousin-sex
A.K.A. Incest you sick fucks this is why we have retards in the world
726
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Knowingly makes a false entry in, or false alteration of, a governmental record. Makes, presents, or uses any record, document, or thing with knowledge of its falsity and with intent that it is to be taken as a genuine governmental record. Intentionally destroys, conceals, removes, or otherwise impairs the verity, legibility, or availability of a governmental record. Possesses, sells or offers to sell a governmental record or a blank governmental record form with intent that it be used unlawfully. Makes, presents or uses a governmental record with knowledge of its falsity or possesses, sells, or offers to sell a governmental record or blank governmental record form with knowledge that it is was obtained unlawfully?

A

Tampering with governmental record

727
Q

What offenses committed by a person who knowingly-knowing that the investigation or official proceeding is pending he alters, destroys, or conceals any record, document, or thing with intent to impair it’s verity, legibility or availability as evidence in the investigation or official proceedings. Or makes, presents, or uses any record, document, or thing with knowledge of its falsity and with intent to affect the course of the outcome of the investigation or official proceeding?

A

Tamper with or fabricating physical evidence

728
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Knowing an offense has been committed, alters, destroys, or conceals any record, document, or thing with intent to impair it’s verity, legibility or availability as evidence?

A

Tamper with or fabricating physical evidence

729
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Observes a human corpse and fails to report it to a law-enforcement agency, and the person would believe that an offense has been committed, knows or reasonably should know that a law-enforcement agency is not aware of the existence of or location of the human corpse and fails to report it?

A

Temper with or fabricating physical evidence

730
Q

What offenses committed by a person who in the course of committing theft and with intent to obtain or maintain control of the property they intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly cause bodily injury to another or intentionally or knowingly threatens or places another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death?

A

Robbery

731
Q

What is any enclosed structure intended for use or occupation as a habitation or for some purpose of trade, manufacture, ornament or use?

A

Building

732
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Without the effect of consent of the owner, breaks or enters into any coin-operated machine, coin collection machine, or other coin-operated or coin collection receptacle, contravenes, apparatus, or equipment used for the purpose of providing lawful amusement, sales of goods, services, or other valuable things, or telecommunications with intent to obtain property or services?

A

Burglary of coin-operated or coin collection machines

Entry includes every kind of entry except one made with the effective consent of the owner

733
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Without the effective consent of the owner, he breaks into or enters a vehicle or any part of a vehicle with intent to commit any felony or theft - includes any part of the body or object attached to it?

A

Burglary of vehicles

734
Q

What means a decree, judgment, order, subpoena, warrant, minutes, or other document issued by a court?

A

Court record

735
Q

What means anything belonging to, received by government for information, including a court record. To include a standard proof of motor vehicle liability insurance, and official ballot or an election record?

A

Government record

736
Q

What means any representation of fact?

A

Statement

737
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
With intent to influence a witness, he offers, confers, or agrees to confer any benefit on a witness or prospective witness to coerce them to testify falsely, to withhold any testimony, to elude legal process summoning the witness, to absent him/herself from an official proceeding, to abstain from, discontinue or delay prosecution or the witnesses accepts the agreement above?

A

Tampering with witness

738
Q

What offenses committed when a person:

Intentionally or knowingly harms or threatens to harm another by unlawful act in retaliation for or on account of service or status of another as a public servant, witness, prospective witness, informant, person who reported/intends to report a crime OR to prevent or delay the service of another as a public servant, witness, informant, reporting person of a crime?

A

Obstruction or retaliation

739
Q

A person other then a person who has a relationship with a child commits what offense if the actor observes the commission or attempted commission of an offense of continuous sexual abuse of young child or children, a person younger than 17 years of age, aggravated sexual assault, the victim is younger than 14 years of age, under circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that an offense of a sexual or assaultive nature was being or was about to be committed against a child, the ACTOR fails to assist the child or immediately report the commission of the offense to a police officer or law-enforcement agency and the actor could assist the child or immediately report without placing the actor in danger of suffering serious bodily injury or death?

A

Failure to stop or report Aggravated Sexual Assault of Child

740
Q

Are irregularities in a statement or testimony a defense to prosecution?

A

Irregularities in a statement, testimony is no defense

741
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
With intent to deceive, he knowingly makes a false statement that is material to a criminal investigation to a peace officer, Federal special investigator, or an employee of a law-enforcement agency authorized to conduct an investigation when the actor knows the agency is conducting an investigation?

A

False report to peace officer, Federal special investigator, or law-enforcement employee

742
Q

What offenses committed when a person:

With intent to deceive knowingly files a false report of a missing child or missing person with a law-enforcement officer or agency or false report relating to a missing child or person

A

False report regarding missing child or missing person

743
Q

What offenses committed when a person:

Intentionally or knowingly and with force takes or attempts to take from a peace officer, Federal special investigator, employee or official of a correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and corrections department officer, or commission security officer
–The officer’s, investigator’s, employee’s, or official’s firearm, nightstick, STUN-GUN (ECD), or personal protection chemical dispensing device with the intention of harming the officer, investigator, employee, official, or third person?

(The police officer is wearing a distinctive uniform or had identified himself)

A

Taking or attempting to take weapon from peace officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and corrections department officer, or commission security officer.

744
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
Who commits robbery and causes serious bodily injury, uses or exhibits a deadly weapon
OR
causes bodily injury or threatens or places another person in fear of imminent bodily injury or death that is 65 years of age or older or a disabled person?

A

Aggravated robbery

745
Q

What includes any device in, on, or by which any person or property is or maybe propelled, move, or drawn in the normal course of commerce or transportation, except such devices as are classified as “habitation”?

A

Vehicle

Includes motor vehicle

746
Q

What offenses committed when a person:

Is sentenced or is required as a condition of community supervision failed to report or leaves the service assignment site in failing to report or leaving acts without the approval of the court?

A

Unauthorized absence from community corrections facility, County correctional center or assignment site

747
Q

What offenses committed when a person:

Provides contraband to an inmate, otherwise introduces contraband or possesses contraband inside while confined in a correctional facility?

A

Contraband in correctional facility

748
Q

What offenses committed when a person:
With intent to obtain an economic benefit the person knowingly institutes a suit or claim that the person has not been authorized to pursue, solicits by phone or in person as an attorney, chiropractor, physician, surgeon, or private investigator with intent to obtain employment?

A

Barratry and solicitation of professional employment

749
Q

How is the amount of PECUNIARY loss determine if the property is destroyed?

A

The fair market value or the cost of replacing the property

750
Q

How is the amount of pecuniary loss determine if the property is damaged?

A

The cost of repairing or restoring the damage property

751
Q

How is the amount of pecuniary loss determined if the property is a document, other than those having a readily ascertainable market value?

A

Amount due and collected at maturity less any part that has been satisfied, if the document constitute evidence of a debt / or the greatest amount of economic loss that the owner might reasonably suffer by virtue of destruction or damage if not evidence of debt.

752
Q

What means the interconnection of two or more computers or computer systems by satellite, microwave, line, or other communication medium with the capability of transmitting information among the computers?

A

Computer network

753
Q

What consists of and means:

1) A chemical manufacturing facility
2) A refinery
3) a electrical power generating facility, substation, switching station, electrical control center or electrical transmission or distribution facility
4) A water, intake structure, water treatment facility, wastewater treatment plant, or pump station
5) a natural gas transmission compressor station, a liquid natural gas terminal storage facility, a telecommunications central switching office
6) a port, railroad switching yard, truck terminal or other freight transportation facility
7) A gas processing plant, including a plant used in the processing treatment, or fractionation of natural gas
8) The transmission facility used by a federal license radio or television station, the cable television or video service provider headend

A

Critical infrastructure facility

754
Q

What offense does a person commit:

When he knowingly or intentionally tampers with a consumer product knowing that the consumer product will be offered for sale to the public or as a gift to another or threatens to tamper with a consumer product with intent to cause fear, to affect the sale of the consumer product or to cause bodily injury to any person?

A

Tampering with consumer product

755
Q

What offense does a person commit:
If he intentionally or knowingly leaves a child in a motor vehicle for longer than (5) five minutes knowing that the child is younger than seven (7) years of age and not attended by an individual fourteen (14) years of age or older?

A

Leaving child in a vehicle

The child younger than seven years old must be accompanied by an individual/child in the vehicle who is 14 years of age or older

756
Q

What offense does a person commit:
When a person with intent to obtain any economic benefit for himself or herself, the person contracts with any person to represent that person as legal counsel or represent them in any legal proceeding?

To accept a settlement for personal injuries or property loss

A

Unauthorized practice of law

757
Q

What offense is committed when a person with intent to obtain an economic benefit for himself or herself, the person holds himself or herself out as a lawyer, unless he or she is currently licensed to practice law in this state, another state, or a foreign country and is in good standing with the state bar of Texas and the state bar of licensing authority of any and all other states and foreign countries where licensed?

A

Falsely holding oneself out as a lawyer

(My cousin Vinny, but I don’t think he did it for money, I’ll have to watch the movie again)

This is the last pink card to be entered not too many questions left!!!

758
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly without the other individual’s, person’s, victim’s consent causes the penetration of the anus or sexual organ by any means or the penetration of the mouth of another person by the sexual organ of the actor; causes the victim sexual organ to contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor?

A

Sexual Assault

759
Q

What is a child’s age for a sexual assault offense?

A

A child is a person younger than 17 years of age

760
Q

Can a child; or unconscious, drugged, drunk; or person who is unaware that sex is occurring with them, physically unable to resist, or compelled by force or threat give consent to have sex?

A

No.

Sexual conduct is without consent: (SEXUAL ASSAULT OCCURS)
if the person is a child; The use of physical force or violence is used to compel the person; The actor administered any substance without the other person’s knowledge; The actor is a public servant who coerced the other.

761
Q

For part of a sexual assault defense to prosecution—- the actor was not more than ______ years older then the victim at the time of the offense and the victim was ____ years of age or older.

A

Three (3) / fourteen (14)

No relation: no force used.

762
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally knowingly or recklessly causes bodily injury to another including the person’s spouse?

A

Assault

763
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly impede the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of the person/victim by applying pressure to the person’s throat or neck or by blocking the person’s nose or throat?

A

Assault

764
Q

In assaults who are included as “emergency service personnel”?

A

Firefighters, and other individuals who in the course and scope of employment or as a volunteer, provide services for the benefit of the general public during emergency situations

765
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence by act or intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly by omission causes harm or fails to provide food, shelter, or medical care; causes serious bodily injury, serious mental deficiency, impairment, or injury, or bodily injury to a child, a person 14 years of age or younger; an elderly individual, a person 65 years of age or older; or a disabled individual, a person older than 14 years of age–who by reason of physical mental disease, defect, or injury is substantially unable to protect himself?

A

Injury to a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual.

766
Q

What offense is committed if an adult person has sexual intercourse or deviant sexual intercourse with a child younger than 17 years of age?

A

Sexual assault

767
Q

What offense is committed if an adult person has sexual intercourse or deviant sexual intercourse with a child younger than 14 years of age or an elderly individual/disabled individual

A

Aggravated sexual assault

768
Q

What offense occurs if a person commits sexual assault and caused serious bodily injury or uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the commission of the sexual assault?

A

Aggravated sexual Assault

769
Q

What offense would a person commit if the person causes serious bodily injury or attempts to cause death of the victim of the sexual assault or another person in the course of the same criminal episode or by actual words places the victim in fear that any person will become the victim of an offense of human trafficking for that death serious bodily injury or kidnapping will be immediately inflicted on any person, uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the sexual assault?

A

Aggravated sexual assault

770
Q

What offense occurs if a person acts in concert with another engages in conduct of sexual assault toward the same victim, otherwise known as a gang rape?

A

Aggravated sexual assault

771
Q

What offense occurs if a person administers or provides Flunitrazepam, otherwise known as Rohypnol; gamma hydroxyl butyrate, or Ketamine; to the victim with a intention of facilitating the commission of a sexual assault? (having sex with the person without them knowing it)

A

Aggravated Sexual Assault

772
Q

If an employee of a public or private primary or secondary school engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviant sexual intercourse with a person who is enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school at which the employee works, what offenses a person committed?

A

Improper relationship between educator and student

773
Q

What offense is committed by a person who photographs or video tapes, or by any other means, records, broadcast, transmits a visual image of another at a location without the other person’s consent and with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person?

An example would be to use a hidden camera to videotape a woman in a rented hotel room while she’s getting ready to take a shower.

A

Improper photography or visual recording

a guy with the camera on his boots to look up skirts

774
Q

In the offense of improper photography or visual recording are signs posted indicating that the person is being recorded/photographed sufficient to establish the person’s consent?

A

Fuck NO

775
Q

What offense is committed if a person exposes his anus or any part of his genitals with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, and he is reckless about whether anyone is present who will be offended or alarmed by his act?

A

Indecent exposure

776
Q

What offense is committed if the person engages in sexual contact or causes the child to engage in sexual contact; or with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person exposes the person’s anus for any part of the person’s genitals, knowing the child is present or causes a child to expose the child’s anus or any part of the child’s genitals

A

Indecency with a child

777
Q

For the offense of indecency with a child what is the affirmative defense?

A

The person was not more than three (3) years older than the victim and of the opposite sex, did not used to Duress, force, or threat against the victim at any time of the offense and at the time of the offense was not required to register as a sex offender; or they were the spouse of the child

778
Q

What offense is committed when a person knowingly traffics another person with intent that that trafficked person engages in forced labor or services?

A

Trafficking of persons

779
Q

What offenses is committed if a person knowingly receives the benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity described as trafficking of a person or offenses (activities) related to people that were trafficked?

A

Trafficking of persons

780
Q

What offenses is committed if a person knowingly traffics the child for continuous sexual abuse of a young child or children, indecency with a child, sexual assault, aggravated sexual assault, prostitution, promotion to prostitution, aggravated promotion of prostitution, compelling prostitution, sexual performance of a child, employment hazardous to a child and child pornography (or receives benefit from the activities)?

A

Trafficking of person

(there is no such offense as a aggravated trafficking of person)
(There is the offense of continuous trafficking of persons)

781
Q

What offenses is committed if a person intentionally uses a motor vehicle, aircraft, or watercraft with the intent to conceal the individual from a peace officer or special investigator?

A

Smuggling of persons

(An affirmative defense: The actor is related to the transported individual within the second degree of Consanguinity or at the time of the offense within a second degree of affinity)

782
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally flees from a person factor knows is a peace officer or special investigator attempted to lawfully arrest or detain the actor who has someone concealed within a vehicle, aircraft, or watercraft?

A

Smuggling of persons

783
Q

What offense is committed if a person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person?

A

Kidnapping

(an affirmative defense: abduction not coupled with intent or threat of deadly force; actor was a relative and sole intent was to assume lawful control of the victim)

784
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with intent to hold him for ransom or reward?

A

Aggravated kidnapping

785
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with intent to use him as a shield or hostage?

A

Aggravated kidnapping

786
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with intent to facilitate the attempt/commission of a felony and/or flight after felony?

A

Aggravated kidnapping

787
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with intent to inflict bodily injury/violate or abuse sexually?

A

Aggravated kidnapping

788
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with intent to terrorize the person or terrorize a third person (I.e. family members)?

A

Aggravated kidnapping

789
Q

What offense is committed when A person exhibits or uses a deadly weapon in the commission of kidnapping?

A

Aggravated kidnapping

790
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Engages in deviant sexual intercourse with another individual/person of the same sex?

A

(homosexual conduct)

791
Q

What offense is committed when a person:
Who knowingly engages in any sexual intercourse, deviant sexual intercourse, sexual contact; or deviant sexual intercourse with an animal or fowl in a public place or if not in a public place is reckless about who will be offended or alarmed that is present

A

Public lewdness

Chicken fucker

792
Q

What means any penetration of the female sex organ by the male sex organ?

A

Sexual intercourse

793
Q

What means a person to whom another is legally married?

A

Spouse

794
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

During a period that is 30 or more days in duration commits two or more acts of sexual abuse, regardless of whether the acts of sexual abuse are committed against one or more victims; and at the time of the commission of each of the acts of sexual abuse, the actor is 17 years of age or older and the victim is a child younger than 14 years of age?

A

Continuous sexual abuse of young child or children

795
Q

What offense is committed when a person during the period 30 or more days in duration engages two or more times in the conduct of an offense of trafficking of persons?

A

Continuous trafficking of persons

(30 or more days & two or more times)

So, get all your trafficking done in less than 30 days!!!

796
Q

What is any contact between any part of the genitals of one person and the mouth or anus of another person or the penetration of the genitals or anus of another person with an object (like a dildo, tongue, or finger)

A

Deviant sexual intercourse

Tongue punching someone in their fart box is deviant sexual intercourse. A model riding my SYBIAN or my Hitachi “magic-wand” is deviant sexual intercourse. Her sticking a finger up your ass to get off is deviant sexual intercourse.
Fist fucking a chick is deviant sexual intercourse. A blowjob (fellatio) is deviant sexual intercourse.

I think I made my point

797
Q

What means any touching of the anus, breast, or any part of the genitals of another person with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person

A

Sexual contact

Strip clubs

798
Q

What means to leave a child in a place without providing reasonable and necessary care for the child, under circumstances under which no reasonable, similarly situated adult would leave a child of that age and ability?

A

Abandon

799
Q

What offense does a person commit when a person having custody, care or control of a child younger than 15 years, he intentionally abandons the child in any place under circumstances that expose the child to an unreasonable risk of harm?

A

Abandoning or Endangering child

800
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence, by an act or omission, engages in conduct that places a child younger than 15 years in imminent danger of death, bodily injury, or physical or mental impairment?

A

Abandoning or endangering child

801
Q

What offense is committed when a person:
A person manufactured, possessed, or in anyway introduced into the body of any person a controlled substance methamphetamine, or a controlled substance from penalty group one, in the presence of the child. The person’s conduct related to the proximity or accessibility of the controlled substance methamphetamine, or a controlled substance from penalty group 1, to the child and an analysis of the child’s blood, urine, or other bodily substance indicates it’s presence.

A

Abandoning or endangering child

802
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Recklessly engages in conduct the place is another in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or discharges a firearm at or in the direction of one or more individuals or a habitation, building, or vehicle and is reckless as to whether the habitation, building or vehicle is occupied?

A

Deadly conduct

803
Q

Can an actors reasonable belief that the victim consented to the actors assault, aggravated assault, or deadly conduct be a defense to prosecution?

A

Yes
As well as the victims effective consent if:

The conduct did not threaten or inflict serious bodily injury
The victim knew the contact was a risk of:
His occupation
Recognized medical treatment
A scientific experiment conducted by recognized methods

Not for initiation or continued membership in a criminal street gang

804
Q

What means an agreement to win or lose something of value solely or partially on/by chance?

A

Bet

805
Q

What offense is committed when a person makes a bet on the partial or final result of a game or a contest or on the performance of a participant in the game or contest?

A

Gambling

806
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Makes a bet on the result of any political nomination, appointment, or election or on the degree of success of any nominee, appointee, or candidate, or players and bets for money or anything of value at any game played with cards, dice, balls, or any other gambling device?

A

Gambling

807
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Who is intoxicated while operating a motor vehicle in a public place?

A

Driving while intoxicated

808
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Driving while intoxicated and has a child younger than 15 years of age in the car with them?

A

Driving while intoxicated with child passenger

Younger than 15 years of age

809
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Is intoxicated while operating an aircraft?

A

Flying while intoxicated

810
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Operating a watercraft and is intoxicated

A

Boating while intoxicated

811
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Is intoxicated while assembling or operating an amusement ride?

A

Assembling or operating an amusement ride while intoxicated

812
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Whether by accident or mistake while operating an aircraft, watercraft, or amusement ride, assembling a mobile amusement ride, or while operating a motor vehicle while intoxicated, by reason of that intoxication causes serious bodily injury to another?

A

Intoxication assault

813
Q

What offense is committed when a person:

Whether by accident or mistake while operating and aircraft, watercraft, or amusement ride, assembling a mobile amusement ride, or while operating a motor vehicle while intoxicated by reason of that intoxication causes the death of an individual?

A

Intoxication manslaughter

814
Q

What offense is committed by a person:

who appears in a public place while intoxicated to the degree that the person may endanger themselves or another?

A

Public intoxication

815
Q

How many counts of open container offense is committed by a person:

Who is in possession of more than one open container in a motor vehicle in a single criminal episode?

A) Max of three counts
B) only one count
C) as many counts as there are open containers
D) as many counts as there are open containers with some remaining alcohol still inside The open container

A

B) only one count

It is a single offense

816
Q

What means a bottle, can, or other receptacle that contains any amount of alcohol beverage and that is open, that has been opened, that has a broken seal, or the contents of which are partially removed?

A

An open container

817
Q

What means the number of grams of alcohol per:
210 Liters of breath
100 mL of blood
67 mL of urine

A

Alcohol concentration

818
Q

What means not having the normal use of mental or physical faculties by reason of the introduction of alcohol, a controlled substance, a drug, a dangerous drug, a combination of two or more of those substances, or any other substance into the body?

A

Intoxicated

Or having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more

819
Q

What is a vessel, one or more waterskis, an aquaplane, or other device used for transporting or caring a person on water, other then a device propelled only by the current of water?

A

A watercraft

820
Q

What entity produces or reproduces maps as evidence of locations or areas and must be adopted in a resolution or ordinance by what governing body to be admissible in evidence as prima facie for drug free zones and gang free zones?

A

Municipal or county engineer

Municipal or county governing body

821
Q

Except prosecution for aggravated perjury or contempt can evidence or testimony required to be furnished from a witness be used against the witness for the prosecution? conspiracy/criminal street gang

A

No

As long as the evidence or testimony was required it may not be used against witness due to testimonial immunity

822
Q

What offense is committed by a person:

Knowingly violates a temporary or permanent order under civil practice and remedies code

A

Violation of court order enjoining organized criminal activity

(Prosecuted either section or under both sections)

823
Q
What offense is committed by a person:
When a person knowingly causes, enables, encourages, recruits, or solicits another person to become a member of a criminal street gang which as a condition of initiation, admission, membership, or continued membership requires the commission of any conduct which constitutes an offense punishable as a class A misdemeanor or a felony?
A

Coercing, inducing, or soliciting membership in a criminal street gang

(Child = younger than 17 years of age)

824
Q

What offense is committed by a person:

With intent to coerce, induce, or solicit a child to actively participate in the activities of a criminal street gang the person threatens the child or a member of the child’s family with imminent bodily injury or causes bodily injury to the child or child’s family?

A

Coercing, inducing, or soliciting membership in a criminal street gang

Again child is younger than 17 years of age

825
Q

What offense is committed by a person:

Who knowingly initiates, organizes, plans, finances, directs, manages, or supervises a criminal street gang or members of a criminal street gang with intent to benefit, promote, or further the interests of the criminal street gang or to increase the person standing, position, or status in the criminal street gang? (The organization that has more than 10 members)

A

Directing activities of certain criminal street games

An organization has more than 10 members

826
Q

What is the distance for a Gang Freezone around a school or school board, and institution of higher education, premises of a public or private youth Center, or playground?

A

In, on, or within 1000 feet

827
Q

What is the distance for a Gang Freezone around any shopping mall, movie theater, premises of a public swimming pool, premises of a video arcade facility, or on a school bus

A

300 feet

828
Q

What offense is committed by a person:

Who with intent to hinder the arrest, prosecution, conviction, or punishment of another for an offense or with the intent to hinder the arrest, detention, adjunction or disposition of a child for engaging in delinquent conduct that violates a penal law of the state, or with intent to hinder the arrest of another under the Authority of a warrant or Capias he harbors or conceals the other, provides or aids in providing the other with any means of avoiding arrest or effecting escape or warns the other of impending discovery or apprehension?

A

Hindering apprehension or prosecution

Defense or prosecution-warning was an effort to bring another into compliance with the law

829
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Escapes from custody when the person is under arrest for, lawfully detained for, charge with or convicted of an offense. In custody pursuant to a lawful order of a court. Detained in the secure detention facility. In the custody of a juvenile probation officer for violating an order imposed by juvenile court?

A

Escape

830
Q

What offense is committed by a person:

If, without the owners effective consent he knowingly, steals a trade secret, makes a copy of an article representing a trade secret, or communicates or transmits a trade secret?

A

Theft of trade secrets

831
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Intentionally or knowingly operates another’s boat, airplane, or motor propelled vehicle without the effect of consent of the owner?

A

Unauthorized use of A vehicle

832
Q

What statement is issued and sent to a person notifying them that they had a lack of funds for insufficient funds within 30 days after issue to give them 10 days to make payment in full?

(For the presumption of theft by check)

A

“This is a demand for payment in full for a check or order not paid because of lack of funds or insufficient funds. If you fail to make payment in full within 10 days after the date of receipt of this notice, the failure to pay creates a presumption for committing an offense and this matter may be referred for criminal prosecution.”

833
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Knowing that the material is harmful and knowing the person is a minor, individual younger than 18 years, he sells, distributes, exhibits, or possesses for sale distribution or exhibition to a minor harmful material displays harmful material, and his reckless about whether a minor is present will be offended or alarmed by the display or he hires employees, or uses a minor to do or accomplish or assist in doing or accomplishing any of the acts of sale, distribution, exhibition, possession for sale, distribution or exhibition to a minor harmful material or display harmful material?

A

Sale, distribution, or display of harmful material to Minor

834
Q

What is considered as being harmful material?

A

Material whose dominant theme taken as a whole appeals to the prurient interest of a minor, insects, nudity, or excretion. Is patently offensive to prevailing standards in the adult community as a whole with respect to what is suitable for minors and is utterly without redeeming social value for minors.

43.24

835
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Required to give notice of the death of an inmate and the person fails to give the notice or report facts known or discovered in an investigation of the death of an inmate or fails to complete a report or investigation of a inmate/prisoners death?

A

Failure to report death of prisoner

836
Q

What offense is committed by an official of a correctional facility-anyone working at the correctional facility, or a peace officer or if the person intentionally denies or impedes a person in custody in the exercise or enjoyment of any right, privilege, or immunity knowing his conduct is unlawful, engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviant sexual intercourse with an individual in custody?

A

Violations of the civil rights of person in custody; improper sexual activity with person in custody

837
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Who employs, authorizes, or induces a child to work in a sexually orientated commercial activity or in any place of business permitting, requesting, or requiring a child to work nude or topless?

A

Employment harmful to children

838
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Who knowingly or intentionally possesses visual material that visually depicts a child younger than 18 years of age at the time of the image of the child was made who is engaging in sexual conduct and the person knows that the material Depicts the child; knowingly or intentionally promotes or possesses with intent to promote material that visually depicts a child Younger than 18 years of age engaging in sexual conduct. Possession of six or more identical visual depictions of the child having sex is presumed to possess with intent to promote

A

Possession or promotion of child pornography

Younger than 18 years of age / Possession of six or more identical visual depictions of the child having sex is presumed to possess with intent to promote

839
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Who is a minor younger than 18 years of age if the minor intentionally or knowingly by electronic means promotes or possesses visual material depicting a minor or another minor engaging in sexual conduct; a text message-data message-video of a minor naked, masturbation, or in any other sexual conduct sent to another or kept by another after receiving it without destroying the material in a reasonable amount of time.

A

Electronic transmission of certain visual material depicting minor

It is a defense to prosecution that the actor and recipient are not more than two years older or younger than each other in a dating relationship or is a spouse

840
Q

Is a business that develops or processes visual material required to report the existence of visual material that may be criminal to a local law-enforcement agency?

A

43.27-duty to report-a business that develops or processes visual material shall report the existence of visual material that maybe criminal to a local law-enforcement agency

841
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Who is a public servant with intent to obtain a benefit or with intent to harm or defraud another he intentionally or knowingly violates a law relating to the public servants office or employment or misuses government property services personnel or anything of value by virtue of the public servants employment

A

Abuse of official capacity

842
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Who is a public servant acting under the color of his office or employment intentionally subjects another to mistreatment or to arrest detention, search, seizure, dispossession, assessment, or Lien that he knows is unlawful. Intentionally denies or impedes another in the exercise or enjoyment of any right, privilege, power, or immunity, knowing his conduct is unlawful or intentionally subjects another to sexual harassment.

A

Official oppression

843
Q

What offense is committed by a person:
Who is a public servant In reliance on information to which he has accessed by virtue of his office or employment and that has not been made public. He acquires or aids another to acquire a pecuniary interest in any property, transaction or enterprise that may be affected by the information speculates or aids another to speculate on the basis of the information
a public servant including as a principal of the school, coerces another into suppressing or failing to report that information to all law enforcement agency.
With intent to obtain benefit or with intent to harm or defraud another he discloses, solicits, receives information not made public

A

Misuse of official information

844
Q

What means any performance or part thereof that includes sexual conduct by child younger than 18 years of age

A

Sexual performance

845
Q

What mean sexual contact, actual or simulated sexual intercourse, deviant sexual intercourse, sexual Bestiality, masturbation, sadomasochists abuse, or lewd exhibition of the genitals, the anus, or any portion of the female breasts below the top of the areola?

A

Sexual conduct

846
Q

What means any play, motion picture, photograph, dance, or other visual representation that can be exhibited before an audience of one or more persons?

A

Performance

847
Q

What is with respect to a sexual performance includes any conduct that directly contributes to the creation or manufacture of the sexual performance?

A

Produce

848
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Knowing the character and content there of he employs, authorizes, or induces a child younger than 18 years of age to engage in sexual conduct for a sexual performance. A parent or legal guardian or custodian of a child younger than 18 years of age commits an offense if he consents to the participation by the child in a sexual performance, Knowing the character and content of the material, he produces, directs, or promotes a performance that includes sexual conduct by a child younger than 18 years of age? (Tracy Lords).

A

Sexual performance by a child

Younger than 14 aggravates the crime

You must be 18 years old to make a porn or work in a strip club.

849
Q

What means under arrest by peace officer or under restraint by a public servant, under restraint by an agent or employee of a facility that is operated by or under contract with the United States and that confines people arrested. (The Wackenhut facility)

A

Custody

850
Q

What means an authorized departure from custody or failure to return to custody following temporary leave from custody?

A

Escape

851
Q

What means a person for whom a valid arrest warrant has been issued and is still at large?

A

Fugitive from Justice

I am just a lonesome fugitive - Merle Haggard

852
Q

What offenses committed if a person intentionally refuses to give his name, residence address, or date of birth to a peace officer who has lawfully arrested this person and requested the information or intentionally gives a false or fictitious name, residence address, or data birth to a peace officer (piss off sir) who has lawfully arrested the person, lawfully detained the person, or requested the information from a person that the peace officer has good cause to believe is a witness to a criminal offense?

A

Failure to Identify

853
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

Intentionally flees from a person he knows is a peace officer or federal special investigator attempting lawfully to arrest or detain him?

A

Evade arrest or detention

854
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally prevents or obstructs the person he knows is a peace officer or a person acting in a peace officer’s presence and at his direction from affecting an arrest, search, or transportation of the actor or another by USING FORCE against the peace officer for another?

A

Resisting arrest, search, or transportation

855
Q

In the offense of “resisting arrest, search, or transportation” is there a defense to prosecution that the arrest or search was unlawful and does the term using force mean The peace officer has to be assaulted?

A

It is NO defense to prosecution that the arrest or search was unlawful. Using force does NOT mean assault!

856
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Is an official or employee of a correctional facility; if he knowingly permits or facilitates the Escape of a person in custody; or a person who knowingly causes or facilitates the escape of one who is in custody pursuant to an allegation or Adjudication of delinquency or involuntary commitment for mental illness?

A

Permitting or Facilitating Escape

857
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With intent to facilitate escaped he introduces into a correction facility, or provides a person in custody or an inmate with a deadly weapon or anything that maybe useful for escape?

A

Implements for Escape

858
Q

Is there a defense to prosecution for 38.06 Escape and 38.07 Permitting or Facilitating Escape that the custody was unlawful?

A

38.08 Effect of unlawful custody

it is no defense to prosecution that the custody was unlawful

859
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Is lawfully released from custody, with or without bail, on condition that he subsequently appear and he intentionally or knowingly fails to appear in accordance with the terms of his release?

A

Bail Jumping and Failure to Appear

860
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

Provides, or possesses with intent to provide to a person in custody of a correctional facility; an alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or dangerous drug-except by prescription of a practitioner. A deadly weapon; a cellular telephone; money; a cigarette or tobacco products; or takes these products into A correction facility for distribution?

A

Prohibited substances and items in correctional facility

861
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
While confined in the correctional facility he contacts by letter, telephone, or any other means either directly or through a third-party, a victim of the offense or a member of the victims family if the victim was younger than 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense for which the person is confined?

A

Improper Contact with Victim

This is to prevent letter such as this:
“Ma’am, I enjoyed raping and killing your daughter and having her pussy wrapped around my rockhard penis. As a ejaculated inside her, I cut her pretty head off.
I realize you’re a Christian and have another beautiful daughter. I plan on doing the same to both of you as soon as I get out of prison.
In the meantime there is a video and pictures of the torture I inflicted on your daughter enclosed is a location that you can get these copies of the videos and please post them on the Internet! So, the world will know what I have planned to do to you, your family, and any other family that I come across after my release. Thank you for your loving support.

P.S. As a God-fearing Christian I know that you’ll forgive me and I should be out of jail soon.”

862
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
in violation of an order the person knowingly; communicates directly or indirectly with the applicant or any member of applicants family or household in a threatening or harassing manner goes to or near the residence place of employment or business; possesses a firearm; issued under Chapter 2 A CCP

A

Violation of protective order issued on bias of sexual assault

“Hey baby, I know you enjoyed it last time, I want to do it again, now quit screaming, NO! I don’t want to shoot you in the face with this gun.”

863
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With criminal negligence interrupts, disrupts, impedes, or otherwise interferes with; A peace officer, person employed to provide emergency medical services, a firefighter, an animal under the supervision of a peace officer, the transmission of a communication over a citizens band radio channel used for emergencies, animal control officer, public health enforcement officer, environmental radiation or safety measures for the State, County, or municipality?

A

Interference with Public Duties

It is a defense to prosecution if the conduct engaged was intended to warn a person operating a motor vehicle of the presence of a peace officer enforcing speeding by radar or laser

864
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

Observes the commission of a felony in which serious bodily injury or death may have resulted and fails to immediately report the commission of the offense to a peace officer or law-enforcement agency; without placing himself or herself in danger?

A

Failure to Report Felony

865
Q
What offense is committed by a person who:
With the intent to establish, maintain, or participate in a combination or in the profits of a combination or as a member of a criminal street gang, The person commits or conspires to commit one or more of the following offenses:
Murder, capital murder, arson, aggravated robbery, robbery, burglary, theft, aggravated kidnapping, kidnapping, aggravated assault, aggravated sexual assault, sexual assault, forgery, deadly conduct, assault class-A, burglary of a motor vehicle, or unauthorized use of a motor vehicle, gambling offenses-class A, promotion of prostitution, aggravated promotional prostitution, or compelling prostitution; unlawful manufacture, transport, repair, sale of firearms or prohibited weapons; unlawful manufacture, delivery, dispensing, or distribution of a controlled substance, dangerous drug; promotion or possession of any obscene material/device, prostitution, credit card fraud, bribery, money laundering, Impersonating officer, trafficking persons, perjury, Escape; dogfighting, or unlawful transfer of certain weapons.
A

Engaging in Organized Criminal Activity

866
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Obtains property or secured performance of service by issuing or passing a check or similar site order for the payment of money, when the issuer did not have sufficient funds in or on deposit with the bank or other drawer for the payment-in-full of the check or order as well as all other checks for orders then Outstanding.
It is prima facie evidence of his intent to deprive of the property under section 31.03 Theft, including a drawee or third-party holder in due course who negotiated the check or to avoid payment for service under section 31.04 Theft of Service, except in the case of a post dated check or order

A

Presumption for Theft by Check

1) he had no account with the bank or other drawee at the time he issued the check or order
2) payment was refused by the bank or other drawee for lack of funds or insufficient funds, on presentation within 30 days after issue, and the issuer failed to pay the holder in-full within 10 days after receiving notice of that refusal.

867
Q

How may the notice of lack of funds or insufficient funds be made and sent to a person for presumption for theft by check?

A

Actual notice or notice in writing that is sent by; first-class mail, evidenced by an affidavit of service, or registered or certified mail with return receipt requested, is addressed to the issuer at the issuers address shown on the check or order; the records of the bank or the drawee; or the records of the person to whom the check or order has been issued or passed.

(the last yellow note card)

868
Q

When is the person criminally responsible for result of their conduct or the results of the conduct of another person?

A

If the only difference between what actually occurred and what he desired, contemplated, or risked is that a different offense was committed or a different person or property was injured, harmed or otherwise affected - it would not have occurred but for his conduct or concurrently with another

869
Q

Who can be charged with an offense when he is part of the party, in a group, that committed the offense?

A

Each party to an offense may be charged with the commission of the offense all traditional distinctions between accomplices and principles are abolished

870
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With intent to make a profit, the person prepares, sells, offers or advertises for sale, or delivers to another person and academic product when the person knows or should reasonably have known, that a person intends to submit or use the academic product to satisfy an academic requirement of a person other than the person who prepared the product; or with intent to induce another person to enter into an agreement or obligation to obtain or have prepared an academic product, the person knowingly makes or disseminates a written or oral statement that the person will prepare or cause to be prepared and academic product to be sold for use in satisfying an academic requirement of a person other than the person who prepared the product?

A

Deceptive preparation and marketing of academic product

871
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With intent to harm or defraud the another, obtains, possesses, Transfers or uses an item of identifying information of another person without the other person’s consent information concerning deceased natural person, including a stillborn infant or fetus, that would be identifying information of that person were that person alive, If the item of information is obtained, possessed, transferred or used without legal authorization or identifying information of a child younger than 18 years of age

A

Fraudulent Use or Possession of Identifying Information

872
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

With intent to affect an outcome, including a score, of a publicly exhibited contest offers, confers, or agrees to confer any benefit; or threatens harm to a participant in the contest to induce him not to use his best efforts or an official or other person associated with the contest to tamper with the contest; or tampers with a person, animal, or thing in a manner contrary to the rules of the contest

A

Rigging publicly exhibited contest

873
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally or knowingly solicits, accepts, or agrees to accepts any benefit from another in an agreement or understanding that the benefit will influence the conduct of the person in enrolling in the institution and participating in intercollegiate athletics; or offers, confers, or agrees to confer any benefit without consent of the government body or does it mean on the governing body of an institution of higher education

A

Illegal Recruitment of an Athlete

874
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With intent to defraud or harm another, he destroys, removes, conceals, alters, substitutes, or otherwise impairs the verity, legibility, or availability of a writing, other than a governmental record?

A

Fraudulent destruction, removal, or concealment of writing

875
Q

What offense is committed by a person who: recklessly causes to be delivered to another any document that simulates a summons, complaint, judgment, or other court process with intent to induce payment of the claim from another person or cause another to submit to the punitive Authority of the document or take any action or refrain from taking any action in response to the document, in compliance with the document or on the basis of the document?

A

Simulating Legal Process

876
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally or knowingly operates another’s, boat, airplane, or motor-propelled vehicle without the effective of consent of the owner?

A

Unauthorized use of a vehicle

877
Q

When can amounts be considered one offense in the amounts aggregated in determining the grade of the offense?

A

Aggregation of amounts involved in theft when amounts are obtained in violation of this chapter pursuant to one scheme for continuing course of conduct, whether the from the same or several sources

878
Q

Is it a defense prosecution under the chapter 31, that the actor has an interest in the property or service stolen and another has the right of exclusive possession of the property?

A

It is NO Defense to prosecution

  • actors interest in property *
879
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Knowingly or intentionally removes, alters, or obliterates a serial number or other permanent identification marking on tangible personal property

A

Tampering with identification markers

880
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Without the authorization of the multi-channel video or information service provider, the person intentionally or knowingly:
1) makes or maintains a connection to A cable, wire, or other component of an media; television set, video recorder, or other receiver attached to a multi channel video or information system
2) attaches, causes to be attached, or maintains to a multi channel video or information Service
3) campus with a modifies or maintains modification to a multi channel video or information Service

A

Theft of or tampering with multi-channel video or information services

881
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
For renumeration intentionally or knowingly manufacturers, assembles, modifies, imports into the state, exports out of the state, distributes, advertises, or offers for sale, with intent to aid in commission of “theft of or tampering with multi-channel video or information services”, A device, a kit or part for a device or a plan for a system of components wholly or partially designed to make intelligible an encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other standard signal called or caused by a multi-channel video or information services provider; sell or lease a device to assist in the theft of or tampering with multi-channel video or information services?

A

Manufacture, distribution, or advertisement of multi-channel video or information services device

882
Q

What is the culpable mental state of someone who with respect to their nature of his conduct or to a result of his conduct when it is his conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result?

A

Intentionally or with intent

883
Q

What is the culpable mental state of someone who with the respect to the nature of his conduct or to the circumstances surrounding his conduct when he is AWARE of the nature of his conduct or that the circumstances exist, a person, with respect to a result of his conduct is AWARE that his conduct is reasonably certain to cause the result?

A

Knowingly or with knowledge

Chapter 6 Penal Code culpable mental states

884
Q

What means any object, material, device, or substance or any copy thereof including a writing, recording, drawing, sample, specimen, prototype, model, photograph, micro-organism, blueprint, or map?

A

Article

885
Q

What means a facsimile, replica, photograph, or other reproduction of an article or a note, drawing, or sketch made of or from an article?

A

Copy

886
Q

What means describing, depicting, containing, constituting, reflecting, or recording?

A

Representing

887
Q

What means the whole or any part of any scientific or technical information, design, process, procedure, formula, or improvement that has value and that the owner has taken measures to prevent from becoming available to persons other than those selected by the owner to have access for limited purposes?

A

Trade Secret

888
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With intent to avoid payment for a service that the actor Knows is provided only for compensation; the actor intentionally or knowingly secures performance of the service by deception, threat, or false token; having control over the disposition of service of another to which the actor is not entitled. The actor intentionally or knowingly diverts the other’s services to the actor’s own benefit or to the benefit of another not entitled to the services; having control of personal property under a WRITTEN rental agreement, the actor holds the property beyond the expiration of the rental. Without the effective consent of the owner of the property, thereby depriving the owner of the property of its use in further rentals. Fails to make full payment after he leaving performance of service, after service is rendered, after the service demanding payment after The actor receives notice demanding payment?

A

THEFT OF SERVICE

889
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

forges a writing with intent to defraud or harm another?

A

Forgery

890
Q

What includes printing or any other method of recording information, money, coins, tokens, stamps, seals, credit cards, badges, and trademarks; symbols of value, right, privilege, or identification?

A

Writing

891
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With intent to defraud or harm another; he makes or alters an object, in whole or in part, so that it appears to have a value because of age, and antiquity, rarity, source, or authorship that it does not have; also he possesses an object so made or altered, with intent to sell, pass, or otherwise utter it; or he authenticates or certifies an object so made or altered as genuine or As different from what it is?

A

Criminal Simulation

892
Q

What means a bank, trust company, insurance company, credit union, building or loan Association, savings and loan Association, investment trusts, investment company, or any other organization held out to the public as a place for deposit of funds or medium of savings or collective investment?

A

Financial institution

893
Q

What means to acquire property for service by theft?

A

Steal

894
Q

What is it to alter, make, complete, execute, or authenticate any writing so that it purports to be the act of another who did not authorize that act or to have been executed at a time or place or in number sequence other then was in fact the case or to be a copy of an original when no such original existed?

A

FORGE

895
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Is an authorized vendor who, with intent to defraud the creditor or cardholder, presents to a creditor, for payment, a credit card transaction record of a sale that was not made by the authorized vendor or vendors agent?

A

Credit Card Transaction Record Laundering

896
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Issues or passes a check or similar site order for the payment of money knowing that the issuer does not have sufficient funds in or on deposit with the bank or the drawee for the payment in full of the check or order as well as all other checks or orders outstanding at the time of issuance?

A

Issuance of Bad Check

897
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Has signed a security agreement creating a security interest in property or a mortgage deed of trust creating a lien, on property; commits an offense if with intent to hinder enforcement of that interest or lien, he destroys, removes, conceals, or encumbers, or otherwise harms or reduces the value of the property?

A

Hindering Secured Creditors

898
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Acquires, accepts possession of, or exercises control over the motor vehicle of another under a written or oral agreement to arrange for the transfer of the vehicle to a third-party and; knowing the vehicle is subject to a security interest, lease or lien; the person Transfers a vehicle to third-party without first obtaining written authorization from the vehicles secured creditor, lessor, or lien-holder; intending to defraud or harm the vehicles owner, the person Transfers a vehicle to a third-party; intending to defraud or harm the vehicle owner, the person disposes of the vehicle in a manner other than transfer to a third party; does not disclose the location of the vehicle to the owner or creditor?

A

Fraudulent Transfer of a Motor Vehicle

899
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally or knowingly makes a materially false or misleading written statement to obtain property or credit, including a mortgage loan; also intentionally or knowingly makes a material false or misleading written statement in providing an appraisal of real property for compensation?

A

False Statement to obtain property or credit or in the provision of certain services

900
Q

What agencies shall assist prosecuting attorney of the United States or of a county or judicial district of this state, a county or state law-enforcement agency of the state, or federal law-enforcement agency in the investigation of an offense under false statement to obtain property or credit or in the provision of certain services involving a mortgage loan?

A

1) The office of the Atty. Gen.
2) The Department of Public Safety
3) The Texas department of insurance
4) The office of consumer credit card Commissioner
5) The Texas department of banking
6) The credit union department
7) The department of savings and mortgage lending
8) The Texas real estate commission
9) The Texas appraiser licensing and certification board
10) The Texas department of housing and community affairs

901
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally manufacturers, displays, advertises, distributes, offers for sale, sells, or possesses with intent to sell or distribute a counterfeit Mark or an item or service that bears or is identified by a counterfeit mark or the person knows or should have known bears or is identified by the counterfeit Mark?

A

Trademark counterfeiting

902
Q

What means a mark that is identical to or substantially indistinguishable from a protected mark the use or production of which is not authorized by the owner of the protected Mark?

A

Counterfeit Mark

903
Q

What means three or more persons who collaborate in carrying on criminal activities although participants may not know each other’s identity, membership in the combination may change from time to time, and participants may stand in a whole saler-retailer or other arms-length relationship in illicit distribution operations?

A

Combination

904
Q

What means that a person agrees with one or more persons that they or one or more of them engage in conduct that would constitute the offense and that person AND one or more of them perform an overt act in pursuance of the agreement? An agreement constituting conspiring to commit may be inferred from the acts of the parties?

A

Conspires to commit

905
Q

What means three or more persons having a common identifying sign or symbol or an identifying leadership who continuously or regularly associate in the commission of criminal activities

A

Criminal street gang

We gangsta baby gangsta

906
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Uses or claims to hold a post secondary degree that the person knows is a fraudulent or substandard degree, is fictitious or has otherwise not been granted to the person or has been revoked and uses or claims to hold that degree in a written or oral advertisement or other promotion of business or with the intent to obtain employment, obtain a license or certificate, obtain a promotion, obtain admission to an educational program, or gain a position in government?

A

Fraudulent, substandard or fictitious degree

907
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

Intentionally, knowingly, recklessly causes the exploitation of a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual?

A

Exploitation of child, elderly individual, or disabled individual

14 years of age or younger/65 years of age or older/older than 14 years of age and retarded

(dumb and dumber; I thought the birdie was just quiet)

908
Q

What means the illegal or improper use of a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual or of the resources of a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual for monetary or personal benefit, profit, or gain?

A

Exploitation

909
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Uses or claims to hold a military record that the person knows is fraudulent; is fictitious or has otherwise not been granted or assigned to the person, has been revoked, uses or claims to hold that military record in a written or oral advertisement or other promotion of a business or with the intent to obtain priority in receiving services or resources, qualify for veterans employment preferences, obtain a license or certificate to practice a trade, profession or occupation; obtain a promotion, compensation, or other benefit; obtain a benefit, service, or donation from another person; obtain admission to an educational program; gain a position in the state government with authority over another person, regardless of the compensation or not?

A

Fraudulent or fictitious military record

Fuck chapter 32 of the Penal Code!

910
Q

What offense was committed when a person intentionally, knowingly or recklessly applies property he holds as a fiduciary or property of the financial institution in a manner that involves substantial risk of loss to the owner / or property of a financial institution in a manner that involves substantial risk of loss to the owner of the property or person for whose benefit the property is held

A

Misapplication of Fiduciary property or property of Financial institution

911
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

With intent to defraud for harm any person he by deception-causes another to sign or execute any document affecting property or service or the Pecuniary interest of any person or causes or induces a public servant to file or record any purported judgment or other document purporting to memorialize or evidence and act, an order, a directive, or process of purported court that is not expressly created for established under the Constitution or the laws of the state or the United States?

A

Securing execution of document by deception

912
Q

What means to withhold property from the owner permanently or for so extended a period of time that the major portion of the value or enjoyment of the property is lost to the owner; to restore property only upon payment of reward or other compensation or to dispose of property in a manner that makes recovery of the property by the owner unlikely?

A

Deprive

913
Q

What includes consent by a person legally authorized to act for the owner but not if induced by deception or coercion or given by a person the actor knows is not legally authorized to act for the owner or given by a person who by reason of youth, mental disease, defect, or intoxication is known by the actor to be unable to make reasonable property dispositions or given solely to detect the commission of the offense; or given by a person who by reason of advanced age is known by the actor to have a diminished capacity to make informed and rational decisions about the reasonable disposition of property?

A

Effective consent

914
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With the intent to use the instrument to commit theft, the person possesses a shielding or deactivation instrument or knowingly manufacturers, sells, offers for sale, or otherwise distributes the shielding or deactivation instrument?

A

Possession, manufacture, or distribution of certain instruments used to commit retail theft

915
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally conducts, promotes, or facilitates an activity in which the person receives, possesses, conceals, stores, barters, sells, or disposes of stolen retail merchandise or merchandise explicitly represented to the person as being stolen retail merchandise?

A

Organize retail theft

916
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Knowing that they are not entitled to octane or possess that financial information, of another by use of an electronic, photographic, visual imaging, recording, or other device capable of accessing, reading, recording, capturing, copying, imaging, scanning, reproducing, or storing in any manner the financial site order for payment card information or transfer to a third-party of the above information

A

Unauthorized Acquisition or Transfer of certain financial information

917
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally or knowingly offers, confers, or agrees to confer on another, or solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept from another any benefit as consideration for the recipients decision, opinion, recommendation, vote or other exercise of discretion as a public servant, party official, or voter; and a judicial or administrative proceeding; as a consideration for a violation of a duty imposed by law on a public servant or party official differences in the absence of certain evidence, direct evidence of the express agreement shall be required?

A

Bribery

918
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
With intent to obtain a benefit fraudulently he presents or uses a credit card or debit card with knowledge that the card, whether or not expired, has not been issued to him and is not used with the effective consent of the cardholder; or the card has expired or has been revoked or canceled; with intent to obtain a benefit he uses a fictitious credit card for debit card or the pretended number or description of a fictitious card, he receives the benefit that he knows has been obtained in violation of credit card or debit card abuse, he steals a credit card or debit card or with knowledge that it has been stolen, receives a credit card or debit card with intent to use it, to sell it, or to transfer it to a person other than the issuer or the cardholder

A

credit card or debit card abuse

919
Q

What means a person named on the face of the credit card or debit card to whom or for where benefit the card is issued?

A

Cardholder

920
Q

What means a data plate, serial number, or part Identification number?

A

Identification Mark

921
Q

What Means a trademark or service mark or another identification Mark that is:

A) registered with the Secretary of State
B) registered on the principal register of the United States patent and trademark office
C) registered under the laws of another state
D) protected by section 16.30, business of commerce code, or by 36 U.S.C. Section 371

The state or federal certificate of registration of intellectual property is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in the certificate?

A

Protected Mark

922
Q

When is deadly force authorized and protection of one’s own property or the property of a third person?

A

Prevent the others imminent commission of arson, burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, theft during the nighttime, or criminal mischief during the nighttime or the fling immediately after and has reason to believe the land or property cannot be protected or recovered by any other means of protection for recovery would expose the actor or another to a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury

923
Q

What is a requirement for using deadly force to protect your property against theft or criminal mischief?

A

During the night time

924
Q

Kind of device be used to protect land, tangible, or movable property?

A

Yes, if the device is not designed or known to cause—- death or serious bodily injury

925
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Intentionally or knowingly causes the death of an individual or intends to cause serious bodily injury and commits an act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of an individual; or commits or attempts to commit a felony, other than manslaughter, and in the course of and in furtherance of the commission or attempt, or an immediate flight from the commission or attempt he commits or attempts to commit an act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of an individual?

A

Murder

Red red, red rum, Red rum

926
Q

List the four culpable mental states from highest to lowest

A

1) intentional
2) knowing
3) reckless
4) criminal negligence

927
Q

What is a voluntary act if the possessor knowingly obtains or receives the thing possessed or is aware of his control of the thing for a sufficient time to permit him to terminate his CONTROL

A

Possession

928
Q

What is a culpable mental state of a person with respect to the circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he is aware of but can consciously disregards a substantial or an unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the results will occur and the risk constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care?

A

Recklessly or is reckless

929
Q

What is a culpable mental state of a person with respect to the circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he OUGHT TO BE aware of a substantial or unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the results will occur and the risk constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care?

A

Criminally negligent or with criminal negligence

930
Q

Are you subject to civil remedies for conduct that was justified in a civil lawsuit?

A

THE FACT THAT CONDUCT IS JUSTIFIED UNDER THIS CHAPTER DOES NOT ABOLISH OR IMPAIR ANY REMEDY FOR THE CONDUCT THAT IS AVAILABLE IN A CIVIL LAWSUIT.

I BELIEVE IF SOME DUMB FUCK FAMILY SUES A CITY, STATE, OR COUNTY; BECAUSE An officer employed by a city, state, or county (or federal officer) HAD TO KILL THIS A FUCKING SCUMBAG BECAUSE THE BITCH OR BASTARD WAS A GANGBANGER, A LOSER SHIT BAG, JACK ASS, ASS CLOWN, FART KNOCKER, DOUCHE CANOE, ASS NAPKIN, OR ASS-HAT; THE OFFICER SHOULD BE ABLE TO SUE FOR ANY SETTLEMENT THAT THE FAMILY RECEIVED… Any time lost from work or any type of PSD that the officer might end up with

931
Q

Is there a duty to retreat before using deadly force when deadly force is so justified?

A

Deadly force must be specifically required, if deadly force is so justified, there is NO duty to retreat before using it!

932
Q

When is confinement and threats of force justifiable?

A

When the use of force is justified

933
Q

What are the types of criminal homicide?

A

Murder, capital murder, manslaughter, or criminal negligence homicide

934
Q

What means passion directly caused by and arising out of provocation by the individual killed or another acting with the person killed which passion arises at the time of the offense and is not solely the result of former provocation?

A

Sudden passion

935
Q

Is mistake of law by itself a defense to prosecution?

A

No;

mistake of law is not a defense prosecution

936
Q

When can a mistake of law be an affirmative defense to prosecution?

A

When an official statement contained in a written order or Grant of permission made by a public official charged by law with responsibility for interpreting the law in question.

The person may be convicted of a lesser included offense

937
Q

Is intoxication a defense to the commission of a crime when it is voluntary intoxication?

A

Voluntary intoxication does not constitute a defense to the commission of a crime, but may be introduced in mitigation of the penalty for the crime

938
Q

What is the disturbance of mental or physical capacity resulting from the introduction of any substance into the body?

A

Intoxication

939
Q

Who can be guilty of an offense if an attempt to carry out the conspiracy to commit one felony, a robbery of a bank, another felony is committed, capital murder of a police officer, by one of the conspirators?

A

All conspirators are guilty of the felony actually committed, though having no intent to commit it!

940
Q

Who is guilty of an offense if an attempt to carry out a conspiracy to commit one felony, a robbery of a bank, another felony is committed, capital murder of a peace officer, where one of the conspirators causes or aids an innocent or non-responsible person, ie. Someone younger than 15 years of age, to engage in conduct prohibited by the definition of the offense?

(A 14-year-old is helping during the robbery of a bank and shoots/kills a uniform police officer responding to a robbery alarm)

A

All conspirators are guilty of felony actually committed, though having no intent to commit it.

941
Q

If the conduct in question that would ordinarily be considered a crime was found to be justified, is there any defense the prosecution for the conduct that is justified?

A

It is a defense to prosecution that the conduct in question is justified under chapter 9 of the Penal Code.

942
Q

If the third, innocent person, is killed or injured by the threatened or use of force or deadly force Against another that was justified under Chapter 9 of the penal code, will the actor that caused injury or death to third, innocent, person still have justification as a defense available in a prosecution for the reckless injury or death of innocent third person?

For example: A bullet, shotgun pellets, or a shotgun slug travels through your suspect, through a wall and kills a baby in it’s crib. You shot the suspect because he was a burglar, Who was raping the baby’s mother with a gun to her head, then pointed the gun at you, to shoot you with his gun!

A

Justification afforded by chapter 9 of the Penal Code is unavailable in the prosecution for the reckless injury or killing of innocent third person.

(No casualties of war)

*~/

943
Q

Duress and entrapment are an affirmative defense prosecution and a defense to prosecution.

Which one is in an affirmative defense to prosecution?

A

Duress is an affirmative defense to prosecution if compelled to do so by threat of imminent death or serious bodily injury to himself or another.–No defense at the command or persuasion of his spouse unless under compulsion

944
Q

Does Merely affording a person an opportunity to commit an offense constitute entrapment?

Entrapment is a defense to prosecution

A

Conduct merely affording a person and opportunity to commit an offense does not constitute entrapment.

Entrapment is a defense to prosecution only if induced to do so by a law-enforcement agent using persuasion or other means to cause the person to commit an offense.

945
Q

Would duress be a defense to prosecution if the person recklessly placed himself in a situation in which it was probable that he would be subjected to compulsion?

A

The duress defense is unavailable if the actor intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly placed himself in a situation subject to compulsion

946
Q

When can a guard or a police officer be justified in using any force, including deadly force, that he reasonably believes to be immediately necessary to prevent the escape of a person?

A

A correctional facility guard or a police officer to prevent escape from the correctional facility

947
Q

What is it called when a person with specific intent to commit an offense, he does an act amounting to more than just mere preparation?

(more than mere preparation that tends but fails to affect the commission of the offense intended. An element that aggravates the offense accompanies the attempt. It is the aggravated offense that was committed. No defense if offense attempted was actually committed)

A

Criminal attempt

948
Q

Does the crime of attempted robbery or attempted aggravated robbery exist?

A

No!!!

You stupid motherfucker there’s no attempted robbery or attempted aggravated robbery.

And some chicken shit stealing stuff out of your house while you’re at work is a fucking burglary, not a robbery, dumb fuck!

949
Q

Parent-child
How old can a child be for a parent or person in loco parentis use force but not deadly force on the child before the child is too old?

A

The use of force, but not deadly force, against a child younger than 18 years is justified by a parent, step-parents, grandparents, guardian, or person in the loco parentis, anyone who has expressed or implied consent of the parent or parents, and has reasonable belief the force is necessary to discipline the child to safeguard-promote welfare.

Educator-student = no age
Guardian-incompetent, mental health, retard = no age

950
Q

Is antisocial behavior/conduct a mental disease or defect?

A

No!

Anti-social conduct is not included for the insanity plea as an affirmative defense to prosecution.

951
Q

What kind of defense is a severe mental disease or defect at the time of the offense charged where the actor did not know that his conduct was wrong?

A

Insanity

Insanity is an affirmative defense to prosecution

A.k.a. insanity defense to prosecution

952
Q

What is a defense to prosecution form from a reasonable believe about a matter of fact if the mistaken belief negated the kind of culpability required for the commission of the offense?

(A lady enters an unlocked car because she thought it was hers and sits down and tries to start it. The owner, of the car, stop her and calls police. The owner then wants her arrested, because he’s a fucking dumbass, for attempted theft or burglary of a vehicle, even though she did not take anything. The ass-clown further calls a sergeant, and then I have to explain to said Sgt. That no crime was committed not even criminal trespass because of _________ of _______)

A

Mistake of fact

Is a defense the prosecution.

(Therefore there is no sense in arresting somebody for criminal trespass just because she sat in someone else’s vehicle mistaking it for their own because it looked just like there’s and was left unlocked by the dumb fucking owner)

953
Q

Can the person be convicted of a lesser included offense, during a mistake of fact, of which he would be guilty if the fact were as he believed?

A

Yes-guilty of what offense matches his believed culpability that is required for the offense.

954
Q

What means to restrict of persons movements without consent?

A

Restrain and restraint is without consent if it is accomplished by force, intimidation, or deception.

955
Q

What means to restrain a person with intent to prevent his liberation by secreting or holding him in a place where he is not likely to be found or by using or threatening to use deadly force?

A

Abduct

956
Q

What offense is committed when a person intentionally or knowingly restrains another person?

A

Unlawful restraint

An affirmative defense:
A child younger than 14 years of age; actor a relative of the child; actor’s sole intent was to assume lawful control of the child

957
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
In the course of business, the person intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence commits one or more deceptive business practices such as using, selling, or possessing for use or sale of false weight or measure?

(Selling and adulterated or mislabeled commodity, advertising property or service with intent not to sell it as advertised or not to supply reasonably expectable public demand)

A

Deceptive business practices

958
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:
Is fiduciary, who without consent of his beneficiary, he on agreement or understanding that the benefit will influence the conduct of the fiduciary intentionally or knowingly accepts, solicits, or agrees to accept a benefit?

(A person commits this offense if he offers, confers, or agrees to confer any benefit the acceptance of which is without the consent of his beneficiary)

A

Commercial bribery

Fiduciary & beneficiary

959
Q

At what age when based on a person’s age alone may a person not be prosecuted for or convicted of any offense that the person committed?

A

§ 8.07. AGE AFFECTING CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY. (a) A person may not be prosecuted for or convicted of any offense that the person committed when younger than 15 years of age except:

(1) perjury and aggravated perjury when it appears by proof that the person had sufficient discretion to understand the nature and obligation of an oath;
(2) a violation of a penal statute cognizable under Chapter 729, Transportation Code, except for conduct for which the person convicted may be sentenced to imprisonment or confinement in jail;
(3) a violation of a motor vehicle traffic ordinance of an incorporated city or town in this state;
(4) a misdemeanor punishable by fine only;
(5) a violation of a penal ordinance of a political subdivision;
(6) a violation of a penal statute that is, or is a lesser included offense of, a capital felony, an aggravated controlled substance felony, or a felony of the first degree for which the person is transferred to the court under Section 54.02, Family Code, for prosecution if the person committed the offense when 14 years of age or older; or
(7) a capital felony or an offense under Section 19.02 for which the person is transferred to the court under Section 54.02(j)(2)(A), Family Code.
(b) Unless the juvenile court waives jurisdiction under Section 54.02, Family Code, and certifies the individual for criminal prosecution or the juvenile court has previously waived jurisdiction under that section and certified the individual for criminal prosecution, a person may not be prosecuted for or convicted of any offense committed before reaching 17 years of age except an offense described by Subsections (a)(1)-(5).

960
Q

At what age, may a person in any case for an offense committed, NOT be punished by death?

A

(c) No person may, in any case, be punished by death for an offense committed while the person was younger than 18 years.

961
Q

What is the offense if the person recklessly causes the death of an individual

A

Manslaughter

962
Q

What offense is committed by a person who:

Causes the death of an individual by criminal negligence?

A

Criminally negligent homicide

963
Q

What offense is committed when:
(1) the person murders a peace officer or fireman who is acting in the lawful discharge of an official duty and who the person knows is a peace officer or fireman;

A

Capital murder

964
Q

What offense is committed when:
(2) the person intentionally commits the murder in the course of committing or attempting to commit kidnapping, burglary, robbery, aggravated sexual assault, arson, obstruction or retaliation, or terroristic threat under Section 22.07(a)(1), (3), (4), (5), or (6);

A

Capital murder

965
Q

What offense is committed when:
(3) the person commits the murder for remuneration or the promise of remuneration or employs another to commit the murder for remuneration or the promise of remuneration;

A

Capital murder

966
Q

What offense is committed when:
4) the person commits the murder while escaping or attempting to escape from a penal institution;
(5) the person, while incarcerated in a penal institution, murders another:
(A) who is employed in the operation of the penal institution; or
(B) with the intent to establish, maintain, or participate in a combination or in the profits of a combination;

A

Capital murder

967
Q

What offense is committed when:
(6) the person:
(A) while incarcerated for an offense under this section or Section 19.02, murders another; or
(B) while serving a sentence of life imprisonment or a term of 99 years for an offense under Section 20.04, 22.021, or 29.03, murders another;

A

Capital murder

968
Q

What offense is committed when:
(7) the person murders more than one person:
(A) during the same criminal transaction; (spree or mass murder)
OR
(B) during different criminal transactions but the murders are committed pursuant to the same scheme or course of conduct; (serial murder)

A

Capital murder

969
Q

What offense is committed when:
(9) the person murders another person in retaliation for or on account of the service or status of the other person as a judge or justice of the supreme court, the court of criminal appeals, a court of appeals, a district court, a criminal district court, a constitutional county court, a statutory county court, a justice court, or a municipal court.

A

Capital murder

970
Q

What offense is committed when:

(8) the person murders an individual under 10 years of age

A

Capital murder

971
Q

What is an affirmative defense to prosecution where a person voluntarily and completely renunciation of his criminal objective the actor avoided commission of the offense attempted by abandoning his criminal conduct or prevented the commission of the offense?

A

Renunciation defense

972
Q

Is an attempt or conspiracy to commit, or solicitation, of a Preparatory an offense defined in chapter 15, penal code, an offense?

A

It is not an offense

CH. 15. PREPARATORY OFFENSES
§ 15.05. NO OFFENSE. Attempt or conspiracy to commit, or solicitation of, a preparatory offense defined in this chapter is not an offense.

973
Q

What offense does a person commit if, with intent that a capital felony or felony of the first degree be committed, he requests, commands, or attempts to induce another to engage in specific conduct that, under the circumstances surrounding his conduct as the actor believes them to be, would constitute the felony or make the other a party to its commission?

A

§ 15.03. CRIMINAL SOLICITATION. (a) A person commits an offense if, with intent that a capital felony or felony of the first degree be committed, he requests, commands, or attempts to induce another to engage in specific conduct that, under the circumstances surrounding his conduct as the actor believes them to be, would constitute the felony or make the other a party to its commission.

974
Q

What is the age requirement for the minor that is being solicited or induced, or for an offense of criminal solicitation of a minor?

A

§ 15.031. CRIMINAL SOLICITATION OF A MINOR.

(f) In this section, “minor” means an individual younger than 17 years of age.

975
Q
What offense does a person commit if, with intent that an offense listed by Section 3g(a)(1), Article 42.12, Code of Criminal Procedure, be committed, the person requests, commands, or attempts to induce a minor to engage in specific conduct that, under the circumstances surrounding the actor's conduct as the actor believes them to be, would constitute an offense listed by Section 3g(a)(1), Article 42.12, or make the minor a party to the commission of an offense listed by Section 3g(a)(1), Article 42.12.
(b) A person commits an offense if, with intent that an offense under Section 20A.02(a)(7) or (8), 21.02, 21.11, 22.011, 22.021, 43.02, 43.05(a)(2), or 43.25 be committed, the person by any means requests, commands, or attempts to induce a minor or another whom the person believes to be a minor to engage in specific conduct that, under the circumstances surrounding the actor's conduct as the actor believes them to be, would constitute an offense under one of those sections or would make the minor or other believed by the person to be a minor a party to the commission of an offense under one of those sections.
(c) A person may not be convicted under this section on the uncorroborated testimony of the minor allegedly solicited unless the solicitation is made under circumstances strongly corroborative of both the solicitation itself and the actor's intent that the minor act on the solicitation.
(d) It is no defense to prosecution under this section that:
(1) the minor solicited is not criminally responsible for the offense solicited;
(2) the minor solicited has been acquitted, has not been prosecuted or convicted, has been convicted of a different offense or of a different type or class of offense, or is immune from prosecution;
(3) the actor belongs to a class of persons that by definition of the offense solicited is legally incapable of committing the offense in an individual capacity; or
(4) the offense solicited was actually committed.
(e) An offense under this section is one category lower than the solicited offense, except that an offense under this section is the same category as the solicited offense if it is shown on the trial of the offense that the actor:
(1) was at the time of the offense 17 years of age or older and a member of a criminal street gang, as defined by Section 71.01; and
(2) committed the offense with the intent to:
(A) further the criminal activities of the criminal street gang; or
(B) avoid detection as a member of a criminal street gang.
A

§ 15.031. CRIMINAL SOLICITATION OF A MINOR.

976
Q

What means “cause that would commonly produce the degree of anger, rage, resentment, or terror in the person of ordinary temper, sufficient to render the mind incapable of cool reflection?

A

Adequate cause

977
Q

When may the defendant raise the issue as to whether he caused the death of an individual from the immediate influence of sudden passion arising from an adequate cause?

A

At the punishment stage of the trial, the defendant may raise the issue as to whether he caused the death in the influence of sudden passion arising from adequate cause.

978
Q

Does murder apply to the death of an unborn child?

A

Yes, unless it’s conduct is committed by the mother of the unborn child, or a lawful medical procedure by a physician or other licensed health care provider, or the dispensation drug.

(only a mother can murder her unborn child; either through a pill or a doctor doing an abortion)

979
Q

When is the use of force justified against another person to include deadly force?

A

In self-defense, in the defense of another person, defense of a third person.
When deadly force is immediately necessary, against the others use or attempted use of unlawful deadly force to prevent the others imminent commission of: aggravated kidnapping, murder, sexual assault, aggravated sexual assault, robbery, or aggravated robbery; -unlawful entry with force into an occupied habitation, vehicle, or place of business or employment - burglary.
-Protection of property at nighttime

980
Q

When is the use of force NOT justified against another person to include deadly force?

A

When provoking the person against whom force was used,
On verbal provocation alone,
Was not otherwise engaged in criminal activity, other than a class C misdemeanor violation of the traffic law or ordinance

981
Q

What justified force is authorized in the protection of life and health; to stop a suicide?

A

Force not deadly force unless emergency

982
Q

If an officer or a person is justified to use deadly force is the person or the officer required to retreat or attempt to retreat prior to using deadly force?

A

The fuck, NO!!!

(c) A person who has a right to be present at the location where the deadly force is used, who has not provoked the person against whom the deadly force is used, and who is not engaged in criminal activity at the time the deadly force is used is not required to retreat before using deadly force as described by this section.
(d) For purposes of Subsection (a)(2), in determining whether an actor described by Subsection (c) reasonably believed that the use of deadly force was necessary, a finder of fact may not consider whether the actor failed to retreat.

983
Q

What offense is committed if a person, with intent that a felony be committed:

(1) he agrees with one or more persons that they or one or more of them engage in conduct that would constitute the offense; and
(2) he or one or more of them performs an overt act in pursuance of the agreement.
(b) An agreement constituting a conspiracy may be inferred from acts of the parties.

A

§ 15.02. CRIMINAL CONSPIRACY.

984
Q

Is there a defense to prosecution for criminal conspiracy?

A

(c) It is no defense to prosecution for criminal conspiracy that:
(1) one or more of the coconspirators is not criminally responsible for the object offense;
(2) one or more of the coconspirators has been acquitted, so long as two or more coconspirators have not been acquitted;
(3) one or more of the coconspirators has not been prosecuted or convicted, has been convicted of a different offense, or is immune from prosecution;
(4) the actor belongs to a class of persons that by definition of the object offense is legally incapable of committing the object offense in an individual capacity; or
(5) the object offense was actually committed.

985
Q

Can an educator use force, but not deadly force, against a student and how would they justify the use of force on the student?

A

CH. 9. JUSTIFICATION EXCLUDING CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY

§ 9.62. EDUCATOR-STUDENT. The use of force, but not deadly force, against a person is justified:

(1) if the actor is entrusted with the care, supervision, or administration of the person for a special purpose; and
(2) when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary to further the special purpose or to maintain discipline in a group.

I have no more cards to enter into this database!!! Any other cards added will be done by either Joshua Ruby or someone else…. I have no intention of entering the remaining cards from the criminal investigation book from the test of 2013.

986
Q
  1. 03 THEFT
    (j) With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, _____________ has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an offense under this section that involves the state Medicaid program.
A

the attorney general

987
Q

§ 31.04. THEFT OF SERVICE. (a) A person commits theft of service if, with intent to avoid payment for service that the actor knows is provided only for compensation:

(2) the actor failed to make payment under a service agreement _________ after receiving notice demanding payment;

(4) the actor failed to return the property held under a rental agreement:
(A) ___________ after receiving notice demanding return, if the property is valued at less than $1,500; or
(B) _____________ after receiving notice demanding return, if the property is valued at $1,500 or more.

A

within 10 days

within five days

within three days

988
Q

CH. 32. FRAUD

§ 32.02. VALUE. (a) Subject to the additional criteria of Subsections (b) and (c), value under this chapter is:

(c) If property or service has value that cannot be reasonably ascertained by the criteria set forth in Subsections (a) and (b), the property or service is deemed to have a value of __________.

A

$500 or more but less than $1,500.

989
Q

§ 32.21. FORGERY. (a) For purposes of this section:
(1) “_______” means:
(A) to alter, make, complete, execute, or authenticate any writing so that it purports:

A

Forge

990
Q
    1. (a) A person commits an offense if he issues or passes a check or similar sight order for the payment of money knowing that the issuer does not have sufficient funds in or on deposit with the bank or other drawee for the payment in full of the check or order as well as all other checks or orders outstanding at the time of issuance.
A

ISSUANCE OF BAD CHECK

(1) he had no account with the bank or other drawee at the time he issued the check or order; or

991
Q

§ 32.441. ILLEGAL RECRUITMENT OF AN ATHLETE.

(d) It is an exception to prosecution under Subsection (a) that, not later than the ____ day after the date the person accepted or agreed to accept a benefit, the person contacted a law enforcement agency and furnished testimony or evidence about the offense

A

60th

992
Q

CH. 32. FRAUD

§ 32.45. MISAPPLICATION OF FIDUCIARY PROPERTY OR PROPERTY OF FINANCIAL INSTITUTION. (a) For purposes of this section:

(2) “_________” means deal with property contrary to:
(A) an agreement under which the fiduciary holds the property; or
(B) a law prescribing the custody or disposition of the property.

A

(2) “Misapply” means deal with property contrary to:
(A) an agreement under which the fiduciary holds the property; or
(B) a law prescribing the custody or disposition of the property.

993
Q

§ 32.49. REFUSAL TO EXECUTE RELEASE OF FRAUDULENT LIEN OR CLAIM. (a) A person commits an offense if, with intent to defraud or harm another, the person:

(2) not later than the _____ day after the date of receipt of actual or written notice sent by either certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, to the person’s last known address, or by telephonic document transfer to the recipient’s current telecopier number, requesting the execution of a release of the fraudulent lien or claim, refuses to execute the release on the request of:

A

21st

(A) the obligor or debtor; or
(B) any person who owns any interest in the real or personal property described in the document or instrument that is the basis for the lien or claim.

994
Q

CH. 32. FRAUD

§ 32.51. FRAUDULENT USE OR POSSESSION OF IDENTIFYING INFORMATION. (a) In this section:

(b-1) For the purposes of Subsection (b), the actor is presumed to have the intent to harm or defraud another if the actor possesses:

(1) the identifying information of _________ other persons;
(2) information described by Subsection (b)(2) concerning ____________ deceased persons; or
(3) information described by Subdivision (1) or (2) concerning ___________ persons or deceased persons.

A

three or more

three or more

three or more

995
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(11) “_____” means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that is being prepared or has been prepared in a formalized manner and is intended to be stored or processed, is being stored or processed, or has been stored or processed in a computer. Data may be embodied in any form, including but not limited to computer printouts, magnetic storage media, laser storage media, and punchcards, or may be stored internally in the memory of the computer.

A

Data

996
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(8) “_____________” means any combination of a computer or computer network with the documentation, computer software, or physical facilities supporting the computer or computer network.

A

“Computer system”

997
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(1) “_______” means to approach, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, alter data or computer software in, or otherwise make use of any resource of a computer, computer network, computer program, or computer system.

A

Access

998
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(3) “_____________________” means a person who owns or operates a telephone system in this state that includes equipment or facilities for the conveyance, transmission, or reception of communications and who receives compensation from persons who use that system.

A

Communications common carrier

999
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(4) “______” means an electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other high-speed data processing device that performs logical, arithmetic, or memory functions by the manipulations of electronic or magnetic impulses and includes all input, output, processing, storage, or communication facilities that are connected or related to the device.

A

Computer

1000
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(5) “______________” means the interconnection of two or more computers or computer systems by satellite, microwave, line, or other communication medium with the capability to transmit information among the computers.
(6) “Computer program” means an ordered set of data representing coded instructions or statements that when executed by a computer cause the computer to process data or perform specific functions.
(7) “Computer services” means the product of the use of a computer, the information stored in the computer, or the personnel supporting the computer, including computer time, data processing, and storage functions.
(8) “Computer system” means any combination of a computer or computer network with the documentation, computer software, or physical facilities supporting the computer or computer network.
(9) “Computer software” means a set of computer programs, procedures, and associated documentation related to the operation of a computer, computer system, or computer network.
(10) “Computer virus” means an unwanted computer program or other set of instructions inserted into a computer’s memory, operating system, or program that is specifically constructed with the ability to replicate itself or to affect the other programs or files in the computer by attaching a copy of the unwanted program or other set of instructions to one or more computer programs or files.
(10-a) “Critical infrastructure facility” means:
(A) a chemical manufacturing facility;
(B) a refinery;
(C) an electrical power generating facility, substation, switching station, electrical control center, or electrical transmission or distribution facility;
(D) a water intake structure, water treatment facility, wastewater treatment plant, or pump station;
(E) a natural gas transmission compressor station;
(F) a liquid natural gas terminal or storage facility;
(G) a telecommunications central switching office;
(H) a port, railroad switching yard, trucking terminal, or other freight transportation facility;
(I) a gas processing plant, including a plant used in the processing, treatment, or fractionation of natural gas;
(J) a transmission facility used by a federally licensed radio or television station; or
(K) a cable television or video service provider headend.
(11) “Data” means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that is being prepared or has been prepared in a formalized manner and is intended to be stored or processed, is being stored or processed, or has been stored or processed in a computer. Data may be embodied in any form, including but not limited to computer printouts, magnetic storage media, laser storage media, and punchcards, or may be stored internally in the memory of the computer.

A

Computer network

1001
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(6) “______________” means an ordered set of data representing coded instructions or statements that when executed by a computer cause the computer to process data or perform specific functions.

A

Computer program

1002
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(7) “______________” means the product of the use of a computer, the information stored in the computer, or the personnel supporting the computer, including computer time, data processing, and storage functions.

A

Computer services

1003
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(8) “____________” means any combination of a computer or computer network with the documentation, computer software, or physical facilities supporting the computer or computer network.

A

Computer system

1004
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(9) “_______________” means a set of computer programs, procedures, and associated documentation related to the operation of a computer, computer system, or computer network.

A

Computer software

1005
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(10) “__________” means an unwanted computer program or other set of instructions inserted into a computer’s memory, operating system, or program that is specifically constructed with the ability to replicate itself or to affect the other programs or files in the computer by attaching a copy of the unwanted program or other set of instructions to one or more computer programs or files.

A

Computer virus

1006
Q

§ 33.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(10-a) “____________________” means:
(A) a chemical manufacturing facility;
(B) a refinery;
(C) an electrical power generating facility, substation, switching station, electrical control center, or electrical transmission or distribution facility;
(D) a water intake structure, water treatment facility, wastewater treatment plant, or pump station;
(E) a natural gas transmission compressor station;
(F) a liquid natural gas terminal or storage facility;
(G) a telecommunications central switching office;
(H) a port, railroad switching yard, trucking terminal, or other freight transportation facility;
(I) a gas processing plant, including a plant used in the processing, treatment, or fractionation of natural gas;
(J) a transmission facility used by a federally licensed radio or television station; or
(K) a cable television or video service provider headend.

A

Critical infrastructure facility

1007
Q

§ 37.10. TAMPERING WITH GOVERNMENTAL RECORD

(g) A person is presumed to intend to defraud or harm another if the person acts with respect to ___________ of the same type of governmental records or blank governmental record forms and if each governmental record or blank governmental record form is a license, certificate, permit, seal, title, or similar document issued by government.

A

two or more

1008
Q

§ 38.02. FAILURE TO IDENTIFY.

(b) A person commits an offense if he intentionally gives a false or fictitious name, residence address, or date of birth to a peace officer who has:
(1) lawfully arrested the person;
(2) lawfully detained the person; or
(3) requested the information from a person that the peace officer has good cause to believe is a witness to a _____________

A) Felony Offense
B) criminal offense of a Class “B” misdemeanor and above
C) criminal offense.
D) criminal offense of a Class “A” misdemeanor and above

A

C) criminal offense.

1009
Q

§ 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL FACILITY.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person provides, or possesses with the intent to provide:

A

(1) an alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or dangerous drug to a person in the custody of a correctional facility, except on the prescription of a practitioner;
(2) a deadly weapon to a person in the custody of a correctional facility;
(3) a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device or a component of one of those devices to a person in the custody of a correctional facility;
(4) money to a person confined in a correctional facility; or
(5) a cigarette or tobacco product to a person confined in a correctional facility, except that if the facility is a local jail regulated by the Commission on Jail Standards, the person commits an offense only if providing the cigarette or tobacco product violates a rule or regulation adopted by the sheriff or jail administrator that prohibits the possession of a cigarette or places restrictions on possession of a cigarette or tobacco product.

1010
Q

§ 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL FACILITY.

(5) “______________” means any item necessary for the current, ongoing, or future operation of a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device, including a subscriber identity module card or functionally equivalent portable memory chip, a battery or battery charger, and any number of minutes that have been purchased or for which a contract has been entered into and during which a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device is capable of transmitting or receiving communications.

A

Component

1011
Q

§ 42.02. RIOT. (a) For the purpose of this section, “riot” means the assemblage of ____________ persons resulting in conduct which:

A

seven or more

(1) creates an immediate danger of damage to property or injury to persons;
(2) substantially obstructs law enforcement or other governmental functions or services; or
(3) by force, threat of force, or physical action deprives any person of a legal right or disturbs any person in the enjoyment of a legal right.
(b) A person commits an offense if he knowingly participates in a riot.

1012
Q

§ 42.01. DISORDERLY CONDUCT. (a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly:

(2) a noise is presumed to be unreasonable if the noise exceeds a ___________ after the person making the noise receives notice from a magistrate or peace officer that the noise is a public nuisance.

A

decibel level of 85

1013
Q

§ 42.07. ____________. (a) A person commits an offense if, with intent to harass, ANNOY, alarm, abuse, torment, or embarrass another he:…..

(3) “_________” means containing a patently offensive description of or a solicitation to commit an ultimate sex act, including sexual intercourse, masturbation, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anilingus, or a description of an excretory function.

A

HARASSMENT

Obscene

1014
Q

§ 42.072. __________. (a) A person commits an offense if the person, on more than one occasion and pursuant to the same scheme or course of conduct that is directed specifically at another person, knowingly engages in conduct that:

(2) causes the other person, a member of the other person’s family or household, or an individual with whom the other person has a dating relationship to be placed in fear of bodily injury or death or in fear that an offense will be committed against the other person’s property, or to feel HARASSED, ANNOYED, ALARMED, ABUSED, TORMENTED, EMBARRASSED, or OFFENDED; and
(3) would cause a reasonable person to:

(A) fear bodily injury or death for himself or herself….
(D) FEEL HARASSED, ANNOYED, ALARMED, ABUSED, TORMENTED, EMBARRASSED, or OFFENDED.

A

STALKING

1015
Q

§ 42.055. FUNERAL SERVICE DISRUPTIONS. (a) In this section:

(3) “________” means:
(A) standing, sitting, or repeated walking, riding, driving, or other similar action by a person displaying or carrying a banner, placard, or sign;
(B) engaging in loud singing, chanting, whistling, or yelling, with or without noise amplification through a device such as a bullhorn or microphone; or
(C) blocking access to a facility or cemetery being used for a funeral service.

A

Picketing

1016
Q
    1. DEFENSE WHEN CONDUCT CONSISTS OF SPEECH OR OTHER EXPRESSION
      (b) The order required by this section may be given by a peace officer, a fireman, a person with authority to control the use of the premises, or _____________ directly affected by the violation.
A

any person

1017
Q

(5) if the investigation of the offense shows that the victim is younger than 17 years of age at the time the offense is committed, 20 years from the 18th birthday of the victim of one of the following offenses:

A
B
C

A

(A) sexual performance by a child

(B) aggravated kidnapping, if the defendant committed the offense with the intent to violate or abuse the victim sexually

(C) burglary, if the defendant committed the offense with the intent to violate or abuse the victim sexually.

1018
Q

(b) In this section, “__________” means a device that emits a visible light amplified by the stimulated emission of radiation.

A

42.13. USE OF LASER POINTERS

laser pointer

1019
Q

(6) ten years from the 18th birthday of the victim of the offense:

A
B
C
D

A

(A) trafficking of persons
(B) injury to a child
(C) compelling prostitution
(D) bigamy

1020
Q

(1) no limitation:

A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
A

A) murder and manslaughter;
(B) sexual assault - child
(C) sexual assault, with DNA
(D) continuous sexual abuse of young child or children
(E) indecency with a child
(F) an offense involving leaving the scene of an accident, if the accident resulted in the death of a person
(G) trafficking of persons - child
(H) continuous trafficking of persons - anyone

1021
Q

(2) ten years from the date of the commission of the offense:

A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
A
(A) theft of any estate, 
(B) theft by a public servant
(C) forgery
(D) injury to an elderly or disabled individual punishable as a felony of the first degree 
(E) sexual assault, NO DNA 
(F) ARSON;
(G) trafficking of persons - NOT A CHILD
(H) compelling prostitution
1022
Q

(3) seven years from the date of the commission of the offense:

A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
I
A

(A) misapplication of fiduciary property or property of a financial institution;
(B) securing execution of document by deception;
(C) a felony violation / Tax Code;
(D) false statement to obtain property or credit
(E) money laundering;
(F) credit card or debit card abuse
(G) fraudulent use or possession of identifying information
(H) Medicaid fraud
(I) bigamy

1023
Q

(4) five years from the date of the commission of the offense:

A
B
C
D
E
A
(A) theft or robbery;
(B) kidnapping or burglary / not CHILD
(C) injury to an elderly or disabled individual / not 1st degree FELONY
(D) abandoning or endangering a child
(E) insurance fraud;
1024
Q

(5) if the investigation of the offense shows that the victim is younger than 17 years of age at the time the offense is committed, 20 years from the 18th birthday of the victim of one of the following offenses:

A
B
C

A

(A) sexual performance by a child
(B) aggravated kidnapping - CHILD with the intent to violate or abuse the victim sexually;
(C) burglary - CHILD with the intent to violate or abuse the victim sexually;

1025
Q

CH. 43. PUBLIC INDECENCY

§ 43.21. DEFINITIONS. (a) In this subchapter:
(1) “________” means material or a performance that:
(A) the average person, applying contemporary community standards, would find that taken as a whole appeals to the prurient interest in sex;
(B) depicts or describes:
(i) patently offensive representations or descriptions of ultimate sexual acts, normal or perverted, actual or simulated, including sexual intercourse, sodomy, and sexual bestiality; or
(ii) patently offensive representations or descriptions of masturbation, excretory functions, sadism, masochism, lewd exhibition of the genitals, the male or female genitals in a state of sexual stimulation or arousal, covered male genitals in a discernibly turgid state or a device designed and marketed as useful primarily for stimulation of the human genital organs; and
(C) taken as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, political, and scientific value.

A

Obscene

1026
Q

§ 43.21. DEFINITIONS. (a) In this subchapter:

(2) “________” means anything tangible that is capable of being used or adapted to arouse interest, whether through the medium of reading, observation, sound, or in any other manner, but does not include an actual three dimensional obscene device.

A

Material

1027
Q

§ 43.21. DEFINITIONS. (a) In this subchapter:

(3) “_________” means a play, motion picture, dance, or other exhibition performed before an audience.

A

Performance

1028
Q

§ 43.21. DEFINITIONS. (a) In this subchapter:

(4) “_______________” means so offensive on its face as to affront current community standards of decency.

A

Patently offensive

1029
Q

§ 43.21. DEFINITIONS. (a) In this subchapter:

(5) “________” means to manufacture, issue, sell, give, provide, lend, mail, deliver, transfer, transmit, publish, distribute, circulate, disseminate, present, exhibit, or advertise, or to offer or agree to do the same.

A

Promote

1030
Q

§ 43.21. DEFINITIONS. (a) In this subchapter:

(6) “________________” means to manufacture, issue, sell, provide, mail, deliver, transfer, transmit, publish, distribute, circulate, disseminate, or to offer or agree to do the same for purpose of resale.

A

Wholesale promote

1031
Q

§ 43.21. DEFINITIONS. (a) In this subchapter:

(7) “________” means a device including a dildo or artificial vagina, designed or marketed as useful primarily for the stimulation of human genital organs.
(b) If any of the depictions or descriptions of sexual conduct described in this section are declared by a court of competent jurisdiction to be unlawfully included herein, this declaration shall not invalidate this section as to other patently offensive sexual conduct included herein.

A

Obscene device

1032
Q

550 csi book 2014

As drug distribution networks become larger and more sophisticated, more powerful laws maybe needed for successful prosecution.
Laws such as the ________, the Continuing Criminal Enterprise CCE Act, and conspiracy statutes better enable prosecutors to attack the management figures of drug dealing organizations.

A

RICO Act

1033
Q

550 CSI 2014

___________ usually manifests itself in one or two ways; actual physical custody of the drugs or constructive possession. The latter requires a subject to have knowledge of the presence of the substance and the power and intent to control use of the drug.

A

Possession

1034
Q

550 CSI 2014

The charge of ______________ is of a more serious nature than possession and is most commonly impose for any exchange of illegal drugs between two or more persons. Exchanges also include drug sales, passing drugs to another, or delivering an illicit drug whether or not for sale or profit.

A

drug distribution

DISTRIBUTION

1035
Q

550 CSI 2014

Criminal charges can also be assessed for producing illicit drugs. Drugs such as _______________ are more typically Products of illicit drug labs.

A

LSD, methamphetamine, Fentanyl, and PCP

manufacturing

1036
Q
  1. CSI 2014

Is almost impossible discussion about drugs without discussing gangs who ______, _______, and _______ them.

A

create, transport , and sell

1037
Q

533 csi 2014

As of 2006, marijuana cultivators have increasingly begun to conceal their growing operation by making the use of “__________”.

A

Marijuana “grow houses”

1038
Q

531CSI 2014

_____________ is the source of an estimated 90% of the cocaine supply in the in the US market and is the largest source of supply for the US heroin market. (Mexico is the second largest)

A

Columbia

1039
Q

531 csi 2014

____________ ___________ __________ operating in the United States produce, import, or distribute illicit drugs throughout the nation, posing an on going to hazard to public health and safety as well as persistent and violent threats to law-enforcement.

A

Transnational criminal organizations

1040
Q

555 CSI 2014

____________________ is one in which undercover investigators, posing as dealers, sell large quantities of narcotics to known traffickers. These types of operations have proven successful in penetrating otherwise untouchable drug markets.

A

The reverse sting narcotics sale

Reverse Drug Sting Operations

1041
Q

555 CSI 2014

The “_______ ________” is almost always set up on the street in an area generally occupied by large numbers of street dealers or directly in front of a known crackhouse.

A

Rock reverse

Street-level reverse sting operations can be used whenever any type of controlled substance is being sold in high-traffic environment. however, police agencies have found it particularly effective in dealing with rock cocaine sales.

1042
Q
  1. CSI 2014 (Drug Schedules Under the Controlled Substance Act)

____________ The drug or other substance has a high potential for abuse. The drug or other substance has no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. There is a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug under medical supervision. Examples are heroin, LSD, marijuana, peyote , and methaqualone

A

Schedule I

1043
Q
  1. CSI 2014 (Drug Schedules Under the Controlled Substance Act)

______________ The drug or other substance has a high potential for abuse. The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions. Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Examples are amphetamines, some morphine derivatives, cocaine, PCP

A

Schedule II

1044
Q
  1. CSI 2014 (Drug Schedules Under the Controlled Substance Act)

____________ The drug or other substance has a potential for abuse less than the drugs or other substances in schedule I and II. The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high Psychological dependence. Examples are some barbiturates, some opium derivatives, Gluthethimide

A

Schedule III

1045
Q
  1. CSI 2014 (Drug Schedules Under the Controlled Substance Act)

____________. The drug or other substance has a low potential for abuse relative to drugs or other substances in Schedule III. The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. Use of the drug or other substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in Schedule III. Examples are chloral hydrate, tranquilizers, some stimulants and depressants

A

Schedule IV

1046
Q
  1. CSI 2014 (Drug Schedules Under the Controlled Substance Act)

_______________. The drug or other substance as low potential for abuse relative to the drugs of other substances in Schedule IV. The drug or other substances has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States. This drug or other substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in Schedule IV.

Examples are some extracts of opium, some extracts of morphine, some derivatives of codeine.

A

Schedule V

Since the passing of the CSA, most states have adopted state versions of the law, which typically include a localize model of the five federal schedules. This allows prosecutors to file charges under either federal or state criminal justice systems, depending on the type of crime committed and the desired result of the criminal prosecution.

1047
Q

CSI BOOK 2014 (last test question entry) 286

The rate of cooling can, however, be a primary determinant as to the time of death.
The international Association of Chiefs of police (IACP) offers are working formula do you determine the estimated time of death when it is thought to be less than 24 hours.

A

98.6 (NORMAL TEMP) - (minus “2”) (RECTAL TEMP) divided by 1.5 (average rate of heat loss ~ Per hour) = number of hours since death

For example. 98.6 - 97.1 / 1.5 = 1 hour since death
98.6 - 95.6 / 1.5 = 2 hours since death

Just subtract 98.6 by 1.5 over and over again until you get down to the given “RECTAL TEMP”. The number of times you subtract will be the number of estimated hours. OR
2 4 6 8 10/12/14/16/18/20/22/24. Hrs
3 6 9 12 15/18/21/24/27/30/33/36 *
Every two hours = 3 degrees.

That fucking author is the worst fucking dip shit in the world. He made something simple really complicated.