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Blood Banking > Glossary (pt II) > Flashcards

Glossary (pt II) Flashcards

0
Q

Decrease in body temperature

A

Hypothermia

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1
Q

A non penetrating cryoprotective agent added to protect cells against damage

A

Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

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2
Q

Reaction of the body to respond and recognize foreign substances

A

Immune response

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3
Q

Immunologic reaction induced by initial exposure to the antigens

A

Primary immune response

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4
Q

Immunologic rxn induced following a second exposure to antigen

A

Secondary immune response

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5
Q

Secondary immune response is also known as ____

A

Anamnestic response

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6
Q

In reference to glycoprotein or glycolipid antigens, it is the sugar molecule that gives the antigen its specificity or identifies it uniquely

A

Immunodominant sugar

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7
Q

Passing of one gene from each parent to offspring

A

Independent segregation

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8
Q

Antigen for H-antigen specificity

A

L-fucose

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9
Q

A antigen specificity

A

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

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10
Q

B antigen specificity

A

D-galactose

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11
Q

Synonym for antibody

A

Immunoglobulin

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12
Q

Study of blood-related antigens and antibody

A

Immunohematology

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13
Q

Any substance capable of stimulating an immune response

A

Immunogen

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14
Q

Ability of an antigen to stimulate an antibody response

A

Immunogenecity

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15
Q

Rare dominant gene that inhibits the production of all Lutheran antigens

A

In Lu

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16
Q

Fluid obtained from a cyst of a dog tapeworm which can be a source of P1 substance and therefore can be used to neutralize anti-P1

A

Hydatid Cyst

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17
Q

While the fetus is in the uterus

A

In utero

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18
Q

Presence of agglutination or hemolysis in compatibility testing

A

Incompatible

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19
Q

Random behavior of genes on separate chromosome inherited separately from each other

A

Independent assortment

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20
Q

In vitro reaction in which under certain condition of time and temperature allow antigen-antibody complex to occur

A

Incubation

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21
Q

Transfusion administered to a fetus while still in the uterus

A

Intrauterine transfusion

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22
Q

Number of charged particles in a solution

A

Ionic strength

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23
Q

Gamma or electron treatment of a cellular blood product to prevent transfusion associated graft vs host disease (TA-GVHD)

A

Irradiation

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24
Q

Condition characterized by a yellow appearance of the skin, sclera of the eyes and body secretions caused by increased bilirubin level

A

Jaundice

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25
Q

Condition due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin

A

Kernicterus

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26
Q

States that ABO antibodies are present in plasma/serum when corresponding ABO blood antigens are not present on the erythrocytes

A

Landsteiner law

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27
Q

Test performed on maternal blood sx to detect fetal maternal hemorrhage

A

Kleihauer-betke acid elution test

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28
Q

Seed extract capable of agglutinating red cells carrying the corresponding antigen

A

Lectin

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29
Q

Anti-A1

A

Dilochos biflorus

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30
Q

Anti h

A

Ulex europaeus

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31
Q

Anti N

A

Vicia graminea

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32
Q

Anti M

A

Iberis amara

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33
Q

Anti T

A

Arachos hypogea

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34
Q

Anti Tn

A

Salvia sclaera

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35
Q

Graph used to predict severity of HDN during pregnancy by evaluation of amniotic fluid

A

Liley graph

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36
Q

Combination of antibody and a multivalent antigen to form cross links and result in a visible agglutination reaction

A

Lattice formation

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37
Q

Moderate disease in liley graph

A

Moderate disease

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38
Q

Zone I of liley graph

A

Mild or no disease

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39
Q

Location of a gene on a chromosome

A

Locus

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40
Q

Condition of an abnormal presence of high molecular weight immunoglobulins

A

Macroglobulinemia

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41
Q

Replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hr interval

A

Massive transfusion

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42
Q

Aka Aldomet

A

Methyl Dopa

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43
Q

It is the common drug for hypertension; frequently the cause of positive DAT

A

Methyl Dopa

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44
Q

Zone III in liley graph

A

Severe and life threatening hemolysis

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45
Q

Manner by which a gene is passed from one generation to another

A

Mode of inheritance

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46
Q

Type of agglutination pattern where a population of the red cells has agglutinated and the remainder of the red cells are not agglutinated

A

Mixed field agglutination

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47
Q

Trait manifested by people who are homozygous for alleles. Both parents who do not express the trait y be carrier or heterozygous for the recessive allele

A

Autosomal recessive

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48
Q

Traits transmitted to all daughters of affected father but not to sons

A

Sex-linked dominant

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49
Q

Trait appears much more frequently on males than in females due to inheritance from carrier mothers

A

Sex-linked recessive

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50
Q

Antigen composed of several units or subpart such as the Rho(D) antigen

A

Mosaic (D^u variant)

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51
Q

D antigen with complete subpart

A

Rh ABCD

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52
Q

D antigen with missing A-subpart

A

Rh aBCD

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53
Q

D antigen with missing B- subpart

A

Rh AbCD

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54
Q

Trait that appears when the gene that has been inherited can be found in each generation occurs with equal frequency in males and females

A

Autosomal dominant

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55
Q

D antigen with missing C-subpart

A

Rh ABcD

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56
Q

D antigen with missing D-subpart

A

Rh ABCd

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57
Q

Term for woman having borne more than one child

A

Multiparous

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58
Q

Fusion of a malignant and normal cell that produces large quantities of monoclonal antibodies

A

Murine hybridoma

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59
Q

Malignant neoplasm of the bone marrow characterized by abnormal proteins in the plasma and urine

A

Multiple myeloma

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60
Q

Group of sugars found on the RBC membrane attached to a protein backbone

A

NANA

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61
Q

Major source of the membrane’s net negative charge

A

NANA

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62
Q

Sialic acid

A

NANA

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63
Q

Before birth

A

Prenatal

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64
Q

After birth

A

Postnatal

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65
Q

Newborn infant up to 4 months of age

A

Neonate

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66
Q

Enzyme that cleaves sialic acid from the RBC membrane

A

Neuraminidase

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67
Q

It is relating to birth

A

Natal

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68
Q

Aka agglutination-inhibition

A

Neutralization

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69
Q

Refers to the absence of agglutination due to the inability of an antibody to react with red cell antigen because of previously bound soluble substance

A

Neutralization

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70
Q

Basic building blocks of dna which is composed of a phosphate group, a sugar group and a base

A

Nucleotide

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71
Q

Any individual who fails to express any antigens on the red cells

A

Null phenotype

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72
Q

Chemical compound formed by small number of simple carbohydrate molecules

A

Oligosaccharide chain

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73
Q

Required temperature in C by which the antibody is most reactive

A

Optimum temperature

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74
Q

Opt temp for IgM cold reactive antibody

A

1-6 C/ 20-24 C (cold or RT)

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75
Q

Opt temp for IgG warm reacting antibody

A

37 C (warm temp)

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76
Q

Spontaneous clumping of RBC against a given serum

A

Panagglutination

77
Q

The group O rgt RBC that are used for antibody identification

A

Panel cell

78
Q

Type of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia in which a biphasic IgG antibody can be demonstrated with anti-p specificity

A

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

79
Q

Woman who had at least one pregnancy

A

Primiparous

80
Q

Plasma prepared from a whole blood subjected to soft spin which allows sedimentation of platelets this leaving a plasma that contains high no. Of platelets

A

Platelet rich plasma (PRP)

81
Q

Principle in saliva testing

A

Neutralization

82
Q

Chance of the alleged father is the biologic father

A

Paternity index

83
Q

Diagrammatic chart used for illustrating the inheritance patterns of traits in a family study

A

Pedigree chart

84
Q

Detectable characteristics of genes

A

Phenotype

85
Q

Initial treatment of elevated bilirubin using

Iights

A

Phototherapy

86
Q

Extra blood sample collected during whole blood donation from a donor which is intended for serological test

A

Pilot tube

87
Q

Refers to fibrinogen containing liquid portion of Anticoagulated blood

A

Plasma

88
Q

Can be used as a specimen for backward typing to detect antibodies however might present a problem because it can bring about rouleaux formation

A

Plasma

89
Q

Plasma prepared from who

E blood subjected to heavy spin which allow sedimentation of platelet and leaving plasma almost free of platelets

A

Platelet poor plasma (PPP)

90
Q

D antigen that is missing part of its typical antigenic structure

A

Partial D

91
Q

Products that are transfused in patients suffering from hypovolemia (decrease plasma volume) or indicated among shock and burn patients

A

Plasma volume expander

92
Q
  1. NSA (normal serum albumin)

2. PPF (plasma protein fraction)

A

Plasma derived volume expander

93
Q

96% albumin + 4% globulin

A

NSA

94
Q

83% albumin + 17% globulin

A

PPF

95
Q
  1. Crystalloids

2. Colloids

A

Synthetic volume expander

96
Q

Blood group system showing several allelic forms therefore rendering more than one alternative phenotype

A

Polymorphism

97
Q

Na, Cl, K, Ca, lactate ions)

A

Ringer’s lactate

98
Q

Ringer’s lactate (Na, Cl, K, Ca, lactate ions)

Normal saline sol. (0.85% -0.9 NaCl)

A

Crystalloids

99
Q

Dextran(6-10%)

HES( hydroxyethyl starch)

A

Colloids

100
Q

0.85% -0.9 NaCl)

A

Normal saline solution

101
Q

Spontaneous agglutination of red cells by most normal adult sera regardless of blood group

A

Polyagglutination

102
Q

Inability of the patient to respond favorably after platelet transfusion thus the desired increment in platelet is not achieved

A

Platelet refractoriness

103
Q

Term referring to after transfusion

A

Post transfusion

104
Q

Any substance that enhances antigen-antibody interaction from a given cell-serum mixture which may be used to detect low-titered antibodies in routine testing

A

Potentiator

105
Q

0.2% NaCl in glycine

A

LISS

106
Q

Medium has lower ionic strength that increases the rate of antibody association. Incubation may be shortened to 5-15 minutes if this medium is used.

A

LISS( low ionic strength saline solution)

107
Q

Positively charged polymer that reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in red cell. It is useful in the identificatipn of antibodies in the kidd blood group system

A

Polybrene

108
Q

Relative strength of an antibody present in a given antiserum usually expressed in titer

A

Potency

109
Q

Close monitoring of laboratory operations to allow maximum reliability of test result

A

Quality control

110
Q

In genetics, this refers to a 2x2 grid used for gene combination

A

Punnett square

111
Q

System of procedures that ensures laboratory to operate with the most minimal errors

A

Quality assurance

112
Q

Enhances antigen-antibody rxn by concentrating antibody in the mixture through removal of water

A

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

113
Q

In transfusion medicine, this refers to a person who benefits and recieves blood transfusion

A

Recipient

114
Q

Disease of unknown cause most frequently seen among premature infants characterized primarily by acute difficulty in breathing

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

115
Q

Synonyms for antigens in the Rh blood group system

A

Rh factor

116
Q

Formerly known as “hyaline membrane disease”

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

117
Q

Refers to the required speed in a given time to sediment particles from a fluid moxture; calculated as 1.118x10^5 x radius x (rpm) ^2

A

Relative centrifugal force (RCF)

118
Q

The concentrated and purified anti-d given as a prophylactic or preventive treatment to Rh(-) person who is exposed to D-antigen either through pregnancy or blood transfusion. Each vial of 300 ug of this protects against 30ml fetal whole blood or 15ml of packed cells

A

Rh immune globulin

119
Q

Inherited characteristic showing decreased expression of Rh antigens

A

Rh mod

120
Q

Method of getting a sample to an individual

A

Sampling

121
Q

Used to determine fetomaternal hemorrhage based on the ability of fetal cells to aggregate around indicator cells (0.2%-0.5% O-cell suspension, R2R2 red blood cell.)

A

Rosette test

122
Q

Phenotype of a person who suffers from anemia and whose red cells do not express any Rh antigens

A

Rh null

123
Q

Procedure used to determine blood group soluble substances; useful in establishing real blood group if the expression is so weak to be detected by routine cell typing.

A

Saliva testing

124
Q

Group of red cells whose appearance resembles stacks of coins associated with the use of plasma expanders pr presence of abnormal plasma proteins

A

Rouleaux formation

125
Q

Person who acquired the Se gene either homozygously (SeSe) or heterozygously (Sese) and is capable of producing ABH substances in secretions

A

Secretor

126
Q

Divides persons in two categories:
A. Secretor
B. Non secretor

A

Saliva testing

127
Q

Samples collected prior to actual blood transfusion

A

Pre transfusion sampling

128
Q

Samples collected after actual blood transfusion

A

Post transfusion sampling

129
Q

Additional blood bag attached to the primary bag generally intended for component preparation

A

Satellite bags

130
Q

Person who does not inherit the Se gene (sese) and is incapable producing ABH substances in secretions

A

Non secretor

131
Q

Process of allowing interaction or attachment of an incomplete antibody to red cell antigen but no subsequent agglutination reaction seen

A

Sensitization

132
Q

Group “O” cells with complete profile of antigens used in antibody detection

A

Screening cells

133
Q

Attachment of serum antibody to red cell antigen; rxn that happens intravascularly

A

In vivo sensitization

134
Q

Attachment of a serum antibody to red cell antigen; procedure done in a tube

A

In vitro sensitization

135
Q

Yellowish liquid portion of blood after clotting or centrifugation which can also be used as a source of antibody

A

Serum

136
Q

Systemic disease caused by the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the body; presence of microbes in blood

A

Septicemia

137
Q

Refers to required drops of serum to mix with certain drops of red cell suspension to achieve greater reactivity

A

Serum to cell ratio

138
Q

Achieved by dropping 2 drops serum to 1 drop 5% red cell suspension

A

40:1 ratio

139
Q

Aka expiration date

A

Shelf life

140
Q

In transfusion medicine, it refers to the length of time when blood can still be used before it expires; usually related to the type of anticoagulant used

A

Shelf life

141
Q

Other term for surface of shear

A

Slipping plane

142
Q

Shelf life of ACD, CPD, CP2D

A

21 days after collection

143
Q

Shelf life of CPDA -1

A

35 days after collection

144
Q

Severe physiologic rxn to trauma characterized by pallor, cyanosis, weak rapid pulse, drop in blood pressure which often leads to unconsciousness

A

Shock

145
Q

Chemical preservative used in commercial typing sera to prevent bacterial contamination

A

Sodium azide (0.1%)

146
Q

Characteristic of an antibody to react with cell expressing the corresponding antigen only

A

Specificity

147
Q

Biochemical changes happening on blood upon in vitro storage

A

Storage lesion

148
Q

Achieved by dropping 4 drops serum to 1 drop 3% red cell suspension

A

133:1 ratio

149
Q

Boundary of the ionic cloud surrounding RBC in saline which zeta potential is measured

A

Surface of shear

150
Q

Antigens within the ABO group that are weakly expressed thus react less strongly with their corresponding antibody; often leads to ABO discrepancy

A

Subgroup

151
Q

Also called as therapeutic apheresis; refers to the removal of blood components for treatment purposes

A

Therapeutic phlebotomy

152
Q

Rgt that can be used to disperse agglutinatipn caused by cold reactive IgM autoantibodies; useful in differentiating IgM and IgG antibodies

A

Thiol rgt

153
Q

Examples of thiol reagents

A

DTT and 2-ME

154
Q

Blood taken from. Patient tp be used for the same patient

A

Autologous transfusion

155
Q

DTT

A

Dithiothreitol

156
Q

2-ME

A

2-mercaptoethanol

157
Q

Reciprocal of the highest dilution that shows the visible reaction

A

Titer

158
Q

Brief loss of consciousness related to fainting

A

Syncope

159
Q

Inherited characteristic based from gene action

A

Trait

160
Q

Transfer of blood directly from one person to another

A

Direct transfusion

161
Q

Administration of blood or its component intravenously

A

Transfusion

162
Q

Used in infants with HDN; refers to withdrawal of small volume of blood and subsequent replacement with compatible blood

A

Exchange transfusion

163
Q

Transfusion of blood stored in blood bag coming from a homologous donor

A

Indirect transfusion

164
Q

Blood transfusion to fetus in utero

A

Intrauterine transfusion

165
Q

Batch test that includes ABO, Rh and antibody screening test

A

Type and screen (T/S)

166
Q

ADverse rxn happening to a patient following transfusion of a unit of blood or its components

A

Transfusion reaction

167
Q

Vascular skin reaction commonly signaling allergic reaction

A

Urticaria

168
Q

Set of guidelines developed protect healthcare workers from exposure to infectious agents

A

Universal precaution

169
Q

Refers to type O and type AB individuals who are considered popularly as universal donor and recipient respectively

A

Universality concept

170
Q

Urticaria is also known as ____

A

Hives

171
Q

Plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by excessive production of gamma M globulin

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

172
Q

Ability of red cell to survive after transfusion

A

Viability

173
Q

Classification of Weak D

A

Acquired Du, hereditary Du, Du variant/mosaic

174
Q

Acronym for Wisconsin alumni research foundation + (coum)arin

A

Warfarin

175
Q

Colorless crystalline compound widely used as an anticlotting drug; anticoagulant drug that acts by inhibiting synthesis of vitamin K dependent factors: II, VII, IX and X

A

Warfarin

176
Q

Successive suspension of whole blood with NSS, centrifugation, and finally decanting completely the supernatant fluid. This is preferably done three times to remove interfering substances which is present in plasma. Widely used in preparation of red cell suspension

A

Washing

177
Q

A. Coumadin
B. panwarfin
C. Sofarin

A

Warfarin

178
Q

Grade of weak D which doesn’t require AHG for detection

A

High grade

179
Q

Weaker variant of D-antigen that is detectable only through indirect antihuman globulin test

A

Weak D (Du)

180
Q

Grade of weak D that requires AHG for detection

A

Low grade

181
Q

Thick gelatinous substance rich in hyaluronic acid that make up the matrix of the umbilical cord

A

Wharton’s jelly

182
Q

Soluble haptenic forms of A and B antigens capable of neutralizing their corresponding antibodies

A

Witebsky substance

183
Q

Blood group whose genes are located in the X-chromosome; Xg^a antigen is seen in greatest frequency among females than in males

A

Xg blood group

184
Q

Net negative charge of red cell measured at the surface of shear; if it is reduced, red cells tend to become closer to each other and therefore easier to agglutinate

A

Zeta potential

185
Q

Reaction influenced by the amount of antigen and antibody from the cell-serum mixture; presence of either prozone or postzone often leads to false negative result

A

Zonal reaction

186
Q

Zone of antibody excess ( happens if more serum is added)

A

Prozone

187
Q

Zone of antigen excess (happens of red cell suspension is too heavy)

A

Postzone

188
Q

Period of time when the disease is present but tested serologically negative

A

Window period

189
Q

Mixture of 0.1 dithiothreitol (DTT) plus 0.1% cysteine-activated papain used to dissociate IgG molecules from erythrocytes showing a positive DAT reaction

A

ZZAP

190
Q

Zone of maximum or greatest reaction

A

Equivalence zone

Blood Banking (1 decks)

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