Glossary of Terms Flashcards

1
Q

a gelatinous substance used as a culture medium to grow microorganisms

A

Agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Hyphae that grows above or outward from the surface of an agar medium or substrate; the visible colony

A

Aerial Hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a polysaccharide from seaweed extract (Genera Gelidium and Gracilaria) that consists of alternating β-D-Galactose and 3, 6-anhydro-L-galactose units of agarobiose.

A

Agarose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Popularly used as a medium for electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments.

A

Agarose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The higher its concentration the smaller the pore size. Concentration ranges from 0.5%-2%.

A

Agarose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Asexual (imperfect) state or form of a fungus.

A

Anamorph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A step in PCR when the temperature is lowered to allow DNA primers to attach to a given DNA template.

A

Annealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Temperature ranges from 50-56°C

A

Annealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A fungus that preferentially grows on human rather than animals or the soil.

A

Anthropophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A dermatophyte where human/people is the primary reservoir.

A

Anthropophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A conidium released by fragmentation or by separation that occurs at the septum of the cells of hypha.

A

Arthroconidium (pl. arthroconidia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fruiting body within asci form.

A

Ascocarp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sac-like cells where ascospores develop

A

Ascus (pl. asci)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hypha without crosswalls

A

Aseptate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antimicrobial that can kill a microorganism.

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A virus that infects bacterial cells.

A

Bacteriophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An arrangement observed in Aspergillus spp. where a secondary phialide develops from a primary phialide, forming 2 series of phialides.

A

Biseriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Conidia formed by budding process along a hypha, pseudohypha, or in a single cell, as seen in yeasts.

A

Blastoconidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A nutrient-rich medium used to isolate fastidious fungi.

A

Brain Heart Infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A concentration of an antimicrobial that defines if the particular microbial species is susceptible or resistant to the antimicrobial. Commonly expressed in μg/mL

A

Breakpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Liquid medium containing nutrients used to grow microorganisms.

A

Broth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Type of asexual reproduction commonly found in yeasts. An oval shaped “push out” or outgrowth from a parent cell.

A

Bud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Colorless dye that binds to chitin and cellulose of fungi that fluoresce when exposed to UV light.

A

Calcofluor White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Proteinaceous coat that protects the viral genome.

A

Capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
A hyaline mucopolysaccharide covering the cell body of certain yeasts (e.g. Cryptococcus, Rhodotorula) and some spores and conidia.
Capsule
25
Also known as chlamydospores, these are enlarged, thick-walled round conidia.
Chlamydoconidia
26
These conidia can be present at the end of the hypha (terminal), on the sides (sessile) or in between the hypha (intercalary).
Chlamydoconidia
27
Swollen, thick-walled resistant spore that do not reproduce.
Chlamydospore
28
Club-shaped
Clavate
29
Hyphal structures without septa.
Coenocytic
30
A remnant of a cell wall present at the tip of a phialide, or around a sporangiophore.
Collarette
31
Growth of an organism in a host without causing infection or tissue invasion.
Colonization
32
The distinct characteristics of a microbial colony that are visibly observed on the surface of a nutrient medium
Colony morphology
33
Sterile dome-like structure at the tip of a sporangiophore or within a sporangium.
Columella (pl. columellae)
34
A serologic procedure used to determine complement fixing antibody to fungal antigens.
Complement fixation
35
Pertains to a type of growth on the agar surface wherein it is continuous, uniform, and the colonies are not discrete or separated; there should be no individual colonies growing on the surface.
Confluent
36
Cell that gives rise to a conidium.
Conidiogenous cell
37
A reproductive propagule produced in the absence of nuclear recombination, thus representing anamorphic or asexual reproduction.
Conidium (pl. Conidia)
38
A specialized hypha that gives rise to or bears a conidium.
Conidiophore
39
A method of propagating microorganisms by supporting their growth using culture media and controlled environmental conditions.
Cultivation
40
Distinct visual changes in the infected cells caused by a viral toxin or infection.
Cytopathic effect
41
An infection of cutaneous tissue (hair, skin, and nails) caused by the keratinophilic fungi other than those of the dermatophytes.
Dermatomycosis
42
A fungi that invades the keratinized part of hair, nail, and skin.
Dermatophyte
43
A fungus having brown or black melanotic pigment in the cell wall
Dematiaceous
44
This initial stage in PCR allows separation of the double-stranded DNA into two single strands by breaking the hydrogen bonds that exists between the nucleotide base pairs (bp).
Denaturation
45
Temperature ranges from 94-95°C.
Denaturation
46
Fungi having 2 morphologic forms under different growth conditions.
Dimorphic
47
Elimination or reduction of microorganisms that may cause disease.
Disinfection
48
Also known as molecular-weight size markers
DNA Ladder
49
This is a set of predetermined DNA fragment sizes from where unknown bands are compared to identify the approximate size and concentration of a DNA fragment after running gel electrophoresis.
DNA Ladder
50
Also known as Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
dNTPs
51
They represent the essential building blocks of nucleic acid molecules that are necessary components of PCR mixes during amplification.
dNTPs
52
four known types of dNTPs
adenine (dATP) cytosine (dCTP) guanine (dGTP) thymine (dTTP)
53
A disease which occurs in a limited geographic area.
Endemic
54
Non-radioactive but carcinogenic DNA stain. Distinct red-orange fluorescence under UV light suggests the presence of ds-DNA
Ethidium Bromide (EtBr)
55
3,8-Diamino-5-ethyl-6-phenylphenanthridinium
Ethidium Bromide (EtBr)
56
Agent causing the infection or disease.
Etiologic agent
57
A step in PCR when the temperature is increased and the new DNA strand is formed through the action of Taq polymerase. Temperature is usually set at 72°C.
Extension
58
A property wherein a particle is able to pass through a membrane filter that will prevent the transmission of bacteria.
Filterable
59
Synonymous with cottony or wooly.
Floccose
60
Type of texture formed by large quantities of aerial hyphae usually arranged in a tangled manner.
Floccose
61
Also known as 5' primers, these are PCR primers that are complementary to the anti-sense strand of ds-DNA and therefore responsible for its amplification.
Forward Primer
62
Primarily, it anneals to the antisense strand or negative strand of the double-stranded DNA, which runs from 3' to 5' direction. Antisense strand or the coding strand serves as the template strand for the synthesis of the mRNA.
Forward Primer
63
It occurs at the 5' end of the PCR product.
Forward Primer
64
Presence of fungi in the blood.
Fungemia
65
Most common agent of fungemia
Candida albicans
66
Capable of inhibiting the growth of fungi.
Fungicidal
67
Range of different inherited traits within a species.
Genetic Diversity
68
Soil-seeking, earth-loving.
Geophilic
69
A dermatophyte having soil as its primary reservoir.
Geophilic
70
Elongated or tube-like structure that emerges from a spore, with no constriction at the point of origin.
Germ Tube
71
The presence of germ tubes can be used to preemptively identify the presence of _______ _______.
Candida albicans
72
Biological agents that can potentially cause harm to humans and animals when exposed.
Hazards
73
Adherence of Red Blood Cells on a virally infected cell nature
hemadsorption
74
What does HEPA Filter stand for
High Efficiency Particulate Air Filter
75
A mechanical filter that is capable of trapping and removing particles and microorganisms from the air.
HEPA Filter
76
A member of the human Herpesviridae family that can cause oral and genital infections.
Human Simplex Virus (HSV)
77
Microscopic structures are clear or odorless.
Hyaline
78
Vegetative filament of a fungus.
Hypha (pl. hyphae)
79
A serologic test based on precipitation reaction to determine the presence of antibody to fungal antigen by double diffusion technique in gel medium.
Immunodiffusion
80
A person's complete set of chromosomes.
Karyotype
81
A simple serologic procedure wherein the antibody formed following a fungal disease is detected through the clumping of antigen coated particles.
Latex agglutination
82
Commercially available or laboratory prepared solutions used to standardize the approximate amount of bacteria or fungi in a liquid suspension.
McFarland standard
83
Standardization is done by either Visual or __________________ comparison of the turbidity of the bacterial or fungal suspension to the McFarland standard. If the _________ is the same, suspension is said to be standardized.
Spectrophotometric, turbidity
84
What is a commonly used McFarland Standard?
0.5 McFarland Standard Its turbidity corresponds to approximately 1.5 x 10^8 cfu/ml
85
Lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that inhibits the visible growth of a bacteria or a fungi. Usually expressed in μg/mL
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
86
Also known as Candidiasis.
Moniliasis
87
Fungal infection caused by a yeast, Candida albicans.
Moniliasis
88
Fungal colonies composed of a hyphae.
mould/mold
89
Same definition as Hyaline.
Moniliaceous
90
Like a wall; multicellular, with both traverse and longitudinal septations.
Muriform
91
Colony with hyphae that do not produce conidia or spores.
Mycelia Sterilia
92
Mass of hyphae making up a fungus colony.
Mycelium
93
Pertaining to fungi.
Mycotic
94
A clear zone of lysis due to successive infection of host cells by a virus.
Plaque
95
Defined as the presence of two or more variant forms of a specific DNA sequence that happen among different individuals or populations.
Polymorphisms
96
Most common types of polymorphisms
SNP or single nucleotide polymorphism
97
General purpose basal medium made from potato infusion and dextrose used to isolate yeasts and molds.
Potato dextrose agar
98
Set of media inoculated from the specimen.
Primary culture
99
Referring to the surface.
Obverse
100
Place where fungus is found in nature
Reservoir
101
Microbe is able to grow in the presence of a particular antimicrobial.
Resistant
102
Also known as 3' primers
Reverse primer
103
These primers are complementary to the sense of the (+) strand of the ds-DNA and therefore responsible for its amplification. It occurs at the end of the 3' end of the PCR product.
Reverse primer
104
Primarily, it anneals to the sense strand or positive strand of the double-stranded DNA, which runs from 5' to 3' direction.
Reverse primer
105
The sense strand is complementary to the template strand and therefore, it is known as the __________ strand.
anticoding
106
Rootlike structures that anchors the fungus to the substrate and also utilized in the absorption of nutrients.
Rhizoids
107
A culture medium primarily used for fungal cultivation and isolation of dermatophytes.
Saboraud dextrose agar
108
An organism which requires organic material as a source of energy.
Saprobe
109
Ability to detect all patients with a specific disease.
Sensitivity
110
Having cross walls or partitions.
Septate
111
A reproductive propagule produced internally by "free cell" formation, as in the ascomycete.
Spore
112
Destruction of all life forms, including the bacterial spores.
Sterilization
113
A horizontal hypha from which hyphae, rhizoids, or sporangiophore develop.
Stolon
114
Material on which the fungus is growing.
Substrate
115
Also known as sensitive. Microbe is unable to grow in the presence of a particular antimicrobial.
Susceptible
116
Thermostable DNA polymerase used during PCR amplification. It can withstand high temperature without being denatured.
Taq polymerase
117
Extremely heat resistant with a half-life of 40 minutes at 95°C.
Taq polymerase
118
Derived from a heat-tolerant bacterium, Thermus aquaticus.
Taq polymerase
119
Abbreviation for Taq polymerase
Taq pol
120
Used to preserve the integrity of the specimen from the time of collection up to the laboratory processing.
Transport medium
121
Equipment used to visualize target DNAs and proteins by emitting high levels of ultraviolet rays through the viewing surface.
UV transilluminator
122
A human herpes virus that can cause the highly contagious chickenpox
Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)
123
Capable of inactivating or destroying viruses.
Virucidal
124
Predominantly a unicellular fungus, usually round or ovoid, reproduces by budding.
Yeast
125
Culture medium useful for yeast identification made from peptone and yeast extract.
Yeast fermentation broth
126
Circular area surrounding the antibiotic disk showing no visible growth of the inoculum.
Zone of inhibition