Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BioMed board > Glossary of Biomed Terms A-G > Flashcards

Glossary of Biomed Terms A-G Flashcards

1
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

a class of drugs that block a potent enzyme in the body that raises blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_____ are a class of drugs that block a potent enzyme in the body that raises blood pressure

A

Ace inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ace Inhibitors are a class of drugs that ____ a potent enzyme in the body that raises blood pressure

A

block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ace Inhibitors are a class of drugs that block a potent _____ in the body that raises blood pressure

A

enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ace Inhibitors are a class of drugs that block a potent enzyme in the body that ____ blood pressure

A

raises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ace Inhibitors are a class of drugs that block a potent enzyme in the body that raises ______

A

blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ace Inhibitors are a_____ that block a potent enzyme in the body that raises blood pressure

A

class of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ is neurotransmitter in the synapses of the parasympathetic nervous system and neuromuscular junctions

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acetylcholine is _____ in the synapses of the parasympathetic nervous system and neuromuscular junctions

A

neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acetylcholine is neurotransmitter in the ____ of the parasympathetic nervous system and neuromuscular junctions

A

synapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acetylcholine is neurotransmitter in the synapses of the _____ and neuromuscular junctions

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acetylcholine is neurotransmitter in the synapses of the parasympathetic nervous system and _____

A

neuromuscular junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

______ an enzyme that controls (reduces) the amount of acetylcholine active in the synapses of the nervous system

A

Acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acetylcholinesterase an _____ that controls (reduces) the amount of acetylcholine active in the synapses of the nervous system

A

enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acetylcholinesterase an enzyme that ______ the amount of acetylcholine active in the synapses of the nervous system

A

controls/ reduces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acetylcholinesterase an enzyme that controls (reduces) the amount of _____ active in the synapses of the nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acetylcholinesterase an enzyme that controls (reduces) the amount of acetylcholine active in the _____

A

synapses of the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

____ is an esophageal spasm causing chest pain and difficulty swallowing

A

Achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Achalasia is an _____ spasm causing chest pain and difficulty swallowing

A

esophageal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Achalasia is an esophageal ___ causing chest pain and difficulty swallowing

A

spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Achalasia is an esophageal spasm causing ____ and ______

A

chest pain

difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

_____ is the absence of hydrochloric acid in the ST, see in cancer of the stomach as well as in some elderly patients

A

Achlorhydria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Achlorhydria is the ____ of hydrochloric acid in the ST, see in cancer of the stomach as well as in some elderly patients

A

absence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Achlorhydria is the absence of ______ in the ST, see in cancer of the stomach as well as in some elderly patients

A

hydrochloric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Achlorhydria is the absence of hydrochloric acid in the ST, see in _____ as well as in ______

A

Stomach cancer

Some elderly patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

____is a disorder resulting from a pituitary tumor with excess production of growth stimulating hormone (GSH), resulting in large facial features, hands, and feet

A

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acromegaly is a disorder resulting from a ____ with excess production of growth stimulating hormone (GSH), resulting in large facial features, hands, and feet

A

pituitary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Acromegaly is a disorder resulting from a pituitary tumor with ___ production of growth stimulating hormone (GSH), resulting in large facial features, hands, and feet

A

excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acromegaly is a disorder resulting from a pituitary tumor with excess production of growth stimulating hormone (GSH), resulting in large ____ feature, _____, and ____

A

facial, hands, feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

____ is the infection of one or both fallopian tubes

A

acute salpingitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acute salpingitis is the ____ of one or both fallopian tubes

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acute salpingitis is the infection of one or both ______

A

fallopian tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

______ is any disorder (tumor or infection) that causes reduced function of the adrenal gland

A

Addison’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Addison’s disease is any disorder (tumor or infection) that causes _____ function of the adrenal gland

A

reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Addison’s disease is any disorder (tumor or infection) that causes reduced ____ of the adrenal gland

A

function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Addison’s disease is any disorder (tumor or infection) that causes reduced function of the _____

A

adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

______ are drugs used in diabetic patients that inhibit the breakdown of starch in the gut by alpha glucosidase, thus reducing the absorption of glucose

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are ____ used in diabetic patients that inhibit the breakdown of starch in the gut by alpha glucosidase, thus reducing the absorption of glucose

A

drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are drugs used in ___patients that inhibit the breakdown of starch in the gut by alpha glucosidase, thus reducing the absorption of glucose

A

diabetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are drugs used in diabetic patients that ___ the breakdown of starch in the gut by alpha glucosidase, thus reducing the absorption of glucose

A

inhibit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are drugs used in diabetic patients that inhibit the _____ by alpha glucosidase, thus reducing the absorption of glucose

A

breakdown of starch in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are drugs used in diabetic patients that inhibit the breakdown of starch in the gut by _____, thus reducing the absorption of glucose

A

alpha glucosidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are drugs used in diabetic patients that inhibit the breakdown of starch in the gut by alpha glucosidase, thus ____ the absorption of glucose

A

reducing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are drugs used in diabetic patients that inhibit the breakdown of starch in the gut by alpha glucosidase, thus reducing the ____

A

absorption of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

_____ is a progressive dementia of unknown cause affecting middle age and older people. The incident of this disease has been increasing in the US in recent years

A

Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is a _____ of unknown cause affecting middle age and older people. The incident of this disease has been increasing in the US in recent years

A

progressive dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive dementia of ____ affecting middle age and older people. The incident of this disease has been increasing in the US in recent years

A

unknown cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive dementia of unknown cause affecting ____ and ____ people. The incident of this disease has been increasing in the US in recent years

A

middle age, older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

____ is the absence of periods.

A

Amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Amenorrhea is the ____ of periods

A

absence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Amenorrhea is the absence of ____

A

periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Secondary Amenorrhea is when …

A

the periods began but then stopped later on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

____ is the layer that surrounds the fetus in the uterus

A

Amnion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amnion is the ____ that surrounds the fetus in the uterus

A

layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Amnion is the layer that ____ the fetus in the uterus

A

surrounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Amnion is the layer that surrounds ____ in the uterus

A

the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Amnion is the layer that surrounds the fetus in the ___

A

uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

___ is one of the pleasure and emotion centers in the brain

A

Amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Amygdala is one of the ___ and _____ centers in the brain

A

pleasure, emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Amygdala is one of the pleasure and emotion centers in the ____

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

_____ is the swelling of the face associated with a severe allergic reaction

A

Angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Angioedema is the ______ associated with a severe allergic reaction

A

Swelling of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Angioedema is the swelling of the face associated with a ____

A

Severe allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

______ is an autoimmune d/o affecting the spine in young adults causing back pain and ascending limitation of motion in the back and chest cavity

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is an _____ affecting the spine in young adults causing back pain and ascending limitation of motion in the back and chest cavity

A

autoimmune d/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is an autoimmune d/o affecting the ____in young adults causing back pain and ascending limitation of motion in the back and chest cavity

A

spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is an autoimmune d/o affecting the spine in ___ causing back pain and ascending limitation of motion in the back and chest cavity

A

Young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is an autoimmune d/o affecting the spine in young adults causing ____ and _____ in the back and chest cavity

A

back pain, ascending limitation of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is an autoimmune d/o affecting the spine in young adults causing back pain and ascending limitation of motion in the ___ and ____

A

back and chest cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

_______ are a class of drugs that block the removal of acetylcholine from the neural synapses resulting in greater muscle strength and increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. Esp in slowing down alzheimer’s

A

Anticholinesterase drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Anticholinesterase drugs are a class of drugs that _____ the removal of acetylcholine from the neural synapses resulting in greater muscle strength and increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. Esp in slowing down alzheimer’s

A

block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Anticholinesterase drugs are a class of drugs that block the ______ from the neural synapses resulting in greater muscle strength and increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. Esp in slowing down alzheimer’s

A

removal of acetycholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Anticholinesterase drugs are a class of drugs that block the removal of acetylcholine from the _____ resulting in greater muscle strength and increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. Esp in slowing down alzheimer’s

A

neural synapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Anticholinesterase drugs are a class of drugs that block the removal of acetylcholine from the neural synapses resulting in ______ and _______. Esp in slowing down alzheimer’s

A

greater muscle strength

Increased PSN activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Anticholinesterase drugs are a class of drugs that block the removal of acetylcholine from the neural synapses resulting in greater muscle strength and increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. Esp in slowing down ______

A

Alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

_____ is the inability to name familiar objects following a stroke

A

Aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Aphasia is the ________ following a stroke

A

inability to name familiar objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Aphasia is the inability to name familiar objects following a ___

A

stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

____ is the process of programmed cell death that allows old and damaged cells to be replaced with new ones

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Apoptosis is the process of _____ that allows old and damaged cells to be replaced with new ones

A

programed cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Apoptosis is the process of programmed cell death that allows ____ and ____ cells to be replaced with new ones

A

old, damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

_____ is slow purposeless movements seen in certain neurological diseases

A

Athetosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Athetosis is _____ seen in certain neurological diseases

A

slow, purposeless movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

_____ is the presence of excess nitrogen waste products in the blood stream seen in renal failure

A

Azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Azotemia is the presence of ____ nitrogen waste products in the blood stream seen in renal failure

A

excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Azotemia is the presence of excess _____ products in the blood stream seen in renal failure

A

nitrogen waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Azotemia is the presence of excess nitrogen waste products in the _____ seen in renal failure

A

blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Azotemia is the presence of excess nitrogen waste products in the blood stream seen in ____

A

renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

____ are pathological changes seen in the brain tissue of alzheimer’s disease patients at autopsy

A

Beta Amyloid Tangles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Beta amyloid tangles are _____ seen in the brain tissue of alzheimer’s disease patients at autopsy

A

pathological changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Beta amyloid tangles are pathological changes seen in the ____ of alzheimer’s disease patients at autopsy

A

brain tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Beta amyloid tangles are pathological changes seen in the brain tissue of ____ disease patients at autopsy

A

alzheimer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

_____ is the slow, small-scale movements seen in patients with parkinson’s disease

A

Bradykinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Bradykinesia is the _____, ______ movements seen in patients with parkinson’s disease

A

slow, small scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Bradykinesia is the slow, small-scale movements seen in patients with ____ disease

A

Parkinsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

_____ a respiratory condition causing severe inflammatory damage to the bronchi and bronchioles

A

Bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Bronchiectasis a ____ condition causing severe inflammatory damage to the bronchi and bronchioles

A

respiratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Bronchiectasis a respiratory condition causing _____ damage to the bronchi and bronchioles

A

severe inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Bronchiectasis a respiratory condition causing severe inflammatory damage to the ___ and ____

A

bronchi, bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

_____ is a class of drugs that diminish cardiac muscle contraction, used in treating heart disease

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers is a class of drugs that ____ cardiac muscle contraction, used in treating heart disease

A

diminish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers is a class of drugs that diminish ____ muscle contraction, used in treating heart disease

A

cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers is a class of drugs that diminish cardiac muscle ___, used in treating heart disease

A

contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers is a class of drugs that diminish cardiac muscle contraction, used in treating ____

A

heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

____ is the widespread dissemination of cancer

A

Carcinomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Carcinomatosis is the widespread ____ of cancer

A

dissemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Carcinomatosis is the widespread dissemination of ____

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

____ is a heart condition in which blood or fluid outside the heart in the pericardial sac constricts the heartbeat

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Cardiac tamponade is a ____ condition in which blood or fluid outside the heart in the pericardial sac constricts the heartbeat

A

heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Cardiac tamponade is a heart condition in which ____ or ___ outside the heart in the pericardial sac constricts the heartbeat

A

fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Cardiac tamponade is a heart condition in which blood or fluid ____ the heart in the pericardial sac constricts the heartbeat

A

outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Cardiac tamponade is a heart condition in which blood or fluid outside the heart in the ___ constricts the heartbeat

A

pericardial sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Cardiac tamponade is a heart condition in which blood or fluid outside the heart in the pericardial sac ____ the heartbeat

A

constricts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

____is a mothers first breast secretions after childbirth containing antibodies and white blood cells to protect the baby

A

Colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Colostrum is a mothers ___ breast secretions after childbirth containing antibodies and white blood cells to protect the baby

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Colostrum is a mothers first ___ after childbirth containing antibodies and white blood cells to protect the baby

A

breast secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Colostrum is a mothers first breast secretions after ___ containing antibodies and white blood cells to protect the baby

A

childbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Colostrum is a mothers first breast secretions after childbirth containing ____ and ____ to protect the baby

A

antibodies, WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

____ is also known as non-tropical sprue. This is a malabsorption syndrome in which the small intestine fails to absorb food properly

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Celiac disease is also known as _____. This is a malabsorption syndrome in which the small intestine fails to absorb food properly

A

non-topical sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Celiac disease is also known as non-tropical sprue. This is a ____ syndrome in which the small intestine fails to absorb food properly

A

malabsorption syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Celiac disease is also known as non-tropical sprue. This is a malabsorption syndrome in which the ____ fails to absorb food properly

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

____ is a heart disease caused by a parasite that is widespread in tropical countries, leading to heart failure. Spread by the bite of the reduviid bug

A

Chagas’ Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Chagas’ Disease is a ___ disease caused by a parasite that is widespread in tropical countries, leading to heart failure. Spread by the bite of the reduviid bug

A

heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Chagas’ Disease is a heart disease caused by a ____ that is widespread in tropical countries, leading to heart failure. Spread by the bite of the reduviid bug

A

Parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Chagas’ Disease is a heart disease caused by a parasite that is widespread in tropical countries, leading to ____. Spread by the bite of the reduviid bug

A

heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

_____ is a breathing pattern seen in comatose patients where breathing slows and then stops, then begins again

A

Cheyne-stokes breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Cheyne-stokes breathing is a breathing pattern seen in ____ patients where breathing slows and then stops, then begins again

A

comatose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Cheyne-stokes breathing is a breathing pattern seen in comatose patients where breathing ___ and then ___, then ___ again

A

slows, stops, begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

___ is the inflammation or infection of the bile ducts. Ass sx: gallstones

A

Cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Cholangitis is the ____ or ___ of the bile ducts. Ass sx: gallstones

A

inflammation, inflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Cholangitis is the inflammation or infection of the ____. Ass sx: gallstones

A

bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Cholangitis is the inflammation or infection of the bile ducts. Ass sx: ____

A

gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

____ is a hormone secreted by pancreas during the ingestion of fatty foods which causes the gallbladder and bile ducts to contract and release bile into the intestinal tract

A

Cholecystokinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Cholecystokinin is a ____ secreted by pancreas during the ingestion of fatty foods which causes the gallbladder and bile ducts to contract and release bile into the intestinal tract

A

hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Cholecystokinin is a hormone secreted by ___ during the ingestion of fatty foods which causes the gallbladder and bile ducts to contract and release bile into the intestinal tract

A

pancrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Cholecystokinin is a hormone secreted by pancreas during the ____ which causes the gallbladder and bile ducts to contract and release bile into the intestinal tract

A

ingestion of fatty foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Cholecystokinin is a hormone secreted by pancreas during the ingestion of fatty foods which causes the — and ____ to contract and release bile into the intestinal tract

A

gallbladder, bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Cholecystokinin is a hormone secreted by pancreas during the ingestion of fatty foods which causes the gallbladder and bile ducts to contract and ___ into the intestinal tract

A

release bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

____are gallstones

A

Cholelithiases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Cholelithiases are -____

A

gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

_____ are small particles of fat found in the bloodstream after the ingestion of a fatty meal

A

Chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Chylomicrons are small particles of ____ found in the bloodstream after the ingestion of a fatty meal

A

fat

144
Q

Chylomicrons are small particles of fat found in the _____ after the ingestion of a fatty meal

A

bloodstream

145
Q

Chylomicrons are small particles of fat found in the bloodstream after the ingestion of a ____ meal

A

fatty

146
Q

____is the circle of arteries at the base of the brain, a common location for congenital aneurysms that can rupture and cause a stroke

A

Circle willis

147
Q

Circle of willis is the circle of___ at the base of the brain, a common location for congenital aneurysms that can rupture and cause a stroke

A

arteries

148
Q

Circle of willis is the circle of arteries at the ____, a common location for congenital aneurysms that can rupture and cause a stroke

A

base of the brain

149
Q

Circle of willis is the circle of arteries at the base of the brain, a common location for ____ aneurysms that can rupture and cause a stroke

A

congenital

150
Q

Circle of willis is the circle of arteries at the base of the brain, a common location for congenital ____ that can rupture and cause a stroke

A

aneurysms

151
Q

____ is the natural form of fatty acids recognized by the body and utilized in cellular metabolism in healthy ways as opposed to trans fatty acids where are unhealthy

A

Cis Fatty acids

152
Q

Cis fatty acid is the ____ form of fatty acids recognized by the body and utilized in cellular metabolism in healthy ways as opposed to trans fatty acids where are unhealthy

A

natural

153
Q

Cis fatty acid is the natural form of fatty acids recognized by the body and utilized in ____ in healthy ways as opposed to trans fatty acids where are unhealthy

A

cellular metabolism

154
Q

Cis fatty acid is the natural form of fatty acids recognized by the body and utilized in cellular metabolism in healthy ways as opposed to ___ fatty acids where are unhealthy

A

trans

155
Q

CK is

A

Creatine Kinase

156
Q

CKMB is

A

Myocardial band of creatine kinase

157
Q

____ are released into the bloodstream in conditions of muscle cell injury, especially a myocardial infarction

A

CK and CKMB

158
Q

CK and CKMB are released into the ____ in conditions of muscle cell injury, especially a myocardial infarction

A

bloodstream

159
Q

CK and CKMB are released into the bloodstream in conditions of ____, especially a myocardial infarction

A

muscle cell injury

160
Q

CK and CKMB are released into the bloodstream in conditions of muscle cell injury, especially a ___

A

myocardial infarction

161
Q

_____ is the rhythmic muscular contractions often seen with neurological conditions

A

Clonus

162
Q

Clonus is the rhythmic ____ often seen with neurological conditions

A

muscular contractions

163
Q

Clonus is the rhythmic muscular contractions often seen with ____ conditions

A

neurological

164
Q

____ is severe abdominal pain often with intense waves of pan seen in the passage of kidney stones, gallstones or intestinal obstruction

A

Colic

165
Q

Colic is severe ____ pain often with intense waves of pan seen in the passage of kidney stones, gallstones or intestinal obstruction

A

abdominal

166
Q

Colic is severe abdominal pain often with intense waves of pan seen in the passage of ____, _____or intestinal obstruction

A

kidney stones

gallstones

167
Q

Colic is severe abdominal pain often with intense waves of pan seen in the passage of kidney stones, gallstones or _____

A

intestinal obstruction

168
Q

____ warts caused by the HPV found on the genitals or anal area

A

Condyloma accuminata

169
Q

condyloma accuminata are ___ caused by the HPV found on the genitals or anal area

A

warts

170
Q

condyloma accuminata are warts caused by the ____ found on the genitals or anal area

A

HPV

171
Q

condyloma accuminata are warts caused by the HPV found on the ___ or ____ area

A

genitals, anal

172
Q

____ are a type of NSAID that selectively block the action of cyclooxygenase 2 in the inflammatory reaction, used as analgesics. Not useful for blocking cox-1

A

Cox-2 Inhibitors

173
Q

NSAIDs are….

A

… nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

174
Q

Cox1 inhibitors help form the protective mucus in the stomach lining

A

Cox1 inhibitors

175
Q

Cox-2 Inhibitors are a type of ____ that selectively block the action of cyclooxygenase 2 in the inflammatory reaction, used as analgesics. Not useful for blocking cox-1

A

NSAID

176
Q

Cox-2 Inhibitors are a type of NSAID that selectively block the action of cyclooxygenase 2 in the ____ reaction, used as analgesics. Not useful for blocking cox-1

A

inflammatory

177
Q

Cox-2 Inhibitors are a type of NSAID that selectively block the action of cyclooxygenase 2 in the inflammatory reaction, used as ____. Not useful for blocking cox-1

A

analgesics

178
Q

Cox-2 Inhibitors are a type of NSAID that selectively block the action of cyclooxygenase 2 in the inflammatory reaction, used as analgesics. Not useful for blocking ____

A

cox 1

179
Q

Cox1 inhibitors help form the ____ in the stomach lining

A

protective mucus

180
Q

Cox1 inhibitors help form the protective mucus in the ____

A

Stomach lining

181
Q

___ is a particular form of the autoimmune disorder scleroderma associated with calcium deposits, Raynaud’s phenomenon in the hands and feet, esophageal malfunction, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia

A

CREST Syndrome

182
Q

CREST syndrome is a particular form of the autoimmune disorder ___ associated with calcium deposits, Raynaud’s phenomenon in the hands and feet, esophageal malfunction, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia

A

scleroderma

183
Q

CREST syndrome is a particular form of the autoimmune disorder scleroderma associated with ____, Raynaud’s phenomenon in the hands and feet, esophageal malfunction, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia

A

Calcium deposits

184
Q

CREST syndrome is a particular form of the autoimmune disorder scleroderma associated with calcium deposits, _____ in the hands and feet, esophageal malfunction, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon

185
Q

CREST syndrome is a particular form of the autoimmune disorder scleroderma associated with calcium deposits, Raynaud’s phenomenon in the hands and feet, ____ malfunction, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia

A

esophageal

186
Q

CREST syndrome is a particular form of the autoimmune disorder scleroderma associated with calcium deposits, Raynaud’s phenomenon in the hands and feet, esophageal malfunction, ___ and telangiectasia

A

sclerodactyly

187
Q

CREST syndrome is a particular form of the autoimmune disorder scleroderma associated with calcium deposits, Raynaud’s phenomenon in the hands and feet, esophageal malfunction, sclerodactyly and ____

A

telangiectasia

188
Q

Localized thickening of fingers and toes?

A

Sclerodactyly

189
Q

reddish skin spots that are small dilated blood vessels?

A

telangiectasia

190
Q

___ disease is a severe brain infection caused by prions, similar to mad cow disease

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob

191
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a severe ____ caused by prions, similar to mad cow disease

A

brain infection

192
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a severe brain infection caused by ___, similar to mad cow disease

A

prions

193
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a severe brain infection caused by prions, similar to____ disease

A

mad cow

194
Q

____ is a blood test that indicates the level of chronic infection in the body, closely correlated with increased risk for heart attacks, strokes, and cancer.

A

CRP (C-reactive protein)

195
Q

CRP is a ____ test that indicates the level of chronic infection in the body, closely correlated with increased risk for heart attacks, strokes, and cancer.

A

blood

196
Q

CRP is a blood test that indicates the level of ____ in the body, closely correlated with increased risk for heart attacks, strokes, and cancer.

A

chronic infection

197
Q

CRP is a blood test that indicates the level of chronic infection in the body, closely correlated with ____ risk for heart attacks, strokes, and cancer.

A

increased

198
Q

CRP is a blood test that indicates the level of chronic infection in the body, closely correlated with increased risk for ____, ____, and _____.

A

heart attacks, strokes, cancer

199
Q

___ is a surgery performed with the use of freezing probes that freeze the tissue so it can be removed without bleeding

A

Cryosurgery

200
Q

Cryosurgery is a surgery performed with the use of ___ ____ that freeze the tissue so it can be removed without bleeding

A

freezing probes

201
Q

Cryosurgery is a surgery performed with the use of freezing probes that freeze the tissue so it can be removed without ____

A

bleeding

202
Q

____ is the prolapse of the bladder into the vagina seen in women after childbirth under some conditions

A

Cystocele

203
Q

Cystocele is the ____ of the bladder into the vagina seen in women after childbirth under some conditions

A

prolapse

204
Q

Cystocele is the prolapse of the ___ into the___ seen in women after childbirth under some conditions

A

Bladder, vagina

205
Q

Cystocele is the prolapse of the bladder into the vagina seen in women after ____ under some conditions

A

childbirth

206
Q

____ are bedsores or pressure ulcers seen in patients kept at bed rest over body areas pressing against the sheets- ankles, sacrum, hips

A

Decubitus ulcers

207
Q

Decubitus ulcers are ____ or___ seen in patients kept at bed rest over body areas pressing against the sheets- ankles, sacrum, hips

A

bedsores, pressure ulcers

208
Q

____ is double vision

A

Diplopia

209
Q

Diplopia is ____

A

Double vision

210
Q

____(DT’s) is extreme agitation seen in patients undergoing alcohol withdrawal

A

Delirium Tremens

211
Q

Delirium tremens (DT’s) is extreme ___ seen in patients undergoing alcohol withdrawal

A

agitation

212
Q

Delirium tremens (DT’s) is extreme agitation seen in patients undergoing ___ withdrawal

A

alcohol

213
Q

____ is trouble speaking clearly and enunciating words often seen in association with strokes where the actual thought content is normal

A

Dysarthria

214
Q

Dysarthria is trouble ___ clearly and ___ words often seen in association with strokes where the actual thought content is normal

A

speaking, enunciating

215
Q

Dysarthria is trouble speaking clearly and enunciating words often seen in association with ___ where the actual thought content is normal

A

strokes

216
Q

____ is an altered unpleasant sensation in the skin occurring when the sensory nerves have been damaged (or after frostbite)

A

Dysesthesia

217
Q

Dysesthesia is an altered unpleasant sensation in the ___ occurring when the sensory nerves have been damaged (or after frostbite)

A

skin

218
Q

Dysesthesia is an altered unpleasant sensation in the skin occurring when the ___ nerves have been damaged (or after frostbite)

A

sensory

219
Q

Dysesthesia is an altered unpleasant sensation in the skin occurring when the sensory nerves have been damaged (or after ____)

A

frostbite

220
Q

___ is painful or unpleasant sexual intercorse

A

Dyspareunia

221
Q

Dyspareunia is painful or unpleasant ___

A

sexual intercorse

222
Q

____ is a mild form of depression

A

Dysphoria

223
Q

Dysphoria is a mild form of ____

A

depression

224
Q

___ is the bruising of the skin

A

Ecchymosis

225
Q

Ecchymosis is the ____ of the skin

A

bruising

226
Q

Ecchymosis is the bruising of the ___

A

skin

227
Q

____is convulsions following childbirth in a woman who had preeclampsia during her pregnancy (protein in the urine and possible hypertension)

A

Eclampsia

228
Q

Eclampsia is ____ following childbirth in a woman who had preeclampsia during her pregnancy (protein in the urine and possible hypertension)

A

convulsions

229
Q

Eclampsia is convulsions following ___ in a woman who had preeclampsia during her pregnancy (protein in the urine and possible hypertension)

A

childbirth

230
Q

Eclampsia is convulsions following childbirth in a woman who had _____ during her pregnancy (protein in the urine and possible hypertension)

A

preeclampsia

231
Q

Eclampsia is convulsions following childbirth in a woman who had preeclampsia during her pregnancy (___ in the urine and possible hypertension)

A

protein

232
Q

Eclampsia is convulsions following childbirth in a woman who had preeclampsia during her pregnancy (protein in the ___ and possible hypertension)

A

urine

233
Q

Eclampsia is convulsions following childbirth in a woman who had preeclampsia during her pregnancy (protein in the urine and possible ____)

A

hypertension

234
Q

____ is inflammation of the skin (dermatitis)

A

Eczema

235
Q

Eczema is____ of the skin (dermatitis)

A

inflammation

236
Q

Eczema is inflammation of the___ (dermatitis)

A

skin

237
Q

Eczema is inflammation of the skin (____)

A

dermatitis

238
Q

____ are abnormal sounds heard with the stethoscope over the chest in a patient with pneumonia or heart failure

A

Egophony

239
Q

Egophony are abnormal ___ heard with the stethoscope over the chest in a patient with pneumonia or heart failure

A

sounds

240
Q

Egophony are abnormal sounds heard with the ____ over the chest in a patient with pneumonia or heart failure

A

stethoscope

241
Q

Egophony are abnormal sounds heard with the stethoscope over the chest in a patient with ___or ____

A

pneumonia, heart failure

242
Q

____are charged ionic particles such as sodium or potassium ion

A

Electrolytes

243
Q

Electrolytes are charged ___ particles such as sodium or potassium ion

A

ionic

244
Q

Electrolytes are charged ionic ____ such as sodium or potassium ion

A

particles

245
Q

____ is a congenital outpouching or weakness in the lung (usually in the apex) that can rupture and cause spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Emphysematous bleb

246
Q

Emphysematous bleb is a ___ outpouching or weakness in the lung (usually in the apex) that can rupture and cause spontaneous pneumothorax

A

congenital

247
Q

Emphysematous bleb is a congenital ___ or ___in the lung (usually in the apex) that can rupture and cause spontaneous pneumothorax

A

outpouching, weakness

248
Q

Emphysematous bleb is a congenital outpouching or weakness in the lung (usually in the ___) that can rupture and cause spontaneous pneumothorax

A

apex

249
Q

Emphysematous bleb is a congenital outpouching or weakness in the lung (usually in the apex) that can rupture and cause spontaneous ____

A

pneumothorax

250
Q

____ is a lung abscess sometimes seen following bacterial pneumonia

A

Empyema

251
Q

Empyema is a ____ abscess sometimes seen following bacterial pneumonia

A

lung

252
Q

Empyema is a lung ___ sometimes seen following bacterial pneumonia

A

abscess

253
Q

Empyema is a lung abscess sometimes seen following ____ pneumonia

A

bacterial

254
Q

Empyema is a lung abscess sometimes seen following bacterial ____

A

pneumonia

255
Q

____ is an infection in the posterior chamber of the eye (behind the lens) usually caused by bacteria

A

Endophthalmitis

256
Q

Endophthalmitis is an ____ in the posterior chamber of the eye (behind the lens) usually caused by bacteria

A

infection

257
Q

Endophthalmitis is an infection in the ____ of the eye (behind the lens) usually caused by bacteria

A

posterior chamber

258
Q

Endophthalmitis is an infection in the posterior chamber of the eye (behind the lens) usually caused by ____

A

bacteria

259
Q

_____ is a diagnostic procedure where a fiber optic tube is passed through the stomach and duodenum and into the pancreatic and bile ducts

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangio pancreatography (ERCP)

260
Q

Endoscopic retrograde cholangio pancreatography (ERCP) is a _____ procedure where a fiber optic tube is passed through the stomach and duodenum and into the pancreatic and bile ducts

A

diagnostic

261
Q

Endoscopic retrograde cholangio pancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic procedure where a fiber optic tube is passed through the ___ and ___ and into the pancreatic and bile ducts

A

Stomach, duodenum

262
Q

Endoscopic retrograde cholangio pancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic procedure where a fiber optic tube is passed through the stomach and duodenum and into the ____ and ____

A

pancreatic, bile ducts

263
Q

___ is a bulging of a loop of intestine into the vagina seen after a difficult childbirth

A

Enterocele

264
Q

Enterocele is a bulging of a loop of ____ into the vagina seen after a difficult childbirth

A

intestine

265
Q

Enterocele is a bulging of a loop of intestine into the ___ seen after a difficult childbirth

A

vagina

266
Q

Enterocele is a bulging of a loop of intestine into the vagina seen after a difficult ___

A

childbirth

267
Q

___ is a sensitive test for measuring small amount of substances in the bloodstream, especially antibodies

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test

268
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test is a sensitive ____ for measuring small amount of substances in the bloodstream, especially antibodies

A

test

269
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test is a sensitive test for measuring small amount of ____ in the bloodstream, especially antibodies

A

substances

270
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test is a sensitive test for measuring small amount of substances in the ____, especially antibodies

A

bloodstream

271
Q

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test is a sensitive test for measuring small amount of substances in the bloodstream, especially ___

A

antibodies

272
Q

_____ are nosebleeds

A

Epistaxis

273
Q

Epistaxis are -___

A

nosebleeds

274
Q

____ is the inability to achieve or sustain an erection seen in medical and psychological conditions (impotence)

A

Erectile dysfunction

275
Q

Erectile dysfunction is the ____ to achieve or sustain an erection seen in medical and psychological conditions (impotence)

A

inability

276
Q

Erectile dysfunction is the inability to ___ or ____ an erection seen in medical and psychological conditions (impotence)

A

achieve, sustain

277
Q

Erectile dysfunction is the inability to achieve or sustain an ____ seen in medical and psychological conditions (impotence)

A

erection

278
Q

____ is the flushing or redness of the skin

A

Erythema

279
Q

Erythema is the ___ or ___ of the skin

A

flushing, redness

280
Q

Erythema is the flushing or redness of the ____

A

skin

281
Q

____ is a reddish plaque on the mucus membrane of the oral cavity or pharynx that is precancerous

A

Erythroplakia

282
Q

Erythroplakia is a reddish ___ on the mucus membrane of the oral cavity or pharynx that is precancerous

A

plaque

283
Q

Erythroplakia is a reddish plaque on the ____ of the oral cavity or pharynx that is precancerous

A

mucus membrane

284
Q

Erythroplakia is a reddish plaque on the mucus membrane of the ___ cavity or pharynx that is precancerous

A

oral

285
Q

Erythroplakia is a reddish plaque on the mucus membrane of the oral cavity or ___ that is precancerous

A

pharynx

286
Q

Erythroplakia is a reddish plaque on the mucus membrane of the oral cavity or pharynx that is __

A

pre-cancerous

287
Q

___ is when the thyroid function is normal

A

Euthyroid

288
Q

Euthyroid is when the ___ function is normal

A

thyroid

289
Q

Euthyroid is when the thyroid function is ____

A

normal

290
Q

____ is a breakdown or severe irritation of the skin

A

Excoriation

291
Q

Excoriation is a ____ or severe irritation of the skin

A

break down

292
Q

Excoriation is a breakdown or severe ____ of the skin

A

irritation

293
Q

Excoriation is a breakdown or severe irritation of the ____

A

skin

294
Q

_____ is the system of nerve tracts that modulate and control the smoothness of muscular contractions. This system malfunctions in Parkinson’s disease.

A

Extrapyramidal nervous system

295
Q

Extrapyramidal nervous system is the system of ____ tracts that modulate and control the smoothness of muscular contractions. This system malfunctions in Parkinson’s disease.

A

nerves

296
Q

Extrapyramidal nervous system is the system of nerve tracts that ____ and ____ the smoothness of muscular contractions. This system malfunctions in Parkinson’s disease.

A

modulate, control

297
Q

Extrapyramidal nervous system is the system of nerve tracts that modulate and control the smoothness of ____ contractions. This system malfunctions in Parkinson’s disease.

A

muscular

298
Q

Extrapyramidal nervous system is the system of nerve tracts that modulate and control the smoothness of muscular contractions. This system malfunctions in ___ disease.

A

Parkinson’s

299
Q

____ are brief contractions of muscles that often appear worm like under the skin seen in neurological diseases and also in normal individuals who are fatigued (shoulder or calf muscles, eye muscles)

A

Fasciculations

300
Q

Fasciculations are brief ____ of muscles that often appear worm like under the skin seen in neurological diseases and also in normal individuals who are fatigued (shoulder or calf muscles, eye muscles)

A

contractions

301
Q

Fasciculations are brief contractions of -___ that often appear worm like under the skin seen in neurological diseases and also in normal individuals who are fatigued (shoulder or calf muscles, eye muscles)

A

muscles

302
Q

Fasciculations are brief contractions of muscles that often appear worm like under the skin seen in ____ diseases and also in normal individuals who are fatigued (shoulder or calf muscles, eye muscles)

A

neurological

303
Q

Fasciculations are brief contractions of muscles that often appear worm like under the skin seen in neurological diseases and also in normal individuals who are ____ (shoulder or calf muscles, eye muscles)

A

fatigued

304
Q

___ is an infection of the fingertip, often requiring surgical drainage

A

Felon

305
Q

Felon is an ____ of the fingertip, often requiring surgical drainage

A

infection

306
Q

Felon is an infection of the ____, often requiring surgical drainage

A

fingertip

307
Q

Felon is an infection of the fingertip, often requiring surgical ____

A

drainage

308
Q

____ is when a baby is born with neurological problems and a failure to thrive, seen when the mother has abused alcohol

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

309
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome is when a baby is born with ____ problems and a failure to thrive, seen when the mother has abused alcohol

A

neurological

310
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome is when a baby is born with neurological problems and a failure to ____, seen when the mother has abused alcohol

A

thrive

311
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome is when a baby is born with neurological problems and a failure to thrive, seen when the mother has abused ____

A

alcohol

312
Q

____ is a condition in which the patient complains of symptoms without any detectable physical cause

A

Functional disorder

313
Q

Functional disorder is a condition in which the patient complains of ____ without any detectable physical cause

A

symptoms

314
Q

Functional disorder is a condition in which the patient complains of symptoms without any ____ physical cause

A

detectable

315
Q

Functional disorder is a condition in which the patient complains of symptoms without any detectable ____ cause

A

physical

316
Q

____ is the inappropriate secretion of milk from the breast in men or women, seen with pituitary tumors or other conditions

A

Galactorrhea

317
Q

Galactorrhea is the ____ secretion of milk from the breast in men or women, seen with pituitary tumors or other conditions

A

inappropriate

318
Q

Galactorrhea is the inappropriate secretion of ___ from the breast in men or women, seen with pituitary tumors or other conditions

A

milk

319
Q

Galactorrhea is the inappropriate secretion of milk from the breast in ___ or ___, seen with pituitary tumors or other conditions

A

men, women

320
Q

Galactorrhea is the inappropriate secretion of milk from the breast in men or women, seen with ___ tumors or other conditions

A

pituitary

321
Q

GABA is gamma amino butyric acid a neurotransmitter that acts as a inhibitor of excessive neural activity in the brain

A

GABA

322
Q

GABA is gamma amino butyric acid a ____ that acts as a inhibitor of excessive neural activity in the brain

A

neurotransmitter

323
Q

GABA is gamma amino butyric acid a neurotransmitter that acts as a ____of excessive neural activity in the brain

A

inhibitor

324
Q

GABA is gamma amino butyric acid a neurotransmitter that acts as a inhibitor of excessive ___ activity in the brain

A

neural

325
Q

GABA is gamma amino butyric acid a neurotransmitter that acts as a inhibitor of excessive neural activity in the ___

A

brain

326
Q

____ is a condition where the gastric contents reflux back up into the esophagus causing pain and sometimes difficult swallowing.

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)

327
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) is a condition where the ___ contents reflux back up into the esophagus causing pain and sometimes difficult swallowing.

A

gastric

328
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) is a condition where the gastric contents ___ back up into the esophagus causing pain and sometimes difficult swallowing.

A

reflux

329
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) is a condition where the gastric contents reflux back up into the ___ causing pain and sometimes difficult swallowing.

A

esophagus

330
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) is a condition where the gastric contents reflux back up into the esophagus causing ___ and sometimes difficult swallowing.

A

pain

331
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) is a condition where the gastric contents reflux back up into the esophagus causing pain and sometimes difficult ___.

A

swallowing

332
Q

____ is a diabetic condition during pregnancy that often goes away after delivery

A

Gestational diabetes

333
Q

Gestational diabetes is a ____condition during pregnancy that often goes away after delivery

A

diabetic

334
Q

Gestational diabetes is a diabetic condition during ____ that often goes away after delivery

A

pregnancy

335
Q

Gestational diabetes is a diabetic condition during pregnancy that often goes away after ____

A

delivery

336
Q

____ is an assisted reproductive technology procedure where eggs and sperm are implanted into fallopian tube of a woman who had been shown to have a patent tube

A

GIFT (gamete intrafallopian tube transfer)

337
Q

GIFT (gamete intrafallopian tube transfer) is an assisted ____ technology procedure where eggs and sperm are implanted into fallopian tube of a woman who had been shown to have a patent tube

A

reproductive

338
Q

GIFT (gamete intrafallopian tube transfer) is an assisted reproductive technology procedure where ____ and ___ are implanted into fallopian tube of a woman who had been shown to have a patent tube

A

eggs, sperm

339
Q

GIFT (gamete intrafallopian tube transfer) is an assisted reproductive technology procedure where eggs and sperm are implanted into ___ of a woman who had been shown to have a patent tube

A

fallopian tube

340
Q

GIFT (gamete intrafallopian tube transfer) is an assisted reproductive technology procedure where eggs and sperm are implanted into fallopian tube of a woman who had been shown to have a ___ tube

A

patent

341
Q

____ is inflammation of the tongue

A

Glossitis

342
Q

Glossitis is ___ of the tongue

A

inflammation

343
Q

Glossitis is inflammation of the ____

A

tongue

344
Q

____ is difficulty writing as seen in stroke patients

A

Graphesthesia

345
Q

Graphesthesia is difficulty ____ as seen in stroke patients

A

writing

346
Q

Graphesthesia is difficulty writing as seen in ___ patients

A

stroke

347
Q

___ is an autoimmune reaction, often to a flu shot, causing ascending paralysis that may be temporary or sometimes can be permanent.

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

348
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is an ___ reaction, often to a flu shot, causing ascending paralysis that may be temporary or sometimes can be permanent.

A

autoimmune

349
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune reaction, often to a ___ shot, causing ascending paralysis that may be temporary or sometimes can be permanent.

A

flu

350
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune reaction, often to a flu shot, causing ascending ___ that may be temporary or sometimes can be permanent.

A

paralysis

351
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune reaction, often to a flu shot, causing ascending paralysis that may be ___ or sometimes can be permanent.

A

temporary

352
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune reaction, often to a flu shot, causing ascending paralysis that may be temporary or sometimes can be ____.

A

permanent

353
Q

____ is the inappropriate enlargement of the breasts often in young boys or elderly men with a hormonal imbalance

A

Gynecomastia

354
Q

Gynecomastia is the inappropriate ____ of the breasts often in young boys or elderly men with a hormonal imbalance

A

enlargement

355
Q

Gynecomastia is the inappropriate enlargement of the ___ often in young boys or elderly men with a hormonal imbalance

A

breasts

356
Q

Gynecomastia is the inappropriate enlargement of the breasts often in ___ or ____ with a hormonal imbalance

A

young boys, elderly men

357
Q

Gynecomastia is the inappropriate enlargement of the breasts often in young boys or elderly men with a ___ imbalance

A

hormonal

BioMed board (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions