Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Glossary of Behavior Therapy Terms > Glossary of Behavior Therapy Terms - Sheet1 > Flashcards

Glossary of Behavior Therapy Terms - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

ABA study

A

(5) Single-subject reversal study consisting of three phases: baseline (A), treatment (B), and reversal (to baseline) (A).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ABAB study

A

(5) Single-subject reversal study consisting of four phases: baseline (A), treatment (B), reversal (to baseline) (A), and reinstatement of treatment (B).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ABC model

A

(3) Temporal sequence of antecedents, behavior, and consequences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

acceleration target behavior

A

(4) Adaptive behavior that is increased in therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

acceptability

A

(5) Measure of how palatable therapy procedures are to clients, therapists, and other change agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

acceptance

A

(15) Fully embracing one’s experience in the moment, just as it is, and without judging it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)

A

(15) Acceptance/mindfulness based behavior therapy that fosters acceptance of unwanted thoughts and feelings and a commitment to acting in accord with one’s values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

activity schedule

A

(13) List of the day’s activities used in cognitive therapy and behavioral activation to provide structure in clients’ lives and motivate them to remain active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

adaptation period

A

(6) Initial period in systematic naturalistic observation in which observations are made, but the data are not used; allows the client to become accustomed to the observer’s presence in order to reduce reactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

antecedents

A

(3) Events that occur or that are present before a behavior is performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

anxiety hierarchy

A

(10) List of events that elicit anxiety, ranked in order of increasing anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

anxiety-induction therapy

A

(11) Exposure therapy in which the client’s level of anxiety is heightened initially to reduce it eventually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

assertion training

A

(12) Specific skills training procedures used to teach assertive behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

assertive behaviors

A

(12) Actions that secure and maintain what one is entitled to without infringing on the rights of others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

automatic thoughts

A

(13) Maladaptive thoughts that appear to arise reflexively, without prior deliberation or reasoning, and that are cognitively reconstrued in cognitive therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

aversion therapy

A

(8) Treatment that directly decelerates a maladaptive behavior by associating it with an unpleasant stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

backup reinforcer

A

(9) Reinforcer that can be purchased with tokens in a token economy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

baseline

A

(4) Measurement of the natural occurrence of a target behavior prior to the introduction of treatment. It provides a standard for evaluating changes in a target behavior after a treatment has been introduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

behavior

A

(3) Anything a person does.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

behavior rehearsal

A

(12) Therapy procedure in which a client practices performing a target behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

behavioral activation

A

(7) Therapy, primarily used for depression, that identifies a client’s reinforcing activities and then initiates the client’s engaging in them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

behavioral approach (or avoidance) test

A

(6) Simulated observation to assess fear; clients are asked to engage in a series of steps that involve progressively more fear-inducing behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

behavioral deficit

A

(4) Adaptive behavior that a client is not performing often enough, long enough, or intensely enough. (Compare with behavioral excess.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

behavioral excess

A

(4) Maladaptive behavior that a client is performing too often, for too long, or too intensely. (Compare with behavioral deficit.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

behavioral momentum compliance training

A

(16) Technique used to get a client to comply with a low-probability request (that the client is not likely to comply with) by preceding it with a series of high-probability requests (that the client is likely to comply with).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

behavioral parent training

A

(9) Treatment package taught to parents consisting of acceleration and deceleration behavior therapy procedures to effectively manage their child’s behavioral problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

biofeedback

A

(16) Specific information clients receive about their physiological processes and use to change them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

booster treatment

A

(8) Additional treatment after therapy has been terminated, which is designed to promote long-term maintenance of therapeutic gains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

brief/graduated exposure therapy

A

(10) Treatment for anxiety in which the client is exposed to anxiety-evoking events for a short period and in a gradual manner progressing from less to more anxiety-evoking events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

caring-days technique

A

(14) Behavioral couple therapy procedure in which each partner purposefully performs behaviors that the other partner believes indicate caring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

case study

A

(5) Research method that provides a detailed description of what transpires during the treatment of an individual client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

checklist

A

(6) List of potential problem behaviors; someone who knows the client well checks those behaviors that are problematic for the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

clinical significance

A

(5) Change following therapy that makes a practical difference in the client’s life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

cognitive defusion

A

(15) Letting go of the idea that one’s thoughts are valid descriptions and explanations of one’s experiences and viewing them as just thoughts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

cognitive fusion

A

(15) Tendency for humans to take their thoughts literally and to believe that they accurately describe how things are, rather than viewing them as just thoughts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

cognitive processing therapy

A

(13) Adaptation of cognitive therapy for stress disorders in which clients are exposed to written accounts of their precipitating trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cognitive restructuring

A

(13) Cognitive behavioral technique of recognizing maladaptive thoughts and replacing them with adaptive ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cognitive restructuring therapy

A

(13) Cognitive-behavioral treatment that teaches clients to substitute adaptive cognitions for the distorted, illogical, and erroneous cognitions that are maintaining their problem behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cognitive therapy

A

(13) Cognitive restructuring therapy that emphasizes empirically testing hypotheses about the validity of maladaptive beliefs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cognitive-behavioral coping skills therapy

A

(14) Treatment that teaches clients specific cognitive and overt-behavioral skills to deal effectively with difficult situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

(13) Treatment that changes cognitions that are the maintaining conditions of psychological disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

collaborative empiricism

A

(13) Cognitive therapy procedure in which the therapist and client work together to frame the client’s irrational beliefs as hypotheses and design homework “experiments” that the client uses to test the validity of the hypotheses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

competing responses

A

(4) Two behaviors that cannot easily be performed simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

consequences

A

(3) Events that occur as a result of a behavior’s being performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

contingency contract

A

(9) Written agreement among the client, the therapist, and other change agents that specifies the relationship between target behaviors and their consequences and each participant’s responsibilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

contingency management

A

(7) Use of reinforcement and/or punishment contingent on the performance of a behavior to be changed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

continuous reinforcement schedule

A

(7) Schedule of reinforcement in which the target behavior is reinforced every time it is performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

control group

A

(5) Clients in a therapy outcome experiment who do not receive the therapy and serve as a comparison with clients who receive the therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

coping desensitization

A

(10) Variation of systematic desensitization in which clients use anxiety-related bodily sensations as cues to actively cope with anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

coping model

A

(12) Model who initially experiences difficulty and uneasiness performing a behavior and gradually becomes competent and relaxed. (Compare with mastery model.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

couple-based cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

(14) Using cognitive-behavioral therapy techniques to treat a partner’s individual problem behaviors in the context of couple therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

covert behavior

A

(3) Behavior that cannot be directly observed in other people, such as thinking and feeling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

covert behavior rehearsal

A

(12) Procedure in which clients visualize their practicing performing a target behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

covert modeling

A

(12) Procedure in which clients visualize a model’s behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

covert sensitization

A

(8) Aversion therapy in which an aversive stimulus and a maladaptive target behavior are associated completely in the client’s imagination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cue exposure

A

(11) Exposure therapy that exposes clients to cues associated with their addictive behaviors but prevents clients from engaging in the behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

dead person rule

A

(4) The rule, “Never ask a client to do something a dead person can do,” reminds therapists to phrase target behaviors as active rather than passive behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

deceleration target behavior

A

(4) Maladaptive behavior that is decreased in therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)

A

(15) Acceptance/mindfulness-based behavior therapy for treating borderline personality disorder. It includes group skills training and individual therapy to deal with clients’ immediate problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

dialectical persuasion

A

(15) Subtly highlighting the inconsistencies in a client’s actions, beliefs, and values to help the client develop a balanced perspective that is congruent with her or his values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

differential reinforcement

A

(8) Procedure used to indirectly decelerate a maladaptive behavior by reinforcing an alternative acceleration target behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors

A

(8) Procedure used to indirectly decelerate a maladaptive target behavior by reinforcing specific adaptive behaviors—but not necessarily behaviors that are either incompatible or competing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

differential reinforcement of competing behaviors

A

(8) Procedure used to indirectly decelerate a maladaptive behavior by reinforcing acceleration target behaviors that interfere with the simultaneous performance of the deceleration target behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviors

A

(8) Procedure used to indirectly decelerate a maladaptive behavior by reinforcing acceleration target behaviors that preclude the simultaneous performance of the deceleration target behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

differential reinforcement of low response rates

A

(8) Procedure used to indirectly decelerate a maladaptive behavior by reinforcing the behavior when it occurs at a less frequent rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

differential reinforcement of other behaviors

A

(8) Procedure used to indirectly decelerate a maladaptive behavior by reinforcing any behaviors other than the deceleration target behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

differential relaxation

A

(10) Relaxing all skeletal muscles not essential to the behavior being performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

direct self-report inventory

A

(6) Questionnaire containing brief statements or questions requiring simple, discrete answers; clients complete it themselves to provide information about their problem behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

dry-bed training

A

(17) Treatment package for enuresis consisting of shaping and overcorrection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

dry-pants method

A

(17) Daytime version of dry-bed training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

effectiveness/effective

A

(5) The success of therapy in actual clinical settings. (Compare with efficacy.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

efficacy/efficacious

A

(5) The success of therapy when it is tested under ideal conditions—in research settings, using rigorous controls and standardized procedures. (Compare with effectiveness.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

emotive imagery

A

(10) Exposure therapy procedure in which the client uses pleasant thoughts as competing responses for anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

environment

A

(3) All external influences on behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

evidence based

A

(5) Designation given to a therapy that has been empirically validated using specific research methodologies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

experiential avoidance

A

(15) Efforts to escape from or avoid unpleasant thoughts, emotions, and bodily sensations and the circumstances that might elicit them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

experiment

A

(5) Research method involving groups of clients; all the clients are dealt with in the same way except that some clients receive the therapy being tested and others do not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

exposure therapy

A

(10) Treatment for anxiety (and other negative emotional responses) that exposes clients, under carefully controlled conditions, to stimuli that create the anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

extinction

A

(8) Process of withdrawing or withholding reinforcers in order to decrease maladaptive behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

A

(11) Exposure-based treatment package for alleviating upsetting memories about traumatic experiences; its basic components are imaginal flooding, cognitive restructuring, and the induction of rapid, rhythmic eye movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

fading

A

(7) Process of gradually withdrawing prompts as the client performs the acceleration target behavior more frequently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

fear survey schedule

A

(6) Direct self report inventory for rating the severity of fear or anxiety elicited by various situations and objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

first-order change

A

(15) Changing the form or frequency of problem behaviors rather than their function. (Compare with second-order change.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

flooding

A

(11) Prolonged/intense in vivo or imaginal exposure to highly anxiety evoking stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

follow-up assessment (or followup)

A

(4) Measurement of the client’s functioning after therapy has been terminated to determine the durability of the treatment effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

functional analytic psychotherapy

A

(7) Behavior therapy that shapes clients’ appropriate and adaptive interpersonal behaviors as they occur in the therapist– client relationship.

87
Q

functional communication training

A

(8) Variant of differential reinforcement that teaches clients to use acceptable ways of communicating the desire for a reinforcer as an alternative to their typical unacceptable means of communicating the same message.

88
Q

generalization

A

(5) Process in which changes occurring as a result of therapy influence behaviors other than those that were specifically treated.

89
Q

generalized imitation

A

(12) The basic ability to learn by imitating others.

90
Q

generalized reinforcer

A

(7) Event that functions as a reinforcer for many people.

91
Q

graded task assignment

A

(13) Cognitive therapy shaping technique in which clients are encouraged to perform small sequential steps leading to a goal.

92
Q

group contingency

A

(7) Procedure in which the behaviors of a group of clients determine the consequences for each member of the group. (Compare with individual contingency.)

93
Q

group hierarchy

A

(10) Common anxiety hierarchy used for all the clients in group systematic desensitization.

94
Q

habit reversal

A

(17) Treatment package for tics and nervous habits that incorporates awareness training, relaxation training, competing response training, and reinforcement.

95
Q

homework assignments

A

(1) Specific therapeutic activities that clients carry out on their own in their everyday environments.

96
Q

imitation

A

(12) Response in which a person behaves like a model who the person has observed.

97
Q

in vivo

A

(1) Term used to designate therapy procedures implemented in the client’s natural environment.

98
Q

in vivo desensitization

A

(10) Brief/ graduated exposure to actual anxiety evoking events.

99
Q

in vivo flooding

A

(11) Prolonged/intense exposure to actual anxiety-evoking stimuli.

100
Q

individual contingency

A

(7) Procedure in which the behaviors of an individual client determine the consequences for that client. (Compare with group contingency.)

101
Q

integrative behavioral couple therapy

A

(14) Behavioral couple therapy that employs techniques to create acceptance of one’s partner’s upsetting behaviors.

102
Q

intermittent reinforcement schedule

A

(7) Schedule of reinforcement in which only some of the occurrences of a target behavior are reinforced.

103
Q

interobserver reliability

A

(6) Extent to which two or more observers agree on their observations of a client’s behaviors.

104
Q

interoceptive exposure

A

(10) Therapy procedure that induces physical sensations of panic attacks so that clients can practice using cognitive-behavioral coping skills to deal with panic attacks.

105
Q

interrater reliability

A

(6) Extent to which two or more raters agree on their ratings of a client’s behaviors.

106
Q

live model

A

(12) Model who is actually present (“in the flesh”).

107
Q

long-term maintenance (or maintenance)

A

(5) Durability over time of changes that occur as a result of therapy.

108
Q

maintaining antecedents

A

(3) Prerequisites and situational cues, present before a behavior is performed, that set the stage for or elicit the behavior.

109
Q

maintaining conditions

A

(3) Antecedents and consequences of a behavior that cause the behavior to be performed.

110
Q

maintaining consequences

A

(3) Events that occur as a result of a behavior’s being performed and influence the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

111
Q

maintenance

A

See long-term maintenance.

112
Q

massed negative practice

A

(17) Treatment for tics in which the client purposefully performs the tic as rapidly as possible for a set period.

113
Q

mastery and pleasure rating

A

(13) Cognitive therapy technique in which clients rate the degree of success and enjoyment they experience engaging in an activity.

114
Q

mastery model

A

(12) Model who, from the outset, performs a target behavior competently. (Compare with coping model.)

115
Q

meta-analysis

A

(5) Research method that integrates and compares empirical findings from multiple studies regarding a specific research question.

116
Q

mindfulness

A

(15) Paying attention without judgment to whatever is happening at the moment.

117
Q

mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT)

A

(15) Acceptance/mindfulness based behavior therapy for preventing recurrence of episodes of major depression; mindfulness exercises are employed to teach clients to become more aware of and less engaged with their negative thoughts.

118
Q

model

A

(12) Person who demonstrates a behavior for another person.

119
Q

modes of behavior

A

(3) The four types of behavior that are assessed and treated in behavior therapy: overt actions, cognitions, emotions, and physiological responses.

120
Q

multimethod assessment

A

(6) Use of two or more methods to gather information about a target behavior and its maintaining conditions.

121
Q

multimodal assessment

A

(6) Assessment of two or more of the four modes of behavior.

122
Q

multiple baseline study

A

(5) Evaluates the effects of a therapy for multiple target behaviors, clients, or settings.

123
Q

natural model

A

(12) Person in a client’s natural environment who exhibits behaviors that the client can benefit from observing.

124
Q

natural reinforcer

A

(7) A reinforcer that is available to clients in their natural environments.

125
Q

negative punishment

A

(7) Removing a pleasant or desirable consequence for a behavior, which decreases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

126
Q

negative reinforcement

A

(7) Removing an unpleasant or undesirable consequence for a behavior, which increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

127
Q

negative reinforcer

A

(7) Stimulus that is removed or avoided as a consequence of a behavior’s being performed, which increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

128
Q

noncontingent reinforcement

A

(8) Variant of differential reinforcement in which the reinforcer identified as maintaining a problem behavior is administered on a frequent fixed-interval schedule whether or not the client engages in the deceleration target behavior.

129
Q

observer

A

(12) Person who observes a model’s demonstrating a behavior.

130
Q

overcorrection

A

(8) Punishment technique in which a client corrects the harmful effects of a deceleration target behavior (restitution) and then intensively practices an alternative acceleration target behavior (positive practice).

131
Q

overt behavior

A

(3) Behavior that can be observed directly by other people.

132
Q

pain behavior

A

(16) Overt behavior generally indicating a person is experiencing pain sensations (such as grimacing and saying, “Ouch!”). (Compare with well behavior.)

133
Q

participant modeling

A

(12) Treatment in which the therapist models the target behavior for the client and then physically prompts the client to perform the target behavior.

134
Q

perceived self-efficacy

A

(12) A person’s belief that he or she can master a situation or be successful at performing a task.

135
Q

physically aversive consequences

A

(8) Physically painful or noxious consequences used to decelerate a maladaptive target behavior.

136
Q

planned activity scheduling

A

(7) Arranging for clients to engage in active desirable behaviors in situations likely to elicit problem behaviors.

137
Q

positive punishment

A

(7) Presenting an unpleasant or undesirable consequence that decreases the likelihood that a behavior will be repeated.

138
Q

positive reinforcement

A

(7) Presenting a pleasant or desirable consequence that increases the likelihood that a behavior will be repeated.

139
Q

positive reinforcer

A

(7) Event presented as a consequence of a behavior’s being performed, which increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

140
Q

Premack principle

A

(7) Principle stating that a higher-probability behavior will serve as a reinforcer for a lower-probability behavior.

141
Q

probable maintaining conditions

A

(3) The antecedents and consequences of a behavior that appear to be causing a behavior.

142
Q

problem-solving therapy

A

(14) Cognitive-behavioral coping skills therapy in which clients use a series of systematic steps for solving a problem for which they specifically have sought treatment.

143
Q

problem-solving training

A

(14) Cognitive-behavioral coping skills training to prepare people to use a series of systematic steps for dealing with problems that they may encounter in their daily lives.

144
Q

progressive relaxation

A

(10) Systematically relaxing groups of skeletal muscles.

145
Q

prolonged/intense exposure therapy

A

(11) Treatment in which the client is exposed to a highly anxiety-evoking event for a lengthy period (to ultimately reduce the anxiety).

146
Q

prompt

A

(7) Cue that reminds, instructs, or guides a client to perform a behavior.

147
Q

prompting

A

(7) Reminding, instructing, or guiding a client to perform a behavior.

148
Q

psychological flexibility

A

(15) Having options for the behaviors one can engage in.

149
Q

psychological inflexibility

A

(15) Narrowing of options for the behaviors one can engage in.

150
Q

punisher

A

(7) Consequence of a behavior that decreases the likelihood that it will be repeated.

151
Q

punishment

A

(8) Process by which the consequence of a behavior decreases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

152
Q

randomized controlled trial

A

(5) Well-controlled research study in which participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment condition or a control condition.

153
Q

rapid smoking

A

(8) Aversion therapy in which clients take puffs of a cigarette in rapid succession, inhaling normally, and continue until they can no longer tolerate the smoking.

154
Q

rating scale

A

(6) List of potential problem behaviors; someone who knows the client well rates the frequency or severity of each behavior for the client.

155
Q

rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)

A

(13) Cognitive restructuring therapy in which clients’ irrational thoughts are directly challenged and replaced with rational thoughts.

156
Q

rational emotive education

A

(13) Training in which children and adolescents learn to apply the basic principles and procedures of rational emotive behavior therapy in their daily lives.

157
Q

reactivity

A

(6) Phenomenon in which people’s behaviors change because they know they are being observed.

158
Q

reinforcement

A

(7) Process by which the consequence of a behavior increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

159
Q

reinforcer

A

(7) The consequence of a behavior that increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

160
Q

reinforcer sampling

A

(7) Procedure for making a generalized reinforcer into a reinforcer for an individual client. The client first receives the generalized reinforcer non-contingently; then, when the client comes to value it, the client receives it contingently.

161
Q

reinforcing agent

A

(7) A person who administers reinforcers.

162
Q

relapse prevention

A

(14) Procedure for promoting long-term maintenance that involves identifying situations in which clients are likely to relapse, developing skills to cope with such situations, and creating a lifestyle balance that decreases the chances of relapse.

163
Q

response cost

A

(8) Punishment technique in which a client’s access to a valued item or privilege is removed as a consequence of performing a maladaptive behavior.

164
Q

response prevention

A

(11) Exposure therapy procedure in which clients remain exposed to a threatening situation without engaging in their typical maladaptive anxiety-reducing responses.

165
Q

retention control training

A

(17) Procedure used in treating enuresis that involves shaping the retention of increasingly greater amounts of urine for increasingly longer periods.

166
Q

reversal phase

A

(5) Phase in a reversal study in which the therapy is withdrawn temporarily while the target behavior continues to be measured; its purpose is to determine whether the therapy is causing the change in the target behavior.

167
Q

reversal study

A

(5) Single-subject study in which the therapy is applied to the target behavior and then is withdrawn temporarily to determine whether the therapy is causing the change in the target behavior.

168
Q

role-playing

A

(6) Assessment or therapy technique in which clients act as if they were in actual problem situations to provide the therapist with samples of how they typically behave in the situations (assessment) or to practice adaptive behaviors (therapy).

169
Q

schemas

A

(13) Broad, pervasive cognitive themes about oneself, others, and the world, which often stem from childhood experiences and are further developed throughout one’s lifetime.

170
Q

second-order change

A

(15) Changing the function of problem behaviors rather than their form or frequency. (Compare with first-order change.)

171
Q

self-control approach

A

(1) Training clients to initiate, implement, and evaluate behavior therapy procedures on their own. self-efficacy See perceived self-efficacy.

172
Q

self-instructional training

A

(14) Cognitive-behavioral coping skills therapy that teaches clients to instruct themselves verbally (usually silently) to cope effectively with difficult situations.

173
Q

self-modeling

A

(12) Therapy procedure in which clients serve as their own models, by observing themselves on videotape or in their imagination performing an acceleration target behavior.

174
Q

self-monitoring (self-recording)

A

(6) Clients’ observing and keeping records of their performing target behaviors.

175
Q

self-reinforcement

A

(7) Process by which clients administer reinforcers to themselves for performing target behaviors.

176
Q

self-talk

A

(13) What people “say” to themselves when they are thinking (“inner speech”).

177
Q

setting events

A

(3) Environmental conditions that elicit a behavior.

178
Q

shaping

A

(7) Reinforcing components of a target behavior that are successively closer approximations of the complete target behavior.

179
Q

simulated observation

A

(6) Observing a client’s behaviors under conditions set up to resemble those in the client’s natural environment.

180
Q

situation-specific

A

(3) Term used to indicate that behaviors are influenced by the specific environmental context in which they are performed.

181
Q

skills training

A

(12) Treatment package— including modeling, behavior rehearsal, and reinforcement—used to teach clients skills.

182
Q

social reinforcers

A

(7) Reinforcers consisting of attention and affirmation from other people.

183
Q

social skills

A

(12) Interpersonal competencies needed to interact successfully with others.

184
Q

social validity

A

(5) Therapy outcome measure that evaluates whether a client’s behaviors are comparable to the behaviors of individuals judged to be functioning adaptively.

185
Q

stimulus control

A

(7) Prompts or setting events that “set the stage” for behaviors to occur.

186
Q

stimulus control procedure

A

(7) Procedure that changes behaviors by modifying prompts or setting events.

187
Q

stress inoculation training

A

(14) Cognitive-behavioral coping skills therapy in which clients learn coping skills for dealing with stressful situations and then practice the skills while being exposed to stressors.

188
Q

Subjective Units of Discomfort scale (SUDs)

A

(6) Scale clients use to rate the level of anxiety (usually on a 0 to 100 scale) they experience in anxiety-evoking situations.

189
Q

symbolic model

A

(12) Model who is not physically present, such as exemplars on TV, in books, and in one’s imagination.

190
Q

systematic desensitization

A

(10) Brief/ graduated exposure therapy in which a client imagines successively more anxiety-evoking situations while engaging in a behavior that competes with anxiety.

191
Q

systematic naturalistic observation

A

(6) Observation and recording of a predetermined set of overt behaviors as the client performs them in her or his natural environment.

192
Q

tangible reinforcer

A

(7) Material object that serves as a reinforcer.

193
Q

target behavior

A

(4) Aspect of a client’s problem that is a relatively narrow and discrete behavior that can be clearly defined and easily measured; the focus of treatment in behavior therapy.

194
Q

theft reversal

A

(8) Overcorrection treatment for stealing that involves exaggerated restitution, wherein a client is required not only to return the stolen items to the victim but also to purchase additional similar items for the victim.

195
Q

thought stopping

A

(13) Cognitive restructuring therapy in which clients interrupt disturbing thoughts by saying “Stop!” (usually silently) and then substitute a prepared pleasant thought for the disturbing thought.

196
Q

time-out from positive reinforcement (or time-out)

A

(8) Punishment technique in which a client’s access to generalized reinforcers is withdrawn for a few minutes after the client engages in a maladaptive behavior, often by placing the client in a time-out room or area.

197
Q

time-out room

A

(8) Isolated room in which a client spends a time-out period with no access to generalized reinforcers.

198
Q

token economy

A

(9) System for motivating clients to engage in adaptive behaviors. Clients earn token reinforcers for adaptive behaviors and lose tokens for maladaptive behaviors; the tokens are exchanged for backup reinforcers.

199
Q

token reinforcer

A

(7) Symbolic reinforcer that can be exchanged for desired tangible reinforcers and reinforcing activities or have symbolic value (such as a trophy).

200
Q

token

A

(9) In a token economy, symbolic reinforcer (such as money and points) that clients earn for performing adaptive behaviors and lose for performing maladaptive behaviors.

201
Q

traditional behavioral couple therapy

A

(14) Behavioral couple therapy that focuses on communication and problem solving skills training and increasing positive behavior exchanges.

202
Q

transdiagnostic behavior therapy

A

(18) Therapy designed to treat the common factors that affect the maintenance of abnormal behaviors that are related to a number of different diagnostic categories (such as eating disorders).

203
Q

transfer

A

(5) Process in which what is learned and practiced in one setting (such as in therapy) carries over to other settings (such as at home and work).

204
Q

treatment group

A

(5) Clients in a therapy outcome experiment who receive the therapy.

205
Q

treatment manual

A

(5) Detailed, session by-session procedures, derived from a treatment protocol; used by therapists administering a therapy in clinical practice. (Compare with treatment protocol.)

206
Q

treatment package

A

(1) Treatment consisting of two or more therapy procedures.

207
Q

treatment plan

A

(4) The specific, individualized details of the therapy procedures that will be used for a client.

208
Q

treatment protocol

A

(5) Detailed session-by-session procedures used by therapists delivering a therapy being tested in efficacy studies. (Compare with treatment manual.)

209
Q

urine alarm

A

(17) Device to treat nocturnal enuresis that sounds an alarm to wake a child when the child begins to urinate; eventually, the child associates bladder tension with awakening, which is its purpose.

210
Q

vicarious consequences

A

(12) Consequences of a model’s behaviors that indicate the consequences that observers are likely to receive for imitating the model.

211
Q

vicarious extinction

A

(12) Process by which a client’s fear is reduced by observing a model perform the feared behavior without the model’s incurring negative consequences.

212
Q

vicarious punishment

A

(12) Consequences of a model’s behaviors that decrease the likelihood that an observer will imitate the model.

213
Q

vicarious reinforcement

A

(12) Consequences of a model’s behaviors that increase the likelihood that an observer will imitate the model.

214
Q

well behavior

A

(16) Overt behavior generally indicating that a person is not experiencing pain sensations. (Compare pain behavior.)

Glossary of Behavior Therapy Terms (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions