Global oral questions Flashcards
1
Q
What are the model designations for the Global Express
A
BD-700-1A10 for Global Express and XRS
BD-700-1A11 for Global 5000
2
Q
What is minimum flight crew required?
A
One pilot one copilot
3
Q
What is the Global Express XRS wingspan, length and tail height?
A
94’ wingspan 99’ 5” length 25’ tall
4
Q
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 deg turn?
A
68 feet (65 feet Global 5000)
5
Q
What is the max ramp weight?
A
XRS 99,750 or 98,250 lbs
6
Q
What is the max takeoff weight?
A
XRS 99,500 or 98,000 lbs
7
Q
What is the max landing weight?
A
78,600 lbs
8
Q
What is the max zero fuel weight?
A
56,000 lbs
9
Q
Do not engage the starter if N2 exceeds?
A
42%
10
Q
What are the starter duty cycles?
A
3 min on, 15 sec off, 3 min on, 15 sec off, 3 min on, 15 min off
11
Q
What is the minimum oil temp for start?
A
-40
12
Q
What is the minimum oil temp for advancing power above idle?
A
20
13
Q
What is the max oil temperature?
A
160
14
Q
What is the maximum oil consumption?
A
0.21 Quarts per hour
15
Q
What is the minimum OAT for use of the oil replenishment system?
A
-12
16
Q
When can the autothrottle be engaged?
A
<60 knots on the ground and >400’ AGL all engines operating
17
Q
Name three limitations of the thrust reversers.
A
Must not be selected in flight, must not be selected for touch and go landings, must not be used for backing
18
Q
What is the minimum engine oil perssure?
A
25 PSI
19
Q
What is the thrust rating of the engines?
A
14,750 lbs @ S.L ISA to +20
20
Q
When will the engine automatic ground start abort?
A
ENG RUN switch to OFF, N2 not >15% after 120s, idle speed not achieved within 120s, Starter cutout not reachwith within 3 min limit, IT exceeding 700 deg C
21
Q
How are the thrust reversers controlled and powered?
A
Controller by EEC, powered by respective hydraulic EDP (1A or 2A)
22
Q
What will occur if a thrust reverse becomes unlocked in flight?
A
EICAS message, aural warning, power retarded to idle, red REV icon on EICAS
23
Q
What is the desired ground external air pressure for start?
A
40 PSI
24
Q
For airplane operations in excess of 3 hours the oil system must be?
A
Verified full (>10.62 qts)
25
When can oil replenishment be conducted?
5 to 30 mins after shutdown (15 min for APU)
26
What is the max engine relight altitude?
30,000'
27
Which pumps supply normal hydraulic pressure to the hydraulic system?
3 'A' pumps operating continously (1A, 2A EDP, 3A ACMP)
28
What is normal hydraulic operating pressure?
3000 PSI
29
What is the priority for the ACMP pumps?
3A - 3B - 2B - 1B
30
With an ACMP in AUTO, when will it start?
Either slats or flaps not IN/0 or system low pressure detected
31
How long with ACMP pumps operate when activated?
Min 5 mins
32
What is normal accumulator pressure of system 2?
500 psi
33
What is normal accumulator pressure of the RAT?
1000 psi
34
What is normal outboard brake accumulator pressure?
500 psi
35
What buses power the ACMPs?
3B - AC Bus 1, 2B - AC Bus 2, 1B - AC Bus 3, 3A - AC Bus 4
36
Which hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?
System 3
37
How is hydraulic case drain fluid cooled?
Heat exchangers in the left and right wing tanks (L Sys 1 and 3, R Sys 2)
38
What hydraulic pumps are available during single generator operation inflight?
EDPs, AC pumps 3A and 3B
39
What is the max fuel imbalance on the ground?
1100 lbs 20,250 lbs
40
What is the max fuel imbalance in flight?
1100 lbs
41
What is the max useable fuel load for the XRS?
45,100 lbs (wing 15,050, center 12,700, Aft 2,300)
42
Fuel in the centre tank must be considered unuseable unless?
Each wing is full at departure and planned cruise \>30,000
43
Fuel in the aft tank must be considered unuseable unless?
Each wing contains \>5,500 lbs and planned cruise altitude \>30,000
44
What is the minimum fuel load for use of the centre or aft tank? (In these tanks).
500 lbs for xfer pump priming
45
What is the mimimum go around fuel?
600 lbs per wing
46
What is the miminum engine fuel temp for takeoff?
5 deg C
47
When must fuel crossfeed SOV be selected off?
Takeoff and landing
48
Which tanks can not be gravity fueled?
Forward or aft aux
49
What do the NACA scoops do?
Fuel venting during ground ops/refueling, positive pressure in flight
50
What is the maximum fuel level to test the PRVs?
Wings \>11,800 lbs, Centre \>8,000 lbs
51
When does the FRTT operate?
\>34,000, single tank temp sensor -20 or average of sensors -9 deg C
52
When do the AC wing boost pumps operate?
ENG RUN switches to ON
53
Where is the fuel SOV located and how is it controlled?
Behind the aft pressure bulkhead, operated by fire discharge handle
54
When does fuel transfer from the centre tank?
Wing tank qty \<93% full
55
True or false, centre tank fuel feeds the engines directly?
False, xfer to wings first
56
When does fuel transfer from the aft tank start?
Wing tank qty \<5,500 lbs
57
When do the wing DC aux fuel pumps automatically operate?
One or both AC pumps low pressure, flaps \>0, inflight with gear down, wing fuel qty 400 lb imbalance)
58
When will the AC boost pumps operate regardless of engine run switch position?
XFEED SOV open (to ensure balance during OEI)
59
Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU?
Right
60
Which fuel pumps can not be operated by the pilot?
Centre tank transfer pumps
61
When is wing fuel xfer inhibited?
Flaps \>0, inflight with gear down, wing fuel
62
What is the power source for the refuel/defuel panel?
APU battery direct bus
63
During refuel SOV test, what does display of SOV FAIL message indicate?
Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full
64
What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?
Four 40 kVA VFG, One 40 kVA APU generator, one 9 kVA RAT generator
65
How many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?
8, Four primary 1-4, Four secondary 1A-3A, AC ESS
66
What is the purpose of the ACPC?
To protect, control and distribute AC power to the main AC buses
67
Which buses are normally shed during single generator operation inflight?
AC buses 2 and 3
68
What is the primary / alternate power priority for the AC ESS Bus?
RAT Gen, Gen 4, Gen 1, Gen 2, Gen 3, APU Gen
69
What are the 6 primary source of DC power?
ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 1, TRU 2, APU battery, avionics battery
70
What are the 4 main DC buses?
DC ESS bus, BATT Bus, DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2
71
How long will the aircraft batteries provide aircraft power?
Approx 15 mins
72
What it the primary / alternate power source for the DC ESS Bus?
ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 2, TRU 1
73
Which DC buses are shed during single TRU operation?
DC Bus 1 and 2
74
What is the purpose of the DC Power Emergency Override switch?
By the DCPC to provide power from the ESS TRU's directly to the SPDA's
75
What is the pack discharge temp range for manual operation?
5-60 deg C (one pack must be off)
76
What is the normal and max cabin differential pressure?
Norm - 10.33 psi, Max - 10.73 psi, Delta P message - 10.85 psi
77
What is the maximum negative relief differential pressure?
Minus 0.5 psi
78
What is the maximum differential pressure for taxi and takeoff?
0.1 psi
79
What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?
1.0 psi
80
AUX PRESS is prohibited above what altitude?
41,000'
81
What is the priority bleed source for engine starting on the ground?
APU bleed air
82
What occurs when the BMC detects a bleed leak?
The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves
83
How are hot air leaks monitored in the airplane?
Dual loop detection / sensing elements connected to the BMC's
84
Can one engine supply two packs simultaneously?
No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine. In case of single pack operation, the BMC automatically schedules high pack flow
85
How is air flow modulated from the pnuematic duct to the air conditioning units?
By modulation of the flow control valve (FCV) by the air conditioning controllers (ACSC)
86
What are the two functions of the air conditioning units?
Decrease air temperature and decrease the water content of the hot bleed air
87
When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)?
Bleed failure, engine start, engine failure, ditching, pack inlet overheat, compressor discharge overheat, pack discharge over or under pressure
88
Turning the TRIM AIR switch to the ON position opens which valves?
The Hot Air Shutoff Valves (HASOV)
89
What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system?
Provide cooling for the heat exchangers of the packs, alternate source of fresh air
90
What are the requirements for using AUX PRESS?
Both packs inop, RECIRC ON,
91
What are the two primary modes of operation with the cabin pressure control in AUTO?
Primary (predictive uses AP and VNAV, Secondary (reactive) used p.alt and V/S
92
What are the warning messages associated with loss of pressurisation?
CAB ALT - 8200' CAB ALT Warning - 9000' or 1800' \> landing alt if landing above 7230 MSL
93
When selecting MAN pressurisation, what is displayed on the STAT page?
Both outflow valve position indicators, cabin rate analogue gauge
94
What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STAT page?
LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selected to FMS, Landing dest. In FMS, Flight plan activated
95
What are the two cabin rate selections available in automatic and associated rates?
Normal - 500/300 fpm, High 800/800 fpm
96
What occurs when the EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON?
Both outflow valves are commanded open, cabin alt. limited to 14,500'
97
What does selecting the DITCHING switch to ON provide?
Packs shutoff, cabin depressurised, OFV driven closed, sequence inhibited above 15,000'
98
What is the purpose of the safety valves (SFV 1 and 2) located in the aft bulkhead?
Ensure overpressure and negative pressure relief, provides an open position signal to the EICAS
99
When is cowl anti-ice required and prohibited?
OAT 10 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff
100
When is wing anti-ice required and prohibited?
OAT 5 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff, on prior to takeoff when using Type II or IV fluid
101
What are the conditions conducive to inflight icing?
Visible moisture and TAT 10 - minus 40
102
What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions?
Slats IN
103
What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions?
76% N2
104
Fully automatic ice and rain protection is provided for which systems?
Wing leading edges, engine cowl leading edges, windshields, side windows, air data probes and sensors
105
Ice detection is ineffective below?
30 knots IAS
106
When wing anti-ice is selected on, how long may it take before the leading edges display green?
Approximately 2 minutes
107
What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve?
Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be fed from a single engine bleed
108
Which engine bleed is used for cowl anti-ice?
LP bleed air only (5th stage)
109
In the event of electrical failure what position does the cowl anti-ice valve default to?
Fully open
110
Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AoA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting ext power?
All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied
111
How many oxygen bottles does the crew oxygen system have?
4
112
What is the normal pressure charge at 21 deg C for the crew oxygen bottles?
1850 psi
113
At what bottle pressure will the oxygen vent overboard and blow-out the green disc?
2600 psi
114
When do the passenger oxygen masks deploy?
14,500' cabin altitude
115
What is the crew alert when the oxygen system drops to 75% or below?
Amber OXY LO QTY message
116
Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit?
No
117
When does the SEAT BELTS sign illuminate when selected to AUTO?
Landing gear selected down, flaps not in 0, cabin alt \>8000'
118
When do the EMER LIGHTS illuminated when armed?
No power to the DC essential bus
119
How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?
Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated
120
Which hydraulic systems power the aileron PCUs?
Left - sys 1 and 3 Right - Sys 2 and 3
121
When is initial yaw damper engagement controlled by the FGC?
First engine start
122
Which hydraulic systems power the rudder?
Sys 1, 2 and 3
123
Which three trim modes activate the horizontal stab and what are their priority?
Manual trim (pilot / copilot), Auto trim (AP1 or AP2), Mach trim (AP off)
124
What functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide?
AFCS disconnect - momentarily selected, Pitch trim dis. - held, Stall pusher override - held
125
When will the stab in motion clacker sound?
Stab runaway, stab trim held for extended period
126
How is operation of the slats and flaps controlled?
By two independent slat/flap control units (SFCU)
127
What is the purpose of the 'Flap Override Switch'?
Used to cancel the flap aural warning if flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing
128
How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?
4 MFS, 2 GS
129
With flaps extended, which MFS are available?
Only 2 inboard pairs (MAX selection of FSCL has no effect)
130
The MFS are used for what purposes?
Roll assist, lift dumping, combination of both
131
How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?
Opposite panel is automatically disabled
132
When armed, ground spoilers will deploy on landing with?
Power at idle, RA \<7', one wheel speed \>16 Knots
133
What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temp in excess of 40 deg C?
30 mins
134
What is the maximum flight altitude with Yaw Damper disengaged?
41,000'
135
What is the minimum autopilot engage height?
400' AGL
136
What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision and non-precision approach?
50' precision, 160' NPA with vertical guidance, 400' NPA
137
What is the operational limitation when using FLCH?
Not above M85
138
Does the indicator light on the GP indicate that the associated mode is currently active?
No, pilot must confirm mode status on the FDA
139
How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral FD mode is armed?
Basic pitch (PIT) and roll (ROL) modes
140
What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?
Pressing the AP button, either Master Disconnect, either TOGA button, manual trim, pressing the YD switch, physically overiding the AP servos
141
What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?
Windshear avoidane warning, unsual attitude, stall warning
142
What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer?
Lateral mode is NAV, aircraft has captured the LOC beam, pilot has armed APR
143
When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?
Within 75 NM flight plan distance or 30 NM direct distance of destination and approach selected in FMS
144
When does dual coupling of the AFCS occur on a precision approach?
1200' AGL with both PFDs displaying different NAV source
145
What are the FD pitch commands for takeoff AEO, OEI and GA?
17.5 deg, 13 deg, 10 deg
146
How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?
Selecting AP on or selecting another vertical mode
147
When is EDM mode enabled?
Aircraft above 25,000', cabin alt above 14,500, AP engaged
148
Once EDM is activated, what will occur?
Autothrottle engage if off, FD command FLCH descent to 15,000', FD HDG 90 degrees left of track, SPD VMO - 10 until 250 knots at 10,000'
149
What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?
Four 40 kVA VFG, One 40 kVA APU generator, one 9 kVA RAT generator
150
How many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?
8, Four primary 1-4, Four secondary 1A-3A, AC ESS
151
What is the purpose of the ACPC?
To protect, control and distribute AC power to the main AC buses
152
Which buses are normally shed during single generator operation inflight?
AC buses 2 and 3
153
What is the primary / alternate power priority for the AC ESS Bus?
RAT Gen, Gen 4, Gen 1, Gen 2, Gen 3, APU Gen
154
What are the 6 primary source of DC power?
ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 1, TRU 2, APU battery, avionics battery
155
What are the 4 main DC buses?
DC ESS bus, BATT Bus, DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2
156
How long will the aircraft batteries provide aircraft power?
Approx 15 mins
157
What it the primary / alternate power source for the DC ESS Bus?
ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 2, TRU 1
158
Which DC buses are shed during single TRU operation?
DC Bus 1 and 2
159
What is the purpose of the DC Power Emergency Override switch?
By the DCPC to provide power from the ESS TRU's directly to the SPDA's
160
What is the pack discharge temp range for manual operation?
5-60 deg C (one pack must be off)
161
What is the normal and max cabin differential pressure?
Norm - 10.33 psi, Max - 10.73 psi, Delta P message - 10.85 psi
162
What is the maximum negative relief differential pressure?
Minus 0.5 psi
163
What is the maximum differential pressure for taxi and takeoff?
0.1 psi
164
What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?
1.0 psi
165
AUX PRESS is prohibited above what altitude?
41,000'
166
What is the priority bleed source for engine starting on the ground?
APU bleed air
167
What occurs when the BMC detects a bleed leak?
The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves
168
How are hot air leaks monitored in the airplane?
Dual loop detection / sensing elements connected to the BMC's
169
Can one engine supply two packs simultaneously?
No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine. In case of single pack operation, the BMC automatically schedules high pack flow
170
How is air flow modulated from the pnuematic duct to the air conditioning units?
By modulation of the flow control valve (FCV) by the air conditioning controllers (ACSC)
171
What are the two functions of the air conditioning units?
Decrease air temperature and decrease the water content of the hot bleed air
172
When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)?
Bleed failure, engine start, engine failure, ditching, pack inlet overheat, compressor discharge overheat, pack discharge over or under pressure
173
Turning the TRIM AIR switch to the ON position opens which valves?
The Hot Air Shutoff Valves (HASOV)
174
What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system?
Provide cooling for the heat exchangers of the packs, alternate source of fresh air
175
What are the requirements for using AUX PRESS?
Both packs inop, RECIRC ON,
176
What are the two primary modes of operation with the cabin pressure control in AUTO?
Primary (predictive uses AP and VNAV, Secondary (reactive) used p.alt and V/S
177
What are the warning messages associated with loss of pressurisation?
CAB ALT - 8200' CAB ALT Warning - 9000' or 1800' \> landing alt if landing above 7230 MSL
178
When selecting MAN pressurisation, what is displayed on the STAT page?
Both outflow valve position indicators, cabin rate analogue gauge
179
What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STAT page?
LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selected to FMS, Landing dest. In FMS, Flight plan activated
180
What are the two cabin rate selections available in automatic and associated rates?
Normal - 500/300 fpm, High 800/800 fpm
181
What occurs when the EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON?
Both outflow valves are commanded open, cabin alt. limited to 14,500'
182
What does selecting the DITCHING switch to ON provide?
Packs shutoff, cabin depressurised, OFV driven closed, sequence inhibited above 15,000'
183
What is the purpose of the safety valves (SFV 1 and 2) located in the aft bulkhead?
Ensure overpressure and negative pressure relief, provides an open position signal to the EICAS
184
When is cowl anti-ice required and prohibited?
OAT 10 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff
185
When is wing anti-ice required and prohibited?
OAT 5 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff, on prior to takeoff when using Type II or IV fluid
186
What are the conditions conducive to inflight icing?
Visible moisture and TAT 10 - minus 40
187
What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions?
Slats IN
188
What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions?
76% N2
189
Fully automatic ice and rain protection is provided for which systems?
Wing leading edges, engine cowl leading edges, windshields, side windows, air data probes and sensors
190
Ice detection is ineffective below?
30 knots IAS
191
When wing anti-ice is selected on, how long may it take before the leading edges display green?
Approximately 2 minutes
192
What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve?
Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be fed from a single engine bleed
193
Which engine bleed is used for cowl anti-ice?
LP bleed air only (5th stage)
194
In the event of electrical failure what position does the cowl anti-ice valve default to?
Fully open
195
Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AoA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting ext power?
All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied
196
How many oxygen bottles does the crew oxygen system have?
4
197
What is the normal pressure charge at 21 deg C for the crew oxygen bottles?
1850 psi
198
At what bottle pressure will the oxygen vent overboard and blow-out the green disc?
2600 psi
199
When do the passenger oxygen masks deploy?
14,500' cabin altitude
200
What is the crew alert when the oxygen system drops to 75% or below?
Amber OXY LO QTY message
201
Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit?
No
202
When does the SEAT BELTS sign illuminate when selected to AUTO?
Landing gear selected down, flaps not in 0, cabin alt \>8000'
203
When do the EMER LIGHTS illuminated when armed?
No power to the DC essential bus
204
How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?
Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated
205
Which hydraulic systems power the aileron PCUs?
Left - sys 1 and 3 Right - Sys 2 and 3
206
When is initial yaw damper engagement controlled by the FGC?
First engine start
207
Which hydraulic systems power the rudder?
Sys 1, 2 and 3
208
Which three trim modes activate the horizontal stab and what are their priority?
Manual trim (pilot / copilot), Auto trim (AP1 or AP2), Mach trim (AP off)
209
What functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide?
AFCS disconnect - momentarily selected, Pitch trim dis. - held, Stall pusher override - held
210
When will the stab in motion clacker sound?
Stab runaway, stab trim held for extended period
211
How is operation of the slats and flaps controlled?
By two independent slat/flap control units (SFCU)
212
What is the purpose of the 'Flap Override Switch'?
Used to cancel the flap aural warning if flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing
213
How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?
4 MFS, 2 GS
214
With flaps extended, which MFS are available?
Only 2 inboard pairs (MAX selection of FSCL has no effect)
215
The MFS are used for what purposes?
Roll assist, lift dumping, combination of both
216
How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?
Opposite panel is automatically disabled
217
When armed, ground spoilers will deploy on landing with?
Power at idle, RA 16 Knots
218
What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temp in excess of 40 deg C?
30 mins
219
What is the maximum flight altitude with Yaw Damper disengaged?
41,000'
220
What is the minimum autopilot engage height?
400' AGL
221
What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision and non-precision approach?
50' precision, 160' NPA with vertical guidance, 400' NPA
222
What is the operational limitation when using FLCH?
Not above M85
223
Does the indicator light on the GP indicate that the associated mode is currently active?
No, pilot must confirm mode status on the FDA
224
How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral FD mode is armed?
Basic pitch (PIT) and roll (ROL) modes
225
What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?
Pressing the AP button, either Master Disconnect, either TOGA button, manual trim, pressing the YD switch, physically overiding the AP servos
226
What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?
Windshear avoidane warning, unsual attitude, stall warning
227
What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer?
Lateral mode is NAV, aircraft has captured the LOC beam, pilot has armed APR
228
When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?
Within 75 NM flight plan distance or 30 NM direct distance of destination and approach selected in FMS
229
When does dual coupling of the AFCS occur on a precision approach?
1200' AGL with both PFDs displaying different NAV source
230
What are the FD pitch commands for takeoff AEO, OEI and GA?
17.5 deg, 13 deg, 10 deg
231
How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?
Selecting AP on or selecting another vertical mode
232
When is EDM mode enabled?
Aircraft above 25,000', cabin alt above 14,500, AP engaged
233
Once EDM is activated, what will occur?
Autothrottle engage if off, FD command FLCH descent to 15,000', FD HDG 90 degrees left of track, SPD VMO - 10 until 250 knots at 10,000'
234
Which colours are used to depict normal, precautionary and system limits?
Green - normal, Amber - precautionary, Red - limits exceeded
235
Which colours are used to depict flow lines?
Black - no flow, Amber - below normal value, Green - normal value, Red - Exceeding normal value
236
What is the priority of aural alerts?
Stall, EGPWS, TCAS, other voice messages
237
How is a SG failure indicated?
Red X across the corresponding displays
238
The airspeed trend vector represents the airspeed in how many seconds?
10
239
The altitude trend vector represents the altitude the airplane will attain in how many seconds?
6
240
During a GPS approach what does the DGRAD annunciation on the FMS indicate?
Unacceptable RAIM value is detected
241
How does the pilot remove accumulated IRS errors or drift since the las alignment?
IRS mode selector from NAV to ALN and back to NAV
242
What does selecting EMER on ACP accomplish?
Microphone audio bypasses ACP and connected directly to onside VHF radio, audio directly directly to pilot headset
243
MMO FL350
0.89 Mach
244
MMO FL414
0.88 Mach
245
MMO FL470
0.858 Mach
246
MMO FL510
0.842 Mach
247
VMO above and below 8,000'
\>8,000 340 KIAS,
248
What is the turbulence penetration speed?
300 KIAS / 0.80 Mach
249
What is the max pressure altitude for takeoff and landing (standard)?
10,000' p.alt
250
What is the max / min ambient temperature for takeoff?
50 to minus 40 deg C
251
What is the max tailwind for engine start?
20 knots
252
What must be done during start if there is N1 rotation with a tailwind?
Crank for 30s followed by immediate autostart
253
What is the max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?
29 knots
254
What is the max altitude for slats/flaps?
18,000'
255
What is the max altitude for with the gear extended?
20,000'
256
What is the minimum altitude with flight spoilers extended?
300' AGL
257
What is the tire limiting speed?
183 KIAS
258
What speed is VLO?
200 KIAS
259
What speed is VLE?
250 KIAS
