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Global Systems Knowledge Review > Global oral questions > Flashcards

Global oral questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the model designations for the Global Express

A

BD-700-1A10 for Global Express and XRS

BD-700-1A11 for Global 5000

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2
Q

What is minimum flight crew required?

A

One pilot one copilot

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3
Q

What is the Global Express XRS wingspan, length and tail height?

A

94’ wingspan 99’ 5” length 25’ tall

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4
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 deg turn?

A

68 feet (65 feet Global 5000)

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5
Q

What is the max ramp weight?

A

XRS 99,750 or 98,250 lbs

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6
Q

What is the max takeoff weight?

A

XRS 99,500 or 98,000 lbs

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7
Q

What is the max landing weight?

A

78,600 lbs

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8
Q

What is the max zero fuel weight?

A

56,000 lbs

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9
Q

Do not engage the starter if N2 exceeds?

A

42%

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10
Q

What are the starter duty cycles?

A

3 min on, 15 sec off, 3 min on, 15 sec off, 3 min on, 15 min off

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11
Q

What is the minimum oil temp for start?

A

-40

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12
Q

What is the minimum oil temp for advancing power above idle?

A

20

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13
Q

What is the max oil temperature?

A

160

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14
Q

What is the maximum oil consumption?

A

0.21 Quarts per hour

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15
Q

What is the minimum OAT for use of the oil replenishment system?

A

-12

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16
Q

When can the autothrottle be engaged?

A

<60 knots on the ground and >400’ AGL all engines operating

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17
Q

Name three limitations of the thrust reversers.

A

Must not be selected in flight, must not be selected for touch and go landings, must not be used for backing

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18
Q

What is the minimum engine oil perssure?

A

25 PSI

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19
Q

What is the thrust rating of the engines?

A

14,750 lbs @ S.L ISA to +20

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20
Q

When will the engine automatic ground start abort?

A

ENG RUN switch to OFF, N2 not >15% after 120s, idle speed not achieved within 120s, Starter cutout not reachwith within 3 min limit, IT exceeding 700 deg C

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21
Q

How are the thrust reversers controlled and powered?

A

Controller by EEC, powered by respective hydraulic EDP (1A or 2A)

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22
Q

What will occur if a thrust reverse becomes unlocked in flight?

A

EICAS message, aural warning, power retarded to idle, red REV icon on EICAS

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23
Q

What is the desired ground external air pressure for start?

A

40 PSI

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24
Q

For airplane operations in excess of 3 hours the oil system must be?

A

Verified full (>10.62 qts)

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25
Q

When can oil replenishment be conducted?

A

5 to 30 mins after shutdown (15 min for APU)

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26
Q

What is the max engine relight altitude?

A

30,000’

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27
Q

Which pumps supply normal hydraulic pressure to the hydraulic system?

A

3 ‘A’ pumps operating continously (1A, 2A EDP, 3A ACMP)

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28
Q

What is normal hydraulic operating pressure?

A

3000 PSI

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29
Q

What is the priority for the ACMP pumps?

A

3A - 3B - 2B - 1B

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30
Q

With an ACMP in AUTO, when will it start?

A

Either slats or flaps not IN/0 or system low pressure detected

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31
Q

How long with ACMP pumps operate when activated?

A

Min 5 mins

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32
Q

What is normal accumulator pressure of system 2?

A

500 psi

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33
Q

What is normal accumulator pressure of the RAT?

A

1000 psi

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34
Q

What is normal outboard brake accumulator pressure?

A

500 psi

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35
Q

What buses power the ACMPs?

A

3B - AC Bus 1, 2B - AC Bus 2, 1B - AC Bus 3, 3A - AC Bus 4

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36
Q

Which hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?

A

System 3

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37
Q

How is hydraulic case drain fluid cooled?

A

Heat exchangers in the left and right wing tanks (L Sys 1 and 3, R Sys 2)

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38
Q

What hydraulic pumps are available during single generator operation inflight?

A

EDPs, AC pumps 3A and 3B

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39
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance on the ground?

A

1100 lbs 20,250 lbs

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40
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance in flight?

A

1100 lbs

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41
Q

What is the max useable fuel load for the XRS?

A

45,100 lbs (wing 15,050, center 12,700, Aft 2,300)

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42
Q

Fuel in the centre tank must be considered unuseable unless?

A

Each wing is full at departure and planned cruise >30,000

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43
Q

Fuel in the aft tank must be considered unuseable unless?

A

Each wing contains >5,500 lbs and planned cruise altitude >30,000

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44
Q

What is the minimum fuel load for use of the centre or aft tank? (In these tanks).

A

500 lbs for xfer pump priming

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45
Q

What is the mimimum go around fuel?

A

600 lbs per wing

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46
Q

What is the miminum engine fuel temp for takeoff?

A

5 deg C

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47
Q

When must fuel crossfeed SOV be selected off?

A

Takeoff and landing

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48
Q

Which tanks can not be gravity fueled?

A

Forward or aft aux

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49
Q

What do the NACA scoops do?

A

Fuel venting during ground ops/refueling, positive pressure in flight

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50
Q

What is the maximum fuel level to test the PRVs?

A

Wings >11,800 lbs, Centre >8,000 lbs

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51
Q

When does the FRTT operate?

A

>34,000, single tank temp sensor -20 or average of sensors -9 deg C

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52
Q

When do the AC wing boost pumps operate?

A

ENG RUN switches to ON

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53
Q

Where is the fuel SOV located and how is it controlled?

A

Behind the aft pressure bulkhead, operated by fire discharge handle

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54
Q

When does fuel transfer from the centre tank?

A

Wing tank qty <93% full

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55
Q

True or false, centre tank fuel feeds the engines directly?

A

False, xfer to wings first

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56
Q

When does fuel transfer from the aft tank start?

A

Wing tank qty <5,500 lbs

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57
Q

When do the wing DC aux fuel pumps automatically operate?

A

One or both AC pumps low pressure, flaps >0, inflight with gear down, wing fuel qty 400 lb imbalance)

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58
Q

When will the AC boost pumps operate regardless of engine run switch position?

A

XFEED SOV open (to ensure balance during OEI)

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59
Q

Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU?

A

Right

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60
Q

Which fuel pumps can not be operated by the pilot?

A

Centre tank transfer pumps

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61
Q

When is wing fuel xfer inhibited?

A

Flaps >0, inflight with gear down, wing fuel

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62
Q

What is the power source for the refuel/defuel panel?

A

APU battery direct bus

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63
Q

During refuel SOV test, what does display of SOV FAIL message indicate?

A

Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full

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64
Q

What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?

A

Four 40 kVA VFG, One 40 kVA APU generator, one 9 kVA RAT generator

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65
Q

How many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?

A

8, Four primary 1-4, Four secondary 1A-3A, AC ESS

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66
Q

What is the purpose of the ACPC?

A

To protect, control and distribute AC power to the main AC buses

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67
Q

Which buses are normally shed during single generator operation inflight?

A

AC buses 2 and 3

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68
Q

What is the primary / alternate power priority for the AC ESS Bus?

A

RAT Gen, Gen 4, Gen 1, Gen 2, Gen 3, APU Gen

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69
Q

What are the 6 primary source of DC power?

A

ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 1, TRU 2, APU battery, avionics battery

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70
Q

What are the 4 main DC buses?

A

DC ESS bus, BATT Bus, DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2

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71
Q

How long will the aircraft batteries provide aircraft power?

A

Approx 15 mins

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72
Q

What it the primary / alternate power source for the DC ESS Bus?

A

ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 2, TRU 1

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73
Q

Which DC buses are shed during single TRU operation?

A

DC Bus 1 and 2

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74
Q

What is the purpose of the DC Power Emergency Override switch?

A

By the DCPC to provide power from the ESS TRU’s directly to the SPDA’s

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75
Q

What is the pack discharge temp range for manual operation?

A

5-60 deg C (one pack must be off)

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76
Q

What is the normal and max cabin differential pressure?

A

Norm - 10.33 psi, Max - 10.73 psi, Delta P message - 10.85 psi

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77
Q

What is the maximum negative relief differential pressure?

A

Minus 0.5 psi

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78
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for taxi and takeoff?

A

0.1 psi

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79
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?

A

1.0 psi

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80
Q

AUX PRESS is prohibited above what altitude?

A

41,000’

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81
Q

What is the priority bleed source for engine starting on the ground?

A

APU bleed air

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82
Q

What occurs when the BMC detects a bleed leak?

A

The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves

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83
Q

How are hot air leaks monitored in the airplane?

A

Dual loop detection / sensing elements connected to the BMC’s

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84
Q

Can one engine supply two packs simultaneously?

A

No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine. In case of single pack operation, the BMC automatically schedules high pack flow

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85
Q

How is air flow modulated from the pnuematic duct to the air conditioning units?

A

By modulation of the flow control valve (FCV) by the air conditioning controllers (ACSC)

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86
Q

What are the two functions of the air conditioning units?

A

Decrease air temperature and decrease the water content of the hot bleed air

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87
Q

When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)?

A

Bleed failure, engine start, engine failure, ditching, pack inlet overheat, compressor discharge overheat, pack discharge over or under pressure

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88
Q

Turning the TRIM AIR switch to the ON position opens which valves?

A

The Hot Air Shutoff Valves (HASOV)

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89
Q

What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system?

A

Provide cooling for the heat exchangers of the packs, alternate source of fresh air

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90
Q

What are the requirements for using AUX PRESS?

A

Both packs inop, RECIRC ON,

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91
Q

What are the two primary modes of operation with the cabin pressure control in AUTO?

A

Primary (predictive uses AP and VNAV, Secondary (reactive) used p.alt and V/S

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92
Q

What are the warning messages associated with loss of pressurisation?

A

CAB ALT - 8200’ CAB ALT Warning - 9000’ or 1800’ > landing alt if landing above 7230 MSL

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93
Q

When selecting MAN pressurisation, what is displayed on the STAT page?

A

Both outflow valve position indicators, cabin rate analogue gauge

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94
Q

What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STAT page?

A

LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selected to FMS, Landing dest. In FMS, Flight plan activated

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95
Q

What are the two cabin rate selections available in automatic and associated rates?

A

Normal - 500/300 fpm, High 800/800 fpm

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96
Q

What occurs when the EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON?

A

Both outflow valves are commanded open, cabin alt. limited to 14,500’

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97
Q

What does selecting the DITCHING switch to ON provide?

A

Packs shutoff, cabin depressurised, OFV driven closed, sequence inhibited above 15,000’

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98
Q

What is the purpose of the safety valves (SFV 1 and 2) located in the aft bulkhead?

A

Ensure overpressure and negative pressure relief, provides an open position signal to the EICAS

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99
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required and prohibited?

A

OAT 10 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff

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100
Q

When is wing anti-ice required and prohibited?

A

OAT 5 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff, on prior to takeoff when using Type II or IV fluid

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101
Q

What are the conditions conducive to inflight icing?

A

Visible moisture and TAT 10 - minus 40

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102
Q

What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions?

A

Slats IN

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103
Q

What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions?

A

76% N2

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104
Q

Fully automatic ice and rain protection is provided for which systems?

A

Wing leading edges, engine cowl leading edges, windshields, side windows, air data probes and sensors

105
Q

Ice detection is ineffective below?

A

30 knots IAS

106
Q

When wing anti-ice is selected on, how long may it take before the leading edges display green?

A

Approximately 2 minutes

107
Q

What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve?

A

Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be fed from a single engine bleed

108
Q

Which engine bleed is used for cowl anti-ice?

A

LP bleed air only (5th stage)

109
Q

In the event of electrical failure what position does the cowl anti-ice valve default to?

A

Fully open

110
Q

Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AoA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting ext power?

A

All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied

111
Q

How many oxygen bottles does the crew oxygen system have?

A

4

112
Q

What is the normal pressure charge at 21 deg C for the crew oxygen bottles?

A

1850 psi

113
Q

At what bottle pressure will the oxygen vent overboard and blow-out the green disc?

A

2600 psi

114
Q

When do the passenger oxygen masks deploy?

A

14,500’ cabin altitude

115
Q

What is the crew alert when the oxygen system drops to 75% or below?

A

Amber OXY LO QTY message

116
Q

Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit?

A

No

117
Q

When does the SEAT BELTS sign illuminate when selected to AUTO?

A

Landing gear selected down, flaps not in 0, cabin alt >8000’

118
Q

When do the EMER LIGHTS illuminated when armed?

A

No power to the DC essential bus

119
Q

How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?

A

Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated

120
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the aileron PCUs?

A

Left - sys 1 and 3 Right - Sys 2 and 3

121
Q

When is initial yaw damper engagement controlled by the FGC?

A

First engine start

122
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the rudder?

A

Sys 1, 2 and 3

123
Q

Which three trim modes activate the horizontal stab and what are their priority?

A

Manual trim (pilot / copilot), Auto trim (AP1 or AP2), Mach trim (AP off)

124
Q

What functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide?

A

AFCS disconnect - momentarily selected, Pitch trim dis. - held, Stall pusher override - held

125
Q

When will the stab in motion clacker sound?

A

Stab runaway, stab trim held for extended period

126
Q

How is operation of the slats and flaps controlled?

A

By two independent slat/flap control units (SFCU)

127
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘Flap Override Switch’?

A

Used to cancel the flap aural warning if flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing

128
Q

How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?

A

4 MFS, 2 GS

129
Q

With flaps extended, which MFS are available?

A

Only 2 inboard pairs (MAX selection of FSCL has no effect)

130
Q

The MFS are used for what purposes?

A

Roll assist, lift dumping, combination of both

131
Q

How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?

A

Opposite panel is automatically disabled

132
Q

When armed, ground spoilers will deploy on landing with?

A

Power at idle, RA <7’, one wheel speed >16 Knots

133
Q

What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temp in excess of 40 deg C?

A

30 mins

134
Q

What is the maximum flight altitude with Yaw Damper disengaged?

A

41,000’

135
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engage height?

A

400’ AGL

136
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision and non-precision approach?

A

50’ precision, 160’ NPA with vertical guidance, 400’ NPA

137
Q

What is the operational limitation when using FLCH?

A

Not above M85

138
Q

Does the indicator light on the GP indicate that the associated mode is currently active?

A

No, pilot must confirm mode status on the FDA

139
Q

How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral FD mode is armed?

A

Basic pitch (PIT) and roll (ROL) modes

140
Q

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?

A

Pressing the AP button, either Master Disconnect, either TOGA button, manual trim, pressing the YD switch, physically overiding the AP servos

141
Q

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

A

Windshear avoidane warning, unsual attitude, stall warning

142
Q

What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer?

A

Lateral mode is NAV, aircraft has captured the LOC beam, pilot has armed APR

143
Q

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?

A

Within 75 NM flight plan distance or 30 NM direct distance of destination and approach selected in FMS

144
Q

When does dual coupling of the AFCS occur on a precision approach?

A

1200’ AGL with both PFDs displaying different NAV source

145
Q

What are the FD pitch commands for takeoff AEO, OEI and GA?

A

17.5 deg, 13 deg, 10 deg

146
Q

How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?

A

Selecting AP on or selecting another vertical mode

147
Q

When is EDM mode enabled?

A

Aircraft above 25,000’, cabin alt above 14,500, AP engaged

148
Q

Once EDM is activated, what will occur?

A

Autothrottle engage if off, FD command FLCH descent to 15,000’, FD HDG 90 degrees left of track, SPD VMO - 10 until 250 knots at 10,000’

149
Q

What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?

A

Four 40 kVA VFG, One 40 kVA APU generator, one 9 kVA RAT generator

150
Q

How many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?

A

8, Four primary 1-4, Four secondary 1A-3A, AC ESS

151
Q

What is the purpose of the ACPC?

A

To protect, control and distribute AC power to the main AC buses

152
Q

Which buses are normally shed during single generator operation inflight?

A

AC buses 2 and 3

153
Q

What is the primary / alternate power priority for the AC ESS Bus?

A

RAT Gen, Gen 4, Gen 1, Gen 2, Gen 3, APU Gen

154
Q

What are the 6 primary source of DC power?

A

ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 1, TRU 2, APU battery, avionics battery

155
Q

What are the 4 main DC buses?

A

DC ESS bus, BATT Bus, DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2

156
Q

How long will the aircraft batteries provide aircraft power?

A

Approx 15 mins

157
Q

What it the primary / alternate power source for the DC ESS Bus?

A

ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2, TRU 2, TRU 1

158
Q

Which DC buses are shed during single TRU operation?

A

DC Bus 1 and 2

159
Q

What is the purpose of the DC Power Emergency Override switch?

A

By the DCPC to provide power from the ESS TRU’s directly to the SPDA’s

160
Q

What is the pack discharge temp range for manual operation?

A

5-60 deg C (one pack must be off)

161
Q

What is the normal and max cabin differential pressure?

A

Norm - 10.33 psi, Max - 10.73 psi, Delta P message - 10.85 psi

162
Q

What is the maximum negative relief differential pressure?

A

Minus 0.5 psi

163
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for taxi and takeoff?

A

0.1 psi

164
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?

A

1.0 psi

165
Q

AUX PRESS is prohibited above what altitude?

A

41,000’

166
Q

What is the priority bleed source for engine starting on the ground?

A

APU bleed air

167
Q

What occurs when the BMC detects a bleed leak?

A

The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves

168
Q

How are hot air leaks monitored in the airplane?

A

Dual loop detection / sensing elements connected to the BMC’s

169
Q

Can one engine supply two packs simultaneously?

A

No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine. In case of single pack operation, the BMC automatically schedules high pack flow

170
Q

How is air flow modulated from the pnuematic duct to the air conditioning units?

A

By modulation of the flow control valve (FCV) by the air conditioning controllers (ACSC)

171
Q

What are the two functions of the air conditioning units?

A

Decrease air temperature and decrease the water content of the hot bleed air

172
Q

When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)?

A

Bleed failure, engine start, engine failure, ditching, pack inlet overheat, compressor discharge overheat, pack discharge over or under pressure

173
Q

Turning the TRIM AIR switch to the ON position opens which valves?

A

The Hot Air Shutoff Valves (HASOV)

174
Q

What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system?

A

Provide cooling for the heat exchangers of the packs, alternate source of fresh air

175
Q

What are the requirements for using AUX PRESS?

A

Both packs inop, RECIRC ON,

176
Q

What are the two primary modes of operation with the cabin pressure control in AUTO?

A

Primary (predictive uses AP and VNAV, Secondary (reactive) used p.alt and V/S

177
Q

What are the warning messages associated with loss of pressurisation?

A

CAB ALT - 8200’ CAB ALT Warning - 9000’ or 1800’ > landing alt if landing above 7230 MSL

178
Q

When selecting MAN pressurisation, what is displayed on the STAT page?

A

Both outflow valve position indicators, cabin rate analogue gauge

179
Q

What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STAT page?

A

LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selected to FMS, Landing dest. In FMS, Flight plan activated

180
Q

What are the two cabin rate selections available in automatic and associated rates?

A

Normal - 500/300 fpm, High 800/800 fpm

181
Q

What occurs when the EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON?

A

Both outflow valves are commanded open, cabin alt. limited to 14,500’

182
Q

What does selecting the DITCHING switch to ON provide?

A

Packs shutoff, cabin depressurised, OFV driven closed, sequence inhibited above 15,000’

183
Q

What is the purpose of the safety valves (SFV 1 and 2) located in the aft bulkhead?

A

Ensure overpressure and negative pressure relief, provides an open position signal to the EICAS

184
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required and prohibited?

A

OAT 10 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff

185
Q

When is wing anti-ice required and prohibited?

A

OAT 5 in visible moisture or contaminated taxiways/runways, AUTO prohibited for takeoff, on prior to takeoff when using Type II or IV fluid

186
Q

What are the conditions conducive to inflight icing?

A

Visible moisture and TAT 10 - minus 40

187
Q

What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions?

A

Slats IN

188
Q

What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions?

A

76% N2

189
Q

Fully automatic ice and rain protection is provided for which systems?

A

Wing leading edges, engine cowl leading edges, windshields, side windows, air data probes and sensors

190
Q

Ice detection is ineffective below?

A

30 knots IAS

191
Q

When wing anti-ice is selected on, how long may it take before the leading edges display green?

A

Approximately 2 minutes

192
Q

What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve?

A

Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be fed from a single engine bleed

193
Q

Which engine bleed is used for cowl anti-ice?

A

LP bleed air only (5th stage)

194
Q

In the event of electrical failure what position does the cowl anti-ice valve default to?

A

Fully open

195
Q

Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AoA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting ext power?

A

All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied

196
Q

How many oxygen bottles does the crew oxygen system have?

A

4

197
Q

What is the normal pressure charge at 21 deg C for the crew oxygen bottles?

A

1850 psi

198
Q

At what bottle pressure will the oxygen vent overboard and blow-out the green disc?

A

2600 psi

199
Q

When do the passenger oxygen masks deploy?

A

14,500’ cabin altitude

200
Q

What is the crew alert when the oxygen system drops to 75% or below?

A

Amber OXY LO QTY message

201
Q

Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit?

A

No

202
Q

When does the SEAT BELTS sign illuminate when selected to AUTO?

A

Landing gear selected down, flaps not in 0, cabin alt >8000’

203
Q

When do the EMER LIGHTS illuminated when armed?

A

No power to the DC essential bus

204
Q

How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?

A

Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated

205
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the aileron PCUs?

A

Left - sys 1 and 3 Right - Sys 2 and 3

206
Q

When is initial yaw damper engagement controlled by the FGC?

A

First engine start

207
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the rudder?

A

Sys 1, 2 and 3

208
Q

Which three trim modes activate the horizontal stab and what are their priority?

A

Manual trim (pilot / copilot), Auto trim (AP1 or AP2), Mach trim (AP off)

209
Q

What functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide?

A

AFCS disconnect - momentarily selected, Pitch trim dis. - held, Stall pusher override - held

210
Q

When will the stab in motion clacker sound?

A

Stab runaway, stab trim held for extended period

211
Q

How is operation of the slats and flaps controlled?

A

By two independent slat/flap control units (SFCU)

212
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘Flap Override Switch’?

A

Used to cancel the flap aural warning if flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing

213
Q

How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?

A

4 MFS, 2 GS

214
Q

With flaps extended, which MFS are available?

A

Only 2 inboard pairs (MAX selection of FSCL has no effect)

215
Q

The MFS are used for what purposes?

A

Roll assist, lift dumping, combination of both

216
Q

How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?

A

Opposite panel is automatically disabled

217
Q

When armed, ground spoilers will deploy on landing with?

A

Power at idle, RA 16 Knots

218
Q

What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temp in excess of 40 deg C?

A

30 mins

219
Q

What is the maximum flight altitude with Yaw Damper disengaged?

A

41,000’

220
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engage height?

A

400’ AGL

221
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision and non-precision approach?

A

50’ precision, 160’ NPA with vertical guidance, 400’ NPA

222
Q

What is the operational limitation when using FLCH?

A

Not above M85

223
Q

Does the indicator light on the GP indicate that the associated mode is currently active?

A

No, pilot must confirm mode status on the FDA

224
Q

How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral FD mode is armed?

A

Basic pitch (PIT) and roll (ROL) modes

225
Q

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?

A

Pressing the AP button, either Master Disconnect, either TOGA button, manual trim, pressing the YD switch, physically overiding the AP servos

226
Q

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

A

Windshear avoidane warning, unsual attitude, stall warning

227
Q

What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer?

A

Lateral mode is NAV, aircraft has captured the LOC beam, pilot has armed APR

228
Q

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?

A

Within 75 NM flight plan distance or 30 NM direct distance of destination and approach selected in FMS

229
Q

When does dual coupling of the AFCS occur on a precision approach?

A

1200’ AGL with both PFDs displaying different NAV source

230
Q

What are the FD pitch commands for takeoff AEO, OEI and GA?

A

17.5 deg, 13 deg, 10 deg

231
Q

How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?

A

Selecting AP on or selecting another vertical mode

232
Q

When is EDM mode enabled?

A

Aircraft above 25,000’, cabin alt above 14,500, AP engaged

233
Q

Once EDM is activated, what will occur?

A

Autothrottle engage if off, FD command FLCH descent to 15,000’, FD HDG 90 degrees left of track, SPD VMO - 10 until 250 knots at 10,000’

234
Q

Which colours are used to depict normal, precautionary and system limits?

A

Green - normal, Amber - precautionary, Red - limits exceeded

235
Q

Which colours are used to depict flow lines?

A

Black - no flow, Amber - below normal value, Green - normal value, Red - Exceeding normal value

236
Q

What is the priority of aural alerts?

A

Stall, EGPWS, TCAS, other voice messages

237
Q

How is a SG failure indicated?

A

Red X across the corresponding displays

238
Q

The airspeed trend vector represents the airspeed in how many seconds?

A

10

239
Q

The altitude trend vector represents the altitude the airplane will attain in how many seconds?

A

6

240
Q

During a GPS approach what does the DGRAD annunciation on the FMS indicate?

A

Unacceptable RAIM value is detected

241
Q

How does the pilot remove accumulated IRS errors or drift since the las alignment?

A

IRS mode selector from NAV to ALN and back to NAV

242
Q

What does selecting EMER on ACP accomplish?

A

Microphone audio bypasses ACP and connected directly to onside VHF radio, audio directly directly to pilot headset

243
Q

MMO FL350

A

0.89 Mach

244
Q

MMO FL414

A

0.88 Mach

245
Q

MMO FL470

A

0.858 Mach

246
Q

MMO FL510

A

0.842 Mach

247
Q

VMO above and below 8,000’

A

>8,000 340 KIAS,

248
Q

What is the turbulence penetration speed?

A

300 KIAS / 0.80 Mach

249
Q

What is the max pressure altitude for takeoff and landing (standard)?

A

10,000’ p.alt

250
Q

What is the max / min ambient temperature for takeoff?

A

50 to minus 40 deg C

251
Q

What is the max tailwind for engine start?

A

20 knots

252
Q

What must be done during start if there is N1 rotation with a tailwind?

A

Crank for 30s followed by immediate autostart

253
Q

What is the max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?

A

29 knots

254
Q

What is the max altitude for slats/flaps?

A

18,000’

255
Q

What is the max altitude for with the gear extended?

A

20,000’

256
Q

What is the minimum altitude with flight spoilers extended?

A

300’ AGL

257
Q

What is the tire limiting speed?

A

183 KIAS

258
Q

What speed is VLO?

A

200 KIAS

259
Q

What speed is VLE?

A

250 KIAS

Global Systems Knowledge Review (1 decks)

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