Glaucoma Flashcards

1
Q

Where and how is aqueous humour produced?

A

produced from plasma by the ciliary epithelium of the ciliary body pars plicata, using a combination of
active and passive secretion. A high protein filtrate passes out of
fenestrated capillaries (ultrafiltration) into the stroma of the ciliary
processes, from which active transport of solutes occurs across the
dual-layered ciliary epithelium. The osmotic gradient thereby established facilitates the passive flow of water into the posterior chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the nervous control of aqueous humour production?

A

Secretion is subject to the influence of the sympathetic nervous system, with opposing actions mediated by beta-2
receptors (increased secretion) and alpha-2 receptors (decreased secretion). Enzymatic action is also critical – carbonic anhydrase is
among those playing a key role.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 components of trabecular meshwork?

A

Uveal meshwork
Corneoscleral meshwork
Juxtacanalicular (cribiform) meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What proportion of aqueous humour drains through the trabecular meshwork?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the anatomy of Schlemm canal?

A

a circumferential channel within the
perilimbal sclera. The inner wall is lined by irregular spindle-shaped endothelial cells containing infoldings (giant vacuoles) that are thought to convey aqueous via the formation of
transcellular pores. The outer wall is lined by smooth flat cells and contains the openings of collector channels, which leave the canal at oblique angles and connect directly or indirectly with episcleral veins. Septa commonly divide the lumen into
2–4 channels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 pathways of outflow of aqueous?

A

Trabecular (90%)
Uveoscleral (10%)
Iris (minimal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mean IOP in general population?

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What % of population >40 have IOP >21 with open angles and no detectable glaucoma damage?

A

4-7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the OHTS study?

A

a multicentre longitudinal trial. In addition to looking at the effect of
treatment of individuals with ocular hypertension (IOP in one eye
between 24 mmHg and 32 mmHg), invaluable information was
gained about the effect of a range of putative risks for conversion
from OHT to glaucoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the limitations of OHTS study?

A

the study goal was an IOP reduction of 20%, which may not be sufficient in some individuals; compliance with medication was not measured;
and there is a possibility that early glaucomatous damage was
already present in some patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some conclusions based on factors significant on multivariate analysis from OHTS study?

A

○Intraocular pressure. The risk of developing glaucoma increases with increasing IOP.

○ Age. Older age is associated with greater risk.

○Central corneal thickness (CCT). The risk is greater in eyes with OHT and CCT <555 µm and lower in eyes with high CCT (>588 µm). This may be due to under- and overestimation of IOP, although it is more likely that associated structural factors, perhaps at the lamina cribrosa, might be
involved.

○Cup/disc (C/D) ratio. The greater the C/D ratio the higher the risk. This may be because an optic nerve head with a
large cup is structurally more vulnerable, or it may be that
early damage is already present.

○Pattern standard deviation (PSD). The higher the PSD value the greater the risk. (This possibly signifies early
glaucomatous field change.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some conclusions based on factors that were significant on uni-
variate analysis only in OHTS study?

A

○African ethnic background (including Afro-Caribbean, African-American) is associated with a higher glaucoma
risk.

○Males are more likely to convert.

○Heart disease is a significant risk factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some conclusions based on Factors examined in the OHTS but found to be insignificant?

A

○ Myopia (although it is suspected that myopic discs are more susceptible to glaucomatous damage at a lower IOP than emmetropic discs).

○Diabetes.

○Family history of glaucoma (which is curious, as patients with glaucoma often have a family history of the disease).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are overall conclusions from OHTS study?

A

○Early treatment reduces the cumulative incidence of glaucoma.

○The effect is greatest in high-risk individuals.

○Early treatment of low risk individuals is not needed.

○Individualized assessment of risk is useful and helps to guide management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some genetics of ocular hypertension?

A

A single nucleotide polymorphism in TMC01 appears to be significantly associated with conversion to glaucoma in white people with
ocular hypertension (3-fold risk in individuals with two risk alleles
compared with those with no risk alleles).

A recent meta-analysis
has identified 112 genetic loci associated with IOP and suggests a
major role for angiopoietin-receptor tyrosine kinase signalling,
lipid metabolism, mitochondrial function and developmental
processes as risk factors for elevated IOP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is pre-perimetric glaucoma?

A

This concept refers to glaucomatous damage, usually manifested by a suspicious optic disc and/or the presence of retinal nerve fibre
layer defects, in which no visual field abnormality has developed.
The field-testing modality for this purpose is usually taken as
standard achromatic automated perimetry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What was the percentages in people treated for OHT in OHTS study?

A

9.5% cumulative risk for people to develop glaucoma with OHT
Reduced to 4.4% in patients which low IOP attained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the definition of glaucoma?

A

Glaucoma is the term that is used to describe a group of conditions that have in common a chronic progressive optic neuropathy
that results in characteristic morphological changes at the optic
nerve head and in the retinal nerve fibre layer. Progressive retinal
ganglion cell death and visual field loss are associated with these
changes. Intraocular pressure is a key modifiable factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What % of people does glaucoma affect above the age of 40?

A

2-3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the Early Manifest Glaucoma Trial (EMGT) provide data on?

A

prospective natural history data on progression of glaucoma in three common glaucoma types: high tension glaucoma (HTG), normal-tension glaucoma (NTG) and pseudoexfoliation glaucoma (PXEG),
using visual fields as an end-point.

The study reveals that the
mean rate of change in untreated individuals is as follows: HTG
−1.31 dB/year, NTG −0.36 dB/year, PXEG −3.13 dB/year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is POAG characterized by?

A

*Retinal nerve fibre layer thinning.
*Glaucomatous optic nerve damage.
*Characteristic visual field loss as damage progresses.
*An open anterior chamber angle.
*Absence of signs of secondary glaucoma or a non-glaucomatous
cause for the optic neuropathy.
*IOP is a key modifiable risk factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which ethnic groups is POAG most prevalent in

A

European/African

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Risk factors for POAG?

A

1) High IOP. Asymmetry >4 significant
2) Older age
3) Difficult to control in black than white people
4) FH POAG- sibling 4x, offspring 2x risk
5) Myopia
6) Anti VEGF injections risk of IOP elevation. More with bevacizumab than ranibizumab
7) Contraceptive pill- blocks protective oestrogen effect
8) Vascular disease
9) Translaminar pressure gradient- difference in level of IOP and orbital CSF pressure increase likelihood and progression of glaucoma damage due to associated deformation of lamina cribrosa
10) Optic disc area- large discs more vulnerable to damage
11) Ocular perfusion pressure. Large difference between arterial BP and IOP increase risk and progression of glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which gene is associated with POAG?

A

MYOC gene coding for myocillin protein in trabecular meshwork and OPTN gene coding for optineurin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the pathogenesis of glaucomatous optic neuropathy?

A

Retinal ganglion cell death through apoptosis rather than necrosis. Preterminal event is calcium ion influx into cell body and rise in intracellular nitric oxide.

After injury, astrocyte and glial cell proliferation and alteration in ECM of lamina cribrosa and optic nerve remodelling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the proposed mechanisms of optic nerve damage in glaucoma?

A

1) Direct mechanical damage to retinal nerve fibres at ONH as they pass through lamina cribrosa
2) Ischaemic damage due to compression of blood vessels at ONH.
3) Both mechanisms lead to reduced axoplasmic flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In history taking, what aspects of previous ophthalmic history may be relevant?

A

Refractive status- myopia increased risk of POAG, hypermetropia PACG
Causes of secondary glaucoma eg ocular trauma or inflammation. Previous eye surgery eg refractive surgery which can affect IOP readings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 4 subtypes of glaucomatous damage?

A

Focal ischaemic discs: Localised superior and or inferior notching and associated with localised field defects with early threat to fixation

Myopic disc with glaucoma- tilted shallow disc with temporal crescent of PPA + glaucoma damage. Sense superior/inferior scotomas are common.

Sclerotic discs- shallow saucerized cups and gently sloping NRR, variable PPA + peripheral VF loss.

Concentrically enlarging discs- fairly uniform NRR thinning and diffuse field loss. IOP significantly elevated at presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are some non specific signs of glaucomatous damage?

A

Disc haemorrhages- extend from NRR onto retina inferotemporally. Common in NTG
Baring of blood vessels- space between NRR and superficial blood vessels
Bayoneting- double angulation of blood vessel. With NRR, a vessel entering disc from retina may angle sharply backwards into disc then turn towards original direction to run across lamina cribrosa
Collaterals between 2 veins at the disc
loss of Nasal NRR
Lamina dot sign- advancing glaucoma. Grey dot like fenestrations in lamina cribrosa become exposed as NRR recedes. Can be seen in normal eyes too.

33
Q

What is the alpha zone?

A

○Alpha (outer) zone is characterized by superficial retinal pigment epithelial changes. It tends to be larger and possibly more common in glaucomatous eyes.

34
Q

What is the beta zone?

A

characterized by chorioretinal atrophy. It is distinct from the scleral rim, the white band of exposed sclera central to the beta zone. The beta zone is larger and more common in glaucoma and is a risk factor
for progression. The location of beta-zone PPA seems to indicate the orientation of likely visual field loss.

35
Q

Which optic nerve fibre bundle is most resistant to glaucoma damage?

A

Papillomacular bundle

36
Q

What is the best type of perimetry to detect early glaucoma changes?

A

SWAP
Frequency doubling technology (FDT)

37
Q

What are some examples of visual field defects?

A

Small paracentral depressions
Nasal step
Temporal wedge
Arcuate defects
Ring scotoma
End stage changes- small island of central vision with temporal island. 10-2 monitors residual central field

38
Q

What is the minimal criteria for glaucomatous damage on SAP?

A

Glaucoma hemifield test outside normal limits or >2 occasions consecutively. Assesses points in sup and inf field

Cluster of 3 or more non edge points in a location typical for glaucoma all of which are depressed on PSD<5% level and one depressed at PSD<1% level on 2 consecutive occasions

CPSD in less than 5% normal individuals on 2 consecutive fields

39
Q

What is the staging of glaucomatous damage?

A

Early MD<-6dB
Mod -6 to -12 dB
Severe >-12 dB

40
Q

What is a reasonable pressure to achieve when treatment started in glaucoma management?

A

<18 based on Advanced Glaucoma Intervention Study (AGIS)
found that significant visual field progression is unlikely to occur in most patients in the medium term if IOP can be kept below 18 mmHg at all
times.

41
Q

What did the EMGT study find with regards to a reduction in risk of progression with 1mmHg pressure?

A

a 10% reduction in the risk
of progression (when measured from presentation to the first follow-up visit).

42
Q

When to follow up patients with good IOP control and mild-moderate glaucoma with no threat to central vision?

A

Perimetry every 6-12 months sufficient

43
Q

How often should gonioscopy be performed in patients with POAG?

A

Annually, as anterior chamber angle narrows with age.

44
Q

Why might patients progress on VF despite good IOP control?

A

Occult adherence failure
Undetected diurnal variation
Impaired optic nerve perfusion
Alternative pathology eg: compressive lesions

45
Q

What are the key characteristics of NTG?

A

IOP consistently equal to or less than 21mmHg on diurnal testing
Signs of ON damage in characteristic glaucoma pattern
VF loss as damage progresses consistent with ON appearance
Open anterior chamber angle

46
Q

What is the pathogenesis for NTG?

A

Aetiological factors distinct from POAG not conclusive but mechanisms including anomalies of local and systemic vascular function, structural ON anomalies and autoimmune disease.
NTG in some patients explained by low CCT.

47
Q

What are risk factors for NTG?

A

1) Age- older than those with POAG
2) Gender- females highter
3) Race- Japanese
4) Family Hx- POAG greater in families of patients with NTG than normal.
5) Mutations in OPTN gene identified in NTG.
6) CCT lower in NTG than POAG
7) Abnormal vasoregulation eg migraine, Raynauds
8) Systemic hypotension EMGT trial confirms low BP risk factor for NTG
9) OSA associated with poor ocular perfusion
10) Autoantibody levels higher in NTG patients
11) Translaminar pressure gradient higher than POAG
12) Ocular perfusion pressure lower than POAG
13) Myopia increases risk of glaucoma and progression

48
Q

Differential diagnoses of NTG?

A

Angle closure- dark room gonio
Low CCT underestimation of IOP
POAG with diurnal fluctuation
Previous episodes raised IOP
Masking by systemic treatment like oral beta blocker
Spontaneously resolved pigmentary glaucoma
Progressive RNFL defects not due to glaucoma eg myopic degeneration and optic disc drusen
Congenital disc anomalies- optic disc pit/ coloboma
Neurological lesions
Previous AION/GCA
Previous acute ON insult hypovolemic shock
Inflammatory/infiltrative and drug induced

49
Q

Indications for neuroimaging a patient with NTG?

A

Loss of VA out of proportion to cupping
Loss of colour vision on Ishihara
VF loss not consistent with RNFL drop out
NRR pallor
Rapid progression despite normal IOP

49
Q

What proportion of patients with NTG will not deteriorate?

A

50% at 5-7 years

50
Q

What are some treatment options for NTG?

A

Prostaglandins first line.
Brimonidine- neuroprotective effect
Betaxolol choice to prevent BP drop
SLT reasonable
Surgery if progression despite IOP in low teens.
Control of systemic vascular disease- diabetes/hyperlipidaemia
Systemic CCB
Antihypotensive measures- increase salt intake
Sleep in head up position
Ginkgo biloba useful in some cases

51
Q

In which position is IOP lower/higher?

A

Higher in flat position than 30 degrees head up position

52
Q

What does the term angle-closure refer to?

A

occlusion of the trabecular
meshwork by the peripheral iris (iridotrabecular contact – ITC),
obstructing aqueous outflow.

53
Q

Where is the angle narrowest?

A

superiorly

54
Q

What is the Shaffer system of grading the angle?

A

Grade 4 (35-45 deg)- widest angle characteristic of myopia and pseudophakia. Ciliary body seen without tilting the lens
Grade 3 (25-35 deg)- open angle, scleral spur visible
Grade 2 (20 deg)- trabeculum but not the scleral spur seen
Grade 1 (10 deg)- very narrow angle only Schwalbe line and top of trabeculum seen
Grade 0 (0 deg)- Iridocorneal contact

55
Q

What are the features of the Spaeth classification?

A

Detailed but underused. Formal description of position of iris insertion, angular approach and peripheral iris curvature

56
Q

What are the features of the Schele classification?

A

Refers to angle structures visible allocating Roman numeral acordingly. IV suggests narrow angleW

57
Q

What are the features of the VH grading system?

A

Uses slit lamp alone:
Thin but bright light approximately perpendicular to corneal surface
Beam estimates ratio of corneal thickness to most peripheral part of AC
Overestimates angle in patients with plateau iris configuration

58
Q

What is the definition of Primary Angle Closure (PAC)

A

Gonioscopy shows three or more quadrants of ITC associated with raised IOP/and or PAS, best evaluated using indentation gonioscopy
Normal optic disc and field
Further classified into non ischeamic and ischaemic. Ischaemic shows higher IOP elevation such as iris changes/glaukomflecken

59
Q

What is the definition of Primary Angle Closure Glaucoma (PACG)?

A

ITC in 3 or more quadrants associated with glaucomatous optic neuropathy
ON damage from episode of severe IOP elevation eg PAC

60
Q

Mechanisms involved in PAC?

A

Relative pupillary block
Non pupillary block
Lens induced angle closure
Retrolenticular
Combined mechanism
Reduced aqueous outflow

61
Q

What is relative pupillary block?

A

Failure of aqueous flow through pupil leads to pressure differential between anterior and posterior chambers with anterior iris bowing. Relieved by peripheral iridotomy

62
Q

What is non pupillary block?

A

Important in many asian patients
Associated with deeper AC than those with pure pupillary block
Eg: plateau iris younger than those with pure pupillary block

63
Q

What is plateau iris configuration?

A

characterized by a flat or only
slightly convex central iris plane, often in association with normal or only slightly shallow central anterior
chamber depth.
The angle recess is typically
very narrow, with a sharp backward iris angulation over anteriorly positioned and/or orientated ciliary processes. A characteristic ‘double hump’ sign is seen on indentation
gonioscopy, the central hump being due to the underlying central lens supporting the iris and the peripheral hump resulting from the underlying ciliary processes.

64
Q

What is plateau iris syndrome?

A

persistence of gonioscopic angle closure despite a patent iridotomy in a patient with morphological plateau iris.

65
Q

What are some postulated mechanisms of reduced aqueous outflow in angle closure?

A

Appositional obstruction by iris
Degeneration of TM due to chronic or intermittent contact with iris or damage sustained due to elevated IOP
Permanent occlusion of TM by PAS.

66
Q

Risk factors for PAC?

A

Age- 62 years, non pupillary block presents earlier
Females affected more than males
Race- Far eastern and Indian asians
FH: increased prevalence
Refraction- pure pupillary block usually hypermetropic.
Axial length- short eyes have shallower AC. Nanophthalmic eyes are at risk (AL<20mm)

67
Q

Symptoms of PAC?

A

Precipitating factors- watching TV in dark room, pharmacological mydriasis, rarely miosis. Intermittent blurring haloes, acute decreased vision, periocular pain/headaches. May be asymptomatic in chronic/intermittently elevated IOP

68
Q

Signs of PAC?

A

VA 6/60 to HM
IOP 50-80
Conj hyperaemia with violaceous circumcorneal injection
Corneal epithelial oedema
AC shallow, aqueous flare present
Non dilated vertically oval pupil classic
Fellow eye shows occludable angle.

69
Q

What are some signs of resolved APAC?

A

Early- low IOP - ciliary body shutdown, folds in DM if IOP rapidly reduced. Optic nerve head congestion ,choroidal folds.

Late- iris atrophy with spiral configuration, glaucomflecken (white foci of necrosis on sueprficial lens) other forms of cataract and irregular pupil due to iris sphincter/dilator damage and posterior synechiae.
Greater duration of attack and PAS formation, lower likelihood of IOP control with medication alone

70
Q

What is subacute angle closure?

A

Intermittent episodes spontaenously resolving mild/moderate APAC in patients with pupillary block.

71
Q

How to investigate PAC?

A

AS- OCT-
AC depth measurement
Biometry if lens extraction needed
Posterior segment ultrasonography in atypical cases to exclude other cases of secondary angle closure
Provocative testing eg when plateau iris suspected.

72
Q

What is the dark room provocative test?

A

patient sits on dark room, face down for 1 hour without sleeping (sleep induces miosis). IOP checked before and immediately after the test. Rise in IOP >8mm considered significant. Gonioscopy without indentation used to confirm closure of angle. If test positive in patient with prior PI, likely plateau iris confirmed with OCT scan.

73
Q

What are some differential diagnoses of acute IOP elevation?

A

Lens induced angle closure
Malignant glaucoma (aqueous misdirection)
Neovascular glaucoma
Hypertensive uveitis (herpetic/CMV/Posner Schlossman)
Scleritis with or without angle closure
PDS/PXF
Orbital/retroorbital lesions eg inflammation/retrobulbar haemorrhage

74
Q

How to treat APAC?

A

Lie down in supine position
Diamox 500mg IV if IOP>50. Orally if IOP <50
Contraindications are sulphonamide allergy/PAC due to topiramate
Single dose Apraclonidine 0.5%/1%, Timolol Pred/Dexamethasone
Pilocarpine 1 drop repeated after 30 mins
Analgesia and antiemetic

75
Q

How to treat APAC resistant to first line treatment?

A

CC indentationwith squint hook or indentation goniolens to force aqueous into angle. Epithelial oedema cleared with 50% glycerol
Mannitol 20% 1-2g/kg IV over 1 hour, PO glycerol 50% 1g/kg, PO isosorbide 1-1.5g/kg
Early laser iridotomy after clearing corneal oedema with glycerol
Paracentesis effective but small risk of lens damage

76
Q

What is the subsequent medical treatment once PAC acutely treated?

A

Pilocarpine 2% QDS to affected eye and 1% QDS to fellow eye
Topical steroids QDS if eye acute inflamed
Consider Timolol, Iopidine, TDS, Diamox 250mg PO QDS.

Bilateral PI once cornea clear and Acute attack cleared, IOP normal. Continue steroids for at least 1 week.

Repeat gonio to confirm angle open
Trab may be needed if IOP persistently raised

77
Q

What does the ZAP trial conclude?

A

Laser PI has a modest prophylactic effect only offered to those with highest risk of developing PAC.
If significant ITC persists after iridotomy, observe, laser iridoplasty and long term pilocarpine prophylaxis. Consider lens extraction if symptomatic cataract.

78
Q

What does the EAGLE study conclude?

A

clear lens extraction with IOL implantation shows greater efficacy and is more cost-effective than laser peripheral iridotomy in patients with
primary angle closure and IOP >29 mmHg or in patients with primary angle-closure glaucoma.

79
Q
A