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Delta Interview Prep > GK Test Prep > Flashcards

GK Test Prep Flashcards

0
Q

Aircraft A is using best rate of climb and aircraft B is using best angle of climb. WSIT?

A

?

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1
Q

What is load factor?

A

?

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2
Q

A snowstorm just passed the field, the last four previous aircraft reported the runway conditions as fair but the aircraft in front of you reported them as poor. WWYD?

A

Go around.

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3
Q

What RCRs equate to runway conditions “fair” and “poor”?

A

Fair =

Poor =

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4
Q

What is the definition of “EPR”?

A

?

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5
Q

On climb out EPR decreases, what is happening?

A

?

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6
Q

If the pitot system ices up, what is NOT affected?

A

?

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7
Q

What are the differences between QNH, QNE and QFE?

A

QNH =
QNE =
QFE =

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8
Q

When passing the “Transition Level” set altimeters to _____ ?

A

?

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9
Q

When passing the “Transition Altitude” set altimeters to _____ ?

A

??

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10
Q

You are flying at FL330 at .780 MACH. You are told to descend to 10,000’ and in the descent transition to 330 KIAS. At what altitude will the transition occur?

A

?

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11
Q

What are the FAR holding pattern entry rules?

A

?

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12
Q

Holding: Given wind speed and direction calculate drift correction and outbound leg timing.

A

?

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13
Q

What is the sequence for starting a turbine engine?

A

Air, Ignition, Fuel

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14
Q

Where does the air in a jet engine start accelerating?

A

?

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15
Q

What affects lift in a turn?

A

?

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16
Q

When are compressor stalls most likely to happen?

A

? High AOA and high power settings.

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17
Q

If an aircraft accelerates in straight and level flight, what is relationship between lift, weight, thrust and drag?

A

?

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18
Q

With regard to a no flap landing WSIT?

A

? Landing roll will be longer and there will be a greater risk of tail strike.

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19
Q

On an ILS glide slope at 160 kts TAS there is a 20 kt headwind. What is the rate of descent (VVI)?

A

For a 3 degree glide slope: VVI = ((ground speed/2) x 10) + 50

160 - 20 = 140 / 2 = 70 x 10 = 700 + 50 = 750 VVI

For a 2.5 degree glide slope: VVI = ((ground speed/2) x 10) - 100

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20
Q

On climb out, cabin Differential Pressure is rising and Cabin Altitude is rising. What is happening?

A

? The aircraft is climbing faster than the rate of cabin pressurization. Manually increase the cabin pressurization rate.

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21
Q

You are landing with full reverse thrust. The aircraft begins to veer to the left. WWYD?

A

? Take the left engine out of reverse or move all engines to forward idle.

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22
Q

While at 35,000’ you are cleared to descend to 10,000’ by 30 DME from the airport. How far out must you start down?

A

Ans: 105 nm (assumes std 3 degree descent)

35,000-10,000=25,000’ to lose
25x3=75 nm + 30 nm = 105 nm

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23
Q

Inbound to a VORTAC on 060* radial at 70 DME at FL330. TAS is 460 and the winds are 270/60. You are directed to cross 15 nm NE of the VORTAC at 14,000’. What is the required rate of descent?

A

Ans: 2,350 ft/min
ALT/DIST=Ft/NM; Ft/NM x NM/Minute=Ft/Minute

ALT=33,000’-14,000’=19,000’ to lose; Dist=70-15=55 nm…
19000’/ 55NM = 345’/NM
Gnd Speed=TAS +/- HW/TW; HW=60x0.87=52; GS=460-52=408/60= 6.8 NM/Min; 345’/NM x 6.8 NM/Min = 2,346’/NM

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24
Q

To descend from 20,000’ to 5,000’ in 100 nm what is the required descent gradient?

A

150’/nm

ALT/DIST=Gradient in Ft/nm
15,000’/100nm=150’/nm

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25
Q

You are at the ABC VORTAC 180/70 at FL330 and cleared to cross the 360/15 at 10,000’. What is the required rate of descent?

A

235’/nm

ALT/DIST=Rate in Ft/nm
20,000/85=235’/nm

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26
Q

You need to descend from FL350 to 1,000’ in 160 nm while flying 420 TAS with a 60 kt tailwind. What is descent rate in feet per minute?

A

1700’/minute

ALT/DIST=Gradient Ft/nm x nm/min= descent rate in Ft/min
34,000/160=212.5 x (420+60)/60=1700’/min

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27
Q

How many miles from the airport do you start descent from FL220 at 1200’/min at .70 Mach to arrive 20 miles from the airport at 8000’?

A

102 nm

ALT/DIST=(22,000’- 8,000’) / x nm) = 1200’/min / 7nm/min
14,000’ / x nm = 171.4’/nm
x = 81.7; 81.7 + 20 = 101.7
– or –
14,000’ / 1200’/min = 11.6 min x 7 nm/min = 81.2 nm + 20 = 101.2

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28
Q

How are takeoff distance and ground speed affected when taking off at Denver compared to Atlanta?

A

Takeoff distance will be longer and ground speed will be higher in Denver. Indicated takeoff speed will be the same at both airports but the higher altitude at Denver will require a long takeoff roll to achieve the same indicated speed. Higher true airspeed will result in a higher ground speed.

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29
Q

What happens to landing speed with varying headwinds, altitude, temperature, true airspeed and ground speed?

A

Ground speed will be lower with a headwind. Ground speed will be higher will increased altitude and temperature due to a higher true airspeed.

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30
Q

What shows up best on weather radar: rain, hail, sleet or snow?

A

?

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31
Q

What does an alternating red and green light signal from tower mean?

A

Exercise extreme caution.

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32
Q

What are the primary control tower light gun signals and their meanings?

A

?

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33
Q

What is the worst icing condition?

A

Freezing rain.

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34
Q

What is the sequence for starting an air turbine engine?

A

Air, Ignition, Fuel.

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35
Q

What is a characteristic of a low pressure system?

A

Unstable air.

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36
Q

For overseas/overwater flights how many life jackets must be aboard the aircraft?

A

One for each person.

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37
Q

The height above touchdown (HAT) for particular non-precision approach is 450’ AGL. How far from the runway is the VDP (visual descent point) assuming a 3 degree glide path?

A

1.5 nm.

VDP = HAT/300= 450/300= 1.5

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38
Q

What is the formula for calculating the VDP “distance” from a runway (assuming a 3 degree glide path)?

A

VDP (distance) = HAT/300

Remember to add or subtract the DME of the runway threshold to calculate the VDP’s DME.

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39
Q

The HAT for the LOC Rwy 27 is 450’. What is the “timing” to the VDP from the FAF (final approach fix)?

A

2 minutes and 15 seconds.

VDP (timing in seconds) = 10% of the HAT - the time from the FAF to the MAP
450 x 10% = 45 seconds; if FAF to MAP timing equals 3:00 minutes then the VDP is 45 seconds from the runway or 2:15 front the FAF.

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40
Q

If the Pitot Static system ices up which instruments are lost and which continue to operate?

A

?

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41
Q

You are in level flight and encounter icing and realize the pitot static system heat is not working. WDYD?

A

Declare an emergency and request a lower altitude.

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42
Q

What rate of descent is required to maintain a 3 degree glide slope at a 180 kt ground speed?

A

900 ft/min.

Descent rate for 3 degrees = ground speed x 5
– or –
(Ground speed / 2) x 10

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43
Q

What is the “region of reverse command?”

A

The region of flight speeds below maximum endurance where a decrease in speed requires an increase in power.

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44
Q

What three speeds correspond to L/D Max?

A

Maximum endurance, maximum glide, maximum climb ANGLE (not rate).

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45
Q

What are the purpose of Vortex Generators?

A

They provide airflow control that delays boundary layer separation.

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46
Q

What speed should you fly when diverting to an alternate?

A

Normal cruise speed (best range).

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47
Q

You are entering holding and your L/D Max speed (i.e. max endurance speed) is greater than the FAR 91 speed limit. WDYD?

A

? Hold at the FAR 91 speed limit as long it’s at least 1.3 times stall speed (Vs).

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48
Q

What is the advantage of a swept wing over a straight wing?

A

Swept wings have higher Critical Mach numbers (they delay the onset of high speed boundary layer separation).

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49
Q

The VOR bearing pointer moves from 5 degrees in front if the wing to 5 degrees past the wing in 8 minutes and you flying at 360 kts. How far are you from the station?

A

288 nm.

Distance from a station = TAS x Time/Radials
360 x 8 = 2,880 / 10 = 288

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50
Q

You are at FL250 and there is Level 5 thunderstorm 80 nm in front of you. You tilt the radar antennae 1.5 degrees up and the thunderstorm disappears from the scope. What is the altitude of thunderstorm’s top?

A

FL 370.

(Use 60 to 1 rule)
At 60 nm 1.5 degrees = 1.5 nm
So, 1.5/60 = x/80; x = (1.5 x 80) / 60 = 2 nm = 12,000’
12,000 + 25,000 = 37,000

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51
Q

What three condition affect hydro planning the most?

A

? Tire pressure, weight, and water depth?

Hydro planing speed = 9 x the square root of the tire pressure.

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52
Q

Define basic V-Speeds: V1, V2, Vmo/mmo, Vne, Vmu, Vr, Vs, Vx, Vy

A 
V1 - takeoff decision speed
V2 - takeoff safety speed
Vmo/mmo - maximum operating limit speed
Vne - never exceed speed
Vmu - minimum unstick speed
Vr - rotation speed
Vs - stall speed, min control steady flight
Vx - best angle of climb
Vy - best rate of climb
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53
Q

What is mountain wave?

A

Air flowing up the windward side of a mountain my be smooth but cause dangerous down drafts on the leeward side extending 100 miles or more downwind.

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54
Q

Mountain wave winds are typically _____ ?

A

Westerly?

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55
Q

You descending through 6,000’ and turn on the engine anti-ice. Your EPR was 1.96. What do you expect it to be now?

A

1.86

Due to the bleed air reduction for anti-ice operation.

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56
Q

What are the visual effects of landing on a narrow runway?

A

A tendency to fly a lower than normal glide path.

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57
Q

Mach number increases as altitude increase due to _____ ?

A

? Due to higher true airspeed

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58
Q

What has the greatest effect on hydro planning?

A

Under inflated tires.

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59
Q

What effect does CG have on range and stability?

A

An aft CG provides better range but less stability.

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60
Q

Your aircraft has a GPS and is certified for IFR. Can you accept an RNAV flight plan?

A

?

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61
Q

Identify L/D Max on a graph of induced and form drag.

A

?

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62
Q

Category C circling clearance - 300 ft, 1.7nm

A

?

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63
Q

Climbing and get a compressor stall - pull back throttle on affected engine and comply with checklist.

A

?

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64
Q

Red circle with A4 in it - runway hold position marking on taxiway.

A

?

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65
Q

Climbing - aft CG and heavy, aircraft stall warning early, why

A

?

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66
Q

Lost comm with tower and they show a steady green light – cleared to land.

A

?

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67
Q

FO has wrong tower frequency set and on short final you realize it but see a steady green light, what do you do? I went with land and switch to tower on the ground.

A

?

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68
Q

Start Sequence: valve opens, RPM, Oil Pressure, Fuel flow, EGT Rise, valve closes

A

?

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69
Q

Green / white-white light…indicated a military field

A

?

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70
Q

Your local altimeter changes by 0.10 mmHg, how many feet will this be? 100

A

?

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71
Q

Battery provides DC; Inverter provides AC

A

?

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72
Q

TR converts AC to DC.

A

?

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73
Q

Constant Speed Drives keep generators producing in phase 28V AC

A

?

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74
Q

What is the best measure of load on the generators? I put Kilowatts (which I think is the same as Volt-Amps)

A

?

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75
Q

Holding: hold at either LDmax or max holding airspeed based on altitude.(whichever is lower)

A

?

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76
Q

As altitude increases, at a constant Mach #, what happens to IAS, TAS and AoA? IAS and TAS decrease and AoA increase

A

?

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77
Q

While holding constant Mach in a climb, what happens to TAS, IAS and AoA?

A

?

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78
Q

In flight, you’re informed some cargo was shifted aft. What does that do for your aircraft? CG shifts aft, range and IAS/TAS increase for same power setting.

A

?

79
Q

Min climb / descent rate within 1000’ of an altitude is 500’ VVI.

A

?

80
Q

Visual approach weather requirements

A

?

81
Q

You’re on the 173-R heading 180 immediately after station passage. What heading do you fly to intercept the 138-R outbound? Best options were 138 (parallel) and 105 (intercept). I said 105.

A

?

82
Q

CA opens a clenched fist. This tells the ground crew that the parking brake is released.

A

?

83
Q

An aerodynamic skid will cause what? Increase in turn rate/decrease in diameter.

A

?

84
Q

You have a complete electrical failure and you have two volt meters; one is AC and one is DC. What will they read? AC lies and DC dies so I put 28 Volts AC and 0 Volts DC.

A

?

85
Q

You are told to taxi to Rwy 22 via taxiways XYZ. Stop at the first runway that you come to while taxiing (active, inactive or closed)

A

?

86
Q

How would aircraft performance be affected by the location of Center of gravity and center of lift or pressure. Aft CG = lower stall speed/less stable/lower fuel consumption; Fwd CG = higher stall spd, more stable, higher fuel consumption

A

?

87
Q

During a start, rising EGT and slower than normal RPM increase is a sign of what? Hung start

A

?

88
Q

On stabilized ILS approach at 150 KIAS, no change in pitch or power. Suddenly you’re 160KIAS and above G/S, what happened? I went with increasing headwind shear, but not positive I was correct. Other choices were increasing tailwind shear and pitot-static system failure

A

?

89
Q

You are flying at FL230 and told to slow down, then descend to 12,000. RAT will:

A
  • Ram Air Temp will decrease (RAT decreases with slower speed), then increase (OAT increases at lower altitude)
90
Q

You set your altimeter to the local altimeter setting. The altitude you read off the altimeter is the:
- Indicated altitude (pressure altitude = elevation above standard datum i.e. 29.92, true altitude = actual elevation above mean sea level) (ANA p.4)

A

?

91
Q

> High to Low, Hot to Cold, look out below

A

?

92
Q

In level flight, increase in temperature does what to TAS and True Altitude?
- TAS and True Altitude increase (ANA p.2, 14)

A

?

93
Q

Under what conditions would you need to adjust the DH?

- Cold/lower temperature

A

?

94
Q

Each .1 inch of pressure change is equal to?

- 100 feet (others: 10’, 1000’, etc.)

A

?

95
Q

If you fly from high pressure (altimeter set 29.99) to a lower pressure area (setting of 29.49) but leave 29.99 in the window, you will be:
- 500 feet lower than your altimeter is reading

A

?

96
Q

The jet stream is strongest where?

- North side or Polar side. (Also, closer to the Tropopause)

A

?

97
Q

What is the time of useful consciousness at FL 350?

- 1 min (others: 5 min, 10 min, 15 min)

A

?

98
Q

Choose the correct statement:
- An aircraft with a low aspect ratio (fighter) has a high L/DMAX and will glide less far than an aircraft with a high aspect ratio (glider).

A

?

99
Q

-> Induced Drag decreases with airspeed, Parasite Drag increases. Total Drag = Induced Drag + Parasite Drag. L/DMAX is the point on the curve where sum of the two is the lowest. (ANA p.93) Lower aspect ratio increases angle of attack need to produce a given lift coefficient, increasing induced drag. (ANA p. 71)

A

?

100
Q

Where is L/DMAX?

- In the trough of top curve (ANA p.93)

A

?

101
Q
  • Climbing from 15k to FL300 at max endurance (L/DMAX) which of the following is true?
  • AoA and IAS will essentially remain the same and TAS will increase
A

Ans not verified

102
Q
  • Climbing at a constant Mach # what happens to TAS, IAS, and AOA?
  • TAS decreases, IAS decreases and AOA increases.
A

.

103
Q
  • When is Dutch Roll a factor?
  • Choices are either high, low, or low speed and high Mach number. In swept-wing aircraft, high CL increases dihedral effect, increasing Dutch Roll tendency. High airspeed (low CL) has a stabilizing effect. (ANA p.300)
A

Not verified

104
Q

-> Advantages and disadvantages of swept wing:
Bad = Wingtips stall first, lower Coefficient of lift, worse low speed performance.
Good = Better high speed performance, higher MCRIT (ANA p.86, 226)

A

?

105
Q

-> Advantages and disadvantages of swept wing:
Bad = Wingtips stall first, lower Coefficient of lift, worse low speed performance.
Good = Better high speed performance, higher MCRIT (ANA p.86, 226)

A

?

106
Q

The further aft a wing is swept has what effect on lift?

- Less lift (ANA p.76)

A

?

107
Q

What part of the wing do you want to stall first?

- Wing root (ANA p.77)

A

?

108
Q

What do you do first in a stall recovery?

- Reduce AOA (ANA p.39)

A

?

109
Q

What affects stall IAS?

- Gross weight and configuration (ANA p.35, 39)

A

?

110
Q

Load factor is defined as what?

- Lift over weight. (n = L/W) (ANA p.331)

A

?

111
Q

**2 questions about ground effect, both easy questions. Ground effect reduces wingtip vortices and induced drag, making the wing act as if it has a higher aspect ratio. Lower AoA for same CL (ANA p.380)

A

?

112
Q

*What is most true about a stall?
The two options that looked possible were:
a) An aircraft stall has nothing to do with control column position
b) A stall occurs when the boundary layer of airflow separates a large distance from the top of the wing. (picked this one)

A

Not verified

113
Q

Where does boundary layer separation occur on a wing?

- Trailing edge (ANA p.56)

A

?

114
Q

When you reduce AOA toward zero G:

- Induced drag decreases (others were: parasite drag decreases, total drag = 0, total drag unchanged)

A

Think this is correct

115
Q

What is Mach?

- Aircraft velocity divided by speed of sound. M=V/a (ANA p.202)

A

?

116
Q

-> MCRIT increases as altitude increases.

A

?

117
Q

-> Adverse yaw…

A

is yaw away from the direction of roll when banking the plane. (It is caused by the increased drag on the upward traveling wing).

118
Q

Proverse roll is …

A

… roll in direction of yaw. It is the roll you get after making a rudder input due to the increased lift on the advancing wing.

119
Q

> Skid = yaw into the turn.

A

Yaw into the turn.

120
Q

Slip =

A

… yaw away from direction of turn.

121
Q

What is dihedral?

A

The upper tilt of the wings. The purpose of dihedral effect is to contribute to stability in the roll axis.

122
Q

What happens in a skid?

- Inside of turn, turn radius decreases, turn rate increases.

A

?

123
Q

Which flight control, relatively speaking, is more effective as AOA increase?

A

Rudder

124
Q

Which of the following control inputs is NOT an acceptable way to turn a transport category A/C?

A

With rudder!

125
Q
  • What are your concerns during a no flap landing?

- Faster IAS during the approach and less tail to ground clearance during landing.

A

Not verified but seems most correct.

126
Q

You maintain a constant Mach and fly below the optimum cruise altitude:
- Fuel burn will increase and time aloft will decrease (TAS will increase w/constant Mach at a lower alt.)
(ANA p.175)

A

?

127
Q

Strong jet stream in the face what is your most efficient flight plan?

A
  • High and fast as possible.
128
Q

You are at FL350 and cleared pilot’s discretion descent to FL240 and instructed to cross XYZ at 12,000ft. To fly the most fuel efficient descent profile you should:
- Fly max range speed and descend at the appropriate point to maintain a direct (no level off) descent to 12,000

A

?

129
Q

You are approaching Top of Descent. You forget to plug headwinds into the FMS. Where is your actual Top of Descent?
- Further from you

A

?

130
Q

Winds are 340 at 28. Runway 1 in use. What is your crosswind?
- 14 knots (others were 9, 15, or 18? You will have an X-wind chart to reference)

A

?

131
Q

You’re holding in an aircraft that burns 3,000 lbs an hour on each of its three engines. You have 7500 lbs. of fuel on board. How long until fuel exhaustion?

A

50 minutes!

9000 lb/hr divided by 60 min/hr = 150 lb/min

7500 lbs / 150 lb/min = 50 minutes

132
Q

You entered holding at 1700Z and it is now 1730Z. The company expects weather to improve very soon and wants you to hold as long as possible. When you do leave holding and proceed to XYZ?

A
    1. There is a whole page of distracting info. Given 2 engine aircraft that burns 3000lbs/hr per engine. Planned holding fuel is 5000lbs so you have 50 minutes.
      3000 x 2 lbs/hr div by 60 min/hr = 100 lbs/min

5000 lbs div by 100 lbs/min = 50 mins

133
Q

If you have an engine failure at V1 at a balanced field and abort, you will stop:
- By the departure end of the runway (ANA p. 395)

A

?

134
Q

If you have an engine failure after V1 but before VR on a balanced field you should:
- Continue the takeoff and climb at V2 which will allow you to be 35’ AGL by the departure end of the runway.

A

?

135
Q

-> Dynamic hydroplaning is a condition in which the airplane tires ride on a thin sheet of water rather than on the runway’s surface.

A

?

136
Q

-> Hydroplaning speed = 9 X square root of tire pressure. (i.e. Tire pressure 144, what is min hydroplane speed? 108) Low tire pressure increases risk of hydroplaning.

A

?

137
Q

-> Hydroplaning speed = 9 X square root of tire pressure.

A

(i.e. Tire pressure 144, what is min hydroplane speed? 108) Low tire pressure increases risk of hydroplaning.

Square root of 144 = 12

12 x 9 = 108

138
Q

Two of the same type of aircraft of different gross weights will have the same:

A
  • Engine out glide range (ANA p.371) Similar question, same answer:
139
Q

Aircraft gross weight has no effect on:

A

Engine out glide range

140
Q

You are at the aircraft load limit. What will NOT cause you to exceed the load limit?

A
  • An increase of weight (other choices were increase in AOB, G, speed) (ANA p.331)
141
Q

You are in a thrust limited aircraft, at what AOA is all lift converted to drag?

A
  • 30 degrees…?
142
Q

What AOA is all lift converted to drag?

A

30?? Other choices were 50, 60, 90 degrees. Reference aero for naval aviators, the coefficient of lift rises, then falls drastically past stall AOA which occurs in the 20-30 AOA range and induced drag increases almost vertically on the drag chart at the stall. So in a transport category/thrust limited airplane you’re not able to achieve AOA much past the mid 20’s leaving 30 as the only reasonable answer.

143
Q

On Takeoff you experience stick shakers below airspeed you planned and fuel burn was higher than expected …what happened?

A
  • Cargo shifted forward. (As CG moves forward the aircraft will stall at a higher IAS (stick shakers) and require the elevator to counteract the forward CG resulting in a higher AOA & drag. There is a similar question regarding cargo moving aft. You may also get rudder shakers in this situation as the aircraft may rotate early due to aft CG, but the fuel burn will be less
144
Q

T-Storm 5 miles off approach end of runway. On the takeoff roll your IAS freezes. What happened?

A
  • V1 may no longer valid due to tailwind
145
Q

142 KIAS on an ILS with 20 knot headwind. What should your VSI be?
- 600 FPM (120/2 = 60 add a zero = 600) (or, GS X 5)
There was another one similar to this, but the GS worked out to be 140. Answer: 700 FPM

A
  • 600 FPM (120/2 = 60 add a zero = 600) (or, GS X 5)

There was another one similar to this, but the GS worked out to be 140. Answer: 700 FPM

146
Q

You set takeoff EPR and get only 80% RPM, what do you do?

A
  • Discontinue takeoff due to ice. (Another option is captain can continue, but that is what happened when Air Florida wound up in the Potomac)
147
Q

Your left engine is out. Runways 27 or 9 available. Winds are 360 at 15. Which runway do you use?

A
  • Runway 27 (good engine into the wind)
148
Q

*On landing rollout what most affects the required energy absorption of the Aircraft’s brakes?

A
  • Landing speed.
149
Q

You have to descend 12,000’ in 20 miles, your speed is .7 Mach. What should your VSI be?

A
  • 4200 FPM

Alt / DIST = Gradient in Ft/NM
Gradient in Ft/NM x Speed in NM/Min = VVI Ft/Min

12000 Ft div by 20 NM = 600 Ft/NM
600 Ft/NM x 7 NM/Min = 4200 Ft/NM

150
Q

You have 9200 lbs of fuel in the left tank and 6000lbs of fuel in the right tank. How do you balance your fuel load?

A
  • Open the cross feed and turn off the fuel boost pumps on the right side.
151
Q

When does the flow velocity greatly accelerate in a turbine engine?

A
  • Turbine (ANA p.115)
152
Q

*Where does velocity begin to accelerate in an engine?

A
  • Compressor (other option was the inlet ANA p.115 shows a velocity graph that starts at the compressor)
153
Q

What is the hotter, where EGT is measured, or where TIT is measured?

A
  • TIT. The Turbine Inlet is the hottest temperature point in the engine. (ANA p.115)

(Duh… TITs are hot!)

154
Q

An axial flow engine has:

A
  • High compression ratio, high efficiency (ANA p.111)
155
Q

An axial flow engine has:

- High compression ratio, high efficiency (ANA p.111)

A

?

156
Q

If you’re designing an engine, what is the advantage of Axial Flow vs. Centrifugal flow?
- Higher compression and higher efficiencies. (ANA p.111)

A

?

157
Q

Starting sequence of an engine:

- Engine rotation, ignition, fuel

A

?

158
Q

What is the proper sequence of engine indications during start?
- RPM, oil pressure, fuel flow, EGT

A

?

159
Q

-> Compressor stall recovery should include reduce fuel flow, lower AoA, reduce sideslip, and increase airspeed to improve inlet condition. Reduce altitude if a factor. (ANA p.125)

A

?

160
Q

Characteristics of compressor stall:

- Breakdown of compression which results in REVERSAL of airflow and expulsion of air out the intake.

A

?

161
Q

A compressor stall is most likely at:

- Low airspeed and increasing power

A

?

162
Q

What do you do if you have a compressor stall?

- A bunch of distracter answers with the most likely one being reduce power on the T/O roll

A

?

163
Q

When do you make maximum thrust?

- Max power with bleeds closed

A

?

164
Q

Name a design flaw of the DeHavilland Comet.

- Metal fatigue

A

?

165
Q

Which of the below is not normally directly connected to the engine gearbox in modern aircraft?
- A/C pack

A

?

166
Q
  • Which of the below is NOT true about modern aircraft fuel systems?
  • There was an option about the engine being able to keep running in event of engine driven fuel pump failure. In every plane I’m familiar with, engine driven fuel pump failure = flameout.
A

?

167
Q

Why does fuel burn out of the center tank first?

- Reduces wing root loading

A

?

168
Q

Steady Green light gun signal in flight?

A
  • Cleared to Land (AIM 4-3-13 and FAR 91.125)
169
Q

Why does fuel burn out of the center tank first?

- Reduces wing root loading

A

?

170
Q
  • > Fowler flaps:
  • Track aft before hinging downwards, thereby increasing both camber and chord, creating a larger wing surface, better tuned for lower speeds. It also provides some slot effect. (ANA p.41)
A

?

171
Q
  • > Slotted Flaps:
  • A slot (or gap) between the flap and the wing enables high pressure air from below the wing to re-energize the boundary layer over the flap. This helps the airflow to stay attached to the flap, delaying the stall.
A

?

172
Q

Function of flaps is what?

- Allows steeper angle descent for same approach speed

A

?

173
Q

What might cause the hydraulic system to cavitate?
- Quickly select full flaps at low power setting (note: similar question but the correct answer was “Quickly selecting full flaps with the electric hydraulic boost pumps off”)

A

.

174
Q

What does the transformer-rectifier do?

- Converts AC to DC (converts 400Hz 115Vac to DC was the answer)

A

?

175
Q

What does an inverter do?

- Converts DC to AC

A

?

176
Q

What monitors generator functions?

- Generator control unit

A

?

177
Q

Transport category aircraft electrical systems are:

- 28 VDC

A

?

178
Q

*How can you determine the demand on an aircraft electrical system?
Killowatts (Others were: DC volts, AC volts, and something else which was NOT an ammeter.)

A

Not verified

179
Q

How can you determine the demand on an aircraft electrical system?
Killowatts (Others were: DC volts, AC volts, and something else which was NOT an ammeter.)

A

Not verified. Ammeter should be correct? Ammeters measure current.

180
Q

What is the most likely cause of a hung start?

- Insufficient starting source

A

?

181
Q

During an engine start, you get normal N1 and N2 indications, but no EGT rise. What happened?
- Ignition failed.

A

?

182
Q

Sonic (sound) footprint affected greatest by?

- Air/gas velocity (others were gas temperature, RPM)

A

.

183
Q

What causes the loud noise of a jet engine?

- High velocity of the exhaust gases mixing with the ambient air (the other was temperature of the exhaust gases)

A

?

184
Q

Normal cabin pressurization has failed and you are in manual mode. If you change speed or altitude, what should you do to the cabin outflow valve to maintain a constant cabin pressure?
- Higher speed or throttle/thrust=more bleed air/ pressure so open the outflow valve to let some cabin air out. Lower altitude=more ambient pressure so open the outflow valve.

A

?

185
Q

You just leveled at 9000’ after an emergency descent due to a rapid decompression. Your cabin VSI is now reads zero, and your cabin differential pressure is zero. This means:
- You still have no control over your cabin pressurization.

A

?

186
Q

You set takeoff power. As you begin rolling down the runway:
- Engine thrust increases due to ram effect

A

?

187
Q

The first step in an Electrical Emergency is to?

- Disconnect primary energy source

A

?

188
Q

You are 6 NM from the runway on final and the localizer shows 1 degree of deflection. How far from the runway centerline are you?
-.1 NM (or 600 ft)

A

.

189
Q

An NDB is located 6 NM from the runway on extended centerline. You are 3 NM from the runway and the tail of the needle points to 100. You have been flying a 090 heading the entire approach (indicating no x-wind). What heading should you fly?
- Something less than 090

A

?

190
Q

You’re on the 270 at 20. You want to arc counter clockwise to go inbound on the 180 radial. What’s the first thing you do?

A

-Fly 180 until the 260 radial, then turn left to heading 160.

191
Q

You’re tracking inbound on the 090 radial, and you want to get going outbound on the 060 radial. After station passage, the needle points to 090. What do you do?

A
  • Fly heading 080 until head of the needle points to 240
192
Q

You are arcing left around the ATL VORTAC. The winds are strong from the right side of your airplane. Where would you put the head of the needle?

A
  • Behind the wingline seemed to be the best answer
193
Q

You’re tracking towards XZY VOR on the 060 inbound heading 240 at 12,000’. The winds are 340/30. ATC tells you to hold on the 120 radial, southeast, non-standard. Which way do you turn?
- Left 120 (others were: right 090, right 120, and left 090)

A
  • Left 120 (others were: right 090, right 120, and left 090)
194
Q

Cat 1 ILS mins (with everything working, read: TDZ lighting)?

A
  • 200’ and 1800RVR (AIM 1-1-9)
195
Q

You’re holding at 12,000 MSL, what airspeed do you fly?

A
  • You are given VS and L/DMAX speeds. Below 14,000 max speed is 230. Two answers are higher than 230 and another is only 10 knots higher than stall/VS so the L/DMAX speed of 205 is the answer. (AIM 5-3-8)
196
Q

You’re 30 miles east of Miami, when do you slow to 250?

- Below 10k, or below 10k and within 12 miles of the coast. (FAR 91.117)

A
  • Below 10k, or below 10k and within 12 miles of the coast. (FAR 91.117)

Delta Interview Prep (2 decks)

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