Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

T-6 GK (32 Pages) > GK > Flashcards

GK Flashcards

1
Q

Shaft Horsepower of PT6A-68

A

1100 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two sections of the T-6’s engine?

A

Gas generation and power turbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What components make up the gas generator section of the engine? (Aft half)

A

4 Stage axial flow compressor
Single-Stage centrifugal flow compressor
Combustion Chamber
Single-Stage compressor turbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Components of Power Turbine Section

A

2 Stage Axial Flow Power turbine

Reduction Gearbox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Airflow into and through the engine?

A

Enters beneath the prop, through an inertial separator, turns 180 degrees, passes through 4 stage axial compressor and single stage centrifugal compressor. Then enters the combustion chamber, mixed with fuel and is lit. Expanding gas passes through compressor turbine, then power turbines before exiting through the exhaust stacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Capacity of oil system

A

18.5 Quarts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What components does the oil system supply filtered oil to?

A

Engine Bearings
Reduction Gears
Accessory Drives
Propeller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the components of the oil system?

A

Pressure System
Scavange System
Cooling System
Breather System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When must the oil be checked for an accurate reading?

A

Within 30 mins of shutdown, dipstick must be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Amber OIL PX Only conditions

A

PCL Idle- 15-40PSI; no time delay

PCL above idle- 40-90 PSI; 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Amber and Red OIL PX conditions

A

PCL Idle- 15-40PSI; 5 Seconds or more

PCL Idle- 15 PSI or below; no time delay

PCL Above Idle- 40 PSI or below; No time delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The engine oil pressure indicator may display oil pressures up to____ PSI with engine shutdown due to design of the oil pressure transmitter

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For most accurate results, check oil level how long after shutdown?

A

15-20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the only acceptable method for getting a correct oil level indication?

A

Dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F A single, momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is indicative of a system malfunction

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of the reduction gearbox?

A

To reduce power turbine output from 30,000 RPM to a constant prop speed of 2,000 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the airspeed of an unladen swallow?

A

Eurpean: 20 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drives the RGB?

A

Hot gases impinging on the 2-stage power turbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does a red CHIP annunciator indicate?

A

The presence of Ferrous materials in the oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______ during most flight conditions?

A

2,000 RPM (100% Np)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the unit on the PEDD that indicates prop speed?

A

Np

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approx _______ ft-lbs of torque at the prop shaft?

A

2,900

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three basic conditions of the propeller pitch?

A 
Feathered
Low pitch (flat or fine)
high pitch (Coarse)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the blade angle of the propeller at low pitch?

A

Approx 15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Normally, propeller governing is automatically set by the _____ and _____

A

PMU and PIU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens if there is an engine failure with the PCL out of the Cut-OFF position?

A

The prop will slowly begin to feather due to the loss of oil pressure but MAY NOT fully feather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Power for the feather dump solenoid valve is provided through which circuit breaker?

A

PROP SYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is the prop pitch controlled?

A

PMU controls prop RPM by varying blade angle w/ oil pressure through the PIU. Pressurized oil forces the piston forward to decrease pitch toward fine. W/ a reduction in pressure the blades turn towards coarse pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

W/ the PMU functioning, the ____________ will modulate oil pressure to the prop pitch change piston limit Np to 106%, while electronic governor will keep Np at 100%

A

Mechanical overspeed governor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If PMU is not functioning, the ___________ will modulate oil pressure to maintain Np at or below 100 +/- 2%

A

Flyweight overspeed governor (checked in hammerhead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What will happen if the PROP SYS CB is pulled, the PMU is off, and the PCL is placed in CUTOFF?

A

The prop will not rapidly feather an may not fully feather until after landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

During an auto start or normal operations with the ignition set to NORM, the _______ will energize and de-energize the igniters as required.

A

PMU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Power for the START control is provided through a circuit breaker placarded START, located on the _____ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Power for the IGNITION system is provided through a circuit breaker, placarded IGN, located on the ______ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F If the IGN SEL CWS annunciator remains continuously illumiated, notify maintenance after the mission

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The ____ PCL is connected to the FMU both electrically and mechanically w/ a flexible cable

A

Front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F When the PCL is moved forward to idle during an engine start, two roller bearings lock in place on the front side of a rocker cam detent to secure a gate

A

TRUE (This is what makes the two audible clicks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F During Ground Ops, and after the engine is started, if the PCL is inadvertently moved to cutoff and the engine is shutting down, attempt to relight the engine by moving the PCL to idle

A

FALSE- DON’T EVER DO THIS UNLESS YOU WANT TO FOD OUT AN ENGINE WITH ITS OWN GUTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the primary source of power for the PMU?

A

The PMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of power does the PMA Provide?

A

32 VAC, and PMU converts it to DC power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When does the PMU automatically switch to 28 VDC from the bat bus?

A

When prop RPM drops below 40-50% Np

The PMA Fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The aircraft WOW switch om the MLG struts controls what for the PMU?

A

PMU in flight and ground mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is idle for ground and flight mode?

A

60-61% N1 Ground

67% Flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Above _____ feet MSL, the PMU raises N1 to maintain Np above 80% to avoid stress on the propeller during spins

A

10,000 Ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Relation of PCL position to power setting is _______ with the PMU operating.

A

Linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What situations will the PMU automatically abort the start?

A

Lightoff has not occured within 10 seconds of selecting AUTO/RESET

ITT exceeds 940 Deg C for 2 seconds, 870 for 4 seconds, or 840 for 19 seconds

N1 acceleration rate to idle is 50% less than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is the automatic shutdown feature provided by the PMU available in flight mode?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

You can expect your IOAT and ITT data to be invalid as well as an EDM FAIL displayed on the EICAS if the PMU is activated when the IOAT is within what range?

A

96-121 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The PMU will go offline when the IOAT exceeds _______?

A

121 Degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

With the PCL set to ST READY, when you place the starter switch to AUTO/RESET, the PMU will automatically activate what?

A

Starter
Boost Pump
Igniters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

At what N1 in the start sequence will the PMU deenergize the starter and igniters and turn off the boost pump, provided that fuel px is greater than 1- psi?

A

Approx. 50% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When may you advance the PCL to IDLE during Engine start

A

Any time N1 is at or above 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When is a manual abort necessary during engine starts?

A

PMU is INOP

PCL has been moved out of the ST READY position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How can an AUTO engine start be manually aborted?

A

Retard PCL back to OFF

Reselect AUTO/RESET on starter switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does illumination of both the PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators indicate?

A

PMU system is in manual mode (faults prevent the PMU from setting requested power or respecting engine limits, orpilot switches PMU OFF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does a PMU STATUS annunciation one minute after landing indicate?

A

Fault conditions that are not serious enoug hto revert the system to manual mode are encountered in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When the PMU is in manual mode, the PCL schedules fuel directly to the engine through the FMU, and the pilot must be careful to ensure what is not exceeded?

A

N1
Temperature
Torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

With the PMU in the manual mode, what mus the pilot be careful to avoid? (On Start)

A

Hot Start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does a PMU Status annunciation in flight indicate? What does it mean?

A

A fault in either of, or a mismatch between the WOW switches

The PMU Will not revert to ground mode upon landing

Expect the ground roll to be longer due to higher idle N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T/F: Flattening, twisting, kinking, or denting of the fire warning loop will not affect test or flight operation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Power for FIRE 1 is provided through a CB placarded FIRE 1 located on the ______ bus CB panel in the front cockpit

A

Battery

62
Q

Power for FIRE 2 is provided through a CB placarded FIRE 2 located on the ______ bus CB in the front cockpit

A

Generator

63
Q

What does pulling the firewall shutoff handle accomplish?

A

Cut off fuel flow and hydraulic fluid flow to the engine, and cut off bleed air flow from the engine

64
Q

Can the valves closed by actuating the firewall shutoff handle be reset? How?

A

Yes, by pushing the handle down

65
Q

What is the primary method of refueling the T-6

A

Single-point pressure refueling

66
Q

How much fuel is provided through the single point refueling?

A

1100 lbs

67
Q

How much more fuel is available through the over the wing method of refueling?

A

100 lbs

68
Q

Withing how many lbs does the auto balance system keep the wing tanks?

A

20 lbs

69
Q

When does the red FUEL PX annunciator illuminate?

A

When the low pressure switch indicates less than 10 PSI

70
Q

How many lbs of fuel remain in a wing when the associated FUEL LO annunciator illuminates?

A

110 lbs

71
Q

What does illumination of the FUEL BAL annunciator indicate?

A

That the auto balance system has shut off

72
Q

When will the FUEL BAL annunciator illuminate?

A

If indicated fuel balance exceeds 30 lbs for 2 minutes

Fuel probe Failure

73
Q

What does FP FAIL indicate?

A

Failure of the fuel probe

Duh

74
Q

Should you attempt to manually balance your fuel load if your EICAS is indicating an FP FAIL?

A

No

75
Q

Will automatic fual balancing be available with fuel probe failure?

A

No

76
Q

What should you do if the FUEL PX annunciator illuminates and the boost pump activates during inverted flight?

A

Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after the flight

77
Q

When does FUEL PX illuminate?

A

<10 PSI in the motive flow supply line

78
Q

When does the L/R Fuel LO light illuminate

A

110# left in tank

79
Q

Three times the boost pump will illuminate?

A

When switch is turned on
Automatically by the low px switch as long as PCL is above idle
Whenever starter is activated (automatically or manually)

80
Q

What is the purpose of the electric boost pump?

A

Provides fuel for engine start

Serves as backup-to the engine driven low pressure pump

81
Q

What happens if the engine driven high pressure pump fails?

A

You’re fucked, dude

Engine quits and won’t restart

82
Q

How many volts does the Starter Generator produce? Amperage?

A

28 VDC

300 amps

83
Q

How much voltage does the generator need to supply to charge the battery?

A

25 Volts

84
Q

What items are powered by the AUX BAT?

A

Standby instruments, Standby instrument lights, Backup UHF, Fire 1

85
Q

Do not connect external power if the battery voltage is below what?

A

22.0 Volts

86
Q

How is the aircraft protected from overvoltage/undervoltage from an external power source?

A

A voltage sensor detects voltage level and if it changes to a certain extent, the external power will be disconnnected from the aircraft electrical system

87
Q

In the event of generator failure, the battery should provide power for approximately how long? Under what conditions?

A

30 minutes

BUS TIE open and minimal radio comms

88
Q

If needed, the aux bat should provide power for approx how long?

A

30 min

89
Q

If the generator or generator bus fails, items on the generator bus will not be powered if the BUS TIE switch is in what position?

A

OPEN

90
Q

How many wheel brake applications remain after loss of normal hydraulic pressure?

A

Unlimited- Wheel brakes are independent

91
Q

What is the corrective action if brake pressure appears to fade during application or brakes are not responding as expected?

A

Fully release brakes then re-apply (both crewmembers must release)

92
Q

If landing with a complete brake failure, what should you consider/do when thinking of a field to land?

A

Crash Crew Available
Familiar Field
Longest and perhaps widest runway available
Use LDG Flaps to land a slowest possible speed
Plan a FIRM landing to dissipate airspeed
Burn as much gas w/o causing an emergency to be as light as possible

93
Q

What is the capacity of the hydraulic system?

A

Approx. 5 quarts

94
Q

What is the range of the hydraulic pressure relief valve?

A

3250-3500 PSI

95
Q

What is normal hydraulic pressure?

A

3000+-120 PSI

96
Q

Once the hydraulic pressure exceeds _____ the system can power its components

A

1800 PSI

97
Q

What does an amber HYDR FL LO annunciator indicate?

A

reservoir level is below approx 1 qt

98
Q

With the HYDR FL LO light illuminated, cna the gear and flaps still be lowered using the main system?

A

Yes

99
Q

When does the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminate?

A

When emergency accumulator pressure drops below 2400 +/- 150 PSI

100
Q

What prevents hydraulic fluid from the emergency system from flowing back into the main system?

A

Check Valve

101
Q

What prevents a leak in the emergency system from depleting the main hydraulic system?

A

Hydraulic fuse

102
Q

What is the flow limit for the hydraulic fuse between the emergency and main hydraulic system?

A

0.25 GPM

103
Q

What cockpit indication will you have if hydraulic pressure is low?

A

The gauge will turn from white to amber below 1800 PSI (This is the only indictation)

104
Q

What provides power for the HYD SYS?

A

Through a CB placarded HYD SYS located on the battery bus CB in the front cockpit

105
Q

The landing gear is a retractable _____-type which is electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

A

Tricycle

106
Q

The landing gear system is _____ and ______ sequenced to extend and retract the landing gear and main gear doors

A

Hydraulically and electrically

107
Q

If the gear handle is difficult to raise to the UP position what do you do?

A

Return the gear handle to the DOWN position. Do not use the downlock override handle

108
Q

If you have failure of the WOW micro-siwtch, use of the downlock override button will allow the gear handle to be raised, but will that retract the landing gear?

A

No

109
Q

How long does normal gear extension and retraction take?

A

6 Seconds

110
Q

T/F The gear handle is a mechanical switch requiring no electrical power to operate

A

FALSE (electrical switch–emergency landing gear handle must be used if electrical power is not available).

111
Q

T/F To emergency extend the gear, electrical power must be available

A

False (Mechanical)

112
Q

Can the gear be retracted if the emergency extension handle is used to extend the gear?

A

No

113
Q

What does a normal extension look like on the landing gear extension unit?

A

2 red lights as the main gear doors open and a red light in the handle

3 red lights as nose gear starts moving down

3 green lights with nose gear red light extinguishing as the gear reaches down and locked

2 red lights extinguish as the main gear doors close and the gear handle light extinguishes

114
Q

If the emergency gear extension is used, what indication will you see on the landing gear control unit?

A

3 green, 2 red (gear door lights), and read landing gear handle light

115
Q

When does the red light in the gear handle illuminate?

A

Any other red light illuminated on the control unit

PCL approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP

116
Q

In What situations will you hear the aural gear tone?

A

Gear handle is not down with WOW

Gear is not indicating down and locked with the flaps set to LDG (Regardless of gear door position, power setting, or airspeed)

Gear handle not DOWN (Regardless of actual gear position) w/ the PCL below midrange (approx 87% N1) position, airspeed below 120 KIAS, and flaps set to UP or T/O

117
Q

In what situations can you silence the gear horn?

A

Gear handle not DOWN (Regardless of actual gear position) w/ the PCL below midrange (approx 87% N1) position, airspeed below 120 KIAS, and flaps set to UP or T/O

(For SPINS)

118
Q

Is a tighter turn radius made with the NWS off or on?

A

NWS off–using just power, full rudder, and differential braking

119
Q

NWS should only be used at what airspeeds? Why?

A

At safe taxi speeds

May Cause directional control problems

120
Q

What does the NWS actuator do to the nose gear while in the air and the nose gear is not up and locked?

A

Automatically centers the nosewheel

121
Q

The aircraft has hydraulically operated, electrically controlled, four segment _______ flaps

A

Split

122
Q

When would the normal flap operation and position indicators be unavailable?

A

Battery Bus Failure

Aux batt is the only source of electrical power

123
Q

When would the emergency flap operation be unavailable?

A

WHen the Aux Batt is the only source of electrical power

124
Q

What will happen to the flaps if power to the flap control circuit is lost? ( Loss of power to the batt bus or FLAP CONT circuit breaker has popped)

A

The Flaps will retract to the UP Position

Flap indication will be unreliable

125
Q

How would you know inside the cockpit that the flap indicator is not receiving power and is therefore giving an unreliable indication?

A

The position pointer will move to a position counterclockwise of the UP position

126
Q

Can the flaps be extended using emergency extension if the AUX batt is the only source of electrical power?

A

No

127
Q

Can the flaps be retracted if they have been extended using the emergency extension?

A

No (Until serviced my maintenance)

128
Q

When will the speed brake automatically retract?

A

PCL moved to MAX

Flaps are extended

129
Q

Will the speedbrake exted if the flaps are extended?

A

No

130
Q

Power for the speedbrake is through a CB on the ______ bus CB panel in the front cockpit

A

Generator

131
Q

Will power to trim actuators continute to be interrupted after you release the trim interrupt button?

A

No (Only works while button is depressed)

132
Q

Besides interrupting power to the trim actuators, pressing the trim interrupt button also disengages what?

A

TAD

133
Q

What is the purpose of the bobweight installed on the front control stick?

A

Increases stick forces as G-load increases (Improves control feel and helps prevent overstressing the airframe

134
Q

After setting T/O trim, the TAD will make no further inputs until what point?

A

80KIAS with no weight on wheels

135
Q

T/F If operating correctly, the TAD will keep the aricraft yaw trimmed up properly, requiring no input from the pilot?

A

False

136
Q

What does the gust lock do?

A

Locks the rudder and ailerons in a neutral position

Locks the elevator in a nose down position

137
Q

For protection from a birdstrike, the windscreen and front cockpit transparency are designed to withstand the impact of a 4lb bird up to ________ knots

A

270

138
Q

What uses Engine Bleed Air?

A 
Canopy pressurization seal
Anti-G System
Cockpit heating and defogging 
Pressurization
OBOGS
139
Q

Bleed air from the left side P3 port is for what?

A

OBOGS

140
Q

Bleed air from the right side P3 port is for what?

A

Canopy seal
Anti-G
Heating/Defogging
Pressurization

141
Q

To prevent bleed air from entering the cockpit, what two switches must be in the OFF position?

A

Bleed Air Inflow

Defog

142
Q

When will the DUCT TEMP annunciator illuminate?

A

300 deg F

143
Q

Placing the DEFOG switch to ON does what 3 things?

A

Opens up the defog valve
Sets the inflow valve to high
Activates the air conditioning compressor

144
Q

How do you defog the canopy?

A

Set vent control lever to canopy and air will be routed to the windshield DEFOG outlets in both cockpits

145
Q

Will the Canopy/Defogging system work to clear the windshield during icing conditions?

A

No, it may not

146
Q

How does the operation of canopy defog affect ITT?

A

It increases ITT for a given PCL setting due to higher bleed air load on the engine

147
Q

If operating correctly, the pressurization system will maintain a differential pressure of what?

A

3.6+/-0.2 PSI

148
Q

When would you get an amber CKPT ALT annunciator?

A

Cockpit pressure altitude above 19,000 feet

149
Q

When would you get the red CKPT PX annunciator?

A

Cockpit differential exceeds 3.9 to 4.0

150
Q

The pressurization system will begin pressurizing at approximately what altitude?

A

8,000 feet MSL

151
Q

With teh air conditioning on, does it have an impact on engine/aircraft performance?

A

A negligible amount, A/C can be on during all phases of flight

T-6 GK (32 Pages) (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions