GI & Peptic 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 Acid-Peptic Diseases?

A
  • GERD
  • Peptic ulcer (gastric & duodenal)
  • Stress-related mucosal injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Over 90% of peptic ulcers are caused by what 2 things?

A
  • Helicobacter pylori
  • NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What induced this Peptic Ulcer?

  • Chronic
  • Site of damage: Duodenum
  • Depend on Intragastric pH
  • Sxs: epigastric pain
  • Ulcer depth: superficial
  • Less severe GI bleeding, single vessel
A

H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What induced this Peptic Ulcer?

  • Chronic
  • Site of damage: Stomach
  • Less dependent on Intragastric pH
  • Asymptomatic
  • Deep ulcer depth
  • More severe GI bleeding, single vessel
A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What inuced this Peptic Ulcer?

  • Acute
  • Site of damage: Stomach
  • Less dependent on Intragastric pH
  • Asymptomatic
  • Most superficial Ulcer depth
  • GI bleeding is more severe (superficial mucosal capillaries)
A

SRMD

(stress related mucosal disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two MOAs of the two drug classes which treat ulcers?

A
  1. agents that reduce intragastric acidity
  2. agents that promote mucosal defense
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What medication is used for “Esophageal Clearance” to tx GERD?

A

Bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What medication is used for “Gastric Emptying” for tx of GERD?

A

Metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatments for “Gastric Acid”

A
  • H2 receptor antagonists
  • Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI)
  • Omeprazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 receptors in a Parietal Cell?

A
  • Gastrin (CCK-B)
  • Histamine (H2)
  • Acetylcholine (muscarinic, M3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acid Secretion

Which neurotransmitter is released from vagal postganglionic nerves?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 agents which reduce Intragastric Acidity?

A
  • Antacids
  • H2 receptor antagonists (H2 blockers)
  • Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which Antacid?

  • Reacts rapidly with HCL to produce carbon dioxide & sodium chloride
  • Adverse effects:
    • CO2 gastric distention & belching
    • Unreacted alkali is readily absorbed, potentially causing metabolic alkalosis when given in high doses or to pts w/ renal insufficiency
  • Sodium chloride absorption may exacerbate fluid retenion in pts w/ HF, HTN, & renal insufficiency
A

Sodium Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 2 examples of Sodium Bicarbonate Antacids?

A
  • Baking soda
  • Alka seltzer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which Antacid?

  • Less soluble & reacts more slowly w/ HCL to form carbon dioxide & calcium chloride
  • Adverse effects:
    • belching or metabolic alkalosis
    • excessive doses of either sodium bicarb or calicum carbonate w/ calcium-containing products can lead to hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, and metabolic alkalosis (milk alkali syndrome)
A

Calcium Carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are 2 examples of Calcium Carbonate Antacid

A
  • Tums
  • Os-Cal
17
Q

Adverse Effects of which antacid?

  • no gas is generated, belching does not occur
  • metabolic alkalosis is also uncommon because of the
  • osmotic diarrhea
  • constipation
A

Magnesium hydroxide or Aluminum hydroxide

18
Q

Antacids should not be given within 2 hours of doses of what 4 medications?

A
  • Tetracycline
  • Fluoroquinolone
  • Itraconazole
  • Iron
19
Q

What are the names of the 4 H2-Receptor Antagonists (H2 Blockers)

A
  • Cimetidine (Tagament)
  • Ranitidine (Zantac)
  • Famotidine (Pepcid)
  • Nizatidine (Axid)
20
Q

Pharmacokinetics of which agent?

  • Rapidly absorbed from the intestine
  • 1st pass hepatic metabolism
A

H2-Receptor Antagonists (H2 blockers)

21
Q

Which 3 of the 4 H2 blockers have 1st pass hepatic metabolism?

A
  • Cimetidine
  • Ranitidine
  • Famotidine
22
Q

MOA of what agent?

  • Exhibit competitive inhibition at the parietal cell H2 receptors
  • Suppress basal and meal stimulated acid secretion
  • HIGHLY selective and do not affect H1 or H3 receptors
A

H2 Receptor Antagonists (H2 blockers)

23
Q

Which H2 blocker is most potent and which is least potent?

A
  • Most potent: Famotidine
  • Least potent: Cimetidine
24
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonists (H2 blockers)

  • Prescription doses maintain greater than 50% acid inhibition for how many hours?
  • OTC doses have a duration of acid inhibition of less than how many hours?
A
  • Rx: 10 hours
  • OTC: <6 hours
25
Q

Adverse effects of which agent?

–extremely safe drugs

–diarrhea, headache, fatigue, myalgias, constipation

A

H2 blockers

26
Q

Adverse effects of which agents if given through IV?

–mental status changes

•confusion, hallucinations, agitation

A

H2 Receptor Antagonists (H2 blockers)

27
Q

Adverse effects of which agent?

•inhibits binding of dihydrotestosterone to androgen receptors

–inhibits metabolism of estradiol, and increases serum prolactin levels

A

Cimetidine (H2 blocker)

28
Q

Adverse effects of which agent?

–crosses the placenta

•administered to pregnant women only if absolutely necessary

–secreted into breast milk and may therefore affect nursing infants.

A

H2 blockers

29
Q

Drug Interaction of which H2 blocker?

•Interferes (inhibitor) with several important hepatic cytochrome P450 drug metabolism pathways,

A

Cimetidine

30
Q

Drug Interaction of which H2 blocker?

•binds 4–10 times less than cimetidine to cytochrome P450.

A

Ranitidine