GI pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what organism causes amoebic abscess?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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2
Q

What oraganism causes hyatid cysts?

A

echinococcus

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3
Q

what investigation is used for staging of oesophageal cancers?

A

Endoscopic Ultrasound and PET-CT

staging laparoscopy only if involving GOJ

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4
Q

what is the genetic defect in lynch syndrome?

A

Defect in DNA mismatch repair genes

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5
Q

which cancers are those with lynch syndrome at risk of?

A

Endometrial
Colorectal
Gastric

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6
Q

what characterises a ‘high risk’ finding at colonoscopy warranting a further colonoscopy at 3 years?

A

2 pre malignant polyp including 1 advanced polyp
or
5 premalignant polyps

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7
Q

what gene is affected in cowden disease?

A

PTEN gene

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8
Q

what type of polyps occur in cowden disease?

A

Harmatomas

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9
Q

what extra colonic features are present in gardeners syndrome?

A
Epidermoid cysts
Fibromas
Desmoid tumours
Osteomas
Thyroid cancer
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10
Q

where else in the GI tract are those with FAP vulnerable to polyps?

A
Gastric fundal polyps (50%)
Duodenal polyps (90%).
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11
Q

what are the key genetic changes in colorectal cancer?

A

APC
C-myc
KRAS
p53

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12
Q

how are rectal cancers managed surgically?

A

APER - lower 1/3, <8cm from the anal verge

Anterior resection - upper 2/3

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13
Q

which rectal cancers do not require neoadjuvant radiotherapy?

A

T1/T2/T3 N0

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14
Q

what agents can be given to reduce endotoxaemia in surgery for pancreatic cancer?

A

Lactulose

Mannitol

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15
Q

what is the best management in metastatic pancreatic cancer?

A

ERCP + stent +/- palliative chemo

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16
Q

with which genetic disease are insulinomas associated with?

A

MEN I

17
Q

what are the typical laboratory findings in insuinomas?

A

raised insulin, raised pro insulin, raised c peptide

18
Q

are insulinomas benign or malignant?

A

90% benign.

19
Q

what is the standard treatment for benign insulinomas?

A

Enucleation

20
Q

what is the dermatological association with glucagonoma?

A

Necrolytic migratory erythema

21
Q

are glucagonomas usually malignant or benign?

A

Malignant

usually non resectable

22
Q

what is the classic pentad of somatostatinomas?

A
Diabetes
Cholelithiasis
Weight loss
Steatorrhoea and diarrhoea
hypochlorydia and achloydia.
23
Q

what are the options for treating oesophageal varices?

A

banding
sclerotherapy
sengstaken-blackmore tube

24
Q

which carcinogen is associated with angiosarcoma of the liver?

A

Vinyl chloride

25
Q

which carcinogen is associated with bladder cancer?

A

B-napthylamine

26
Q

which carcinogen is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

alfatoxin - peanuts

27
Q

what is the 1st line management of gastric MALT?

A

H.pylori eradication

28
Q

what is a dieulafoy lesion?

A

single large tortuous arteriole in the sub mucosa of the stomach
cause of GI bleeding

29
Q

what is mirizzi syndrome?

A

common hepatic duct obstruction caused by extrinsic compression from an impacted stone in the cystic duct or infundibulum of the gallbladder

30
Q

when do pancreatic pseudocysts usually form after an episode of pancreatitis?

A

> 4 weeks

31
Q

which type of laser is commonly used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease at endoscopy?

A

Argon beam

32
Q

at what day does a burst abdomen following a laparotomy commonly occur?

A

Day 6

33
Q

which condition can cause an anal fissure but is not causative of pruritus ani?

A

tuberculosis

34
Q

what is the triad of symptoms in gastric volvulus?

A

Widespread epigastric pain
Retching but no vomiting
Inability to pass NGT

35
Q

which structure is routinely divided during oesophagectomy?

A

azygous vein

36
Q

is transmural inflammation a feature of UC or crohns?

A

Crohns

37
Q

is contagious inflammation a feature of UC or crohns?

A

UC

38
Q

where in the GI tract is bicarbonate produced?

A

Brunners gland, small intestine