GI Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four main pathogenic types of E. coli?

A

Enterotoxigenic (ETEC), Enteropathogenic (EPEC), Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC), SHIGA TOXIN-producing (STEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three main characteristics of E. coli?

A

Gram negative, Facultative anaerobe, Has flagella (motile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)?

A
  1. Ingestion of fecal material 2. ETEC colonizes the intestinal mucosa 3. ETEC releases endotoxin (LPS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can occur with a serious rapid case of ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)?

A

ETEC can progress so rapidly that death occurs due to shock before the development of diarrhea (called enteric colibacillosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does ETEC cause shock?

A

It is Gram-negative so it has LPS and it can release a lot of that LPS to cause shock (main virulence factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type(s) of E. coli is the most common cause of diarrhea in farm animals (in general)?

A

Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the main virulence factor released by ETEC that causes disease?

A

The release of endotoxins (LPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two major classes of enterotoxins produced by ETEC?

A
  1. Heat stable (ST) comprised of STa and STb 2. Heat labile (LT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does heat stable A (STa) toxin do?

A

It reduces the absorption of electrolytes and water from the intestine at villus tips and elevates secretion of Cl- and H2O by crypt cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does heat stable B (STb) toxin do?

A

It stimulates increase in prostaglandin E2 levels, probably inducing the duodenal and jejunal secretion of water and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which form(s) of E. coli cause neonatal diarrhea in calves?

A

ETEC (enterotoxigenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which form(s) of E. coli cause diarrhea and dysentery in 2-8 week old calves?

A

SHIGA TOXIN-producing (STEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which form(s) of E. coli cause neonatal diarrhea in pigs?

A

ETEC (enterotoxigenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which form(s) of E. coli cause post-weaning diarrhea in pigs?

A

ETEC (enterotoxigenic) and EPEC (enteropathogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which form(s) of E. coli cause edema disease in pigs?

A

ETEC (enterotoxigenic) and EPEC (enteropathogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which form(s) of E. coli cause diarrhea in dogs?

A

EPEC (enteropathogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main virulence factor of EPEC that causes disease?

A

Attaching and Effacing (AE) lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can you diagnose E. coli?

A

PCR, Monoclonal antibody-based techniques, Culture E. coli from blood samples (in cases of suspected septicemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why isn’t the isolation/culture of E. coli from feces useful?

A

Because it is also commonly present in healthy animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

E. coli is the most common cause of diarrhea in what general age of calves?

A

< 10 days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ETEC is the most common cause of diarrhea in what age of calves?

A

< 3 days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EPEC and EHEC are the most common causes of diarrhea in what general age of calves?

A

Slightly older calves (2-30 days but can be up to 4 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for developing E. coli infection in cattle?

A

Failure of passive transfer (insufficient volume and quality of colostrum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False: There is a vaccine for E. coli in cattle

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What should vaccines and antibodies for E. coli contain?
K99 antigen
26
What does E. coli cause in neonatal foals?
Septicemia and diarrhea
27
True or False: E. coli is the primary cause of diarrhea in neonatal foals
False
28
What is the most frequently encountered 'fimbrial adhesin' in pigs?
F18
29
What is the E. coli strain in birds called?
Avian-pathogen E. coli (APEC)
30
Which three diseases can E. coli cause in pigs?
Enteric colibacillosis, Post-weaning diarrhea, Edema disease
31
Which disease caused by ETEC is the most common in neonatal piglets?
Enteric colibacillosis
32
Which disease caused by E. coli is the most common in piglets after 1-2 weeks of weaning?
Post-weaning diarrhea
33
What else can you see with post-weaning diarrhea in piglets (two)?
Neurological disease, Eyelid and forehead swelling
34
What disease does Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) cause in calves?
Diarrhea and dysentery
35
What disease does Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) cause in dogs?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
36
What disease does Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) cause in pigs?
Edema disease (ED)
37
What is the pathogenesis of STEC in dogs (four)?
1. Ingestion 2. Attachment and colonization 3. Toxin production 4. Systemic Effects
38
What is the pathogenesis of STEC in pigs (four)?
1. Ingestion 2. Attachment and colonization 3. Toxin production 4. Systemic Effects
39
What are the classic two virulence factors produced by STEC?
Shiga toxins, Attaching and Effacing (AE) lesions
40
True or False: E. coli can also cause non-enteric infections
True
41
True or False: E. coli affects older animals more harshly
False
42
What are the three main characteristics of Salmonella?
Gram-negative, Facultative anaerobe, Has flagella (motile)
43
True or False: All Salmonella serovars (serotypes) are host specific
False
44
Which serovars of Salmonella are host specific?
Salmonella typhi (humans), Salmonella gallinarum (poultry), Salmonella abortusovis (sheep)
45
Which serovars of Salmonella are not host specific?
Salmonella typhimurium, Salmonella enteritidis
46
What is the pathogenesis of Salmonella?
1. Infects small and large intestine enterocytes 2. Salmonella's flagella allow it to move through the mucus layer to reach the surface of the enterocyte 3. Salmonella attaches to enterocyte cell surface via adhesins 4. Type 3 secretory system injects proteins into the enterocyte that cause it to endocytose the Salmonella into a Salmonella containing vacuole.
47
The lesions and clinical signs of salmonellosis are attributable to which four things?
1. An enterotoxin that disrupts Cl- channels and produces a secretory diarrhea 2. The stimulation of enterocyte death 3. Acute inflammation that can locally cause diarrhea and damages vascular endothelium 4. Endotoxin-induced damage to vascular endothelium
48
What four clinical signs are typical of Salmonella?
1. Vasculitis 2. Thrombosis 3. Ischemia 4. Infarction
49
What are the five clinical forms of Salmonella?
1. Peracute septicemia 2. Acute enteritis 3. Chronic enteritis 4. Infarction 5. Abortion
50
Salmonellosis primarily causes clinical disease in?
Farm animals (can be individual or sporadic outbreak)
51
What does a fecal culture for Salmonella with heavy growth usually indicate?
Infection
52
What does a fecal culture for Salmonella with light growth usually indicate?
Carrier status
53
True or False: Serotype identification can be performed for Salmonella
True
54
What does the isolation of Salmonella from blood or tissues indicate?
Septicemia
55
What does rising titers of Salmonella indicate?
An active infection
56
True or False: Dog and cats rarely get salmonellosis
True
57
True or False: The isolation of Salmonella from the feces of a dog or cat is insufficient to make a diagnosis of salmonellosis
True
58
True or False: Cats and dogs can be Salmonella carriers
True
59
Which three species of Salmonella can infect the oviduct of birds and be transmitted through eggs?
Salmonella pullorum, Salmonella gallinarum, Salmonella enteritidis
60
What disease does Salmonella pullorum cause specifically in birds?
Pullorum disease or Bacillary white diarrhea
61
What disease does Salmonella gallinarum cause specifically in birds?
Fowl typhoid
62
What is paratyphoid?
A non-host adapted Salmonella infection in birds that is usually subclinical
63
Which two strains of Salmonella cause paratyphoid?
Salmonella enteritidis or Salmonella typhimurium
64
What is the most common serotype involved in human cases of salmonellosis due to external contamination of eggs?
S. typhimurium
65
What is the most common serotype involved in human cases of salmonellosis due to internal contamination of eggs?
S. enteritidis
66
What type of Salmonella do reptiles get?
Salmonella arizonae
67
True or False: Salmonella infection in turtles, snakes and lizards have been a source of outbreaks of human infection
True
68
True or False: Reptiles rarely demonstrate any symptoms of Salmonella infection but can become lifelong carriers.
True
69
True or False: Salmonellosis is zoonotic
True
70
What is the biggest risk factor for salmonellosis?
Stress
71
True or False: Carnivores are resistant to Salmonella infections
True
72
What are the main characteristics of Lawsonia intracellularis?
Gram-negative, Obligate intracellular
73
What are the four different forms of Lawsonia intracellularis?
1. Porcine intestinal adenomatosis (PIA) 2. Proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy (PHE) 3. Necrotic enteritis (NE) 4. Regional ileitis (RI)
74
What is PIA characterized by?
The proliferation of glandular epithelium
75
What is PHE characterized by?
The proliferation of intestinal epithelium and blood loss in intestinal lumen
76
What is RI characterized by?
Strong proliferation of the tunica muscularis of the ileum. Also observed in horses, dogs, cats
77
What is the pathogenesis of Lawsonia intracellularis (three)?
1. After ingestion, L. intracellularis arrives in the ileum and will infect the villous crypt cells 2. The intestinal tissue will thicken by proliferation of stem cells in the crypts 3. Finally, the maximally thickened intestinal wall will have a functional loss of the mucosa
78
What might you see in the GI tract of pigs with Lawsonia intracellularis infection (three)?
1. Yellow fibrinonecrotic casts can form in the ileum 2. Hemorrhagic form is characterized by the passage of hemorrhagic or black, tarry feces. 3. Characteristically thickened and corrugated ileum
79
True or False: Lawsonia intracellularis can be diagnosed with a culture
False
80
How can you treat Lawsonia intracellularis in pigs (two)?
Antibiotics, Vaccine
81
True or False: Other species can get Lawsonia intracellularis
True
82
What do you see in horses with infection of Lawsonia intracellularis (four)?
1. Hypoproteinemia 2. Emaciation 3. Thickening of mucosa (jejunum and ileum) 4. Severe hyperplasia of crypt epithelium
83
What are three characteristics of Clostridia species?
Gram-positive, facultative anaerobe, spore forming
84
Clostridium perfringens strains are classified into five toxinotypes based on what?
The production of four major toxins (α, β, ε, ι)
85
What common lesions do you see with Clostridium perfringens?
"Redgut" (the small intestine is reddish-purple and filled with blood)
86
Clostridium perfringens Type A causes which diseases in each species?
Poultry: Necrotic enteritis, Pigs: Necrotizing enterocolitis, Horses: Hemorrhagic mucosal necrosis, Cattle: Enterotoxemia and sudden death
87
What clostridial species produces an enterotoxin CPE that causes disease in humans?
Clostridium perfringens Type A
88
Clostridium perfringens Type D causes which diseases in each species?
Enterotoxemia and pulpy kidney in lambs, calves, goats, horses, and cattle
89
What toxin does Clostridium perfringens Type D produce?
Epsilon toxin (ε)
90
What specific clostridial pathogen is responsible for 25% of cases of antibiotic-associated diarrhea?
Clostridium difficile
91
Which four clinical signs does antibiotic associated diarrhea cause?
Diarrhea, colitis, pseudomembranous colitis, fulminant colitis
92
What does Clostridium difficile cause in neonatal pigs?
Colitis (specifically edema of the spiral colon)
93
How can you determine which clostridial species is causing disease?
Use ELISA to test what type of toxins the species is producing
94
What pathogen causes Tyzzer's disease?
Clostridium piliforme
95
Which two lesions does Tyzzer's disease cause in cats and dogs?
1. Multifocal periportal hepatic necrosis and icterus 2. Necrotic ileitis or colitis
96
What is the biggest risk factor for Clostridia infections?
Dysbiosis (disruption of normal gut flora)
97
How can you diagnose Clostridia infections?
ELISA for toxin detection (gold standard), culture
98
How can you prevent Clostridia infections?
There is a vaccine that protects against 7 types of Clostridium
99
Which pathogen causes swine dysentery?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
100
What is a common clinical sign of swine dysentery?
Very mucousy feces
101
What pathogen causes porcine colonic spirochaetosis (PCS)?
Brachyspira pilosicoli
102
What are characteristics of Campylobacter species?
Gram-negative, microaerophilic, commensals of intestines and reproductive tract
103
Can humans get campylobacteriosis?
Yes
104
What are two characteristics of Yersinia species?
Gram-negative, facultative anaerobes
105
What type of environment do yersiniosis infections occur in?
Cold, wet weather
106
What main disease does Helicobacter cause in dogs?
Chronic gastritis (not 100% proven though)