GI & Liver Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the pathology of Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease?

A
  • An increase in transient lower oesophageal sphincter relaxations (due to reduced tone of LOS) –> results in reflux of gastric acid, pepsin, bile and duodenal contents back into the oesophagus
  • Lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes independently of a swallow, allowing gastric acid etc. to flow back into the oesophagus
  • Prolonged contact of gastric contents with the mucosa results in clinical symptoms
  • this may cause oesophagi’s, stricture (narrowing) or Barrett’s oesophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the causes of GORD?

A

• Acid reflux often happens as the lower oesophageal sphincter become less competent in many cases

This may occur due to:

  • Obesity
  • Hiatus hernia
  • Lower oesophageal sphincter hypotension
  • Loss of oesophageal peristaltic function
  • Overeating
  • Systemic sclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a hiatus hernia?

A

LOS sphincter can’t close properly - (the gastro-oesophageal junction and part of the stomach ‘slides’ up into the chest via the hiatus so that it lies above the diaphragm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the risk factors for GORD?

A
  • Obesity
  • Male
  • Increased abdominal pressure e.g. pregnancy or obesity
  • Smoking
  • Hiatus hernia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the symptoms of GORD?

A
  • Heart burn – burning chest pain
  • Odynophagia – painful swallowing
  • Hoarse throat
  • Wheezing
  • Regurgitation
  • Acidic taste in mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the signs of GORD?

A
  • Chest pain aggravated by bending, stooping and lying

* Nocturnal asthma – due to aspiration of gastric contents into lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of GORD?

A
  • Coronary artery disease (CAD)
  • Biliary colic
  • Peptic ulcer
  • Malignancy

• Usually diagnosed on clinical findings as long as there are no alarm bells e.g. weight loss, haematemesis and dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What investigations are used to diagnose GORD?

A
  • Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (endoscopy) – may show oesophagitis and hiatus hernia
  • 24-hour intraluminal pH monitoring
  • Diagnosis can be made without investigation provided there are no alarm bell signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management of GORD?

A
  • Lifestyle changes – weight loss, stop smoking, small regular meals
  • Antacids e.g. Gaviscon – help relieve symptoms

• Proton pump inhibitor e.g. lansoprazole, omeprazole
- (Inhibit gastric hydrogen release, preventing the production of gastric acid)

• H2 receptor antagonists e.g. cimetidine
- (Blocks histamine receptors on parietal cells reducing acid release)

• Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the complications of GORD?

A

• Barret’s Oesophagus – the epithelium of the oesophagus undergoes metaplasia and changes from squamous to columnar epithelium (with goblet cells)

–> Risk of progressing to oesophageal cancer – premalignant for adenocarcinoma of oesophagus

• Peptic stricture – inflammation of the oesophagus resulting from gastric acid exposure, causing narrowing and stricture of the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss Tear?

A

A linear mucosal tear occurring at the oesophagogastric junction and produced by a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure

• It often follows a bout of coughing or retching and is classically seen after
alcoholic ‘dry heaves’
• Most common in MALES
• Seen mainly in age 20-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the risk factors for Mallory-Weis tear?

A
  • Alcoholism
  • Forceful vomiting
  • Eating disorders
  • Male
  • NSAID abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the pathology of Mallory-Weis tear?

A

• Vomiting, coughing, retching etc.

–> increases intra-abdominal pressure which forces stomach contents into the oesophagus, dilating it and causing a tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does Mallory-Weis present?/ What are the signs and symptoms?

A
  • Vomiting
  • Abdominal pain
  • Haematemesis
  • Retching
  • Postural hypotension
  • Dizziness
  • Melena
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of Mallory-Weis tear?

A
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Peptic ulcer
  • Cancer
  • Oesophageal varices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What investigations are needed to diagnose Mallory-Weis tear?

A

Endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the management of Mallory-Weis tear?

A

• Most bleeds are minor and heal in 24 hours

• Surgery – If surgery is required then it involves the oversewing of the tear but this is
rarely needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Dyspepsia?

A

One of the following:

  • Postprandial (after eating) fullness
  • Early satiation
  • Epigastric pain or burning for more than 4 weeks
  • Affects upto 25% of the population each year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the pathology of dyspepsia?

A
  • Dyspepsia is an inexact term used to describe a number of upper abdominal symptoms such as; heart burn, acidity, epigastric pain or discomfort, fullness or belching
  • Patients may use to the term INDIGESTION to describe their symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the causes of dyspepsia?

A
  • GI tract disorders - functional dyspepsia affects around 75% with no known cause
  • Other causes of dyspepsia are PEPTIC ULCERS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does dyspepsia present?

A
  • Reflux when lying flat
  • Heartburn
  • Acid taste – due to reflux
  • Bloating
  • Indigestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the red flag symptoms for cancer?

A
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • Anaemia
  • Evidence of GI bleeding e.g. melaena (dark tar like black stools) or haematemesis
  • Dysphagia
  • Upper abdominal mass
  • Persistent vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the management of dyspepsia?

A
  • Reassurance
  • Dietary review
  • Endoscopy to find clear picture of whats going on

• Antidepressants e.g. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors e.g. CITALOPRAM (low doses are used to reduce the sensitivity of the gullet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a peptic ulcer?

A
  • A break in the epithelial cells which penetrates down to the muscularis mucosa of either the stomach or duodenum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the epidemiology of peptic ulcers?

A
  • More common in elderly

* More common in developing countries – due to H. Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two types of peptic ulcers?

A
  • Duodenal ulcers most common (90%):

o Relieved by eating
o 2-3 times more common than gastric ulcers

  • Gastric ulcers – (50-80%):

o Worsened by eating, also associated with NSAIDs/aspirin

  • Ulcers are a risk factor for gastric cancer due to chronic inflammation – gastric carcinoma and lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the pathology of peptic ulcers?

A

• Usually gastric mucosa is protected by a layer of mucin that is produced by gastric cells

• Increased acidity overwhelms the protective mucin resulting in mucosal
damage and ulceration

• Ulcers result in gastritis (inflammation of gastric cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the causes of peptic ulcers?

A
  • H.Pylori– most common
  • NSAIDS e.g. aspirin
  • Mucosal Ischaemia
  • Increased acid
  • Bile reflux
  • Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does H.Pylori cause peptic ulcers?

A

o H. Pylori = most common cause

o Lives in gastric mucus

o Secretes urease which splits urea in stomach into CO2 + ammonia

o Ammonia + H+ –> ammonium

o Ammonium, proteases, phospholipases and vacuolating cytotoxin A damages gastric epithelium

o Causes inflammatory response reducing mucosal defense –> mucosal damage

o Also causes increased acid secretion –> Gastrin release (from G cells) –> more acid secretion

o Triggers release of histamine –> more acid secretion

o Increases parietal cells mass –> more acid secretion

o Decreases somatostatin (released from D cells)  more acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do NSAIDS cause peptic ulcers?

A

o NSAIDS e.g. aspirin

o Mucus secretion
stimulated by prostaglandins

o COX-1 needed for prostaglandin synthesis

o NSAIDs inhibit COX-1

o No COX-1 = mucous isn’t secreted

o Reduced mucosal defense –> mucosal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does mucosal ischaemia cause peptic ulcers?

A

o Stomach cells not supplied with sufficient blood

o Cells die off and don’t produce mucin

o Gastric acid attacks those cells

o Cells die –> formation of ulcer

o Treatment - H2 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does increased acid production cause peptic ulcers?

A

o Overwhelms mucosal defence

o Acid attacks mucosal cells

o Cells die –> formation of ulcer

o Stress can increase acid production

o Treatment – PPI and H2 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does bile reflux cause peptic ulcers?

A

o Duodeno-gastric reflux

o Regurgitated bile strips away mucus layer

o Reduced mucosal defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the symptoms of peptic ulcers?

A
  • Acquisition usually asymptomatic (but can cause nausea, vomiting and fever
  • Burning epigastric pain
  • Bloating
  • Vomiting
  • Haematemesis
  • Dyspepsia
  • Nausea
  • Flatulence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the signs of peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • Gastric ulcer pain often occurs when patient is hungry, eating and classically occurs at night, weight loss
  • Duodenal ulcer pain often occurs several hours after meals, weight gain, relieved by eating
  • Anorexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the red flag symptoms for gastric cancer?

A
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • Anaemia
  • Evidence of GI bleeding e.g. melaena or haematemesis
  • Dysphagia
  • Upper abdominal mass
  • Persistent vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the investigations for peptic ulcers?

A
  • Endoscopy with biopsy

o Biopsy urease test e.g. CLO test

o Histology

  • Stool antigen test – for H. Pylori
  • Urea breath test
  • Blood test for IgG antibodies (can be positive for a year after treatment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the management of peptic ulcers?

A
  • Lifestyle management – reduce smoking, reduce stress, drink less
  • Stop NSAIDs

• Antibiotics for H. Pylori - CAP
o Clarithromycin
o Amoxicillin
o PPI e.g. omeprazole

  • Proton pump inhibitors e.g. lansoprazole and omeprazole
  • H2 antagonists e.g. cimetidine to reduce acid release
  • Surgery for complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the complications for peptic ulcers?

A
  • Duodenal ulcers can grow deeper until it hits an artery (most commonly the gastroduodenal artery) –> massive haemorrhage –> shock
  • Perforation – requires immediate surgical consult
  • Obstruction
  • Peritonitis as acid enters peritoneum
  • Acute pancreatitis if ulcer reaches pancreas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is gastritis?

A
  • Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining that is associated with mucosal injury.
  • Gastropathy indicates epithelial cell damage and regeneration WITHOUT inflammation - commonest cause is mucosal damage associated with Aspirin/ NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes gastritis?

A
  • H. Pylori infection – most common
  • Autoimmune gastritis – the cause of pernicious anaemia associated with antibodies to gastric parietal cells and IF
  • Viruses e.g. CMV and HSV
  • Duodenogastric reflux – whereby bile salts enter stomach and damage mucin protection resulting in gastritis
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Mucosal ischaemia
  • Increased acid
  • Aspirin and NSAIDs e.g. naproxen
  • Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is autoimmune gastritis?

A
  • Affects the fundus and body of the stomach –> atrophic gastritis mistakenly destroys a special type of cell (parietal cells) in the stomach –> loss of parietal cells = intrinsic factor deficiency –> in pernicious anaemia (low RBCs due to low B12).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How does Aspirin and NSAIDs cause gastritis?

A

They inhibit prostaglandins (which stimulate mucus production) via the inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase resulting in less mucus production and therefore gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does H.Pylori cause gastritis?

A

o H. Pylori Lives in gastric mucus

o Secretes urease which splits urea in stomach into CO2 + ammonia

o Ammonia + H+ –> ammonium

o Ammonium, proteases, phospholipases and vacuolating cytotoxin A damages gastric epithelium

o Causes inflammatory response reducing mucosal defense

o Also causes increased acid secretion

  • Gastrin release (from G cells) –> more acid secretion
  • Triggers release of histamine –> more acid secretion
  • Increases parietal cells mass –> more acid secretion
  • Decreases somatostatin (released from D cells) –> more acid secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the symptoms of gastritis?

A
  • Epigastric pain
  • Nausea or recurrent upset stomach
  • Vomiting
  • Indigestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the signs of gastritis?

A
  • Loss of appetite
  • Abdominal bloating
  • Haematemesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of gastritis?

A
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • GORD
  • Non-ulcer dyspepsia
  • Gastric lymphoma
  • Gastric carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the investigations for gastritis?

A
  • Endoscopy
  • Biopsy and histology
  • H. Pylori urea breath test
  • H. Pylori stool antigen test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the management of gastritis?

A

• CAP

o Clarithromycin
o Amoxicillin
o PPI e.g. omeprazole

  • H2 antagonists e.g. ranitidine or cimetidine – reduce acid release/ Antacids
  • Prevention – give PPIs alongside NSAIDs – this also prevents bleeding from acute stress ulcers and gastritis often seen with ill patients – especially burn patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is malabsorption?

A

The failures to fully absorb nutrients in the small intestine either because of the destruction to the epithelium or due to a problem in the lumen meaning food cannot be digested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What disorders of the small intestine result in malabsorption?

A
  • Coeliac disease
  • Tropical Sprue
  • Crohn’s
  • Parasitic infection
  • Before malabsorption is diagnosed, insufficient intake must be ruled out to ensure its actually malabsorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the causes of malabsorption?

A
  • Insufficient intake- consider psychosocial cause
  • Defective intraluminal digestion - due to pancreatic insufficiency (pancreatitis) or defective bile secretion
  • Insufficient absorptive area - due to inflammation e.g. Crohn’s
  • Lack of digestive enzymes
  • Disaccharidase deficiency (lactose intolerance)
  • Bacterial overgrowth – brush border damage

• Defective epithelial transport
o Abetalipoproteinemia
o Primary bile acid malabsorption – mutations in bile acid transporter protein

• Lymphatic obstruction

  • Lymphoma
  • TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does cystic fibrosis cause malabsorption?

A
  • Cystic fibrosis results in the blockage of the pancreatic duct due to
    excess mucus meaning enzymes fail to be released.
  • Whereas pancreatitis causes damage to most of the glandular pancreas
    meaning less or no enzymes are released
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How does an insufficient absorptive area arise?

A

o Villi and microvilli produce massive SA to absorb nutrients

o Gluten sensitive enteropathy (Coeliac Disease)
- Villous trophy and crypt hyperplasia

o Crohn’s – typically in terminal ileum
- Inflammatory disease of bowel

o Extensive surface parasitasion
- E.g. Giardia Lamblia
• Parasite eats food
• Metronidazole for a week

o Small intestinal resection or bypass

  • Procedure for morbid obesity
  • Crohn’s disease – coble stone mucosa –> can’t absorb anything
  • Infarcted small bowel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the symptoms of malabsorption?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Steatorrhea
  • Diarrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the signs of malabsorption?

A
  • Anaemia – decreased iron, B12, folate
  • Bleeding disorders – decreased Vitamin K
  • Oedema – decreased protein
  • Metabolic bone disease – decreased vitamin D
  • Neurological features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the investigations for malabsorption?

A
  • FBC
    o Increased/decreased MCV
    o Decreased calcium/iron/B12 and folate
    o Increased INR
  • Stool sample microscopy
  • Coeliac tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A
  • Ingestion of gluten stimulates immune system to attack small intestine –> (due to genetic susceptibility) = inflammation of mucosa of the upper small bowel
  • T-cell mediated autoimmune disease of the small bowel in which PROLAMIN (alcohol-soluble proteins in wheat, barley, rye and oats) intolerance causes VILLOUS ATROPHY + MALABSORPTION
  • Prolamin is a COMPONENT of GLUTEN PROTEIN
  • SUSPECT in ALL with DIARRHOEA, WEIGHT LOSS or ANAEMIA (especially if iron or B12 deficient)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the causes of coeliac disease?

A

• Gluten found in
o Wheat
o Barley
o Rye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the risk factors of coeliac disease?

A
  • Other autoimmune diseases – T1DM, Thyroid diseases, Sjogren’s
  • IgA deficiency
  • Breast feeding
  • Age of introduction into diet
  • Rotavirus infection in infancy increases risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How does coeliac disease present?

A
  • 1/3 are asymptomatic (silent disease) and only detected on routine blood tests (raised MCV)
  • Stinking stools/fatty stools (steatorrhoea)
  • Diarrhoea
  • Abdominal pain
  • Bloating
  • Nausea & vomiting
  • Angular stomatitis - inflammation of one or both corners of mouth
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue
  • Anaemia
  • Osteomalacia - softening of bones due to impaired bone metabolism due to lack of phosphate, calcium and vitamin D leading to OSTEOPOROSIS (40-60% risk in untreated patients leading to fracture risk)
  • Dermatitis hepetiformis - red raised patches, often with blisters that burst on scratching, commonly seen on elbows, knees and buttocks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe the epidemiology of coeliac disease

A
  • Most common age for presentation is 4th to 6th decade
  • For every paediatric case diagnosed there are 9 adult cases
  • Affects males and females equally
  • Affects 1 in 100 individuals in European-derived populations – majority are undiagnosed
  • Presentation is at any age but typically presents infancy (after weaning on to gluten-containing foods) and in adults aged 40-49

• Increasing prevalence
o Change in endoscopic techniques
o Antibody screening
o Increased awareness of spectrum of diversity in presentation of CD

• Associated with other autoimmune conditions e.g. T1DM and thyrotoxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the classification of coeliac disease?

A

• Marsh Classification:

o 0 normal
o 1 raised intra epithelial lymphocytes (IEL)
o 2 raised ILE + crypt hyperplasia
o 3a partial villous atrophy (PVA)
o 3b subtotal villous atrophy (SVA)
o 3c total villous atrophy (TVA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe the pathology of coeliac disease?

A
  • A-gliadin is the toxic portion of gluten and is resistant to proteases in the small intestinal lumen
  • Gliadin binds to secretory IgA in mucosal membrane
  • Gliadin-IgA is transcytosed to the lamina propria via HLA DQ2 and DQ8
  • Gliadin binds to tissue transglutaminase (ttG) and is deaminated which increases its immunogenicity
  • Deaminated gliadin is taken up by macrophages and expressed on MHC II complex
  • T helper cells release inflammatory cytokines and stimulate B cells
  • This causes villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocyte infiltration –> reduced SA to absorb nutrients –> B12, folate and iron cannot be absorbed –> pernicious anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the investigations for coeliac disease?

A
  • Should maintain gluten for at least 6 weeks before testing to get true results:

1) FBC:
• Low Hb
• Low B12
• Low ferritin

2) Duodenal biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis:

• See villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia and increased intraepithelial
white cell count - seen histologically

• All reverse on gluten free diet

3) Serum antibody testing:

  • Indications include; persistent diarrhoea, folate or iron deficiency and a family history of coeliac disease or associated autoimmune disease
  • Most sensitive test (95% sensitive unless patient is IgA deficient)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the treatment/management for coeliac disease?

A
  • Lifelong gluten free diet i.e. no prolamins - use serum antibody testing for monitoring
  • Eliminate wheat, barley and rye - results in days/weeks
  • Dietitian review –> Correction of vitamin and mineral deficiencies e.g. B12, folate, iron, calcium and vitamin D
  • DEXA scan to monitor osteoporotic risk
  • Inform 10% risk in 1st degree relatives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the complications of coeliac disease?

A
  • A few patients do not improve on a strict diet and are said to have non- responsive coeliac disease
  • Anaemia
  • Secondary lactose intolerance = T-cell lymphoma
  • IgA antibodies elevated
  • Vitamin deficiency
  • Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is tropical sprue?

A
  • Severe malabsorption (of two or more substances) accompanied by diarrhoea and malnutrition
  • Occurs in residents or visitors to tropical areas where the diseases in endemic – most of Asia, some Caribbean islands, Puerto Rico and parts of SA
  • Epidemics can break out in villages, affecting thousands at the same time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Describe the pathology of Tropical Sprue

A
  • Partial villous atrophy with malabsorption

* Onset is acute and occurs either a few days or many years after being in the tropics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the causes of tropical sprue?

A
  • Cause is UNKNOWN but is likely to be infective because the disease occurs in epidemics and patients improve on antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the symptoms of tropical sprue?

A
  • Diarrhoea

* Anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the signs of tropical sprue?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Severe malabsorption
  • Abdominal distension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the investigations for tropical sprue?

A
  • Bloods – anaemia due to malabsorption of B12, folate and iron (nutritional deficiency)
  • Jejunal biopsy – abnormal showing partial villous atrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the management of tropical sprue?

A
  • Leave region

* Folic acid daily and tetracycline antibiotic for up to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)?

A

• Two major forms, these are both chronic autoimmune conditions:

1) Ulcerative colitis (UC) - which affects ONLY the COLON
2) Crohn’s disease (CD) - can affect ANY PART of the GI tract (mouth-anus)

• IBD occurs when the mucosal immune system exerts an inappropriate response to luminal antigens, such as bacteria, which may enter the mucosa via a leaky epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is Crohn’s Disease?

A

A chronic inflammatory GI disease characterised by transmural (goes deep into mucosa) granulomatous inflammation affecting ANY part of the gut from mouth to anus (especially in TERMINAL ILEUM and PROXIMAL COLON)

• Unlike in UC, there is unaffected bowel BETWEEN areas of active disease - these are SKIP LESIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Highest incidence and prevalence in Northern Europe, UK and North America
  • F>M
  • Presents mostly at 20-40
  • Smoking increases risk by 3-4 x
  • 1 in 5 patients with CD have a first-degree relative with the disease
  • Presentation mostly at 20-40 yrs
  • Lower incidence than UC per year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe the pathology of Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Originates in mucosa and works through layers of bowel (mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria + fat)
  • Affects any part of gut from mouth to anus – commonly terminal ileum and proximal colon

• Macroscopically
o Skip lesions
o Cobblestone appearance due to ulcers and fissures in mucosa
o Thickened and narrow

• Microscopically
o Transmural – affects all layers of bowels
o Non-caseating granulomas (aggregations of epithelioid histiocytes)
o Goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the risk factors for Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Family history - mutation on NOD2 gene of chromosome 16
  • Smoking
  • Female
  • Chronic stress
  • NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the signs of Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Blood in stool
  • Malabsorption
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Extra-intestinal features

o Erythema nodosum
o Anal fissures
o Episcleritis

CHRISTMAS
•	Cobblestones
•	High temperature
•	Reduced lumen
•	Intestinal fistulae
•	Skip lesions
•	Transmural
•	Malabsorption
•	Abdominal pain
•	Submucosal fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • RLQ abdominal pain (ileum)
  • Fatigue, fever, Nausea, vomiting
  • Tenderness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease?

A

• Alternative causes of diarrhoea should be excluded

o Salmonella spp.
o Giardia intestinalis
o Rotavirus

• Chronic Diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the investigations for Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Tenderness of RIGHT ILIAC FOSSA
  • Colonoscopy – diagnostic
  • Biopsy
  • Barium enema
  • Stool sample – rules out infectious diseases

• FBC
o Raised ESR/CRP white cell count
o Often low Hb due to anaemia

• Faecal calprotectin – indicates IBD but not specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the management of Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Oral corticosteroids e.g. budesonide and prednisolone
  • IV hydrocortisone in severe flare ups

• Add anti-TNF antibodies e.g. Infliximab if no improvement
o Has predisposition for TB – night sweats, haemoptysis (coughing up blood) and weight loss

  • Consider adding azathioprine or methotrexate to remain in remission if there are frequent exacerbations
  • Surgery (80%) – doesn’t cure disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

o Malabsorption:

  • Disease extent
  • Surgical resections

o Obstruction:

  • Abscesses
  • Acute swelling
  • Chronic fibrosis

o Perforation – acute abdomen

o Fistula formation

o Anal

  • Skin tags
  • Fissure
  • Fistula

o Neoplasia – colorectal cancer

  • Systemic – amyloidosis (rare)
  • Resection at worst areas but can result in short bowel syndrome (leading to diarrhoea (since little colon to absorb fluids) and malabsorption lifelong)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Relapsing and remitting inflammatory disorder of the COLONIC MUCOSA UP TO the ILEOCAECAL VALVE
  • Ulcers form along lumen of intestine
  • It may affect just the rectum - proctitis (50%)
  • It may affect the rectum and left colon - left-sided colitis (30%)
  • It may affect the entire colon (entire large bowel) UP TO the ILEOCAECAL VALVE - pancolitis/extensive colitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe the epidemiology of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Highest incidence in Northern Europe, UK and North America
  • Affects males and females equally
  • Presents mostly at 15-30
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Describe the pathology of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Remains in mucosa (does not go through full wall of bowel)
  • Only affects colon

• Macroscopically
o Continuous inflammation (no skip lesions)
o Ulcers
o Pseudo-polyps

• Microscopically
o Mucosal inflammation
o No granulomata
o Depleted goblet cells
o Increased crypt abscesses

• Paneth cells are involved in innate immunity and suggest an inflammatory condition when found in the descending colon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the risk factors for ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Family history
  • NSAIDs – associated with onset of IBD and flares of disease

• Chronic stress and
depression triggers flares

• Smoking relieves UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the symptoms of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • LLQ abdominal pain
  • Fever
  • Diarrhoea with blood and mucus
  • Cramps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the signs of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Rectal tenesmus – incontinence, urgency, bleeding
  • Tender distended abdomen
  • Clubbing
  • Erythema nodusum
ULCERATIONS
• Ulcers
• Large intestine
• Carcinoma – risk of
• Extra-intestinal manifestations – uveitis, erythema nodosum, sclerosing cholangitis
• Remnants of older ulcers - pseudo polyps
• Abscesses in crypts
• Toxic megacolon – risk of
• Inflamed, red, granular mucosa
• Originates at rectum
• Neutrophil invasion
• Stool is bloody and has mucous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for ulcerative colitis?

A

• Alternative causes of diarrhoea should be excluded

o Salmonella spp.
o Giardia intestinalis
o Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the investigations for ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Colonoscopy - diagnostic
  • Biopsy – crypt abscesses
  • Barium enema

• Bloods
o FBC – raised ESR and CRP, low Hb
o Test for pANCA – negative in Crohn’s
o Iron deficiency anaemia

  • Faecal calprotectin
  • Stool sample – rule out infectious causes
  • CT/MRI
  • Abdominal X-ray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the management of ulcerative colitis?

A

• Anti-inflammatory e.g. sulfasalazine – 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) absorbed in small intestine
o Or mesalamine

  • Immunosuppressors – corticosteroids, azathioprine
  • Anti-TNF drugs - infliximab
  • Colectomy with ileo-anal anastamosis indicated in patients with severe UC not responding to treatment
  • Surgery – indicated for severe colitis that fails to respond to treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the complications of ulcerative colitis?

A

• Liver
o Fatty change
o Chronic pericholangitis
o Sclerosing cholangitis

• Colon
o Blood loss
o Toxic dilation
o Colorectal cancer

• Skin
o Erythema nodosum
o Pyoderma gangrenosum

• Joints
o Ankylosing spondylitis
o Arthritis

• Eyes
o Iritis
o Uveitis
o Episcleritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Differentiate between Crohn’s disease + Ulcerative Colitis?

A

PRESENTATION AGE

  • Crohn’s disease: 15-35
  • Ulcerative colitis : Throughout lifespan

SITE OF APPEARANCE

  • Crohn’s disease: Mouth to anus
  • Ulcerative colitis: Colonic, rectal mucosa

TYPE OF LESION

  • Crohn’s disease: Transmural inflammation
  • Ulcerative colitis: Superficial ulcers

MICROSCOPIC FINDINGS

  • Crohn’s disease - Non-caseeating granulomas
  • Ulcerative colitis - crypt ulcers, abcesses

CHARACTERISTIC PATTERN

  • Crohn’s disease - skip lesions
  • Ulcerative colitis - continuous lesions

CHARACTERISTIC APPEARANCE

  • Crohn’s disease -Cobblestone pattern, creeping fat, string sign on barium x-rays
  • Ulcerative colitis - Loss of haustra on imaging (lead pipe appearance), friable mucosa

CLINICAL PRESENTATION

  • Crohn’s disease - right lower quadrant pain fistulas, phelgom
  • Ulcerative colitis - left lower quadrant pain, gross bleeding

DISEASE MECHANISM

  • Crohn’s disease - transmural inflammation along GI tract
  • Ulcerative colitis - destruction of colonic mucosa, submucosa

TREATMENT

  • Crohn’s disease - corticosteroids, azathioprine, metronidazol, infliximab, adalimumab
  • Ulcerative colitis - mesalamine, infliximab, surgical resection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

A

IBS denotes a mixed group of abdominal symptoms for which no organic cause can
be found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the epidemiology of IBS?

A
  • Age of onset <40
  • F>M
  • Common in Western world – affects 1 in 5
  • Symptoms are exacerbated by stress, food, gastroenteritis or menstruation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Describe the pathology of IBS?

A
  • Dysfunction in the brain-gut axis results in disorder of intestinal motility and/or enhances visceral sensitivity
  • Recurrent abdominal pain with NO inflammation
  • 3 types

1) BS-C – with constipation
2) IBS-D – with diarrhoea
3) IBS-M – with constipation and diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the causes of IBS?

A
  • Psychosocial – stress, depression, anxiety
  • Psychological stress and trauma
  • GI infection - gastroenteritis
  • Sexual, physical or verbal abuse
  • Eating disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the risk factors for IBS?

A
  • Female
  • Stress
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Previous severe and long diarrhoea
  • High hypo-chondrial anxiety and neurotic score at time of initial illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the symptoms of IBS?

A
  • Abdominal pain relieved by defecating or passing of wind
  • Bloating
  • Alternating bowel habits
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the signs of IBS?

A
  • Mucus in stools
  • Change in stool frequency
  • Change in stool consistency
  • Sensation of incomplete emptying
  • Urgency
  • Worsening symptoms after food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of IBS?

A
  • Coeliac disease

* Lactose intolerance – especially in IBS-D, bile acid malabsorption, IBD or colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the investigations for IBS?

A

• Since there is nothing physical to be found, diagnosis made by ruling out the differentials

• Bloods
o FBC – for anaemia
o ESR and CRP – biomarkers for inflammation (IBD)
o Coeliac serology for EMA and tTG – if either positive –> high chance of coeliac disease

  • Faecal calprotectin – raised in IBD
  • Colonoscopy – to rule out IBD or colorectal cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the management of of IBS?

A

• Lifestyle modification – fluids, avoid caffeinated drinks, alcohol and fizzy drinks, fibre (in wind and bloating NOT diarrhoea and bloating)

• Treat symptoms
o Pain/bloating – Buscopan
o Constipation – laxative e.g. Senna
o Diarrhoea – anti-motility e.g. Loperamide

• If none of the above work - amitriptyline (tricyclic antidepressant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the three main symptoms for detecting IBS?

A

If patient reports any of ABC:

  • A - Abdominal pain or discomfort - B - Bloating
  • C - Change in bowel habit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the red flag symptoms for cancer?

A
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • PR bleed/blood in stool
  • Family history of bowel or ovarian cancer
  • Change in bowel habit and aged over 50
  • Nocturnal symptoms
  • Rectal or abdominal mass
  • Anaemia
  • Raised inflammatory markers - IBD
  • If any found then refer to secondary care for further investigations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Compare Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) with Irritable bowel disease (IBD)?

A
  • IBS - Normal investigation results
  • IBD - Abnormal investigation results
  • IBS - Persistent/fluctuating symptoms
  • IBD - Persistent/fluctuating symptoms
  • IBS - Wouldn’t really get fever
  • IBD - More likely to get fever
  • IBS - No symptoms outside GI tract
  • IBD - Symptoms outside GI tract
  • IBS - No blood in stool
  • IBD - Blood in stools
  • IBS - No Melena
  • IBD - Meleana - black poo, indicative of blood higher up in tract
  • Both = food triggers
  • IBS - No weight loss
  • IBD - Weight loss
  • IBS - No mouth ulcers
  • IBD - Mouth ulcers
  • IBS - Constipation more common
  • IBD - Constipation but less common than in IBS
  • IBS - Exacerbated by stress
  • IBD - Can also be exacerbated by stress
  • IBS - Bloating
  • IBD - Bloating much less common than in IBS
  • IBS can also mimic ovarian cancer in middle aged (50s) women.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What bacteria are found in GI tract?

A
  • > 400species (around 100 trillion micro-organisms)
  • Predominantly anaerobes
  • The GI microbiome weighs more than your brains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the point of the microbiome?

A
  • Gastric acid kills most swallowed pathogens
  • Bacteria are protective against luminal infection HOWEVER can also be pathogenic if in the wrong part of the peritoneum
  • The microbiome is protective against “against invaders” but is vulnerable to systemic antibiotics

• Less gastric acid or
broad-spectrum antibiotics –> increased risk of intra-luminal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is Diarrhoea?

A
  • Abnormal passage of loose or liquid stool more than 3 times daily
  • Acute – lasts less than 2 weeks
  • Chronic – lasts more than 2 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the mechanisms of Diarrhoea?

A

1) Sudden onset of watery bowel frequency associated with crampy abdominal pains and a fever = INFECTIVE CAUSE (proximal small bowel)
2) Bowel frequency with loose, mucoid, blood-stained stools = INFLAMMATORY CAUSE (colon)
3) Passage of pale, offensive stools that float often accompanied by a loss of appetite and weight loss = STEATORRHEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the causes of diarrhoea?

A

1) Viral

o Most cases caused by viruses e.g. rota/norovirus

2) Bacterial

o	Campylobacter
o	Shigella
o	Salmonella
o	C.perfringens
o	S.aureus
o	B.cereus
o	E.coli
o	C.diff

o Parasites (e.g. giardia, cryptosporidium)

3) Children – rotavirus
4) Adults – norovirus, campylobacter

5) Antibiotics – these can give rises to antibiotic induced C. Diff diarrhoea
o Rule of C’s: 
- Clindamycin
- Ciprofloxacin (quinolones)
- Co-amoxiclav (penicillins)
- Cephalosporins 
(particularly 2nd and 3rd generation)

6) Infective
o Intraluminal infection
o Systemic infections e.g. sepsis, malaria

7) Non-infective

o Cancer
o Chemical e.g. poisoning, sweeteners, side effects
o IBS/malabsorption
o Endocrine e.g. T4
o Radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the risk factors for diarrhoea?

A

• Immunosuppressed

o Particularly to:

  • Cryptosporidium
  • Mycobacteria
  • Microsporidia
  • CMV
  • HSV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the first line investigation for diarrhoea?

A

• HISTORY IS KEY

o Onset/duration

  • Acute – viral/bacterial
  • Chronic – parasites and non-infectious

o Family History

o Characteristics of stool

1) Floating – fat content, malabsorption/coeliac
2) Blood or mucus – inflammatory, invasive infection, cancer
3) Watery small bowel infection

o Food/drink

  • Dodgy takeaways – food poisoning
  • Meat/BBQs – campylobacter
  • Poultry – salmonella

o Travel

  • No cholera in UK
  • Foreign travel?
  • Very common and self-limiting

o Immunocompromised e.g. HIV, diabetes, chemo, transplant, steroids – crypto, CMV etc.

o Unwell contacts – more likely to be infective

o Fresh water/swimming – cryptosporidian, giardia

o Animals

  • Reptiles – salmonella
  • Puppies – campylobacter

o Medications – recent antibiotics
- C diff. or side effects

o Any neuro signs

  • Clostridium botunilum (descending weakness)
  • C. jejuni –> GBS 1-3 weeks after diarrhoeal episode (ascending weakness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the 2nd line investigations/after history?

A

• Stool tests

o Stool culture
o Faecal calprotectin  
o Faecal occult blood
o Microscopy
o Ova, cysts and parasites
o Toxin detection

• Blood tests

o FBC
o Inflammatory markers (FBC/CRP)
o Blood culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is infective diarrhoea?

A
  • 2nd leading cause of death in children globally – after pneumonia
  • Highest prevalence in S. Asia and Africa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the causes of infective diarrhoea?

A
  • Enterotoxigenic E.coli (30-70%)
  • Campylobacter (5-20%)
  • Shigella (5-20%)
  • Non-typhoidal Salmonella (5%)
  • V.parahaemolyticus (shellfish)
  • Viral (10-20%)
• Cholera
o Vibrio cholerae
o Contaminated food/water
o Cholera toxin
o Profuse watery “rice water” diarrhoea --> up to 20L a day
o Vomiting
o Rapid dehydration
o Doxycycline and fluids
• Parasites
o Protozoal (5-10% more chronic) 
- Cyrpto
- Giardia
- Entamoeba

o Worms

  • Schistosomiasis
  • Strongyloides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the risk factors for infective diarrhoea?

A
  • Foreign travel
  • PPI or H2 antagonist use
  • Crowded area
  • Poor hygiene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the symptoms of infective diarrhoea?

A
  • Recurrent diarrhoea
  • Vomiting and nausea
  • Fever
  • Fatigue
  • Muscle pain
  • Steatorrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for infective diarrhoea?

A
  • Appendicitis
  • IBD
  • UTI
  • Coeliac Disease
  • Volvulus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the investigations for infective diarrhoea?

A
• Diagnosis - 3 or more unformed stools per day plus one of the following:
o Abdominal pain
o Cramps
o Nausea
o Vomiting
o Dysentery

• Blood – suggests bacteria
o E. Coli and Shigella ALL cause bloody stools

  • Stool sample
  • If chronic, sigmoidoscopy and bloods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the management of infective diarrhoea?

A
  • Rehydration
  • Antibiotics – metronidazole or oral vancomycin
  • Barrier nursing – side room, gloves and apron

• Fluids + electrolytes monitoring and replacement
o E.g. oral rehydration sachets
o IV replacement

  • Antiemetics – treat vomiting e.g. metoclopramide
  • Antimotility agents – NOT IN INFLAMMATORY DIARRHOEA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are Diarrhoea Red Flags?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Renal failure
  • Immunocompromise
  • Severe abdominal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are cancer risk factors?

A
  • Over 50
  • Chronic diarrhoea
  • Weight loss
  • Blood in stool
  • FH cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the epidemiology of colorectal cancer?

A
  • 3rd most common cancer worldwide
  • Usually adenocarcinoma

• Majority occur in distal colon
o More distal the cancer, the more visible blood and mucus will be

  • Majority of presentations >60
  • M>F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A
  • Increasing Age
  • Family history

• Genetic predisposition
o Familial adenomatous polyposis
- Apc bound to GSK
- Beta catenin binds apc complex in high levels of apc
- In mutations, apc protein misfolded so can’t bind to beta catenin
- Beta catenin able to move into nucleus –> endothelial proliferation –> adenoma

o Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)

  • Normally two DNA protein repair genes
  • Some individuals born with just one which leaves them susceptible
  • Colorectal
  • Ulcerative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the pathology of colorectal cancer?

A

• Progression

o Normal epithelium (prevention) –> adenoma (endoscopic resection) –> colorectal adenocarcinoma (surgical resection)–> metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma (chemotherapy palliative care)

  • Nearly all are adenocarcinoma (+RECTAL)
  • Polypoid mass with ulceration
  • Spreads by direct infiltration through the bowel wall then spread to lymphatic and blood vessels and metastasise to liver and lung
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the staging and prognosis of colorectal cancer?

A
  • R0 – tumour completely excised locally
  • R1 – microscopic involvement of margin by tumour
  • R2 – macroscopic involvement of margin by tumour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the Duke stage: criteria?

A
  • A – 95% 5 year survival, limited to muscularis mucosae (mucosa)
  • B - 75% 5 year survival, traverses bowel lining and into submucosa (not lymph)
  • C - 35% 5 year survival, involvement of regional lymph nodes
  • D - 25% 5 year survival – metastatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the presentation of colorectal cancer?

A
• Right-sided carcinoma
o Usually asymptomatic until they present with iron deficiency anaemia due to bleeding
o May present with a mass
o Weight loss
o Abdominal pain
• Left sided and sigmoid carcinoma
o Change in bowel habit with blood and mucus in stools
o Diarrhoea
o Alternation constipation and diarrhoea
o Thin/altered stool

• Rectal carcinoma
o Rectal bleeding and mucus
o When cancer grows, it will have thinner stools and tenesmus (cramping rectal pain)

• Emergency
o Obstruction
- Absolute constipation
- Colicky abdominal pain
- Abdominal distension
- Vomiting (faeculent)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of colorectal cancer?

A

• Anorectal pathology
o Haemorrhoids
o Anal fissue
o Anal prolapse

• Colonic pathology
o Diverticular disease
o Irritable bowel disease (IBD)
o Ischaemic colitis

• Small intestine and stomach pathology
o Massive upper GI bleed – haematochezia
o Meckel’s diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are the investigations for colorectal cancer?

A

• Colonoscopy – gold standard

• Digital Rectal exam
o 38% of colorectal cancers can be detected by DRE

• Double contrast barium enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the management of colorectal cancer?

A
  • Surgery
  • Endoscopic stenting
  • Radiotherapy
  • Chemo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Describe the epidemiology of oesophageal cancer?

A
  • 6th most common cancer worldwide
  • Squamous cell carcinoma occurs in middle third (40%) and upper third (15%) of the oesophagus

• Adenocarcinomas occur in lower third of
oesophagus and cardia of stomach and account for majority of oesophageal tumours (45%)

  • Presents mostly between 60-70
  • More common in males
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the causes of squamous cell carcinomas?

A
o High levels of alcohol consumption
o Achalasia – disorder where oesophagus has reduced/no ability to do peristalsis and transport food down
o Tobacco use
o Obesity – since this increases reflux
o Smoking
o Low fruit and veg consumption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are the causes of Adenocarcinoma?

A
o GORD
o Smoking
o Obesity
o Achalasia
o Barrett’s oesophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the pathology of Oesophageal Cancer?

A
  • Oesophagus lined by squamous epithelium
  • Stomach lined by columnar glandular epithelium
  • Oesophageal epithelium undergoes metaplasia (change in differentiation of a cell from one fully-differentiated type to a different fully-differentiated type) to stomach epithelium
  • SCC in upper 2/3rds
  • Adenocarcinoma in lower 1/3rd
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are the symptoms of Oesophageal Cancer?

A

• Pain – due to impaction of food or infiltration of cancer into adjacent structures

• Dysphagia – difficulty swallowing solids at first then fluids
o If there is dysphagia to solids AND liquids from start this indicates benign disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the signs of Oesophageal Cancer?

A
  • Majority have no physical signs – detectable when advanced
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What are the investigations for Oesophageal Cancer?

A
  • Oesophagoscopy with biopsy
  • Barium swallow – to see strictures
  • CT/MRI/PET for tumour staging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Benign Oesophageal Tumours?

A
  • Account for 1% of oesophageal tumours
  • Leiomyomas most common
  • Papillomas
  • Fibrovascular polyps
  • Haemangiomas
  • Lipomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are the symptoms of Benign Oesophageal Tumours?

A
  • Usually asymptomatic – usually found incidentally on barium swallowing
  • Dysphagia
  • Retrosternal pain
  • Food regurgitations
  • Recurrent chest infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are the investigations for Benign Oesophageal Tumours?

A
  • Endoscopy
  • Barium swallowing
  • Biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is the management of Benign Oesophageal Tumours?

A
  • Endoscopic removal

* Surgical of larger tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the epidemiology of SI cancer?

A
  • 1% of all malignancies
  • Adenocarcinoma most common
  • Lymphomas (NHL) most frequently found in the ileum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are the risk factors for SI cancer?

A
  • Family history
  • Coeliac Disease
  • Crohn’s Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the symptoms of SI cancer?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are the signs of SI cancer?

A
  • Anorexia
  • Anaemia
  • Palpable mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are the investigations of SI cancer?

A
  • Ultrasound
  • Endoscopic biopsy
  • CT/MRI scan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is the management of SI cancer?

A
  • Surgical resection

* Radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Describe the epidemiology of gastric cancer?

A
  • Falling incidence
  • Mainly affects Eastern Europe and Asia
  • Affects more males than females
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the causes of gastric cancer?

A

o Unknown

o Smoking

o H/ Pylori increases risk at population level
–>Increases risk of peptic ulcers –> gastric cancer

• Affects more males than females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What signs/symptoms does gastric cancer present with?

A

o Epigastric pain – constant and severe

o Vomiting, nausea, anorexia

o Weight loss

o Dysphagia – if tumour is in fundus

o Anaemia from occult blood loss

o Liver metastasis –> jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What investigations should take place to diagnose gastric cancer?

A

o Gastroscopy with biopsy
o Endoscopic ultrasound
o CT/MRI
o PET scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is the management of gastric cancer?

A

o Nutritional support

o Surgery and combination chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the variations in adenocarcinoma?

A

• Early

o Can be classified as early gastric cancer even when it reaches lymph nodes

o 90% 5 year survival rates

• Late

o 60% - 5 year survival rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the investigations for Liver Cancer (Hepatocellular Carcinoma)?

A
• CT/MRI liver
• Biopsy
• Raised AFP
• Bloods
o Clotting abnormalities
o Deranged LFTs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the management of Liver cancer?

A
  • Surgical resection
  • Radiofrequency ablation
  • TACE, chemotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the epidemiology of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • 99% of pancreatic cancer occurs in exocrine component of pancreas
  • UK incidence rising
  • More common in males
  • Typically presents >60
  • Majority are adenocarcinoma and are of ductal origin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Smoking
  • Excessive alcohol or coffee intake
  • Excessive use of aspirin
  • Diabetes
  • Chronic pancreatitis
  • Family history
  • Genetic mutations – presence of PRSS-1 mutation
163
Q

What is the pathology of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Originates in ductal epithelium and evolves from pre-malignant lesions to full-invasive cancer
  • 60% arise in pancreatic head
  • 25% arise in body
  • 15% arise in tail
164
Q

What does pancreatic cancer present with?

A
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
  • Acute pancreatitis

• Body and tail of pancreas
o Epigastric pain that radiates to back
o Relieved by sitting forward

• Head of pancreas
o Painless jaundice
o Weight loss

165
Q

What are the investigations for pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Abdominal ultrasound or CT

* Biopsy

166
Q

What is the management of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Surgery

* Palliative therapy

167
Q

What are the 3 causes of liver Abcess?

A

Bacterial, Amoebic, and Hyatid

168
Q

How is a bacterial liver abcess caused?

A

Faecal flora e.g.E.Coli, Klebsiella spp etc.

169
Q

How can a liver abcess be caused by Amoeba?

A
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • RUQ pain, fever, “PUO”
  • Seen on ultrasound or CT
  • Treatment = Antibiotics and drainage
170
Q

How can a liver abcess be caused by Hyatid?

A
  • Echinococcus granulosa (Dog tapeworm)
  • Insidious RUQ pain, eosinophilia
  • Rupture –> anaphylactic shock
  • Albendazole and PAIR (drainage)
171
Q

Define intestinal obstruction

A

Arrest/blockage of onward propulsion of intestinal contents

172
Q

Describe the epidemiology of intestinal obstruction

A

Small bowel - 75%

Large bowel - 25%

o One of the common causes of hospital admission

o True incidence not known

  • 5-20% emergency general surgical admission
  • US 12-16% surgical admission

o Early prompt diagnosis and treatment has excellent outcomes

o Mortality
- Untreated strangulated obstruction – 100%

  • Strangulated small
    bowel treated >36 hours = 25%
  • Strangulated small bowel treated <36 hours =8%
  • Mechanical large bowel obstruction 20%
  • If perforated 40%
  • Non-mechanical (pseudo) obstruction – 15-30%
173
Q

What is an intestinal obstruction in relation to the gut?

A
  • Gut – mouth to anus
  • Intestinal obstruction – blockage to the lumen of gut

o Commonly refers to blockage of intra-abdominal part of intestine

174
Q

What is a volvulus?

A

A twist/rotation of segment of bowel

175
Q

What is an adhesion?

A

o Abdominal structures sticking to one other

  • Bowel loops or omentum
  • Other solid organs
  • Abdominal wall
176
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Part of the intestine slides into an adjacent part of the intestines (telescoping)–> one hollow structure into its distal hollow structure.

177
Q

How is intestinal obstruction classified?

A
  • According to site – large bowel/small bowel/gastric
  • Extent of luminal obstruction – partial/complete
• According to mechanism
o  Mechanical/true (intraluminal/extraluminal)
o  Paralytic (pseudo obstruction)
- Failure of peristalsis
- No mechanical obstruction
• According to pathology
o	Simple 
o	Closed loop
o	Strangulation
o	Intussusception
178
Q

What are the causes of of Paralytic (pseudo obstruction)?

A
  • Drugs, post op, trauma, intra-a sepsis
  • Unclear mechanism
  • Neural – increased SNS discharge
  • Toxins
  • Metabolic distension

• Signs
- Usually causes painless distension

179
Q

What are the causes of simple intestinal obstruction?

A
o	Crohn’s
o	Adhesions
o	Malignancy
o	Diverticulitis
o	Volvulus
o	Hernias
o	Hirschsprung’s disease
180
Q

What are the causes of intestinal obstruction in the lumen of the gut?

A

o Tumours

  • Carcinoma
  • Lymphoma

o Diaphragm disease - NSAIDs cause repeated ulceration then fibrosis

o Gallstone ileus – rare form of small bowel obstruction caused by an impaction of a gallstone within the lumen

o Meconium ileus – in neonates, content of bowel is sticky –> blockage

181
Q

What are the causes of intestinal obstruction in the wall of the gut?

A

o Tumours

o Crohn’s – inflammation, fibrosis and contraction

o Diverticulitis – outpouchings in the sigmoid

  • Usually occurs in sigmoid colon
  • Diverticular pouchings form at gaps in the wall of the gut where blood vessels penetrate
  • In a low fibre diet, the colon must push harder to move things along (fibre helps gut motility) so pressure increases
  • This can get inflamed or burst resulting in acute peritonitis and death

o Hirschsprung’s – ganglion cells

  • Developmental abnormality where neonates born without complete innervation of colon to rectum
  • Dilated upper bowel
  • Ganglionic segment at sigmoid responsible for contraction of bowel
  • Aganglionic segments can’t contract –> bowel obstruction
182
Q

What are the causes from outside of the wall of the gut?

A

o Tumours – disseminated malignancy of peritoneum
- Ovarian cancer can spread into peritoneum

o Adhesions – fibrosis after surgery

  • Post-surgery
  • Fibrous connections between loops of small bowel –> bowel becomes kinked
  • Corrected surgically

o Volvulus – sigmoid colon has a “floppy” mesentery

  • Sigmoid colon can twist
  • Causes obstruction of the sigmoid
  • If there is ischaemia and infarction, sigmoid colon is resected
183
Q

What are the symptoms of intestinal obstruction?

A
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
• Vomiting
o Nature
- Forceful
- Regurgitation
o Content
- Bilious
- Faeculant – can occur in small bowel, brewing for a long time
- Coffee ground/altered blood

• Abdominal pain – mechanical
o SOCRATES

• Distension/swelling
o More proximal less distension
o Smaller the loop, lesser the swelling initially
o Swelling – hernia –> obstruction

• Altered bowel habits
o Constipation – not moving bowels, can pass wind
o Obstipation – can’t pass faeces or wind

184
Q

What are the signs of intestinal obstruction?

A
  • Tinkling bowel sounds

* Tympanic percussion

185
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Small Bowel Obstruction?

A

• 60-75% of intestinal obstruction

186
Q

What are the causes of Small Bowel Obstruction?

A

1) Adhesions

o Usually secondary to previous abdominal surgery
- Elective/emergency

o Increased incidence

  • Pelvic surgery
  • Gynae surgery
  • Colorectal surgery

o Can occur

  • As early as 3-4 weeks
  • Usually few years

2) Hernia – abnormal protrusion of an organ or tissue out of the body cavity in which it normally lies

o Untreated can result in strangulation

3) Malignancy
4) Crohn’s

187
Q

Describe the pathology of small bowel obstruction?

A
  • Mechanical obstruction is most common e.g. adhesions, hernia and Crohn’s
  • Obstruction of the bowel –> bowel distension above the block with increased secretion of fluid into the distended bowel

• Also leads to proximal dilatation resulting in
o Increased secretions and swallowed air in small bowel

o Obstruction –> More dilatation –> decreased absorption and mucosal wall oedema
o Increased pressure with intramural vessels becoming compressed –> ischaemia and/or perforation

• Untreated obstruction leads to
o Ischaemia
o Necrosis
o Perforation

188
Q

What are the symptoms of small bowel obstruction?

A

• Pain – initially colicky (starts and stops then diffuse)
o Pain is higher in abdomen than in LBO

  • Vomiting following pain – occurs earlier in SBO compared to LBO
  • Nausea
  • Anorexia
189
Q

What are the signs of small bowel obstruction?

A
  • Obstipation - constipation with no passage of wind
  • Increased bowel sounds
  • Tympanic percussion
  • Tenderness – suggests strangulation
  • Less distension as compared to LBO (since more distal the obstruction, the greater the distension)
190
Q

What are the investigations for small bowel obstruction?

A
  • Abdominal X-ray – shows central gas shadow that completely cross the lumen and no gas in large bowel
  • Abdominal CT
  • FBC
191
Q

What is the investigation of small bowel obstruction?

A
  • Aggressive fluid resuscitation
  • Bowel decompression
  • Analgesia and anti-emetic
  • Antibiotics
  • Surgery
192
Q

Describe the epidemiology of large bowel obstruction?

A

• Less common - ~ 25% of all intestinal obstruction
• Acute presentation – on average 5 days of symptoms
o Large bowel has a larger lumen as well as circular and longitudinal muscles –> the ability of large bowel to distend is much greater –> symptoms present slower and later than in SBO

193
Q

What are the causes of large bowel obstruction?

A
  • Colorectal malignancy – most common

* Volvulus (twist/rotation of segment of bowel)

194
Q

Describe the pathology of large bowel obstruction?

A
  • Colon proximal to obstruction dilates
  • Increased colonic pressure and decreased mesenteric blood flow –> mucosal oedema (transudation of fluid and electrolytes from lumen)
  • This can compromise the arterial blood supply and also cause mucosal ulceration –> full thickness necrosis and perforation

• Colonic volvulus
o Axis rotation based off mesentery and a 360˚ twist –> closed loop obstruction

o Fluid and electrolytes shift into closed loops –> increased pressure and tension in the loop causing impaired colonic blood flow

o Leads to ischaemia, necrosis and perforation of loop of bowel if untreated

195
Q

What are the symptoms of large bowel obstruction?

A
  • Abdominal pain – more constant than in SBO

* Vomiting – more faecal like

196
Q

What are the signs of large bowel obstruction?

A
  • Abdominal distension
  • Palpable mass – hernia, distended bowel loop or caecum
  • Constipation
  • Fullness/bloating
197
Q

What are the investigations for large bowel obstruction?

A

• Abdominal X-ray – peripheral gas shadows proximal to the blockage

• DRE
o Empty rectum
o Hard stools
o Blood

  • FBC – low Hb (sign of chronic occult blood loss)
  • CT/MRI
198
Q

What is the management of large bowel obstruction?

A
  • Aggressive fluid resuscitation
  • Bowel decompression
  • Analgesia and anti-emetic
  • Antibiotics
  • Surgery
199
Q

Define Hernia?

A

Protrusion of organ or tissue out of the body cavity it normally lies in.

200
Q

What are the 3 classes of Hernias?

A

1) Reducible hernia – can be pushed back into abdominal cavity with manual manoeuvring
2) Irreducible – cannot be pushed back in

o Obstructed – intestine is obstructed within hernia due to pressure from edges of hernia – but blood flow is maintained

o Incarcerated – contents of hernial sac are stuck inside by adhesions e.g. adhesions between the intestines and hernial sac

3) Strangulated – blood supply of the sac is cut off resulting in ischaemia
o ± gangrene/perforation of hernial contents

201
Q

What are the causes of hernia?

A

• Muscle weakness
o Age
o Trauma

• Body strain
o Constipation
o Heavy lifting
o Pregnancy
o Chronic cough
202
Q

Define Inguinal hernia?

A

Protrusion of abdominal cavity contents through inguinal canal

203
Q

Describe the epidemiology of an Inguinal hernia?

A
  • Commonest type of hernia
  • More common in males
  • Two types – direct and indirect
  • Account for ~70% of all abdominal hernias
  • Most common in men over 40
204
Q

What are the risk factors for an inguinal hernia?

A
  • Male
  • Chronic cough
  • Constipation
  • Heavy weight lifting
  • Ascites
205
Q

What is the inguinal canal?

A

• The inguinal canal is a:

o Short passage that extends medially and inferiorly through inferior part of abdominal wall

o Extends from deep inguinal ring to superficial ring

o Acts as a pathway by which structures can pass from abdominal wall to external genitalia

o It is a potential weakness in abdominal wall and therefore common site of herniation

206
Q

Describe the pathology of an inguinal hernia?

A

• Direct – less common (20%)
o Protrudes directly into the inguinal canal
o Medial to inferior epigastric vessels
o Rarely strangulates

• Indirect – more common (80%)
o Protrudes through the deep inguinal ring
o Lateral to inferior epigastric vessels
o Can strangulate

207
Q

What are the symptoms of an inguinal hernia?

A

• Usually asymptomatic – if painful then indicates strangulation

208
Q

What are the signs of an inguinal hernia?

A
  • Bulging – associated with coughing or straining (bowel movements, heavy lifting)
  • Appearance of lump
209
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of an inguinal hernia?

A
  • Femoral hernia
  • Epididymitis
  • Testicular torsion
  • Groin abscess
  • Aneurysms
  • Hydrocele (the accumulation of serous fluid in a body sac).
  • Undescended testes
210
Q

What are the investigations for an inguinal hernia?

A

• Look for lump

211
Q

What is the management of an inguinal hernia?

A
  • Medically – use of truss to contain and prevent further progression of hernia
  • Surgery
212
Q

Define femoral hernia?

A

Bowel comes through the femoral canal below inguinal ligament

213
Q

Describe the epidemiology of femoral hernia?

A
  • Less common than inguinal hernia
  • More common in females
  • Occur in middle age and elderly
214
Q

Describe the pathology of a femoral hernia?

A
  • Bowel enters the femoral canal, presenting as a mass in the upper medial thigh or above the inguinal ligament where it points down the leg, unlike an inguinal hernia which points to the groin
  • Likely to be irreducible and to strangulate due to the rigidity of the canal’s borders

• The neck of the hernia is felt inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle
o Inguinal hernias are superior and medial to this point

215
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for a femoral hernia?

A
  • Inguinal hernia
  • Lipoma
  • Femoral aneurysm
  • Psoas abscess
  • Saphena varix – dilation of saphenous vein at junction of femoral vein in groin
216
Q

What is the management of a femoral hernia?

A
  • Surgical repair
  • Herniotomy – ligation and excision of sac/ the operation of cutting through a band of tissue that constricts a strangulated hernia.
217
Q

What is a hiatus hernia?

A

Part of the stomach herniates through the oesophageal hiatus of diaphragm

218
Q

Describe the epidemiology of a hiatus hernia?

A

• 30% of patients >50

219
Q

What are the risk factors of a hiatus hernia?

A

• Obesity

220
Q

What are the types of hiatus hernia?

A

• Sliding:
o Oesophageal-gastric junction slides through the hiatus and lies above the diaphragm
o No symptoms other than reflux symptoms

• Rolling/Para-oesophageal:
o Uncommon – gastric fundus rolls up through hiatus alongside the oesophagus
o Therefore, the gastro-oesophageal junction remains below the level of the diaphragm
o Treated via surgery

221
Q

What are the symptoms of hiatus hernia?

A

• Symptomatic GORD

222
Q

What are the investigations of a hiatus hernia?

A
  • Barium swallow – confirms diagnosis

* Upper GI endoscopy

223
Q

What is the management of a hiatus hernia?

A
  • Lose weight
  • Treat reflux symptoms
  • Surgery – to prevent strangulation
224
Q

What is Ischaemic colitis?

A

Ischemic colitis occurs when blood flow to part of the large intestine (colon) is temporarily reduced, usually due to constriction of the blood vessels supplying the colon or lower flow of blood through the vessels due to low pressures.

225
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Ischaemic colitis?

A
  • Most commonly affects elderly

* Related to underlying atherosclerosis and vessel occlusion

226
Q

Describe the pathology of Ischaemic colitis?

A
  • Occlusion of a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or inferior mesenteric artery
  • Results in a watershed area of the colon – most commonly at the splenic flexure
227
Q

What are the causes of Ischaemic colitis?

A
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Thrombosis
  • Emboli
  • Decreased CO and arrhythmias
  • Vasculitis
228
Q

What are the risk factors for Ischaemic colitis?

A
  • Contraceptive pill
  • Vasculitis
  • Thrombophilia
229
Q

What are the symptoms of Ischaemic colitis?

A

• LLQ abdominal pain

230
Q

What are the signs of Ischaemic colitis?

A

• Bloody diarrhoea

231
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for Ischaemic colitis?

A

• Other causes of acute colitis e.g. IBD

232
Q

What are the investigations for Ischaemic colitis?

A
• CT/MRI angiography
• Stool analysis
• Ultrasound and abdominal CT
•Colonoscopy and biopsy – gold standard
- Done after attack- Biopsy shows epithelial cell apoptosis
233
Q

What is the management for Ischaemic colitis?

A
  • Symptomatic management
  • Fluid replacement
  • Antibiotics – to reduce infection risks due to translocation of bacteria across possible dying gut wall
  • Surgery – for gangrene, perforation or stricture
234
Q

What is acute mesenteric Ischaemia?

A
  • Acute mesenteric ischemia (AMI) is a syndrome caused by inadequate blood flow through the mesenteric vessels, resulting in Ischemia and eventual gangrene of the bowel wall.
  • Although relatively rare, it is a potentially life-threatening condition.
  • Broadly, AMI may be classified as either arterial or venous.
235
Q

Describe the epidemiology acute mesenteric Ischaemia?

A
  • > 50

* Almost always involves small bowel

236
Q

What are the causes of acute mesenteric Ischaemia?

A
  • Superior mesenteric artery thrombosis – most common
  • Superior mesenteric artery embolism (e.g. due to AF)
  • Mesenteric vein thrombosis – common in younger patients with hypercoagulable states
  • Non-occlusive diseases
237
Q

How does acute mesenteric Ischaemia present?

A

• Triad of

o Acute severe abdominal pain

o No abdominal signs

o Rapid hypovolaemia resulting in shock – pale skin, weak rapid pulse, reduce urine output, confusion

238
Q

What are the investigations for acute mesenteric Ischaemia?

A
  • Laparotomy - diagnostic

* Bloods – shows metabolic acidosis and high lactate

239
Q

What is the management of acute mesenteric Ischaemia?

A
  • Surgery to remove dead bowel
  • Fluid resuscitation
  • Antibiotics – IV gentamicin and IV metronidazole
  • IV heparin to reduce clotting
240
Q

What is Appendicitis?

A
  • Inflammation of the appendix
  • Should be considered for all right sided pain if appendix has not already been removed.
  • Located at McBurney’s point which lies 2/3 of the way from umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
241
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Appendicitis?

A
  • Most common surgical emergency
  • More common in males
  • Occurs at any age – highest incidence 10-20 years
242
Q

What is the pathology of Appendicitis?

A
  • Occurs when the lumen of the appendix becomes obstructed
  • Intestinal lumen (including appendix) is always producing mucus and fluids to prevent pathogens from entering the blood stream and keep the tissue moist
  • When the appendix is obstructed, fluid and mucus build up increasing the pressure in the appendix causing it to expand and press on the afferent visceral nerve fibres nearby –> abdominal pain
  • Bacteria is now trapped and able to multiply resulting in invasion of gut organisms into the appendix wall
  • This leads to oedema, ischaemia, necrosis, perforation and inflammation
243
Q

What causes the lumen of the appendix to become obstructed?

A
  • Faecolith – stones made of faeces
  • Filarial worms
  • Undigested seeds
  • Lymphoid hyperplasia – can obstruct tube and lymphoid follicles can grow during viral infection
  • Bacteria - Campylobacter jejuni, Yersinia, salmonella, bacillus cereus
244
Q

What are the symptoms of Appendicitis?

A
  • Acute pain in umbilicus/Right iliac fossa – may originate in umbilical region then progress to RIF
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Fever
245
Q

What are the signs of Appendicitis?

A
  • Tender mass in RIF
  • Guarding
  • Rebound tenderness with palpation
  • Pyrexia
246
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for Appendicitis?

A
  • Acute terminal ileitis due to Crohn’s
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • UTI
  • Diverticulitis
  • Perforated ulcer
  • Food poisoning
247
Q

What are the investigations for Appendicitis?

A

• CT abdomen
• Bloods
o FBC – raised WBC count
o Elevated CRP and ESR

  • Ultrasound – especially in women and children
  • Pregnancy test
  • Urinalysis
248
Q

What is the management of Appendicitis?

A
  • Laparoscopic appendectomy

* Drainage of appendix abscesses

249
Q

What are the complications of Appendicitis?

A
  • If the appendix ruptures, infected and faecal matter will enter the peritoneum resulting in life threatening peritonitis with rebound tenderness
  • Appendix abscesses – can be on appendix or subphrenic (under diaphragm)
250
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

Generalised inflammation of the peritoneum (abdominal cavity)

251
Q

What is peritonism?

A

Tensing of muscles to prevent movement of peritoneum

252
Q

What are the 2 types of peritoneum?

A

• Parietal
o Covers the abdominal wall
o Somatic innervation
o Sensation is well localised

• Visceral
o On organs e.g. stomach, liver and colon
o Autonomic innervation
o Sensation is not well localised

253
Q

What is the foregut, midgut and hindgut?

A

• Foregut - Lower oseophagus to D2 (liver, spleen & gallbladder)

  • Site of autonomic pain - Epigastric

• Midgut - D2 to 2/3 across transverse colon (majority of abdomen)

  • Site of autonomic pain - Periumbilical

• Hindgut - Transverse colon to upper rectum
- Site of autonomic pain - Hypogastric

254
Q

What is the epidemiology of peritonitis?

A
  • Approximately 370, 000 admissions annually in UK
  • Mortality of 15%
  • Resource intensive
255
Q

What is the pathology of peritonitis?

A

• Can result from irritation of the peritoneum
o Perforation of the appendix
o Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

256
Q

What are the causes of Appendicitis?

A

• A – Appendicitis – umbilicus to RIF pain

• E – Ectopic pregnancy – low abdominal pain, sudden onset,
tachycardia, low BP

• I – Infection with TB
o Bacterial – most common
- Gram-negative e.g. E. Coli and Klebsiella
- Gram-positive staphylococcus e.g. S. Aureus

  • O – Obstruction – colicky pain, history of abdominal surgery
  • U – Ulcer – epigastric pain radiating to shoulder
  • Peritoneal dialysis
257
Q

What are the causes of inflammation?

A
  • Inflamed organ
  • Air – ulcers, stabbings
  • Pus
  • Faeces
  • Luminal contents – not faeces until it reaches colon
  • Blood – usually spleen
258
Q

What are the common causes of abdominal pain?

A
  • Gastritis – epigastric pain
  • Cholecystitis – right hypochondrium, mid-clavicular line
  • Pancreatitis – midway between epigastric and umbilicus
  • Appendicitis – right iliac fossa
  • Diverticulitis – left iliac fossa
259
Q

What are the risk factors of peritonitis?

A

• Appendicitis

260
Q

What are the symptoms of peritonitis?

A
  • Dull pain that becomes sharp

* Systemic symptoms and generally unwell

261
Q

What are the signs of peritonitis?

A
  • Pain relieved by resting hands on abdomen – stops movement of peritoneum and therefore pain
  • Guarding/rebound tenderness
  • Absence of bowel sounds
  • Rigid abdomen
  • Pain worse on coughing or moving
  • Patient wants to lie still
  • Sepsis/septic shock – hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, fever
262
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for peritonitis?

A

• Bowel obstruction

263
Q

What are the investigations for peritonitis?

A
  • CT Scan
  • Clinical examination – rigid and guarding, laying still
  • Abdominal X-Ray – dilated bowel, flat fluid level, gas under diaphragm
  • Bloods – FBCs, U&Es, LFTs, clotting factors
  • Ascitic tap – high neutrophil count
264
Q

What is the management of peritonitis?

A
  • Broad spectrum antibiotics - metronidazole
  • Fluid resuscitation – IV fluids and electrolytes
  • Urinary catheter
• Surgery
o Laparotomy i.e. big cut
o Laparoscopy i.e. key-hole surgery
o Treat problem
- Patch hole
- Remove organ/cause
o Wash-out infection
265
Q

What are the complications of peritonitis?

A

• Sepsis – peritoneum is thin, has a large SA and is well drained by lymphatics

o Suspect sepsis if BP is low

266
Q

What is acute pancreatitis?

A
  • SUDDEN inflammation and haemorrhaging of pancreas due to its own digestive enzymes (autodigestion)
  • Usually reversible
267
Q

Describe the pathology of Acute Pancreatitis?

A

• Alcohol induced
o Increases zymogen secretion from acinar cells while decreasing fluid and bicarbonate in the ducts –> thick and viscous pancreatic juice –> obstructs the pancreatic duct

o Blocked duct causes pancreatic juices to become backed up which–> increases pressure and may distend the ducts

o Zymogen granules may fuse with lysosomes which brings trypsinogen into contact with lysosomal enzymes converting it to trypsin –> digestive enzyme cascade activation and autodigestion of pancreas (acute pancreatitis)

o Alcohol also stimulates cytokine release –> immune response –> neutrophils release superoxides and proteases

• Gallstones
o Become lodged in sphincter of Oddi which blocks release of pancreatic juices
o Similar to alcohol pathology

268
Q

What are the causes of Acute Pancreatitis?

A

I GET SMASHED

  • Idiopathic
  • Gall stones
  • Ethanol (alcohol)
  • Trauma – knife wound injury
  • Steroids
  • Mumps/malignancy
  • Autoimmune e.g. SLE
  • Scorpion stings
  • Hyperlipidaemia and hypercalcaemia
  • Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography
  • Drugs – azathioprine, metronidazole, tetracycline, furosemide
269
Q

What are the symptoms of Acute Pancreatitis?

A
  • Epigastric pain radiating to the back – relieved by sitting forwards
  • Nausea and vomiting
270
Q

What are the signs of Acute Pancreatitis?

A
  • Cullen’s sign – bruising around periumbilical region
  • Grey Turner’s sign – bruising on flanks
  • Tachycardia
  • Abdominal guarding and tenderness
  • Distension
271
Q

What are the investigations for Acute Pancreatitis?

A

• LFTs – inflammation of pancreas causes release of enzymes

o Raised serum amylase
o Raised serum lipase
- Lipase to amylase >2 suggests alcoholic

o Raised ALT and AST
- Elevated ALT >150 suggests gallstones

  • CT abdomen – evidence inflammation, necrosis and pseudocyst
  • Abdominal X-ray – shows no psoas shadow (raised retroperitoneal fluid)
272
Q

What is the management for Acute Pancreatitis?

A
  • NG tube
  • IV fluid and maintain electrolyte balance
  • Pain relief
  • May need bowel rest
  • Treat complications
273
Q

What are the complications of acute Pancreatitis?

A
  • Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome – leading cause of death
  • Sepsis
  • Pancreatic pseudocyst
  • Hypovolaemic shock from ruptured vessels
  • DIC
274
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis?

A

• Persistent inflammation due to structure changes such as fibrosis, atrophy and calcification

  • Generally irreversible
275
Q

What is the pathology of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • With each bout of acute pancreatitis there is the potential for ductal dilatation and damage to pancreatic tissue
  • Stellate cells lay down fibrotic tissue which causes narrowing of ducts and acinar cell atrophy
  • In conditions like alcoholic acute pancreatitis, calcium deposits of various sizes can accumulate on plugs that form the ducts
  • Healthy tissue replaced by misshapen ducts, fibrosis and calcium deposits = chronic pancreatitis
276
Q

What are the causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Repeated bouts of acute pancreatitis
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Cystic Fibrosis – main cause in children
  • Tumours
  • Pancreatic trauma – knife wounds
277
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Epigastric pain that radiates to back – may be linked to eating meals
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
278
Q

What are the signs of chronic pancreatitis?

A

• Malabsorption due to endocrine dysfunction
o Weight loss
o Steatorrhea
o Vitamin deficiency

• Exocrine dysfunction
o Diabetes Mellitus

279
Q

What are the investigations for chronic pancreatitis?

A
• CT abdomen
• Abdominal ultrasound
• Abdominal X-ray – shows calcifications
• ERCP/MRCP = x-ray + endoscope
• Bloods
o May be low lipase and amylase as there may not be enough healthy tissue to make the enzymes
o Faeceal elastase
280
Q

What is the management of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Lifestyle modification – less alcohol, healthier diet, more exercise etc.
  • Pain control
  • Replace digestive enzymes and nutritional supplements
  • Insulin for diabetes
281
Q

What is Biliary Colic?

A
  • The term used for pain associated with the temporary obstruction of the cystic or common bile duct by a stone migrating from the GB
  • The pain of stone-induced ductular obstruction is of sudden onset, severe but constant and has a crescendo characteristic
  • Pain is temporary and stops when gallstone dislodges
282
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Gallstones?

A
  • May be present at any age but unusual <30
  • Increasing prevalence with age
  • More common in females
  • More common in Scandinavians, S. Americans and Native North Americans
  • Less common in Asian and African groups
  • Most form in the GB
  • Present in 10-20% of population
283
Q

How do Cholesterol gallstones (80%) form?

A

o Cholesterol help in solution by detergent action of bile salts and phospholipids –> forms micelles and vesicles

o Only form in bile which has an excess of cholesterol

o The formation of cholesterol crystals and gallstones in lithogenic bile is promoted by factors that favour nucleation such as mucus and calcium

o Gallstone formation further promoted by reduced GB motility and stasis

284
Q

How do pigment gallstones form?

A

• Pigment gallstones
o Consist of bilirubin polymers and calcium bilirubinate

o Seen in patients with chronic haemolysis (e.g. hereditary spherocytosis and sickle cell disease) in which bilirubin production is increased and cirrhosis

o Pigment stones may also form in bile ducts after surgery

285
Q

What are the symptoms of gallstones?

A
  • Majority of gallstones are asymptomatic
  • Once gallstones become symptomatic, there is a strong trend towards recurrent complications
  • Biliary or gallstone colic – sudden, severe but constant epigastric pain (may have a RUQ component and may radiate over right shoulder and scapular region)

o Pain usually increases for ~15 mins, stays constant for a few hours then decreases once the stone has dislodged

o Starts several hours after a meal

o May be worse at night
• N+V and sweating

286
Q

What are the investigations for gallstones?

A
  • History – recurrent symptoms
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • LFTs
287
Q

What is the management of gallstones?

A

• Ursodeoxycholic acid – decreases cholesterol

• Gallbladder stones:
o Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
o Bile acid dissolution therapy (<1/3 success)

• Bile duct stones: 
o ERCP with sphincterotomy and: 
- Removal (basket or balloon) 
- Crushing (mechanical, laser)			     
- Stent placement 

• Surgery (large stones)

288
Q

What is Cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

289
Q

Describe the pathology of Cholecystitis?

A
  • Large fatty meals stimulate CCK which signals bile release from GB
  • When the GB has a gallstone in it, the squeezing of the GB can get it lodged in the cystic duct
  • Bile stasis becomes a chemical irritant stimulates mucosa in wall to release mucus and inflammatory enzymes –> inflammation, distension and pressure build up
  • Bacteria can start to grow e.g. E. coli and invade into gallbladder wall –> peritonitis
290
Q

What are the causes of Cholecystitis?

A

• Gallstone impaction into the cystic duct or GB neck

291
Q

What are the symptoms of Cholecystitis?

A
  • RUQ pain
  • Fever
  • Nausea and vomiting
292
Q

What are the signs of Cholecystitis?

A
  • Murphy’s sign – tenderness that is worse on inspiration

* Muscle guarding

293
Q

What are the investigations for Cholecystitis?

A
  • Ultrasound of abdomen
  • FBC – high WBC count (leucocytosis)
  • LFTs – to exclude liver/bile duct pathology
294
Q

What is the management of Cholecystitis?

A
  • Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

* Analgesia and fluids if needed

295
Q

What are the complications of Cholecystitis?

A

• Peritonitis

296
Q

What is Ascending (acute) Cholangitis?

A

Bacterial infection of the biliary tract as a result of infection.

297
Q

What are the risk factors for Cholangitis?

A
  • Fair = Northern European and Hispanic
  • Female
  • Fat - obese
  • Fertile = pregnancy, under 40
298
Q

What is the pathology of Cholangitis?

A
  • Normally, bacteria can’t go up CBD as bile and pancreatic juices travel down and flush bacteria out
  • Obstruction of common bile duct –> stasis of bile –> invasion of bacteria from duodenum
  • High pressure on the CBD (due to the obstruction) can cause spaces between the cells do widen which allows the bacteria and the bile access to the blood stream –> bacteraemia and jaundice
  • Can be obstructed by stone, cancer, stricture, parasite (ascaris).
  • Also, infection can be introduced through intervention e.g. ERCP
299
Q

What are the causes of Cholangitis?

A

• Infection of the biliary tree e.g. E. coli, Klebsiella, enterococcus (group D strep)
o Most often secondary to common bile duct obstruction by gallstones – choledocholithiasis

  • Benign biliary strictures – often following biliary surgery, malignancy or associated chronic pancreatitis
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis
300
Q

What are the symptoms of Cholangitis?

A

• Charcot’s triad

1) Jaundice
- Dark urine
- Pale stools

2) RUQ pain
3) Fever

301
Q

What are the signs of Cholangitis?

A

• Reynold’s Pentad – bacteraemia –> septic shock –> leaky vessels –> hypotension –> less blood to organs e.g. brain –> confusion

o Jaundice
o RUQ pain
o Fever
o Shock – hypotension and tachycardia
o Confusion

• Rigors

302
Q

What is the Differential Diagnosis for Colicky RUQ Pain?

A
  • Biliary colic: RUQ pain only

* Cholecystitis: RUQ pain and maybe fever

303
Q

What are the investigations for Cholangitis?

A

• Ultrasound abdomen

• FBC
o Raised WBCs
o Raised ESR and CRP
o Raised serum bilirubin (very high if bile duct obstruction) and serum alkaline phosphatase

  • ERCP
  • MRCP to locate stone
  • LFTs
  • CT
304
Q

What is the management of Cholangitis?

A
  • IV antibiotics e.g. co-amoxiclav
  • Fluids
  • ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) to image/stent/remove stone
  • Shockwave lithotripsy
  • If this fails –> laparoscopic/open cholecystectomy
305
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

• Glucose and fat metabolism

• Detoxification and excretion
o Bilirubin
o Ammonia
oDrugs/hormones/pollutants

• Protein synthesis
o Albumin
o Clotting factors – Vitamin K

• Defence against infection (Reticuloendothelial system)

306
Q

What are the types of liver injury?

A

• Acute:
o Recovery
o Liver failure

• Chronic:
o Cirrhosis – disorganisation and fibrous scarring

o Liver failure

  • Varices – due to portal hypertension
  • Hepatoma
307
Q

What are the acute causes of liver injury?

A

o Viral A, B, EBV
o Alcohol

o Drug
o Vascular – ischaemia
o Obstruction – usually bile
o Congestion – from heart failure

308
Q

What are the chronic causes of liver injury?

A

o Alcohol
o Viral B, C

o Autoimmune
o Metabolic (excess iron - haemochromatosis, copper – Wilson’s)
309
Q

How does acute liver injury present?

A
o Malaise
o Nausea
o Anorexia
o Jaundice
o Confusion (rarer)
o Bleeding (rarer)
o Liver pain (rarer) – consider obstruction or malignancy
310
Q

How does chronic liver injury present?

A
o Ascites
o Oedema
o Haematemesis (varices) – vomiting blood
o Malaise
o Anorexia
o Wasting
o Easy bruising
o Itching
o Erythema nodosum
o Spider naevi
o Hepatomegaly
o Abnormal LFTs
o Jaundice (rarer)
o Confusion (rarer)
311
Q

What is Jaundice?

A

Jaundice – raised serum bilirubin (waste product of haemolysis)

312
Q

Describe the physiology of Billirubin production.

A
  • RBC degraded in the spleen after a lifetime of 120 days
  • RBC splits into Haem + globin
  • Haem oxygenase converts poryphrin ring (haem-iron) into BILLIVERDIN
  • BILLIVERDIN (green pigment) is converted into UNCONJUGATED BILLIRUBIN (lipid-soluble)

(^occurs in the reticuloendothelial system in the speen/bone marrow/liver)

  • BILLIRUBIN travels to the liver in the blood stream - bound to albumin
  • Billirubin is then conjugated with glucoronic acid = CONGJUGATED BILLIRUBIN (water-soluble)
  • Conjugated billirubin is excreted by the liver into the bile (canaliculi membrane –> RHD/LHD–> CHD –> CBD –> Duodenum
  • In the ileum, colonic bacteria deconjugate and metabolises billirubin into UROBILINOGEN (lipid-soluble)
  • 90% of the urobilinogen continues into the large intestine where it reduced to stercobilinogen which is then acted upon by different colonic bacteria to form stercobilin (colours the faeces) and excreted through the rectum
  • The remaining 10% of the urobilinogen is reabsorbed into the blood, binds to albumin and travels back to the liver and then 5% goes to the kidneys where it is oxidised to urobilin to colour urine, the other 5% goes back to the duodenum by the bile duct (enterohepatic circulation)
313
Q

What are the 3 types of jaundice?

A

1) Pre-hepatic
2) Hepatic
3) Post-hepatic

314
Q

What is Pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

• Pre-hepatic – excess breakdown of Hb –> increases total unconjugated bilirubin

o Increased unconjugated bilirubin
o Normal stool and urine

• Causes – more haemolysis

  • Malaria
  • Sickle cell anaemia
  • Foetal Hb in newborns
315
Q

What is Hepatic Jaundice?

A

• Hepatic – failure of hepatocytes to take up, metabolise or excrete bilirubin

o Increased unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin

o Dark urine and normal/pale stools

• Causes

  • Viral hepatitis
  • Drugs
  • Alcohol
  • Cirrhosis
316
Q

What is Hepatic jaundice?

A

• Hepatic – failure of hepatocytes to take up, metabolise or excrete bilirubin

o Increased unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin

o Dark urine and normal/pale stools

o Causes

  • Viral hepatitis
  • Drugs
  • Alcohol
  • Cirrhosis
317
Q

What is post-hepatic jaundice?

A

• Post-hepatic – obstruction in biliary system e.g. gallstone

o Increased conjugated bilirubin
o Dark urine and pale stools

o Causes

  • Gallstones
  • Pancreatitis – head of pancreas blocks CBD
318
Q

How can you differentiate between pre-hepatic and hepatic/post hepatic jaundice?

A

Pre-hepatic |Hepatic/post hepatic

Urine | Normal | Dark
Stools | Normal | May be pale

Itching |No | Maybe
Liver tests| Normal | Abnormal

319
Q

What is the first line investigation for jaundice?

A

• History

  1. Dark urine, pale stools, itching?
  2. Symptoms
    - Biliary pain
    - Rigors – shivering
    - Abdomen swelling
    - Weight loss
  3. Past history
    - Biliary disease/intervention
    - Malignancy
    - HF
    - Blood products
    - Autoimmune disease
  4. Drug history – drugs/herbs started recently
    - Social history
    - Alcohol
    - Potential hepatitis contact due to
    i. Irregular sex
    ii. IVDU
    iii. Exotic travel
    iv. Certain foods

c. Family history/system review – rarely helpful

320
Q

What are the other investigations for jaundice?

A
  • Liver enzymes - very high AST/ALT suggests liver disease (some exceptions)
  • Biliary obstruction – 90% have dilated intrahepatic bile ducts on ultrasound

• Further imaging
o CT
o Magnetic resonance cholangiogram (MRCP)
o Endoscopic retrograde cholangiogram (ERCP)

321
Q

What is Chronic liver disease (CLD)?

A

Chronic liver disease (CLD) is a progressive deterioration of liver functions for more than six months, which includes synthesis of clotting factors, other proteins, detoxification of harmful products of metabolism and excretion of bile.

322
Q

What are the causes of Chronic liver disease (CLD)?

A

o Alcohol
o Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) – form of advanced NAFLD
o Viral Hep B, C

o Immune

  • Autoimmune hepatitis
  • Primary biliary cirrhosis
  • Sclerosing cholangitis

o Metabolic

  • Haemochomatosis – excess iron deposition due to high levels of hepcidin
  • Wilson’s – high copper absorption
  • alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency

o Vascular
- Budd-Chiari – portal hypertension

323
Q

What key things should you look out for when conducting a patient history?

A

o Past history of:

  • Alcohol problems
  • Biliary surgery
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Blood products

o Social history – alcohol, sexual
o Drugs – ALL
o Family history

324
Q

What are the signs of Chronic liver disease (CLD)?

A
o Ascites
o Oedema
o Haematemesis (varices) – vomiting blood
o Malaise
o Anorexia
o Wasting
o Easy bruising
o Itching
o Palmar erythema
o Spider naevi
o Hepatomegaly
325
Q

What are the investigations for Chronic liver disease (CLD)?

A

o Viral serology – Hep B surface antigen, Hep C antibody

o Immunology
- Autoantibodies
• AMA, ANA, ASMA
• Coeliac antibodies

o Biochemistry
- Iron studies

  • Copper studies
    • Caeruloplasmin
    • 24 hour urine copper
  • Alpha 1-antitrypsin level
  • Lipids, glucose

o Radiological investigations – USS/CT/MRI

326
Q

What is viral hepatitis?

A

Inflammation of the liver

327
Q

What are the viral causes of hepatitis?

A
  • Hep A, B ± D, C and E
  • Herpes virus e.g. HSV, VZV, EBV, CMV
  • Other viruses
328
Q

What are the non-viral causes of hepatitis?

A
  • Spirochaetes e.g. leptospirosis
  • Mycobacteria e.g. TB
  • Parasites e.g. toxoplasma
  • Bacteria e.g. Coxiella (Q fever)
329
Q

What are the non-infective causes of hepatitis?

A
  • Alcohol
  • Non-alcohol fatty liver disease
  • Drugs
  • Toxins/poisoning
  • Pregnancy
  • Autoimmune
  • Hereditary metabolic
330
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatitis?

A
• Acute
o Can be asymptomatic
o General malaise
o Myalgia
o Gastrointestinal upset
o Abdominal pain

• Chronic
o Can be asymptomatic/non-specific symptoms

331
Q

What are the signs of hepatitis?

A

• Acute
o Jaundice (pale stools, dark urine)
o Tender hepatomegaly
o Raised AST, ALT (GGT, ALP) ± Bilirubin

• Chronic
o ± signs of chronic liver disease
- Clubbing
- Palmar erythema
- Dupuytren’s contracture
- Spider naevi

o LFTs can be normal even in context of cirrhosis

o Initially in cirrhotic patient, liver disease is compensated – liver function maintained (normal albumin and clotting)

o Decompensated – jaundice, ascites, low albumin, coagulopathy, encephalopathy

o Complications: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC); portal hypertension – varices, bleeding.

332
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for viral hepatitis?

A
  • Viral A, B, C, CMV, EBV
  • Drug-induced
  • Autoimmune
  • Alcoholic
333
Q

Summarise the different types of hepatitis

A

A:

  • Faeco-oral normally with travel history
  • Contaminated food/water

B:
- Blood-borne - sex

C:
- Blood-borne - needles

D:
- Blood-borne, combines with B

E:

  • Faeco-oral
  • Contaminated food/water
  • Endemic in UK - found in undercooked pork

A:
- RNA/ACUTE

B:
DNA / BOTH

C:
RNA/BOTH

D:
RNA/BOTH

E:
RNA/ACUTE

Look at rhyme + summary!

334
Q

What is autoimmune hepatitis?

A
  • Autoimmune hepatitis is liver inflammation that occurs when your body’s immune system turns against liver cells.
  • The exact cause of autoimmune hepatitis is unclear, but genetic and enviromental factors appear to interact over time in triggering the disease.
335
Q

What are the investigations for autoimmune hepatitis?

A
  • Type 1 – anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)
  • Type 2 – anti-LKM-1 or anti-liver cytosolic-1 (anti-LC-1) antibodies
  • Liver biopsy
336
Q

What is the management of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Immunosuppression – prednisolone ± azathioprine

337
Q

What is liver cirrhosis?

A
  • Cirrhosis is scarring (fibrosis) of the liver caused by long-term liver damage.
  • The scar tissue prevents the liver working properly.
  • It is an end stage of all progressive chronic liver diseases (such as hepatitis), which once fully developed is irreversible
  • It may be associated clinically with symptoms and signs of portal hypertension and liver failure
  • It’s characterised by loss of normal hepatic architecture, nodular regeneration and bridging fibrosis
338
Q

What are the causes of liver cirrhosis?

A
• Common
o Chronic alcohol abuse
o Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
o Hep B±D
o Hep C

• Others
o Primary biliary cirrhosis

o Autoimmune hepatitis – presents as high ALT

o Hereditary haemochromatosis (iron overload)

o Wilson’s disease - excess copper stored in the liver

o Alpha-Antitrypsin deficiency

o Drugs e.g. amiodarone and methotrexate

339
Q

What are the risk factors for liver cirrhosis?

A
  • Chronic alcohol abuse
  • Hep B±C
  • Obesity
  • T2DM
340
Q

Describe the pathology of liver cirrhosis?

A
  • Chronic liver injury results in –> inflammation, matrix deposition, necrosis and angiogenesis –> FIBROSIS
  • Liver injury causes necrosis and apoptosis, releasing cell contents and reactive oxygen species (ROS)
  • This activates HEPATIC STELLATE CELLS and tissue macrophages (Kupffer cells)
  • Stellate cells release CYTOKINES that attract neutrophils and macrophages to the liver –> further inflammation and necrosis –> FIBROSIS
  • Results in severe reduction in liver function as fibrosis in non-functioning
341
Q

What are the 2 types of liver cirrhosis?

A

o Micronodular cirrhosis

  • Regenerating nodules usually <3mm in size with uniform involvement of the liver
  • Often caused by alcohol or biliary tract disease

o Macronodular cirrhosis

  • Nodules of varying size and normal acini (functioning unit of liver) may be seen within larger nodules
  • Often caused by chronic viral hepatitis
342
Q

What does it mean if the liver cirrhosis is compensated?

A

When the liver can still function effectively and there are no (or few) noticeable clinical symptoms

343
Q

What does it mean if the liver cirrhosis is decompensated?

A
  • When the liver is damaged to the point that it cannot function adequately and overt clinical complications (such as jaundice, ascites, variceal haemorrhage and hepatic encephalopathy) are present.
  • Events causing decompensation include infection, portal vein thrombosis and surgery
344
Q

What are the symptoms of liver cirrhosis?

A

• Compensated
o Asymptomatic
o Non-specific e.g. weight loss, weakness, fatigue

• Decompensated
o Jaundice
o Pruritis
o Abdominal pain – due to ascites

345
Q

What are the signs of liver cirrhosis?

A
  • Bruising
  • Leukonychia – white discolouration on nails due to hypoalbuminaemia
  • Clubbing of the fingers – no schamroth window
  • Palmar erythema
  • Spider naevi
  • Dupuytren’s contracture
  • Xanthelasma – yellow fat deposits under skin usually around eyelids
  • Ascites
  • Jaundice
  • Oedema – decreased albumin in blood
346
Q

What are the investigations for liver cirrhosis?

A

• Liver biopsy

• LFTs – serum albumin and prothrombin time best indicators of liver function
o Raised bilirubin, aspartate amino transferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
o Low albumin and long prothrombin = malfunction

  • Liver biochemistry
  • FBC – low platelets (due to loss of thrombopoteitin)
  • Transient elastography
347
Q

What is the management of liver cirrhosis?

A

• Treat underlying cause
o Alcohol abstinence
o Antivirals for Hep C
o Spironolactone for ascites

  • Liver transplant
  • Good nutrition
  • 6-month ultrasound screening for hepatocellular carcinoma

Decompensated = liver transplant/ Treat symptoms e.g. mannitol for hepatic encephalopathy

348
Q

What are the complications of liver cirrhosis?

A

• Coagulopathy – fall in clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

• Encephalopathy – liver flap (flapping tremor with wrist extended) and confusion/coma
o When toxins e.g. ammonia make it into the brain and cause mental deficits

  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Hypoalbuminaemia

• Portal hypertension
o Ascites
o Oesophageal varices

349
Q

What are the causes of portal hypertension?

A

1) Pre-hepatic – due to blockage of portal vein before liver
o Portal vein thrombosis

2) Intra-hepatic – resulting from distortion of liver architecture
o Cirrhosis – most common cause
o Schistosomiasis
o Sarcoidosis
o Congenital hepatic fibrosis

3) Post-hepatic – due to venous blockage outside of liver
o Budd-Chiari syndrome – hepatic vein obstruction by tumour or thrombosis
o Right HF
o Constrictive pericarditis
o IVC obstruction

350
Q

Describe the pathology of portal hypertension?

A
  • Following liver injury and fibrogenesis (e.g. due to cirrhosis), the contraction of activated myofibroblasts (mediated by endothelin, NO and prostaglandins) contributes to INCREASED RESISTANCE TO BLOOD FLOW
  • Leads to portal hypertension –> splanchnic vasodilation -> drop in BP –> increased CO to compensate for BP –> salt and water retention to increase blood volume–> hyperdynamic circulation (increased portal flow)
  • –> formation of collaterals between portal and systemic systems e.g. lower oesophagus and gastric cardia
351
Q

Describe the simple pathology of portal hypertension.

A
  • Endothelin-1 production increased in cirrhosis –> more vasoconstriction
  • NO production reduces in cirrhosis –> less vasodilation
  • Reduced radius –> increases resistance –> higher pressure in portal system
352
Q

What are the symptoms of portal hypertension?

A
  • Often symptomatic

* GI bleeding from oesophageal or gastric varices

353
Q

What are the signs of portal hypertension?

A
  • Ascites
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Splenomegaly
  • Oesophago-gastric varices
354
Q

What is a Varices?

A

• Varices is a dilated vein at risk of rupture resulting in haemorrhage and can cause GI bleeding in the GI system

355
Q

Describe the epidemiology of oeseophago-gastric varices.

A
  • Around 90% of patients with cirrhosis develop gastro-oesophageal varices over 10 years but only a third will bleed
  • Bleeding likely to occur in large varices or those with red signs at endoscopy and in severe lives disease
  • Tend to develop in lower oesophagus and gastric cardia
356
Q

Describe the pathology of oeseophago-gastric varices.

A
  • At oesophago-gastric junction, rectum and anterior abdominal wall (via umbilical vein) the portal and systemic capillary beds meet
  • If portal hypertension is present, the blood takes the path of least resistance which is through the systemic circulation –> bypasses liver and into heart
  • Causes detoxification and nutrition issues
  • As portal pressure increases, it can cause a gastric-oesophageal varices to form and rupture –> massive haemorrhage
357
Q

Describe the simple pathology of oeseophago-gastric varices.

A
  • As these vessels are thin and not meant to transport higher pressure blood, they can rupture
  • Rupture –>haematemesis
  • Rupture –> blood digested –> melaena
358
Q

What are the causes of oeseophago-gastric varices.

A

Same as portal hypertension.

1) Pre-hepatic – due to blockage of portal vein before liver
o Portal vein thrombosis

2) Intra-hepatic – resulting from distortion of liver architecture
o Cirrhosis – most common cause
o Schistosomiasis
o Sarcoidosis
o Congenital hepatic fibrosis

3) Post-hepatic – due to venous blockage outside of liver
o Budd-Chiari syndrome – hepatic vein obstruction by tumour or thrombosis
o Right HF
o Constrictive pericarditis
o IVC obstruction

359
Q

What are the risk factors for oeseophago-gastric varices?

A
  • Cirrhosis
  • Portal hypertension
  • Schistosomiasis infection
  • Alcoholism
360
Q

What are the symptoms for oeseophago-gastric varices?

A
  • Haematemesis
  • Abdominal pain
  • Rectal bleeding
361
Q

What are the signs of oeseophago-gastric varices?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • Pallor
  • Signs of chronic liver damage – jaundice, easy bruising (liver not produced coagulation factors) and ascites
  • Splenomegaly
  • Ascites
362
Q

What is the first-line investigation for oeseophago-gastric varices?

A

• Endoscopy

363
Q

What is the management of oeseophago-gastric varices?

A

• Blood transfusion if anaemic

• Medical
o Beta blocker to reduce CO –> reduce portal pressure
o Nitrate to cause vasodilation –> to reduce portal pressure
o Terlipressin (ADH analogue) –> reduce portal pressure

  • Trans-jugular intrahepatic portoclaval shunt (TIPS)
  • Correct clotting abnormalities with vitamin K and platelet transfusion
  • Variceal banding – band put around varice using endoscopy
364
Q

What is primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A

Autoimmune destruction of the bile ducts –> cirrhosis

365
Q

Describe the epidemiology of primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A
  • Women aged 40-50 constitute 90% of patients
  • More common in females
  • Typical presentation at 50
366
Q

Describe the pathology of primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A
  • Interlobar bile ducts are damaged by chronic autoimmune granulomatous inflammation resulting in bile leaking out into blood and other liver cells –> inflammation and bile stasis (similar symptoms to cholestasis and obstructive jaundice)
  • Advanced stage can lead to cirrhosis due to autoimmune attack and infiltration of bile
367
Q

What are the causes of primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A

• Autoimmune

368
Q

What are the risk factors for primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A
  • Family history
  • Many UTIs
  • Smoking
  • Past pregnancy
  • Autoimmune disease
369
Q

How does biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis present?

A
  • Asymptomatic – discovered on routine examination or screening
  • Lethargy and fatigue
  • Hepatomegaly

• Leakage of
o Bile
- Pruritis – itchy skin
- Jaundice

o Cholesterol

  • Pigmented Xanthelasma – yellow fat deposits under skin around eyelids
  • Xeropthalmia – dryness of conjunctiva and cornea
  • Corneal arcus
  • Joint pain and arthropathy
  • Variceal bleeding
370
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A
  • Autoimmune cholangitis

* Extrahepatic biliary obstruction

371
Q

What are the investigations for biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A

• Antibody tests
o Presence of Anti-Mitochondrial Antibodies (AMA)
o Raised serum IgM

• LFTs
o Raised ALP and GGT
o Raised cholesterol

  • Ultrasound
  • Liver biopsy
372
Q

What is the management of biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis?

A
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid – reduces cholesterol absorption and improves bilirubin and aminotransferase levels
  • Cholestyramine – reduces cholesterol absorption
  • Bisphosphonates – for osteoporosis
  • Vitamin ADEK supplementation
  • Liver transplant
373
Q

What is alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Drinking a large amount of alcohol, even for just a few days, can lead to a build-up of fats in the liver.
  • This is called alcoholic fatty liver disease, and is the first stage of ARLD.
  • Fatty liver disease rarely causes any symptoms, but it’s an important warning sign that you’re drinking at a harmful level.
374
Q

Describe the pathology of alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

o Metabolism of alcohol produces fat in liver

o Minimal with small amounts of alcohol but cells become swollen with fat (steatosis) with larger amounts

• Fatty liver –> Alcoholic hepatitis –> alcoholic steatosis –> cirrhosis

(Classically of the micronodular type but mixed patent also seen accompanying fatty change and evidence of pre-existing alcoholic hepatitis may be present)

  • Reduced NAD+ and increased NADH –> less oxidation of fat –> more fat synthesis –> accumulation of fat in hepatocytes
  • Increased ROS damages hepatocytes
  • Acetaldehyde damages liver cell membranes
  • Leads to inflammation and eventual cirrhosis
375
Q

What are the causes of alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Immunological mechanisms
376
Q

What are the symptoms of alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • RUQ pain
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhoea
377
Q

What are the signs of alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Ascites
  • Jaundice
378
Q

What are the investigations for alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

• LFTs

o GGT and ALP very raised
o AST and ALT mildly raised – increased AST>ALT ratio (usually 2:1)

• FBC

o Thrombocytopenia – low plateletss
o Hypoglycaemia – low blood sugar

  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • CT
  • MRI
  • Liver biopsy
379
Q

What is the management of alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

• Alcohol abstinence – if alcohol intake stops then fat will disappear, and liver goes back to normal

o Delirium tremens (withdrawal symptoms) commonly seen 12-48 hours after alcohol withdrawal

  • Seizures, insomnia, vomiting, headache, sweating, palpitations and tremulousness
  • Treated with diazepam
• IV thiamine – to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy
o Triad of
 - Confusion
 - Ataxia
- Nystagmus
  • Diet high in vitamins and proteins
  • Liver transplant
380
Q

What are the complications of alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Cirrhosis
  • Liver failure
  • Encephalopathy
381
Q

What is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is the term for a range of conditions caused by a build-up of fat in the liver.
  • It’s usually seen in people who are overweight or obese —> Results from fat deposition in the liver –> affects individuals with metabolic syndromes
382
Q

What are the risk factors for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Obesity (70%)
  • Diabetes (35-75%)
  • Hyperlipidaemia (20-80)
  • Hypertension
  • Hypertriglyceridemia
383
Q

What are the symptoms of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
• Usually no symptoms; liver ache in 10%
o Fatigue and malaise
o RUQ pain
o Jaundice
o Hepatomegaly
384
Q

What are the investigations of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

o LFTs

  • Commonest cause of mildly elevated LFTs
  • Raised ALT and sometimes AST

o Ultrasound
o CT
o MRI
o Liver biopsy

  • Fat, sometimes with inflammation, fibrosis (NASH)
  • Need biopsy to distinguish NAFL from NASH
  • NASH: Important cause of “cryptogenic” cirrhosis
  • Still no effective drug treatments
  • Weight loss works - the more the better
385
Q

Describe the pathology of liver disease due to metabolic causes?

A
  • Liver failure occurs when the liver loses the ability to regenerate or repair so that decompensation occurs
  • Histologically there is multi-acinar necrosis involving a substantial part of liver
  • Acute hepatic failure – acute liver injury with encephalopathy and deranged coagulation (INR > 1.5)
  • Acute-on-chronic hepatic failure – liver failure as a result of decompensation of chronic liver disease
386
Q

What is metabolic liver disease marked by?

A

o Hepatic encephalopathy – confusion, coma, liver flap (asterixis – flapping tremor with wrist extended) and drowsiness

  • As liver fails, nitrogenous waste e.g. ammonia builds up in circulation and passes to brain –> permanent brain damage (ammonia is neurotoxic)
  • As astrocytes clear ammonia (involving conversion of glutamate to glutamine). Excess glutamine causes an osmotic imbalance and a shift of fluid into these cells –> cerebral oedema –> damage

o Abnormal bleeding
o Ascites
o Jaundice

387
Q

What are the causes of metabolic liver disease?

A
• Virus
o Hep A, B(+D), E – rarely C
o Cytomegalovirus
o EBV
o Herpes simplex virus
• Drugs
o Paracetamol – common cause
o Alcohol
o Anti-depressant – amitriptyline
o NSAIDs
o Ecstasy or cocaine
o Antibiotics – Ciprofloxacin, doxycycline or erythromycin
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Wilson’s disease or Alpha-1-anti-trypsin deficiency
388
Q

What are the symptoms of metabolic liver disease?

A
  • Fever

* Vomiting

389
Q

What are the signs of metabolic liver disease?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Ascites
  • Small liver
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Fetor hepaticus – patient smells like pear drops
  • Bruising
  • Clubbing
  • Cerebral oedema
390
Q

What are the investigations of metabolic liver disease?

A
• Bloods
o Hyperbilirubinemia
o High serum ALT and AST
o Low levels of coagulation factors and raising prothrombin time
o Low glucose
  • EEG – for grading encephalopathy
  • Ultrasound
391
Q

What is the management of metabolic liver disease?

A
  • Treat cause e.g. in paracetamol poisoning give N-acetyl-cysteine
  • Signs of raised ICP – IV mannitol
  • Liver transplant
392
Q

What are the complications of metabolic liver disease?

A

• Malnutrition

• Coagulopathy
o Impaired coagulation factor synthesis
o Vitamin K deficiency (cholestasis)
o Thrombocytopenia

• Endocrine changes
o Gynaecomastia
o Impotence
o Amenorrhoea

• Hypoglycaemia

393
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

• Uncontrolled deposition of copper

394
Q

What is Haemochromatosis?

A

Haemochromatosis is an inherited condition which results in too much iron being stored in the body. Your body doesn’t have a way of getting rid of the iron overload, so if you have too much it gets deposited in the organs - particularly the liver, but at higher levels it can enter the heart, pancreas and other organs.

  • Genetic disorder
  • 90% have mutations in HFE gene: C282Y, H63D
  • Autosomal recessive; incomplete penetrance
  • Uncontrolled intestinal iron absorption with deposition in liver, heart and pancreas
  • Diagnosis suggested by raised ferritin and transferrin saturation, confirmed by HFE genotyping and liver biopsy

• Cirrhosis
o Present, risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
o Not present and treated – normal life expectancy

• Iron removal may lead to regression of fibrosis

395
Q

Define Ascites?

A
  • Abnormal accumulation of fluid within the abdominal cavity
396
Q

Describe the epidemiology of ascites?

A
  • 10-20% survival 5-years from onset
  • Signifies other serious illness
  • Common post op
397
Q

Describe the pathology of ascites?

A
• High protein fluid (exudate) – extremely bad
o Cloudy fluid
o Low serum to ascites albumin gradient
o Causes – peritoneal cause
- Cancer
- Sepsis
- TB
- Nephrotic syndrome
• Low protein fluid (transudate)
o Clear fluid
o High serum to ascites albumin gradient (>11g/L)
o Outflow problem (i.e. portal hypertension)
o Decreased oncotic pressure
o No issues with cell membrane
o Causes:
- Cirrhosis
o Management
- Treat underlying cause
- Diet
- Diuretic
- Drainage
398
Q

What are the causes of ascites?

A

• Impaired blood outflow
o Fluid cannot move forward through system e.g. due to a clot
o Raised pressure and vessels causing fluid to leak out of vessels
o Seen in
- Cirrhosis i.e. portal hypertension
- Budd-Chiari syndrome – occlusion of hepatic veins that drain liver
- Cardiac failure
- Constrictive pericarditis

• Decreased oncotic pressure – low protein
o With less protein e.g. albumin, there is an inability to pull fluid back into intravascular space
o This fluid then accumulates in peritoneum
o Seen in
- Hypoalbuminaemia
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Malnutrition

• Local inflammation e.g. peritonitis

399
Q

What are the risk factors for ascites?

A
  • High sodium diet
  • Hepatocellular car inoma
  • Splanchnic vein thrombosis resulting in portal hypertension
400
Q

What are the symptoms of ascites?

A
  • Severe pain – suspect bacterial peritonitis

* Abdominal swelling

401
Q

What are the signs of ascites?

A
  • Shifting dullness – patient lies on back and percuss left flank (will sound dull), get them to life on side and percuss again (will sound resonant as fluid moved)
  • Abdominal distension
  • Protruding ascites
  • Presence of raised veins
  • Flank dullness
  • Fluid thrill
  • Bulging flanks
402
Q

What are the investigations of ascites?

A
  • Ascitic tap – culture, gram stain, cytology, protein
  • Ultrasound
  • Presence of fluid confirmed by demonstrating shifting dullness
403
Q

What is the management of ascites?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Reduce sodium to help liver and reduce fluid
  • Diuretic – oral spironolactone (spares K+) ± Furosemide
  • Paracentesis (drain fluid)
404
Q

What are the complications of ascites?

A

• Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis – suspect in any ascitic patient that deteriorates

o Bugs

  • E. Coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Enterococcus

o Investigations
- Ascitic tap – raised neutrophils

o Management – cefotaxime

o Prophylaxis – ciprofloxacin