GI Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Crohn’s disease can affect what part of the GI tract?

A

any part!

mouth to the anus

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2
Q

ulcerative colitis can affect what part of the GI tract?

A

only affects the large
intestine.

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3
Q

In both Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis a).. and b).. are quite common

A

a) diarrhea and b) cramping

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4
Q

is rectal bleeding more common in ulcerative colitis or crohns?

A

ulcerative colitis,

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5
Q

is weight loss and nutritional deficiencies more common in ulcerative colitis or crohns disease?

A

Crohns!

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6
Q

If ulcerative colitis is bad enough what treatment can be preformed?

A

removal of the large intestine

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7
Q

**Brenda asks the nurse, “Does my ulcerative colitis increase my risk for developing cancer?” What is the
nurse’s best response? **
 “Yes, people who have had UC for more than 15 years have an increased risk for pancreatic cancer”
 “Yes, people who have had UC for more than 10 years have an increased risk for colorectal cancer”
 “No, there is no evidence that UC increases your risk for cancer”
 “Although UC does not cause cancer, some of the drugs used to treat this disease may increase your
risk for cancer”

A

 “Yes, people who have had UC for more than 10 years have an increased risk for colorectal cancer”

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8
Q

Is there a cure for Crohns disease?

A

no, because it can effect the entire GI tract.

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9
Q

in UC, inflammation starts where? and spreads where?.

A

starts in the rectum and spreads upwards through the large intestine in a continuous manner.

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10
Q

What are “skip lesions” in Crohns disease?

A

where there’s an area of inflammation in two
or more separate locations, that are separated by normal sections of the GI tract.

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11
Q

What part of the GI tract is MOST commonly affected by Crohn’s disease?
 Duodenum
 Jejunum
 Terminal ileum and colon
 Rectum

A

 Terminal ileum and colon

most commonly affects where the
small and large intestines meet.

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12
Q
  • name three negative acute phase proteins, AND do they decrease on increase during states of inflammation?
A
  • albumin, prealbumin, and transferrin.
  • **decrease **during states of inflammation
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13
Q
  • Name one positive acute phase protein, and does it decrease or increase during inflammation?
A
  • C-reactive protein
    –** increases** by 25% or more during states of inflammation
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14
Q

what information is gathered by erythrocyte sedimentation rate (or ESR) results?

A

It reflects the viscosity of the blood plasma and
how fast red blood cells will settle over time.

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15
Q

What blood test result could indicate that a malnourished client is experiencing a negative nitrogen balance?
 Decreased serum creatinine
 Elevated serum urea
 Decreased alkaline phosphatase
 Elevated troponin

A

 Elevated serum urea

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16
Q

Nitrogen is a product of muscle break down in the body, what is the waste product of nitrogen?

A

Urea

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17
Q

what does a negative nitrogen balance tell us?

A

that more nitrogen is being excreted than is being taken in through a person’s diet.

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18
Q

5 complications that can occur with crohns disease?

A

inflammation, stenosis or strictures, abscesses, perianal disease, fistulas

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19
Q

in management for people who have **mild-to-moderate ** IBD, what approach is usually preferred?

A

“bottom-up approach”

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20
Q

in people who have severe or debilitating IBD, what approach would we use for management

A

“top-down
approach”

biologics or immune modulators

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21
Q

what is one of the first treatments that is used when treating IBD?

A

5-ASA agents

sulfasalazine and mesalamine

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22
Q

where do 5-ASA agents primarily work?

A

They work primarily in the large
intestine

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23
Q

what medication is used as a short-term, “rescue” treatment for when people with IBD experience a disease flare-up.

A

corticosteriods

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24
Q

what antibiotic is used most commonly in individuals with IBD, specifically Crohns disease?

A

metronidazole

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25
What drug class is used to induce remission in IBD and then prevent flare-ups?
immmune modulators | azathioprine, methotrexate, and cyclosporine
26
what is the onset for immune modulators?
6 months to achieve their effects.
27
what is the big risk with taking immune modulators?
immune suppression
28
**What are the characteristics of Crohn’s disease?** a. Can be cured with a total proctocolectomy with permanent ileostomy b. Inflammation always begins in the rectum and then proceeds up the colon in a continuous manner c. Ulcers may present anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract but are most common in the terminal ileum d. Frequently presents with cramping abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation
c. Ulcers may present anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract but are most common in the terminal ileum
29
**A client with Crohn's disease has a prescription for a low-residue diet. An appropriate lunch would include:** a. Stir-fried vegetables (beans, peas, carrots, and corn) over rice b. Homemade chicken noodle soup and 2 soda crackers c. BLT (bacon, lettuce, and tomato) sandwich on multigrain bread d. Caesar salad with whole wheat croutons and garlic toast
b. Homemade chicken noodle soup and 2 soda crackers
30
**A nurse is caring for a client with Crohn’s disease who has a permanent ileostomy. During the abdominal assessment, what should the nurse expect to see?** a. A stoma in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen continuously drains liquid stool b. A stoma in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen drains semi-formed stool c. A stoma in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen drains semi-formed stool d. A stoma in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen continuously drains liquid stool
d. A stoma in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen continuously drains liquid stool
31
A nurse teaches a client with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that a newly prescribed medication is a targeted treatment that will bind to, and block, specific proteins in the body that are involved in the disease process. The nurse explains that the drug is administered as an injection and the goal of treatment is to induce remission. What drug is the nurse describing? a. Sulfasalazine b. Prednisone c. Methotrexate d. Adalimumab
d. Adalimumab
32
Biologics used to achieve and maintain remission in IBD are not the same as other drugs as they are actrually?
antibodies! :)
33
What is the drug class name ending for biologics? and what is their route of administration?
" –mab," Injection or IV
34
biologics can increase the risk for?
infections and for certain types of cancer.
35
a total proctocolectomy with the creation of an ileostomy removes what portion of the bowels?
In this procedure, the entire large intestine will be removed (including the rectum and anus), and the anal opening will be sutured shut.
36
in clients who have a severe exacerbation of IBD – bad enough to need hospitalization – what protocol are they usually placed on to help the gut heal?
they’re usually made NPO, which is called “bowel rest”.
37
An elemental diet is composed of ?
simple nutrients that are easy to digest (amino acids, fatty acids, sugar, vitamins, and minerals). | do not need pancreatic enzymes for digestion
38
if a client cannot tolerate oral intake at all, what will be reccomended?
enteral or parenteral nutrition may be required.
39
total parenteral nutrition (or TPN) provides what % of a patients required nutrition
100% of a client’s required nutrition
40
TPN needs to be administered through what type of catheter?
central venous catheter
41
**A client is admitted to hospital with a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. The client is made NPO, and the healthcare team anticipates that the client will be unable to tolerate food for at least two weeks. What nutritional intervention should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this client?** a. Insertion of a nasogastric tube by the nurse, and initiation of enteral feeding b. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) c. Surgical insertion of a gastric tube, and initiation of enteral feeding d. Oral administration of an elemental feed
b. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
42
when a patient isn’t able to take in, or tolerate, nutrition that’s provided through the GI tract what is the order in which managment is provided?
1. oral nutrition 2. Enteral nutrition 3. parenteral nutrition
43
parenteral nutrition is reserved for a a)... GI tract.
a)... non-functioning
44
# 4 things TPN is typically only used in certain circumstances, such as?
1. impaired absorption of nutrients, 2. bowel rest, 3. GI motility disorders, 4. inability to maintain enteral access.
45
nurses can add any medications or ingredients to a parenteral nutrition bag after it’s been prepared. **True or false?**
FALSE!!!! TPN is sterile, bag should not be tampered with outside of pharmacy
46
A 2-in-1 formula of TPN contains ?
amino acids and dextrose | protein and carb
47
a 3-in-1 formula of TPN contains?
amino acids and dextrose and lipids | protein, carb and fat
48
If a TPN bag contains “heavy creaming”, what should the nurse do?
Return to sender. Depending on how much has separated will determine if bag is useable)
49
"Marbling" in a TPN bag means?
triglycerides aren’t just separating from the rest of the mixture… now they’re starting to clump together. | return to sender
50
how often should BG be checked in patients who are begun on TPN?
every 4 hours.
51
When a severely malnourished person starts TPN (or other nutritional intervention), the highest risk for re feeding syndrome usually occurs within the next a)... days ?
1-3 days.
52
In refeeding syndrome, the body begins breaking down a).. for energy which produces b).. This causes blood pH to c).. In order to resist pH change d).. shift into the cells and force e).. into the blood which is then peed out.
a) fats b) ketones c) decrease d) hydrogen ions e) potassium and magnesium
53
What ions are lost in refeeding syndrome?
magnesium, potassium, and phosphate
54
in critically ill patients who are receiving TPN, if triglyceride levels get too high, that can sometimes lead to ?
acute pancreatitis or fat overload syndrome
55
in order to catch a infection in patients with TPN, how often should temperature be checked?
every 6 hours.
56
Are NG tubes used for short term or long term use?
short term.
57
If we know that the tube will only be used for feeding, and not for suction, we can use a?
small-bore feeding tube
58
What rate is it reccomended to start enteral at? and then how much should you increase it?
10-40 mL/hr and then increase by 10-20 ml/ 8-12 hours
59
tube feeding tubes getting clogged can be prevented by?
routinely flushing the tube with water.
60
# 5 things Reason a person may get diarrhea from tube feeding?
1. The rate is too fast 2. the solution is too cold 3. not enough fiber in solution 4. solution is hypertonic 5. medications
61
symptoms of dumping syndrome include GI (6 things) Vasomotor (6 things)
GI: abdominal pain and cramping, nausea and vomiting, bloating, and diarrhea VASOMOTOR: diaphoresis, flushing, dizziness, hypotension, syncope, and palpitations.
62
what causes dumping syndrome?
caused by osmotic fluid shifts INTO the GI tract (caused by too fast administration of a hyperosmolar tube feed solution)
63
* What is “cachexia”?
= wasting syndrome that causes weakness + loss of weight, fat, and muscle
64
what layers of the GI tract are affected in ulcerative colitis
* Mucosa, submucosa
65
* What diet is recommended for a client with ulcerative colitis: o During acute phase (an acute exacerbation)?
 NPO
66
* What layers of the GI tract are affected by Crohn’s disease?
* All layers of bowel wall – transmural
67
* What type of feeding tube should be inserted if the client displays symptoms of delayed gastric emptying/motility?
* Nasoduodenal or nasojejunal tube
68
* What does it mean if a medication has a physical incompatibility with an enteral formula?
* It will cause mixture to thicken and clog feeding tube
69
* Are fat emulsions hypo-, hyper-, or isotonic?
* Isotonic = can infused through peripheral or central line